CDI 3- SPEIALIZED CRIME INVESTIGATION 2

Name:_________________________________ Date:_______________
Year/Section: _______________ Score:________________

1. A burned body found was subjected to autopsy; however examination of lungs and blood showed
no abnormal quantity of Carbon Monoxide or Dioxide, what will be your interpretation under
circumstance?
a. The person died because of burning
b. The person died because of asphyxia
c. The person was killed before he was burned
d. The person died not of fire because of suffocation

2. An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible in a court of law if it was made
in the presence of a counsel of his own choice and must be in ___.
a. the presence of a fiscal b. the presence of a police investigator
b. writing d. front of a judge

3. The law amending the definition of RAPE and reclassifying it, as a crime against person is
a. RA#7679 c. RA#8353
b. RA#7877 d. RA#8551

4. The questioning of a person in a formal and systematic way and is most often used to question
criminal suspects to determine their probable guilt or innocence.
a. inquiry b. interview
b. polygraph examination d. interrogation

5. In crime scene investigation, the first stage of processing a crime scene is

a. Observation of the crime scene
b. Photograph the crime scene
c. Preservation of the crime scene
d. Collection of physical evidence

6. Fiscal and Prosecutors are under the control and supervision of the ___.
a. National Bureau of Investigation
b. Department of the Interior and Local Government
c. Supreme Court
d. Department of Justice

7. Committed by any person who, with intent to gain but without violence or intimidation of persons
nor force upon things, shall take personal property of another without the latter’s consent.
a. Robbery c. Kidnapping
b. brigandage d. Theft

8. The Anti-Bouncing Check Law.

a. RA 6425 c. BP.22
b. RA 8353 d. RA 6975

9. The taking of another person’s personal property, with intent to

gain, by means of force and intimidation.
a. qualified theft b. robbery
 c. Theft d. malicious mischief

10. An examination of an individual’s person, houses, or effects or a building, or premises with the
purpose of discovering contraband or personal properties connected in a crime.
a. search b. raid
c. investigation d. seizure

11. Refers to all activities done with criminal intent in the cyberspace. Crimes committed with the use
of Information Technology, where computer, network, internet is the target and where the internet
is the place of activity.
a. Money laundering c. Human trafficking
b. Cybercrime d. Drug trafficking

12. What is the stage of a commission of a felony when all the elements necessary for its execution is
present?
a. Attempted c. Consummated
b. Frustrated d. Enumerated

13. PO1 “A” caught “ B “ one night in the act of removing the glass jalousies of the window of the
house of “C” which was closed. “ B “ had already detached the three glass blades. If A was
arrested, What crime should brought against B?
a. Attempted Robbery
b. Attempted trespass to dwelling
c. Attempted Theft
d. Consummated theft
e. Consumated to the space Dwelling

14. Pedro Penduko, a receiving teller of the Philippine National Bank, taking advantage of his
position, appropriated the amount of P1,000.00 which he had in his possession. What crime was
committed by Pedro Penduko?
a. Theft d. Estafa
b. Qualified theft e. Malversation
c. No crime was committed

15. To obtain admission and confession of guilt is the primary purpose of ___.
a. interview b. surveillance
c. investigation d. interrogation

16. A notary public issued a supposed copy of deed of safe, when in fact no such deed of sale was
prepared by him. A is liable for?
a. Estafa c. Falsification
b. Forgery d. All of these

17. Can a husband testify against the wife in an adultery case?

a. Yes, the privilege of marital communication rule is already abolished
b. Yes, under the law she is a competent witness
c. No
d. Yes, because crime charge is one committed by the wife against husband

18. The questioning of a person by law enforcement officers after that person has been taken into
custody.
a. preliminary investigation b. interrogation
b. custodial investigation d. cross examination
19. A is a supply officer of a Municipality. He entered on an agreement with B to supply the
Municipality with some office forms at the price grossly disadvantageous to the Municipality. The
agreement as part of the purchase price must be given to A. The transaction did NOT
materialized. A is may be liable for:
a. Attempted Estafa c. Frustrated Estafa
b. Attempted fraud d. Consummated fraud

20. A, the neighbor of B, shot the pig of B which was eating A’s camote plant’s. A thereafter cook the
pig’s meat consumed the same. What is A liable for?
a. Anti- fencing law d. Malicious mischief
b. Anti cuttle- rustling law e. Theft
c. Cruelty of animals

21. A treasury warrant was payable to A or his representative. B took possession of the warrant, wrote
the name of A, endorsed it the back and was able to encash it . B is liable for:
a. Estafa c. Falsification
b. Forgery d. All of these

22. What rule is observed when generally, there can be no evidence of a writing, the contents of
which is the subject matter of inquiry other than the original it self.
a. Secondary evidence c. hard evidence
b. Corollary evidence d. Parol evidence e. best evidence

23. In what instance can alibi (the weakest defense) acquire commensurate strength in evidential
value?
a. When it changes the burden of proof
b. When evidence for the prosecution is strong
c. Where no positive and proper identification has been satisfactory made
d. When questions on whether or not accused committed the offense is clear

24. A and B, living together as a husband and wife, but not married. A killed B. What crime does
committed?
a. Murder only d. Murder and Homicide
b. Homicide only e. Parricide only
c. None of these

25. A with intent to kill B, burn the house B. B died. What crime A committed?
a. Arson with murder d. Murder only
b. Arson Only e. All of the above
c. Homicide only

26. Which of the following evidence is the same, as that which is already given?
a. Corroborative evidence c. “Factum Evidence”
b. Cumulative evidence d. Testimonial evidence

27. A is walking a certain street, on his way, he found 100 pesos bill. A went in a certain restaurant
and spend the money to pay the food he eat, what did A committed?
a. Swindling d. Theft
b. Estafa e. Robbery
c. None of these
28. When is presented in court for admissibility considered relevant of the issue?
a. When it is not excluded by the rules
b. When it has a direct bearing and actual connection to the facts and issue
c. When it is not repugnant in taste
d. When it is not immoral

29. The body of the dead person is _______ if his death is at the issue.
a. Real evidence
b. Testimonial evidence if testified by medico – legal
c. Secondary evidence
d. Corroborative evidence of death
e. none of these

30. How should the plea to a “complaint” or “information” be made by the accused?
a. Personality, in open court and of record
b. By approval of the court and upon written request by the accused
c. Through counsel in open court and on record
d. None of these
31. Which of these statements of the suspect directly acknowledging his criminal guilt?
a. Admission c. Confession
b. Acknowledgement d. Deposition

32. A search Warrant is valid and can only be served once the date of issuance, within:
a.40 days d 30 days
b. 15 days e. Either or Neither
c. 10 days

33. Using diversionary tactics, the robbers deceive their victims by padding fake peso bills into real
ones.
a. Ativan gang c. Dugo-dugo gang
b. Budol-budol gang d. Salisi gang

34. Pedro stole the cow of Juan. What was the crime committed?
A. Robbery C. Qualified Theft
B. Farm Theft D. Simple Theft

35. It refers to the questioning where the interviewer asks more than one question at the same time.
A. Open-ended Questions C. Forced - choice Questions
B. Closed Questions D. Multiple Questions

36. It refers to the questions that require more definite and distinct answers.
A. Open-ended Questions C. Forced - choice Questions
B. Closed Questions D. Multiple Questions

37. The questioning of persons not suspected of being involved in a crime,but who knows about the
crime or individuals involved in it.
A. Interrogation
B. rumor mongering
C. interview
D. inquiry
38. It refers to the questions that greatly restrict the possible answers to those that you have
determined.
A. Open-ended Questions C. Forced - choice Questions
B. Closed Questions D. Multiple Questions

39. It refers to the questions that allow the suspect to reply with longer, more detailed responses and
lack direction from the interviewer.
A. Open-Ended Questions C. Forced - choice Questions
B. Closed Questions D. Multiple Questions

40. It refers to the questions that induce a particular reply and be judged to have manipulated the
interviewee.
A. Leading Questions C. Forced - choice Questions
B. Closed Questions D. Multiple Questions

41. It is defined as a structures conversation where one person or the “interviewer” seeks to gather
information from another or the “interviewee” as part of the investigation or intelligence
operation.
A. Investigative Interviewing C. Interview
B. Interrogation D. Behavior Analysis Interview

42. An objective of criminal investigation.

A. determine the motive C. rehabilitate criminals
B. identify criminals D. prevent crimes

43. It pertains to an oral or written statement acknowledging guilt.

A. Admission C. Factual Analysis
B. Confession D. Interrogation

44. It refers to the express or implied statement tending to support the suspect’s involvement in the
crime, but insufficient by itself to prove guilt.
A. Admission C. Factual Analysis
B. Confession D. Interrogation

45. It is process of questioning by which police obtain evidence.

A. Investigative Interviewing C. Interview
B. Interrogation D. Behavior Analysis Interview

46. This type of evidence include contract of employment/business permits, photographs, videos,
publications, records, police records, forensic reports and other pertinent documents.
A. Testimonial Evidence C. Documentary evidence
B. Paper Evidence D. Object Evidence

47. This type of evidence include affidavit of the complainant and witnesses.
A. Testimonial Evidence C. Documentary evidence
B. Paper Evidence D. Object Evidence

48. The simple questioning of a person who is cooperating in the investigation.

A. Interview
B. Inquiry
C. Interrogation
D. Instrumentation
49. This type of evidence include computers, electronic devices and instruments used in taking and
distribution of pornography and means to control and the child victims.
A. Testimonial Evidence C. Documentary evidence
B. Paper Evidence D. Object Evidence

50. This is an act in violation Anti-Child Pornography Act.

A. RA 9775 C. RA 9777
B. RA 9776 D. RA 9778

51. SIM stands for ____.

A. Subscriber Identifying Module C. Subscriber Identity Module
B. Subscriber Identity Moment D. Subscriber Identify Moment

52. The three tools in criminal investigation, whereby their application varies in proportion on their
necessity to establish the guilt of the accused in a criminal case.
A. information, interrogation, instrumentation
B. detection, apprehension, conviction ‘
C. inquiry, observation, conclusion
D. magnifying glass, pencil, tape measure

53. PNP - ACG stands for _____.

A. Philippine National Police Anti- Cybercrime Group
B. Philippine National Police Anti -Crime Rate Group
C. Philippine National Police Anti -Crime Campaign Group
D. Philippine National Police Anti -Crime security Group

54. NBI - CCD stand for ______.

A. National Bureau of Investigation Cybercrime Devotion
B. National Bureau of Investigation Cybercrime Department
C. National Bureau of Investigation Cybercrime District
D. National Bureau of Investigation Cybercrime Division

55. Crimes that are directed to a person’s belongings, intellectual properties and money
A. Crime against property C. robbery
B. theft D. Malicious mischief

56. It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling short of an acknowledgement of

guilt.
a. admission b. confession
c. deposition d. accusation

57. A term that describes an individual or group's habitual way of operating, which represents a
discernible pattern
A. Motive C. Financial Report
B. Modus Operandi D. Evidence

58. It includes the names, aliases and nicknames of the suspect(s), the present address, occupation,
places of enjoyment, habits, associates, family history, and past criminal records and physical
descriptions.
A. Evidence C. Suspects
B. Crime Reports D. Photograph

59. This pertains to the reason or reasons why the suspect committed the crime.
A. Motive C. Financial Report
B. Modus Operandi D. Evidence

60. Statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his guilt.

a. admission b. confession
c. deposition d. accusation

61. This refers to the additional information to be reported.

A. Financial Reports C. Subsequent Reporting
B. Reports D. Additional Reports

62. The following are example of this type of evidence: photographs, videos, police reports, and other
documents
A. Testimonial Evidence C. Documentary Evidence
B. Object Evidence D. Physical Evidence

63. It may be a direct acknowledgement of the truth of the guilty fact as charge or of some essential
part of the commission of the criminal act itself.
a. admission b. confession
c. deposition d. accusation

64. The following are example of this type of evidence: affidavit of complaint and witnesses
A. Testimonial Evidence C. Documentary Evidence
B. Object Evidence D. Physical Evidence

65. It is public and malicious imputation of a crime, or of a vice or defect, real or imaginary, or any
act, omission, condition, status, or circumstance tending to cause the dishonor, discredit, or
contempt of a natural or judicial person, or to blacken the memory of one who is dead.
a.Cyber Libel c. Libel
b. Cybercrime d. Defamation

66. A search warrant shall be valid for _____ days from its date. Thereafter, it shall be void.
a. 10 b. 15
c. 30 d. 45

67. The willful engagement, maintenance, control, or operation, directly or indirectly, of any
lascivious exhibition of sexual organs or sexual activity, with the aid of a computer system, for
favor or consideration.
a.Child Sexual Exploitation c. Human Traficking
b. Cybersex d.Private Communication

68. This refers to the acquisition of a domain name over the internet in bad faith to profit, mislead,
destroy reputation, and deprive other from registering the same, if such a domain name.
a.Cyber Sexual Exploitation c. Cybersex
b. Cybersquatting d. Cyber libel

69. It is the act of trading and dealing with children including, but not limited to, the act of buying and
selling of a child for money, or for any other consideration, or barter.
a.Child trafficking c. Drug Trafficking
b. Human Trafficking d. None of these

70. Republic Act No. 7610 is also known as ____.

a. Special Protection of a Child Against Abuse, Exploitation and Discrimination Act.
b. Special Protection of Children Against Abuse, Exploitation and Discrimination Act.
c. Special Protection of Human Against Abuse, Exploitation and Discrimination Act.
d. Special Protection of Adult Against Abuse, Exploitation and Discrimination Act.
71. Republic Act No. 9775 is also known as ____.
a. Anti-Child Pornography Act of 2007
b. Anti-Child Pornography Act of 2008
c. Anti-Child Pornography Act of 2009
d. Anti-Child Pornography Act of 2010

72. Republic Act No. 11075 is also known as ____.

a. Cyber Libel Prevention Act of 2012
b. Cybersex Prevention Act of 2012
c. Cybersquatting Prevention Act of 2012
d. Cybercrime Prevention Act of 2012

73. It is also known as computer crime.

a.Cyber Crime c. Cybersex
b. Cybersquatting d. Cyber libel

74. It is the use of a computer as an instrument to further illegal ends

a.Cyber Crime c. Cybersex
b. Cybersquatting d. Cyber libel

75. Batas Pambasnsa Bilang 22 is also known as ___

a.Anti - Bounding Check Law c. Anti - Bouncing Check Law
b. Anti - Bound Check Law d. Anti - Round Check Law

76. Presidential Decree No. 532 is also known as ___

a. Anti - Piracy and Anti-Highway Robbery Law of 1964
b. Anti - Piracy and Highway Robbery Law of 1964
c. Piracy and Anti-Highway Robbery Law of 1964
d. Piracy and Highway Robbery Law of 1964

77. It is one of the sources of the Philippine Criminal Law, aside from the Revised Penal Code.
a. Penal Code c. Special Penal Code
b. Revised Penal Code d. Filipino Penal Code

78. Republic Act 381, of 1930, is commonly known as ___.

a. Penal Code of the Philippines
b. Special Penal Code of the Philippines
c. Revised Penal Code of the Philippines
d. Filipino Penal Code of the Philippines

79. It is the intentional burning or setting fire to the property of another or own property under
circumstances which expose to danger the life or property of another.
a. Arson c. Fire Tech
b. Fire Crime d. Destructive Arson

80. These are attempts against another’s property inspired sometimes by hatred or a desire for revenge
and sometimes by the mere desire for pleasure.
a. Littering c. Malicious Mischief
b.loittering d. Vandalism
81. Culpabale Insolvency is also known as ____.
a. Capable Insolvency c. Fraud Insolvency
b.Fraudulent Insolvency d. Fraudable Insolvency

82. Swindling is also known as ___

a. Fraudulent c. Estafa
b. Fraud d. Damage to property

83. It is the carrying away of someone else property that is an element of larceny.
a. Asportation c. Damage to property
b.Lost Property d. Hunting or Gathering

84. The perpetrator finds a lost item/property and failed or did note intend to deliver the lost property
to its rightful owner.
a. Asportation c. Damage to property
b.Lost Property d. Hunting or Gathering

85. The offender maliciously damages the property of others, and he removes or makes use of the
fruits or objects of the damage caused by him.
a. Asportation c. Damage to property
b.Lost Property d. Hunting or Gathering

86. The violator enters an enclosed estate or a field without any consent of the owner, and where
trespass is forbidden.
a. Asportation c. Damage to property
b.Lost Property d. Hunting or Gathering

87. According to the 1930 Revised Penal Code of Philippines , it is committed by any person who,
with intent to gain but without violence against or intimidation of persons nor force upon things,
shall take personal property of another without the latter’s consent.
a. Usurpation c. Qualified Theft
b.Unqualified Theft d. Theft

88. They are also known as Highway Robbers.

a. Briganda c. Brigada
b.Brigands d. Brigadir

89. It is theft accomplished by violence or the threat of violence

a. Robbery c. Qualified Theft
b.Robber d. Theft

90. It is an act of making or drawing and issuance of check without sufficient funds of credit.
a. Phishing c. Hacking
b.Bouncing checks d. Cyber Phishing

91. Crimes involve crossing or violating boundaries of other people digitally.

a. Cyber-Trespass c. Ceber-Porn and Obscenity
b.Cyber - Deception and Theft d. Cyber-Violence

92. This involves offenses such as online fraud and IP theft.

a. Cyber-Trespass c. Ceber-Porn and Obscenity
b.Cyber - Deception and Theft d. Cyber-Violence
93. This involves the exploitation of children and distribution of porn materials through the internet.
a. Cyber-Trespass c. Cyber-Porn and Obscenity
b.Cyber - Deception and Theft d. Cyber-Violence

94. This refers to the kind of emotional violence that can be enacted online such as bullying or
harassment.
a. Cyber-Trespass c. Ceber-Porn and Obscenity
b.Cyber - Deception and Theft d. Cyber-Violence

95. It a type of malicious code or program written to alter the way a computer operates and is
designed to spread from one computer to another.
a. Computer Virus c. I Love You Virus
b. Resident Virus d. Direct Action Virus

96. It refers to declaration of a dying person.

a. Dying Declaration c. Act or Declaration about Pedigree
b. Declaration Against Interest d. Family Declaration

97. It is exclusionary rule, prohibiting hearsay or out of court statements offered as proof of that
statement, from being admitted as evidence because of the inability of the other party to cross-
examine the maker of the statement.
a. Interest Rule c. Hearsay Rule
b.Hershey Rule d. Rumor Rule

98. This is one of the classifications of physical evidence that includes cigarette butts, jewelry,
matches, spoon and fork, syringe, broken finger nails, magnetic tape, recording or writing
instruments, tapes that can link a person to a crime scene, etc.
a. Questioned documents c. Miscellaneous Evidence
b. Hair and fiber d. Impressions

99. It is the focus of the preliminary investigation and also the primary source of physical evidence.
a. The Evidence c. The Victim
b.The Suspect d. The Crime Scene

100. It can be prime sources of physical evidence.

a. The Evidence c. The Victim
b.The Suspect d. The Crime Scene