GENERAL BIOLOGY EXAMPLE QUIZ

1. Which of the following describes Recombinant DNA Technology?

a. A technique for isolating DNA from cells
b. A method for splicing DNA from different sources to create novel DNA molecules
c. A process for sequencing entire genomes
d. A method for identifying individuals based on their DNA fingerprints

2. What is the primary goal of gene manipulation or gene transplant?

a. To clone organisms
b. To introduce foreign genes into an organism's genome
c. To study the structure of DNA molecules
d. To extract DNA from cells for analysis

3. Which enzyme is commonly used to cut DNA at specific sequences in recombinant DNA technology?
a. DNA polymerase
b. DNA ligase
c. Restriction enzyme
d. RNA polymerase

4. What is the function of a plasmid in recombinant DNA technology?

a. To carry foreign DNA into a host cell
b. To amplify DNA fragments
c. To sequence DNA
d. To cut DNA at specific sequences

5. What is the purpose of DNA ligase in recombinant DNA technology?

a. To separate DNA strands
b. To amplify DNA fragments
c. To join DNA fragments together
d. To transcribe DNA into RNA

6. Which technique is used to join DNA fragments together in recombinant DNA technology?
a. Gel electrophoresis
b. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
c. DNA ligation
d. DNA sequencing

7. What is the main advantage of using recombinant DNA technology?

a. It allows for the rapid sequencing of entire genomes
b. It facilitates the production of genetically modified organisms
c. It enables the isolation of pure DNA from cells
d. It is used to identify individuals based on their DNA fingerprints

8. Which of the following is not a characteristic of gene manipulation?

 a. It involves the transfer of genes between organisms
b. It can be used to create transgenic organisms
c. It relies solely on natural genetic variation
d. It can be used to produce desired traits in organisms

9. What is the primary purpose of gene transplant?

a. To treat genetic disorders by replacing defective genes with functional ones
b. To create genetically modified organisms for agricultural purposes
c. To clone organisms for scientific research
d. To study the structure of DNA molecules

10. Which of the following enzymes is responsible for synthesizing RNA from a DNA template?
a. DNA polymerase
b. RNA ligase
c. RNA polymerase
d. DNA ligase

11. What is the role of DNA ligase in recombinant DNA technology?

a. It cuts DNA at specific sequences
b. It amplifies DNA fragments
c. It joins DNA fragments together
d. It transcribes DNA into RNA

12. What is the function of a plasmid in recombinant DNA technology?

a. To cut DNA at specific sequences
b. To amplify DNA fragments
c. To carry foreign DNA into a host cell
d. To sequence DNA

13. Which technique is used to join DNA fragments together in recombinant DNA technology?
a. Gel electrophoresis
b. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
c. DNA ligation
d. DNA sequencing

14. What is the main advantage of using recombinant DNA technology?

a. It allows for the rapid sequencing of entire genomes
b. It facilitates the production of genetically modified organisms
c. It enables the isolation of pure DNA from cells
d. It is used to identify individuals based on their DNA fingerprints

15. Which of the following is not a characteristic of gene manipulation?

a. It involves the transfer of genes between organisms
b. It can be used to create transgenic organisms
c. It relies solely on natural genetic variation
d. It can be used to produce desired traits in organisms

16. What is the primary purpose of gene transplant?

a. To treat genetic disorders by replacing defective genes with functional ones
b. To create genetically modified organisms for agricultural purposes
c. To clone organisms for scientific research
d. To study the structure of DNA molecules
17. Which enzyme is commonly used to cut DNA at specific sequences in recombinant DNA technology?
a. DNA polymerase
b. DNA ligase
c. Restriction enzyme
d. RNA polymerase

18. What is the function of a plasmid in recombinant DNA technology?

a. To carry foreign DNA into a host cell
b. To amplify DNA fragments
c. To sequence DNA
d. To cut DNA at specific sequences

19. What is the purpose of DNA ligase in recombinant DNA technology?

a. To separate DNA strands
b. To amplify DNA fragments
c. To join DNA fragments together
d. To transcribe DNA into RNA

20. Which technique is used to join DNA fragments together in recombinant DNA technology?
a. Gel electrophoresis
b. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
c. DNA ligation
d. DNA sequencing

21. What is the main purpose of cloning?

a. To create genetically identical copies of organisms
b. To produce diverse offspring with desirable traits
c. To study the genetic variation within a population
d. To sequence entire genomes

22. Which of the following is true about the expression of cloned genes?
a. It involves the replication of DNA sequences
b. It allows for the production of proteins encoded by the cloned genes
c. It only occurs in bacteria
d. It does not involve transcription or translation processes

23. What is the role of a vector in gene expression cloning?

a. To amplify DNA fragments
b. To carry foreign DNA into host cells
c. To sequence DNA
d. To cut DNA at specific sequences

24. Which enzyme is commonly used to insert cloned genes into host cells during gene expression cloning?
a. DNA polymerase
b. DNA ligase
c. RNA polymerase
d. Restriction enzyme

25. What is the primary purpose of gene expression cloning?

a. To produce genetically modified organisms
b. To study the structure of DNA molecules
c. To isolate pure DNA from cells
d. To produce proteins encoded by cloned genes
26. Which of the following is not a step in the process of gene expression cloning?
a. Inserting the cloned gene into a vector
b. Amplifying the DNA fragment using PCR
c. Transcribing the DNA into RNA
d. Translating the RNA into protein

27. What is the function of a promoter sequence in gene expression cloning?

a. To initiate transcription of the cloned gene
b. To terminate transcription of the cloned gene
c. To amplify the cloned gene
d. To cut DNA at specific sequences

28. Which technique is used to introduce cloned genes into host cells during gene expression cloning?
a. Electrophoresis
b. Transformation
c. PCR
d. Gel electrophoresis

29. What is the purpose of a selectable marker in gene expression cloning?

a. To identify transformed cells
b. To amplify DNA fragments
c. To sequence DNA
d. To cut DNA at specific sequences

30. Which of the following is not a commonly used host organism for gene expression cloning?
a. Bacteria
b. Yeast
c. Plants
d. Animals

31. What is the primary goal of gene expression cloning?

a. To create genetically identical copies of organisms
b. To produce proteins encoded by cloned genes
c. To study the genetic variation within a population
d. To sequence entire genomes

32. What is the role of a vector in gene expression cloning?

a. To amplify DNA fragments
b. To carry foreign DNA into host cells
c. To sequence DNA
d. To cut DNA at specific sequences

33. Which enzyme is commonly used to insert cloned genes into host cells during gene expression cloning?
a. DNA polymerase
b. DNA ligase
c. RNA polymerase
d. Restriction enzyme

34. What is the primary purpose of gene expression cloning?

a. To produce genetically modified organisms
b. To study the structure of DNA molecules
c. To isolate pure DNA from cells
d. To produce proteins encoded by cloned genes
35. Which of the following is not a step in the process of gene expression cloning?
a. Inserting the cloned gene into a vector
b. Amplifying the DNA fragment using PCR
c. Transcribing the DNA into RNA
d. Translating the RNA into protein

36. What is the function of a promoter sequence in gene expression cloning?

a. To initiate transcription of the cloned gene
b. To terminate transcription of the cloned gene
c. To amplify the cloned gene
d. To cut DNA at specific sequences

37. Which technique is used to introduce cloned genes into host cells during gene expression cloning?
a. Electrophoresis
b. Transformation
c. PCR
d. Gel electrophoresis

38. What is the purpose of a selectable marker in gene expression cloning?

a. To identify transformed cells
b. To amplify DNA fragments
c. To sequence DNA
d. To cut DNA at specific sequences

39. Which of the following is not a commonly used host organism for gene expression cloning?
a. Bacteria
b. Yeast
c. Plants
d. Animals

40. What is the primary goal of gene expression cloning?

a. To create genetically identical copies of organisms
b. To produce proteins encoded by cloned genes
c. To study the genetic variation within a population
d. To sequence entire genomes

41. DNA fingerprinting is a technique used to identify individuals by analyzing their unique:
a. Hair color
b. DNA patterns
c. Eye color
d. Fingerprints

42. Who is credited with the discovery of DNA fingerprinting?

a. James Watson
b. Francis Crick
c. Alec Jeffreys
d. Kary Mullis

43. What year was DNA fingerprinting first used in a criminal case?
a. 1975
b. 1985
c. 1995
d. 2005
44. Which bodily samples can be used for DNA fingerprinting?
a. Blood
b. Saliva
c. Hair
d. All of the above

45. The first criminal convicted using DNA fingerprinting was in which country?
a. United States
b. United Kingdom
c. Australia
d. Canada

46. DNA fingerprinting can be used for all of the following purposes except:
a. Paternity testing
b. Forensic identification
c. Studying genetic variation within populations
d. Identifying the source of genetic diseases

47. What is the first step in the DNA fingerprinting process?

a. DNA extraction
b. PCR amplification
c. Gel electrophoresis
d. DNA sequencing

48. Which technique is used to separate DNA fragments in DNA fingerprinting?

a. PCR
b. Gel electrophoresis
c. Cloning
d. Sequencing

49. In DNA fingerprinting, what type of DNA sequences are typically analyzed?
a. Introns
b. Exons
c. Microsatellites
d. Codons

50. Which of the following is not a type of DNA marker used in DNA fingerprinting?
a. Short tandem repeats (STRs)
b. Variable number tandem repeats (VNTRs)
c. Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs)
d. mRNA sequences

51. What is the purpose of PCR amplification in DNA fingerprinting?

a. To increase the quantity of DNA for analysis
b. To cut DNA at specific sequences
c. To sequence the DNA fragments
d. To purify the DNA samples

52. Which enzyme is used to replicate DNA fragments in PCR amplification?

a. DNA polymerase
b. RNA polymerase
c. Ligase
d. Helicase
53. What is the significance of variable number tandem repeats (VNTRs) in DNA fingerprinting?
a. They are highly variable among individuals
b. They are conserved across all species
c. They are found only in coding regions of DNA
d. They are resistant to degradation

54. How are DNA fragments visualized after gel electrophoresis in DNA fingerprinting?
a. Through fluorescence
b. Through staining with ethidium bromide
c. Through autoradiography
d. Through chemiluminescence

55. In DNA fingerprinting, what do the bands on the gel represent?

a. Different individuals
b. Different alleles at a specific locus
c. Different chromosomes
d. Different species

56. What is the term used to describe the process of comparing DNA fingerprints from different sources?
a. Gel electrophoresis
b. DNA sequencing
c. DNA profiling
d. DNA replication

57. What is the probability of two individuals having the same DNA fingerprint?
a. 0%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. It depends on the number of loci analyzed

58. Which of the following is a limitation of DNA fingerprinting?

a. It requires a large amount of DNA
b. It is time-consuming
c. It cannot distinguish between identical twins
d. It is not accurate

59. What is the name of the database used to store DNA profiles for forensic identification?
a. CODIS
b. NCBI
c. BLAST
d. GenBank

60. What is the term used to describe the unique pattern of DNA fragments obtained from an individual in DNA fingerprinting?
a. DNA sequence
b. DNA profile
c. DNA marker
d. DNA template

61. When was the Human Genome Project officially launched?

a. 1980
b. 1990
c. 2000
d. 2010
62. What was the primary goal of the Human Genome Project?
a. To clone humans
b. To sequence the entire human genome
c. To develop gene therapy techniques
d. To study genetic mutations in humans

63. Who proposed the idea of sequencing the human genome in 1985?
a. Francis Crick
b. James Watson
c. Charles DeLisi
d. Craig Venter

64. Which country was the primary funder of the Human Genome Project?
a. United States
b. United Kingdom
c. Japan
d. Germany

65. When was the Human Genome Project declared complete?

a. 1998
b. 2000
c. 2002
d. 2005

66. What is the purpose of gene therapy?

a. To alter the human genome
b. To cure genetic diseases
c. To enhance human intelligence
d. To clone humans

67. Which of the following is NOT a method used in gene therapy?

a. Insertion of a healthy gene into the patient's cells
b. Deletion of mutated genes
c. Inactivation of mutated genes
d. Introduction of viruses into the patient's body

68. Which vector is commonly used in gene therapy to deliver genes into target cells?
a. Retrovirus
b. Plasmid
c. Bacteriophage
d. Cosmid

69. What is ex vivo gene therapy?

a. Therapy performed inside the patient's body
b. Therapy involving manipulation of cells outside the body
c. Therapy using viral vectors
d. Therapy using non-viral vectors

70. What is an example of an in vivo gene therapy approach?

a. Injecting modified cells into the patient's body
b. Editing genes in a laboratory
c. Cloning genes for transplantation
d. Modifying genes in embryos
71. What are the two main types of vectors used in gene therapy?
a. DNA and RNA vectors
b. Viral and bacterial vectors
c. Viral and non-viral vectors
d. Retroviral and adenoviral vectors

72. What is the goal of gene replacement therapy?

a. To remove genes from the genome
b. To replace mutated genes with healthy ones
c. To inactivate genes causing diseases
d. To induce mutations in specific genes

73. Which disease was the first to be successfully treated using gene therapy?
a. Cancer
b. Cystic fibrosis
c. Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
d. Alzheimer's disease

74. What is the Human Genome Project's contribution to gene therapy?

a. It provided funding for gene therapy research
b. It identified genes associated with diseases
c. It developed gene editing techniques
d. It cloned the first human gene

75. What is the purpose of the Human Genome Project's database?

a. To store genetic information of all living organisms
b. To facilitate gene therapy clinical trials
c. To provide free access to genomic data for research
d. To sequence the entire human genome multiple times

76. Which technology was NOT accelerated by the Human Genome Project?
a. DNA sequencing
b. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
c. Gene editing
d. Bioinformatics

77. What is the primary challenge of gene therapy?

a. Lack of suitable vectors
b. Difficulty in identifying disease-causing genes
c. High cost of treatment
d. Risk of immune response and side effects

78. Which of the following is a potential application of gene therapy?

a. Changing physical appearance
b. Enhancing athletic performance
c. Curing genetic diseases
d. Increasing lifespan

79. What is the function of the CRISPR-Cas9 system in gene therapy?

a. To insert genes into target cells
b. To edit specific DNA sequences
c. To deliver genes into the patient's body
d. To identify disease-causing genes
80. Which of the following is a limitation of gene therapy?
a. It can only treat infectious diseases
b. It is ineffective for treating genetic disorders
c. It may cause unintended mutations
d. It requires invasive surgical procedures

81. What does PCR stand for?

a. Polymerase Central Reaction
b. Polymerization Chain Response
c. Polymerase Chain Reaction
d. Polymerase Conversion Rate

82. Who developed the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) technique?

a. James Watson
b. Kary Mullis
c. Francis Crick
d. Rosalind Franklin

83. Which enzyme is commonly used in PCR for DNA synthesis?

a. DNA Ligase
b. RNA Polymerase
c. DNA Polymerase
d. Reverse Transcriptase

84. At what temperature does the denaturation step occur in PCR?

a. 72°C
b. 55°C
c. 94°C
d. 37°C

85. What is the purpose of the annealing step in PCR?

a. To separate DNA strands
b. To add nucleotides to the primer
c. To amplify DNA segments
d. To allow primers to bind to template DNA

86. Which of the following is NOT a component of a PCR reaction mixture?

a. DNA template
b. Primers
c. RNA polymerase
d. dNTPs (deoxynucleotide triphosphates)

87. What is the function of the extension step in PCR?

a. Amplification of DNA segments
b. Attachment of primers to DNA strands
c. Synthesis of complementary DNA strands
d. Denaturation of DNA strands

88. Which type of DNA polymerase is commonly used in PCR?

a. Taq DNA Polymerase
b. RNA Polymerase
c. DNA Ligase
d. Reverse Transcriptase
89. Magnesium and potassium provide optimum conditions for DNA denaturation and renaturation. They are also important for
fidelity, polymerase activity, and stability. What component of PCR provides these ions?
a. Primers
b. Buffer system
c. Taq Polymerase
d. PCR machine

90. What is the main purpose of PCR?

a. To sequence DNA
b. To amplify DNA segments
c. To cut DNA strands
d. To clone DNA

91. What is the role of the thermal cycler in PCR?

a. It measures DNA concentration
b. It provides heat for denaturation and annealing
c. It analyzes DNA sequences
d. It extracts DNA from cells

92. Which of the following is NOT a step in the PCR cycle?

a. Denaturation
b. Ligation
c. Annealing
d. Extension

93. What is the purpose of the PCR primer?

a. To initiate DNA replication
b. To provide energy for polymerization
c. To amplify specific DNA sequences
d. To label DNA strands

94. What is the minimum number of cycles required in PCR to amplify a DNA fragment by a factor of 1000?
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40

95. What is the significance of the denaturation step in PCR?

a. It separates DNA strands
b. It adds primers to DNA
c. It synthesizes new DNA strands
d. It amplifies DNA segments

96. What is the function of the PCR machine during the PCR process?
a. It synthesizes primers
b. It amplifies DNA segments
c. It measures DNA concentration
d. It sequences DNA

97. Which of the following is NOT a type of PCR?

a. Real-time PCR
b. Reverse Transcriptase PCR
c. Western Blot PCR
 d. Nested PCR

98. What is the temperature range for the annealing step in PCR?
a. 55-60°C
b. 70-75°C
c. 90-95°C
d. 35-40°C

99. What is the role of dNTPs in PCR?

a. To bind to primers
b. To amplify DNA segments
c. To synthesize new DNA strands
d. To label DNA fragments

100.Which of the following is a limitation of traditional PCR?

a. It is slow and labor-intensive
b. It requires expensive equipment
c. It produces inaccurate results
d. It cannot amplify large DNA fragments

101.What is the central dogma of molecular biology?

a. DNA replication → RNA transcription → Protein translation
b. Protein translation → RNA transcription → DNA replication
c. RNA transcription → Protein translation → DNA replication
d. DNA replication → Protein translation → RNA transcription

102.Which molecule carries genetic information from the nucleus to the cytoplasm during protein synthesis?
a. DNA
b. mRNA
c. tRNA
d. rRNA

103.What process is responsible for copying genetic information from DNA to RNA?
a. Translation
b. Transcription
c. Replication
d. Transformation

104.Which enzyme is responsible for RNA transcription?

a. DNA polymerase
b. RNA polymerase
c. DNA ligase
d. Reverse transcriptase

105.What is the function of mRNA in the central dogma?

a. To carry amino acids during protein synthesis
b. To act as a template for DNA replication
c. To deliver genetic information from DNA to ribosomes
d. To store genetic information in the nucleus

106.What is the process by which mRNA is decoded to produce a specific protein?

a. Transcription
b. Translation
c. Replication
 d. Reverse transcription

107.During translation, which cellular structure reads the mRNA codons and assembles the corresponding amino acids into a
polypeptide chain?
a. Ribosome
b. Nucleus
c. Golgi apparatus
d. Endoplasmic reticulum

108.What is the function of tRNA in the central dogma?

a. To replicate DNA
b. To transcribe mRNA
c. To translate mRNA into protein
d. To carry amino acids to the ribosome

109.What is the role of ribosomes in protein synthesis?

a. To replicate DNA
b. To transcribe mRNA
c. To translate mRNA into protein
d. To carry amino acids to the ribosome

110.Which of the following accurately represents the flow of genetic information in the central dogma?
a. DNA → mRNA → protein
b. mRNA → DNA → protein
c. DNA → protein → mRNA
d. mRNA → protein → DNA

111.What is the significance of the genetic code in the central dogma?

a. It determines the sequence of amino acids in a protein
b. It regulates DNA replication
c. It controls transcription
d. It catalyzes translation

112.What is the role of DNA polymerase in the central dogma?

a. To synthesize RNA from a DNA template
b. To synthesize DNA from an RNA template
c. To replicate DNA during cell division
d. To transcribe mRNA into protein

113.Which of the following is NOT involved in the central dogma?

a. DNA
b. RNA
c. Lipids
d. Proteins

114.What is the function of DNA ligase in the central dogma?

a. To unwind DNA strands during replication
b. To repair damaged DNA
c. To synthesize RNA from a DNA template
d. To transcribe mRNA into protein

115.What is the primary function of the nucleus in the context of the central dogma?
a. Protein synthesis
b. DNA replication
 c. RNA transcription
d. Ribosome assembly

116.Which of the following molecules carries out the actual process of translation?
a. DNA polymerase
b. RNA polymerase
c. Ribosome
d. DNA ligase

117.What is the significance of the central dogma in biology?

a. It explains the flow of genetic information within cells
b. It describes the structure of DNA
c. It regulates cellular metabolism
d. It controls cellular respiration

118.What is the complementary mRNA sequence to the DNA strand: ATG-CGA-TTA?

a. UAC-GCU-AAU
b. TAC-GCT-AAT
c. AUG-CGA-UUA
d. UAG-GCU-AAC

119.What is the function of RNA polymerase in the central dogma?

a. To synthesize RNA from a DNA template
b. To replicate DNA during cell division
c. To repair damaged DNA
d. To transcribe mRNA into protein

120.What is the role of RNA splicing in the central dogma?

a. To remove introns from pre-mRNA
b. To transcribe mRNA into protein
c. To replicate DNA during cell division
d. To repair damaged DNA

ANSWER KEY

121. b. A method for splicing DNA from different sources to create novel DNA molecules
122. b. To introduce foreign genes into an organism’s genome
123. c. Restriction enzyme
124. a. To carry foreign DNA into a host cell
125. c. To join DNA fragments together
126. c. DNA ligation
127. b. It facilitates the production of genetically modified organisms
128. c. It relies solely on natural genetic variation
129. a. To treat genetic disorders by replacing defective genes with functional ones
130. c. RNA polymerase
131. c. To join DNA fragments together
132. a. To carry foreign DNA into a host cell
133. c. DNA ligation
134. b. It facilitates the production of genetically modified organisms
135. c. It relies solely on natural genetic variation
136. a. To treat genetic disorders by replacing defective genes with functional ones
137. c. RNA polymerase
138. a. To carry foreign DNA into a host cell
139. b. DNA ligase
140. d. To produce proteins encoded by cloned genes
141. a. To create genetically identical copies of organisms
142. b. It allows for the production of proteins encoded by the cloned genes
143. b. To carry foreign DNA into host cells
144. b. DNA ligase
145. d. To produce proteins encoded by cloned genes
146. b. Amplifying the DNA fragment using PCR
147. a. To initiate transcription of the cloned gene
148. b. Transformation
149. a. To identify transformed cells
150. d. Animals
151. b. To produce proteins encoded by cloned genes
152. b. To carry foreign DNA into host cells
153. b. DNA ligase
154. d. To produce proteins encoded by cloned genes
155. d. Translating the RNA into protein
156. a. To initiate transcription of the cloned gene
157. b. Transformation
158. a. To identify transformed cells
159. d. Animals
160. b. To produce proteins encoded by cloned genes
161. b. DNA patterns
162. c. Alec Jeffreys
163. b. 1985
164. d. All of the above
165. b. United Kingdom
166. d. Identifying the source of genetic diseases
167. a. DNA extraction
168. b. Gel electrophoresis
169. c. Microsatellites
170. d. mRNA sequences
171. a. To increase the quantity of DNA for analysis
172. a. DNA polymerase
173. a. They are highly variable among individuals
174. b. Through staining with ethidium bromide
175. b. Different alleles at a specific locus
176. c. DNA profiling
177. d. It depends on the number of loci analyzed
178. c. It cannot distinguish between identical twins
179. a. CODIS
180. b. DNA profile
181. b. 1990
182. b. To sequence the entire human genome
183. c. Charles DeLisi
184. a. United States
185. c. 2002
186. b. To cure genetic diseases
187. d. Introduction of viruses into the patient’s body
188. a. Retrovirus
189. b. Therapy involving manipulation of cells outside the body
190. a. Injecting modified cells into the patient’s body
191. c. Viral and non-viral vectors
192. b. To replace mutated genes with healthy ones
193. c. Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
194. b. It identified genes associated with diseases
195. c. To provide free access to genomic data for research
196. d. Bioinformatics
197. d. Risk of immune response and side effects
198. c. Curing genetic diseases
199. b. To edit specific DNA sequences
200. c. It may cause unintended mutations
201. c. Polymerase Chain Reaction
202. b. Kary Mullis
203. c. DNA Polymerase
204. c. 94°C
205. d. To allow primers to bind to template DNA
206. c. RNA polymerase
207. c. Synthesis of complementary DNA strands
208. a. Taq DNA Polymerase
209. b. Buffer system
210. b. To amplify DNA segments
211. b. It provides heat for denaturation and annealing
212. b. Ligation
213. c. To amplify specific DNA sequences
214. c. 30
215. a. It separates DNA strands
216. b. It amplifies DNA segments
217. c. Western Blot PCR
218. a. 55-60°C
219. c. To synthesize new DNA strands
220. a. It is slow and labor-intensive
221. a. DNA replication → RNA transcription → Protein translation
222. b. mRNA
223. b. Transcription
224. b. RNA polymerase
225. c. To deliver genetic information from DNA to ribosomes
226. b. Translation
227. a. Ribosome
228. d. To carry amino acids to the ribosome
229. c. To translate mRNA into protein
230. a. DNA → mRNA → protein
231. a. It determines the sequence of amino acids in a protein
232. c. To replicate DNA during cell division
233. c. Lipids
234. b. To repair damaged DNA
235. c. RNA transcription
236. c. Ribosome
237. a. It explains the flow of genetic information within cells
238. c. AUG-CGA-UUA
239. a. To synthesize RNA from a DNA template
240. a. To remove introns from pre-mRNA