All India Test Series - 28.02.

2023
06. Let K 1 be the maximum kinetic energy of
photoelectrons emitted by light of wavelength
SECTION - A 1 and K2 corresponding to wavelength  2 . If
01. The photoelectric current in a photoelectric cell 1  22 then :
depends upon :
(1) The nature of the metal used as the emitter (1) 2K1  K 2 (2) K1  2 K2
(2) The wavelength of the incident light
(3) K1  K 2 /2 (4) K1  2 K2
(3) The intensity of the incident light
(4) All the above parameters 07. 5% of the energy supplied to a lamp is radiated
as a visible light. How many quanta of light are
02. A photon of light enters a block of glass after
emitted per second by 100 watt lamp. Assume
travelling through a vacuum. The energy of the the average wavelength of visible light as 555
photon on entering the glass block nm ?
(1) Increases because its associated wavelength
(1) 0.75  1019 (2) 1.39  1019
decreases
(2) Decreases because the speed of the radiation (3) 2.16  1019 (4) 2.83  1019
decreases
(3) Stays the same because the speed of the 08. Both the frequency and the intensity of a beam
of light falling on the surface of photoelectric
radiation and the associted wavelength do
material are increased by a factor of two. This
not change
will :
(4) Stays the same because the frequency of the (1) increase both, the maximum kinetic energy
radiation does not change of the photoelectrons, as well as
photoelectric saturation current by a factor
03. Moving with the same velocity, which of the
of two.
following has the longest de-Broglie wavelength
(2) increase the maximum kinetic energy
of the photo-electrons by a factor greter than
(1)  -particle (2)  -particle two and would increase the
(3) Proton (4) Neutron photoelectric saturation current by a factor
of two.
04. The photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface (3) increase the maximum kinetic energy of the
(1) Are all at rest photoelectrons by a factor greter than
(2) Have the same kinetic energy two and will have no effect on the magnitude
(3) Have the same momentum of the photoelectric saturation curent
(4) Have speed varying from zero up to a certain produced.
maximum value (4) increase the maximum kinetic energy
05. The slope of the stopping potential versus of the emitted photoelectrons by a factor
frequency graph for photoelectric effect is equal of two but will have no effect on the
to : saturation photoelectric current.
(1) h (2) he 09. When a certain metallic surface is illuminated
(3) h/e (4) e
with monochromatic light of wavelength  , the
stopping potential for photoelectric current is

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 All India Test Series - 28.02.2023
(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
3V0 . When the same surface is illuminated with
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
light of wavelength 2 the stopping potential correct explanation of (A).
is V0. The threshold wavelength for this surface (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
for photoelectric effect is: the correct explanation of (A).
(1) 6 (2) 4 (4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3)  / 4 (4) 8 14. A one litre flask contains some mercury. It is
found that at different temperatures the volume
10. A low intensity ultraviolet light of wavelength of air inside the flask remains the same. What
o is the volume of mercury in the flask? Take, the
2271 A ir radiates a phot ocell made of coefficients of linear expansion of glass is
molybdenum metal . If the stopping potential
is 1.3 V, find the work function of the metal 9  106 /o C and the coefficient of volume

(1) 4.17 eV (2) 2.17 eV expansion of merury is 1.8  104 /o C .

(1) 50 cm3 (2) 100 cm3
(3) 1.1 eV (4) 3.17 eV (3) 150 cm 3 (4) 200 cm3
11. 5 g of ice at 0oC is dropped in a beaker containing 15. In a process, the molar heat capacity of diatomic
20 g of water at 40oC. The final temperature will
be 10
gas is R. Heat Q is supplied to the gas. Find
(1) 16o C (2) 8o C 3
o
(3) 4 C (4) 32o C the work done by the gas.

12. A liquid of mass m and specific heat C is heated 3Q Q

(1) (2)
4 3
m
to a temperature 2T. Another liquid of mass Q 2Q
2 (3) (4)
and specific heat 2C is heated to a temperature 4 3
T. If these two liquids are mixed. The resulting
temperature of the mixture is R 2
16. If for an ideal gas C  5 , then the degree of
2 8 V
(1)   T (2)   T freedom of the gas will be
3 5
(1) 3 (2) 8
3 3 (3) 6 (4) 5
(3)   T (4)   T
5 2
2
13. Assertion If an electric fan be switched ON in 17. In an adiabatic process , R  CV , the pressure
3
a closed room, the air of the room will be heated of the gas will be proportional to
Reason Fan air decrease the temperature of the
(1) T5/3 (2) T5/2
room.
In the light of the above statements, choose the (3) T5/4 (4) T5/6
most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

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 All India Test Series - 28.02.2023
18. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas at freedom for the mixture is
temperature T0 expands slowly according to the 25 48
law p=kV(k is a constant). If final temperature (1) (2)
7 11
is 2T0, heat supplied to the gas is
52 50
(1) 2 RT0 (2) 3/2 RT0 (3) (4)
11 11
(3) RT0 (4) RT0/2
22. If the internal energy of n1 moles of He at 10T
19. The p-V diagram of a system undergoing temperature is equal to the internal energy of
thermodynamic transformation is as shown in n2 moles of H2 at 6T temperature, then the ratio
figure. The work done by the system in going of (n1/n2) is
from A  B  C is 30 J and 40 J heat is given 3
to the system. The change in internal energy (1) (2) 2
5
between A and C is
5
(3) 1 (4)
3

23. Two temperature scales A and B are related by

A  42 B  72

110 220
At which temperature, two scales have the same
(1) 10 J (2) 70 J reading?
(3) 84 J (4) 134 J
(1) -42oC (2) -72oC
o
(3) +12 C (4) -40oC
20. Statement 1 It is not possible for a system,
unaided by an external agency to transfer heat
24. The table gives the initial length l0, change in
from a body at lower temperature to another
temperature T and change in length l of four
body at higher temperature. rods. Which rod has greatest coefficient of linear
Statement 2 According to clausius statement, expansion?
“ No process is possible whose sole result is the
transfer of heat from a cooled object to a hotter Rod l0 T( C)
o
l
object. A1 1 100 1
(1) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True. A2 1 100 2
(2) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False.
A3 1.5 50 3
(3) Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is True.
(4) Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is False. A4 2.5 20 4

21. 5n,n and 5n moles of a monoatomic, diatomic (1) A1 (2) A2

and non-linear polyatomic gases (which do not
react chemically with each other) are mixed at (3) A3 (4) A4
room temperature. The equivalent degree of

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 All India Test Series - 28.02.2023
25. The specific heat of many solids at low 30. The orbital electron of the hydrogen atom jumps
temperature varies with absolute temperature from the ground state to a higher energy state
T according to the relation s  aT 3 , where a is and its orbital velocity is reduced to one third
of its initial value. If the radius of the orbit in
a constant. The heat energy required to raise
the ground state is r, then what is the radius
the temperature of mass m of such a solid from
of the new orbit ?
T = 0K to T = 20 K is
(1) 2r (2) 3r
(1) 4  104 ma (2) 2  103 ma (3) 4r (4) 9r
(3) 8  106 ma (4) 2  106 ma 31. According to Bohr’s theory the ratio of time taken
by electron to complete one revolution in first
26. The energy required to excite a hydrogen atom
excited and second excited states of hydrogen
from n = 1 to n = 2 energy state 10.2 eV. What
will be :
is the wavelength of the radiation emitted by
(1) 1 : 8 (2) 8 : 27
the atom when it goes back to its ground state?
(3) 82 : 272 (4) 4 : 9
o o
(1) 1024 A (2) 1122 A 32. The area of the electron orbit for the ground state
o o of hydrogen atom is A. What will be the area
(3) 1218 A (4) 1324 A of the electron orbit corresponding to the first
27. For the first member of Balmer series of excited state ?
(1) 4 A (2) 8 A
hydrogen spectrum, the wavelength is  . What
(3) 16 A (4) 32 A
is the wavelength of the second member?
5 3 33. An energy of 24.6 eV is required to remove one
(1)  (2)  of the electron from the neutral helium atom.
30 16
The energy (in eV )required to remove both the
4 20 electron from a neutral helium atom is :
(3)  (4) 
9 27 (1) 38.2 (2) 49.2
(3) 51.8 (4) 79.0
28. In a new system of units the fundamental
quantities are planks constant (h), speed of light 34. Bohr’s atomic model gained acceptance above
(c) and time (T). Then the dimension of Rydberg’s all other models because it :
constant will be : (1) Is based on quantum hypothesis
(2) Explained the constitution of atom
(1) h1 c1 T1 (2) h0 c 1 T 1
(3) Assumed continuous radiation of energy by
(3) h1 c 0 T 1 (4) h1 c T0 orbiting electrons
(4) Explained hydrogen spectrum
29. The different lines in the Lyman series have their
wavelengths laying between : 35. Photoelectric effect can be explained by
assuming that light :
o o
(1) Zero to infinite (2) 900 A to 1200 A (1) Is a form of transverse waves
(2) Is a form of longitudinal waves
o o o o (3) Can be polarized
(3) 1000 A to 1500 A (4) 500 A to 1000 A
(4) Consists of quanta

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 All India Test Series - 28.02.2023
40. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) Rough surface are better radiators than
36. Volume versus temperature graph of two moles smooth surface.
of helium gas is as shown in figure. The ratio (2) Highly polished mirror like surfaces are very
of heat absorbed and the work done by the gas good radiators.
in process 1-2 is (3) Black surfaces are better absorbers than
white ones.
V
2 (4) Black surfaces are better radiators than
white ones.

1 41. A rod CD is joined at the middle of an identical

T rod AB as shown in figure. The ends A,B and
D are maintained at 100oC, 10oC and 20oC,
5 respectively. The temperature at C is
(1) 3 (2)
2
5 7
(3) (4)
3 2

37. An ideal gas has an initial pressure of 3 pressure

units and an initial volume of 4 volume units.
The table gives the final pressure and volume
of the gas (in those same units) in four processes.
Which processes start and end on the same
isothermal?
A B C D (1) 48oC (2) 45oC
p 5 4 12 6 (3) 40oC (4) 35oC
v 7 6 1 3
42. A student takes 50 g wax (specific heat = 0.6
(1) A (2) B k cal/kg-oC) and heats it till it boils. The graph
(3) C (4) D between temperature and time is shown below.
38. Find the approximate number of molecules in Heat supplied to the wax per minute and boiling
a vessel of volume 7 L at 0oC and pressure point are, respectively.

1.3  105 Pa.

(1) 2.4  1023 (2) 3  1023
(3) 6  1023 (4) 4.8  1023

39. According to Boyle’s law pV = C, the value of

C depends on
(i) mass of the gas (ii) type of gas
(iii) temperature of gas
(1) (i), (ii) (2) (ii), (iii)
(3) (i), (iii) (4) (i), (ii), (iii)
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 All India Test Series - 28.02.2023
(1) 500 cal, 50oC (2) 1000 cal, 100oC 1/2
 2h 
(3) 1500 cal, 200oC (4) 1000 cal, 200oC (2) v1  v2   ( f1  f 2 )
 m 
43. A vessel contains 110 g of water. The heat
capacity of the vessel is equal to 10 g of water. 2 2 2h
(3) v1  v2  ( f1  f 2 )
The initial temperature of water in vessel is 10oC. m
If 220 g of hot water at 70oC is poured in the 1/2
vessel, the final temperature neglecting radiation  2h 
(4) v1  v 2   ( f1  f 2 )
loss, will be (approximately) m 
(1) 70oC (2) 80oC
o
(3) 60 C (4) 50oC 47. Which of the following curves may represent the
energy of electron in hydrogen atom as a function
of principal quantum number n :
44. If, in hydrogen atom, radius of nth Bohr orbit
is rn, E E
O n

(1) O (2)
(1) (2) n
-E -E

E
O n

(3) (4) None of these (3) (4)

-E

45. How much potential is to be applied to accelerate

an electron, so that its de-broglie wavelength 48. A hydrogen atom in ground state absorbs 12.1
eV energy. The orbital angular momentum of
o
should 0.4 A ? electron is increased by :
(1) 9434 V (2) 94.34 V h h
(3) 9.434 V (4) 943.4 V (1) (2)
2 
46. Two identical photocathodes receive light of 3h
frequencies f 1 and f 2 . If the maximum velocities (3) (4) zero
2
of the photoelectrons (of mass m) coming out
are respectively v1 and v2 , then : 49. If in the first orbit of a hydrogen atom the total
2 2 2h energy of the electron is 21.76  10 19 J , then
(1) v1  v 2  ( f1  f 2 )
m its electric potential energy will be :

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 All India Test Series - 28.02.2023
(1) 43.52  1019 J (2) 21.76  10 19 J (2) 2.8  1010 mole/litre
(3) 10.88  1019 J (4) 13.6  1019 J (3) 3.2  109 mole/litre

50. In Bohr’s theory the potential energy of an (4) 3.2 1012 mole/litre

Kr2 54. What amount of sodium propanoate should be

electron at a position is (where K is a added to one litre of an aqueous solution
2
positive constant); then the quantized energy of cont aining 0.02 mole of pr opanoic acid
the electron in nth orbit is: ( K a  1.0  10 5 at 25°C) to obtain a buffer
nh  K  1/2
nh  K  solution of pH = 6
(1)   (2)   (1) 0.1 M (2) 0.2 M
2  m  2  m 
(3) 0.3 M (4) 1.3 M
1/2
K nh  m  55. Calculate pH of a solution of given mixture (0.1
(3) nh   (4)  
m 2  K  mole CH3COOH + 0.2 mole CH3COONa) in 100
ml of mixture (Ka = 2 ×10–5)
(1) 5 (2) 5.6
SECTION - A (3) 6.6 (4) 7.6
56. Which of the following mixtures forms a basic
51. Calculate pH of the buffer solution containing buffer
0.15 moles of NH4OH and 0.25 moles of NH4Cl,
(1) HCl  NaOH
5
Kb for NH4OH is 1.8  10 (2) CH3COOH + CH3COONa
(1) 7.034 (3) NH4OH + NH4Cl
(2) 9.04 (4) all of these
(3) 8.043 57. What will be the pH of an aqueous solution of
(4) None of these 1.0M ammonium formate, assuming complete
52. The solubilities of AgCl in water, in 0.01 M dissociation.(pKa of formic acid = 3.8 and PKb
CaCl2, in 0.01M NaCl and in 0.05 M AgNO3 are of ammonia = 4.8)
S0,S1, S2 and S3 respectively. Which of the (1) 8.5 (2) 6.5
following relationship between these quantities (3) 9.5 (4) 5.5
is correct 58. The dissociation constant of CH3COOH is
(1) S0 > S1 > S2 > S3 (2) S0 > S2 > S1 > S3
4  1 0  5 . Determine the H ion concentration
+
(3) S0 > S1 = S2 > S3 (4) S0 > S2 > S3 > S1
of 0.1 M solution of acetic acid at 25°C
53. Solubility product of AgCl is 2.8  1010 at 25°C.
Calculate solubility of the salt in 0.1M AgNO3 (1) 5.5  105 (2) 1.8  105
solution (3) 2  103 (4) 1.01  104
(1) 2.8  10 mole/litre
9

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 All India Test Series - 28.02.2023
59. The first and second dissociation constants of (1) [Pt(NH3 )2 Cl2 ] (2) [Co(en)2 Cl2 ]
an acid H2A are 1.0  10 and 5.0  10 ,
5 10
(3) [Co(NH3 )3 (NO2 )3 ] (4) [Co(en)3 ]
respectively. The overall dissociation constant
of the acid will be 65. The set which does not have ambidentate
ligand (s) is
(1) 5  105 (2) 5.0  1018
(1) NO2 , C2 O24 ,EDTA 4 
(3) 5.0  1015 (4) 5  1 0  1 5
60. Which amongst the following is the strongest (2) EDTA 4  ,NCS ,C2O42
acid
(3) C2O24 , NO2 ,NCS
(1) CHBr3 (2) CHI3
(3) CH(CN)3 (4) CHCl3 (4) C2O24 , ethylene diammine,H2O
61. For PbCl 2 , K sp =1.2×10 –5 . Determine t he 66. The primary and secondary valencies of cobalt
maximum amount of grams of PbCl2 that will respectively in [Co(NH3 )5 Cl]Cl2 are
dissolve in 0.250 L of water at 250C.
(1) 3 and 6 (2) 2 and 6
(Molecular wt. PbCl2 = 278) (3) 3 and 5 (4) 2 and 8
(1) 2.21 g (2) 1 g 67. Which one of the following metal complexes is
(3) 6.11 g (4) 3.88 g most stable
62. How many litre of water must be added to 1 litre (1) [Co(en)(NH3 )4 ]Cl2
of an aqueous solution of HCl with a pH of 1
(2) [Co(en)3 ]Cl2
to create an aqueous solution with pH of 2
(1) 0.1 L (2) 0.9 L (3) [Co(en)2 (NH3 )2 ]Cl2
3) 2.0 L (4) 9.0 L
(4) [Co(NH3 )6 ]Cl2
63. Assertion : During the boiling of water having
68. The complex that can show optical activity is
temporary hardness, Mg(HCO3)2 is converted to
MgCO3. (1) trans  [Cr(Cl 2 )(ox)2 ]3 
Reason : The solubility product of Mg(OH)2 is
(2) trans  [Fe(NH3 )2 (CN)4 ]
greater than that of MgCO3
(1) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the (3) cis  [Fe(NH3 )2 (CN)4 ]
correct explanation of (A)
(4) cis  [CrCl2 (OX)2 ]3
(2) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A) 69. Which among the following will be named as
(3) If (A) is correct but (R) is wrong dibromidobis – (ethylenediamine) chromium
(4) Both (A) and (R) are wrong (III) bromide
64. Which of the following complex has a possibility (1) [Cr(en)3 ]Br3 (2) [Cr(en)2 Br2 ]Br
to exist as meridional isomer
(3) [Cr(en)Br4 ] (4) [Cr(en)Br4 ]Br

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 All India Test Series - 28.02.2023
70. The complex with highest magnitude of crystal Reason : Square planar complexes do not
possess chiral structure.
field splitting energy  0  is
(1) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(1) [Ti(H2 O)6 ]3  (2) [Cr(H2O)6 ]3  correct explanation of (A)
(3) [Fe(OH2 )6 ]3 (4) [Mn(OH2 )6 ]3  (2) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
71. Which of the following complexes will exhibit
(3) If (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
maximum attraction to an applied magnetic
(4) (A) and (R) both are wrong
field
(1) [Co(H2O)6 ]2 (2) [Co(en)3 ]3 

(3) [Ni(H2 O)6 ]2 (4) [Zn(H2O)6 ]2 

76. ; ‘C’ is
72. A solution of FeCl3 when treated with
K 4 [Fe(CN)6 ] gives a prussian blue precipitate
due to the formation of
(1) K[Fe(CN)6 ] (2) Fe4 [Fe(CN)6 ]3

(3) Fe3 [Fe(CN)6 ]2 (4) Fe[Fe(CN)6 ] (1) (2)

73. The hybridisation and magnetic behaviours of
cobalt ion in [Co(NH3 )6 ]3  complex,
respectively is
(1) d 2sp 3 and diamagnetic
(3) (4)
(2) d 2sp 3 and paramagnetic

(3) sp3 d 2 and diamagnetic

77. Correct structure of  – methylcyclohexane
3 2
(4) sp d and paramagnetic carbaldehyde
74. The correct order of energy of absorption for the
following metal complexes is
(A) [Ni(en)3 ]2  (B) [Ni(NH3 )6 ]2  (1) (2)

(C) [Ni(H2 O)6 ]2

(1) C < B < A (2) B < C < A
(3) C < A < B (4) A < C < B
(3) (4)
75. Assertion : Optical isomerism is not shown by
square planar complexes

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 All India Test Series - 28.02.2023
78. Oxidation of toluene to benzaldehyde can be (1) a < c < d < b (2) c < d < a < b
easily carried out with which of the following (3) c < d < b < a (4) c < a < d < b
reagent 82. The major product of the following reaction is
(1) CrO3/acetic acid, H3O+
(2) CrO3/acetic anhydride, H3O+
(3) KMnO4/HCl, H3O+
(4) CO/HCl, anhydride AlCl3
79. Which one of the following reaction will not form
acetaldehyde
(1) (2)
(1) CH2  CH2  O2  
Pd(II)/Cu(II)
H2 O

CrO3  H2SO4
(2) CH3 CH2OH  
(i )DIBAL  H
(3) CH3 CN (ii )H2O

(3) (4)
(4) CH3 CH2OH 
 Cu
573K

80. Which one of the following carbonyl compounds 83. Ozonolysis of an organic compound A produces
cannot be prepared by addition of water on an acetone and propionaldehyde in equimolar
alkyne in the presence of HgSO4 and H2SO4. mixture. Identify A from the following compound
(1) 2 – methyl – 1 – pentene
(2) 1 – pentene
(1) (2)
(3) 2 – pentene
(4) 2 – methyl – 2 – pentene
84. The descending order of acidity for the following
(3) (4)
carboxylic acid is
(A) CH3COOH (B) F3C – COOH
81. The increasing order of the following compounds
(C) ClCH2 – COOH (D) F CH2– COOH
towards HCN addition is
(E) BrCH2 – COOH
Choose the correct answer from the option given
(a) (b) below
(1) D > B > A > E > C
(2) B > D > C > E > A
(3) E > D > B > A > C
(c) (d)
(4) B > C > D > E > A

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 All India Test Series - 28.02.2023
85. Assertion : 2, 2 – Dimethylpropanal undergoes
cannizzaro reaction with conc. NaOH (3) (4)
Reason : Cannizzaro reaction is a
disproportionation reaction. 90. Which of the following complex ions has
(1) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the electrons that are symmetrically filled in both
correct explanation of (A) t2g and eg orbitals
(2) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not (1) [FeF6 ]3  (2) [Mn(CN)6 ]4 
the correct explanation of (A)
(3) If (A) is correct but (R) is wrong (3) [CoF6 ]3  (4) [Co(NH3 )6 ]2 
(4) (A) and (R) both are wrong 91. Which one of the following complexes will most
likely absorb visible light
(1) [Sc(H2 O)6 ]3  (2) [Ti(NH3 )6 ]4 
86.
CH3COOH  PCl5  A 
C6H6
Anhy.AlCl3
 B 
C2H5MgBr/Ether
H O
C (3) [V(NH3 )6 ]3  (4) [Zn(NH3 )6 ]2 
3

Product C would be 92. The magnetic moment of the complex anion

[Cr(NO)(NH3 )(CN)4 ]2 is

(1) (2) CH3CH(OH)C2H5 (1) 5.91 BM (2) 3.87 BM

(3) 1.73 BM (4) 2.82 BM
(3) CH3COC6 H5 (4) CH3CH(OH)C6H5
93. The IUPAC name for the complex
87. An organic compound ‘A’ on treatment with NH3
[Co(NO2 )(NH3 )5 ]Cl2 is
give ‘B’ which on heating gives ‘C’, ‘C’ when
(1) Nitro – N – pentammine cobalt (III) chloride
treated with Br2 in the presence of KOH
(2) Nitro – N – pentammine cobalt (II) chloride
produces ethylamine. Compound ‘A’ is
(3) Pentammine nitrito – N – cobalt (II) chloride
(1) CH3COOH (2) CH3CH2CH2COOH
(4) Pentammine nitrito – N – cobalt (III)
Chloride
(3) (4) CH3CH2COOH
94. The number of isomers possible for [Pt(en)(NO2)2]
is
88. C 6 H5 CH  CHCHO 
x
C6 H5 CH  CHCH2 OH
(1) 3 (2) 2
In the above sequence x can be
(3) 4 (4) 1
(1) H2/Ni (2) NaBH4
95. In wilkinson’s catalyst, the hybridisation of
(3) K2Cr2O7/H +
(4) Both (1) and (2)
central metal ion and its shape are respectively
89. Which of the following compounds is most
(1) dsp2, square planar
reactive towards nucleophilic addition reaction
(2) sp3d, trigonal bipyramidal
(3) sp3, tetrahedral
(1) (2) (4) d2sp3, octahedral

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 All India Test Series - 28.02.2023
96. The Ksp for Cr(OH)3 is 1.6 ×10 , the solubility
–30 (4) lactose is present and it binds to RNA
of this compound in water is polymerase
105. The association of histone H1 with a
(1) 1.6  10 30  (2) 1.6  1030 /27 
1/4 1/4
nucleosome indicates
(1) DNA replication is occuring
(3) 1.6  10 30 / 27 (4) 1.6  1030 (2) The DNA is condensed into a chromatin
97. Which one of the following statement is not true fibre
(1) pH + POH = 14 for all aqueous solution (3) The DNA double helix is exposed
(4) Transcription is occuring
(2) the conjugate base of H2PO4 is HPO24 106. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are
8 used to elongate
(3) the pH of 1  10 M HCl is 8
(1) The lagging strand towards replication fork
(4) all of these
(2) The leading strand away from replication
98. The dissociation constant of a weak acid is
fork
4 . In order to prepare a buffer solution
1  10 (3) The lagging strand away from the replication
with a pH = 5 the [salt]/[Acid] ratio should be fork
(1) 1 : 10 (2) 4 : 5 (4) The leading strand towards replication fork
(3) 10 : 1 (4) 5 : 4 107. Expressed sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to :
99. Calculate the pH of 0.5 M aqueous solution of (1) Genes expressed as RNA
(2) Polypeptide expression
NaCN, the pKb of CN– is 4.70
(3) DNA polymorphism
(1) 4.70 (2) 11.5
(4) Novel DNA sequence
(3) 7 (4) 6.5
108. Which of the following features of genetic code
100. Species acting as both Bronsted acid and base does allow bacteria to produce human insulin
is by recombinant DNA technology ?
(1) H SO 4 1
(2) Na2CO3 (1) Genetic code is not ambiguous
(2) Genetic code is redundant
(3) NH3 (4) OH–1
(3) Genetic code is nearly universal
(4) Genetic code is specific
109. Which process is used for amplification or
multiplication of DNA for finger printing
SECTION - A
(1) PCR (2) electrophoresis
101. Which one of the following is true, with respect (3) Southern blotting (4) northern blotting
to AUG 110. What is the main function of tRNA in relation
(1) It codes for methionine only to protein synthesis ?
(2) It is also a initiation codon (1) Initiates transcription
(3) It codes for methionine in both prokaryotes (2) Inhibit protein synthesis
and eukaryotes (3) Identifies amino acids and transport them
(4) All of the above to ribosome
102. The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its (4) proof reading
(1) 5’– end (2) 3’ – end 111. What sequence on the template strand for DNA
(3) anti – codon site (4) DHU loop correspond to the first amino acid inserted into
103. To initiate translation, the mRNA first binds to a protein ?
(1) the smaller ribosomal subunit (1) TAC (2) UAC
(2) the larger ribosomal sub – unit (3) UAG (4) AUG
(3) the whole ribosome 112. Determination of one amino acid by more than
(4) no such specificity exists one codon is due to
104. In E.coli the lac operon gets switched on when (1) degeneracy of genetic code
(1) lactose is present and it binds to the (2) continuous nature of genetic code
repressor (3) punctuation in genetic code
(2) repressor binds to operator (4) universal nature of genetic code
(3) RNA polymerase binds to the operator

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 All India Test Series - 28.02.2023
113. In Eukaryotes, mRNA is synthesized with the 121. Translation occurs in
aid of (1) Nucleus (2) Nucleolus
(1) RNA polymerase III (3) Cytoplasm (4) Cystosome
(2) RNA polymerase II 122. Which of the following is not a goal of the human
(3) RNA polymerase I Genome Project ?
(4) reverse transcriptase (1) To sequence the genome of a selected
114. The two strands of double helix model of DNA model organisms
are held together by hydrogen bonds between (2) To eliminate all diseases
(1) Sugar and phosphate groups (3) To consider social, ethical and legal aspects
(2) Sugar and nitrogenous bases of genetic information
(3) phosphate groups and nitrogenous bases (4) To develope computational tools for
(4) nitrogenous bases analyzing sequence
115. In an organism with double stranded DNA, 17% 123. Each individual has unique DNA finger print as
of the bases were shown to be cytosine. The individuals differ in
percentages of the other three bases expected (1) Number of minisatellites on chromosome
to be present in this DNA are (2) Location of minisatellites on chromosome
(1) G –17%, A – 16.5%, T – 32.5% (3) size of minisatellites on chromosome
(2) G –17%, A – 33%, T – 33% (4) all of the above
(3) G – 8.5%, A – 50%, T – 24.5% 124. The human chromosome with highest and least
(4) G –34%, A – 24.5%, T – 24.5% number of genes in them are respectively
116. In Meselson and stahl’s experiments heavy (1) 21 & Y (2) 1 & X
DNA was distinguished from normal DNA by (3) 1 & Y (4) X & Y
centrifugation in 125. If the base sequence of a codon in mRNA is 5’
(1) CsOH gradient (2) 14NH4Cl – AUG – 3’,the sequence of tRNA pairing with
(3) NH4Cl
15
(4) CsCl gradient it must be
117. Who proved that DNA is basic genetic material (1) 5’ – UAC – 3’ (2) 5’ – CAU – 3’
? (3) 5’ – AUG – 3’ (4) 5’ – GUA – 3’
(1) Griffith (2) Watson 126. Which was the last human chromosome to be
(3) Boveri & Sutton (4) Hershey & Chase completely sequenced ?
118. Which of the following is correct for watson and (1) 1 (2) 11
crick’s model of DNA. It is duplex with (3) 21 (4) X
(1) 10 base pairs and 3.4 nm distance for every 127. If Meselson and stahl’s experiment is continued
turn of spirals for four generation in bacteria, the ratio of
(2) 10 base pairs and 3.4Å distance for each 14
N/14N :15N/15N:15N/14N containing DNA in the
turn of spirals fourth generation would be
(3) 20 base pairs and 34Å distance for each (1) 1 : 1 : 0 (2) 0 : 1 : 4
turn (3) 7 : 0 : 1 (4) 4 : 0 : 1
(4) None of the above 128. During expression of an operon, RNA polymerase
119. During replication of a bacterial chromosome binds to
DNA synthesis starts from a origin of replication (1) structural gene (2) regulator gene
site and (3) operator (4) promoter
(1) RNA primase involved 129. UTRs are untranslated regions present on
(2) is facilitated by telomerase (1) rRNA (2) tRNA
(3) moves in one direction of the site (3) mRNA (4) hnRNA
(4) Moves in bi – directional way. 130. Select the incorrectly matched pair
120. Transcription starts at A and end at B . (1) Initiation codons – AUG, GUG
Here B & A are respectively (2) Stop codons – UAA, UAG, UGA
(1) initiator region, stop region (3) Methionine – AUG
(2) telomeric region, operator region (4) Anticodons – mRNA
(3) terminator region, promoter region 131. Amino acids which are specified by single
(4) TATA box, CAAT box codon are
(1) phenylalanine & arginine

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 All India Test Series - 28.02.2023
(2) Tryptophan & methionine 137. Match column I (scientists) with column II
(3) Valine & proline (Discoveries) and select the correct option.
(4) Methionine & arginine Column – I Column – II
132. Chemically RNA is X reactive and Y stable A. Alec Jeffreys I. Lac Operon
as compared to DNA here Y and X are respectively B. F. Sanger II. Automated DNA
(1) equally, equally (2) more, less sequence
(3) less, more (4) equally, more C. Jacob & monod III. DNA finger
133. Human genome consists of approximately printing
(1) 3 × 109 bp D. Avery, Mcleod & IV. Transforming
(2) 6 × 109bp McCarty principle
(3) 20,000 – 25,000 bp B A C D
(4) 2.2 ×104 bp (1) III II I IV
134. Assertion & Reason – (2) II III I IV
Assertion – Eukaryotic mRNA requires post – (3) II III IV I
transcription processing for formation of (4) II I III IV
functional mRNA 138. In the given figure, Identify A, B, C & D and
Reason – Eukaryotic transcripts possess extra select the correct option
non – segments called exons
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and
reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false
135. Assertion – N15 is not a radioactive isotope of
nitrogen and it can be seperated from N14 only A B C D

based on densities 1 repressor permease  - galactosidase transacetylase

Reason – Taylor and colleagues performed 2 active repressor  - galactosidase permease transacetylase

experiment on vicia faba to prove that DNA 3 inactive repressor,  - galactosidase

transacetylase permease
replication is semi – conservative
4 inactive repressor  - galactosidase permease transacetylase
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and
reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but 139. In the given figure identify A, B, C & D and select
reason is not the correct explanation of the correct option
assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false

136. Match column I & II & select correct option.

Column – I Column – II
A. Termination I. Aminoacyl tRNA
B. Translation II. Discontinuous A B C D
process
C. Transcription III. Rho factor 1 3' 5' codon t RNA
D. DNA replication IV. RNA polymerase
2 5' 5' anticodon mRNA
A C B D
(1) II III I IV
3 5' 3' anticodon mRNA
(2) III IV I II
(3) IV I III II
4 5' 3' codon mRNA
(4) III I IV II

Ans. 3 14
 All India Test Series - 28.02.2023
140. In the given figure identify A, B, C, D and select
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
the incorrect option. discontinuous continuous
1 3' end 5' end
synthesis synthesis
Continuous discontinous
2 5' end 3'end
synthesis synthesis
discontinuous continuous
3 5'end 3'end
synthesis synthesis
Continuous discontinous
4 3'end 5'end
synthesis synthesis
(1) ‘D’ is said to be located towards 5’ end
(downstream) of the structural gene 144. E. coli fully labelled with 15N is allowed to grow
(2) It is the presence of ‘D’ in a transcription in 14N medium. The two strands of a DNA
unit that also defines the template and coding molecule of the first generation bacteria have
strand (1) different density and do not resemble with
(3) ‘B’ has sequence same as RNA (except their parent DNA
thymine at the place of uracil) (2) different density and resemble with their
(4) All the reference point while defining a parent DNA
transcription unit is made with B (3) same density and resemble with their
141. Gene regulation governing lactose operon for E. parent DNA
Coli that involves lac 1 gene product is (4) same density but do not resemble with
(1) Negative and inducible because repressor their parent DNA
protein prevents transcription 145. Select the incorrect statement about nucleosome
(2) Negative and repressible because repressor (1) It is formed by wrapping of negatively
protein prevents transcription charged DNA around a positively charged
(3) Feed back inhibition because excess of beta histone octamer
– galactosidase can switch off transcription (2) It contains 200 bp of DNA helix
(4) Positive and inducible because it can be (3) It constitute repeating unit of chromatin
induced by lactose (4) nucleosome in chromatin are seen as ‘bead
142. DNA exists in a double – stranded form whereas – on – string’ structure when viewed under light
RNA is mainly a single stranded molecule. What microscope
is likely reason for DNA being double stranded 146. Size of VNTR varies from ____kb to____kb
? (1) 0.1,0.2 (2) 10, 200
(1) RNA strands cannot form base pairs (3) 0.1,20 (4) 0.1, 200
(2) Double stranded DNA is a more stable 147. How many of the following are correct about
structure satellite DNA
(3) DNA cannot exist in the single stranded (1) normally do not code for any proteins
form (2) form a large portion of human genome
(4) It is easier to replicate double stranded DNA (3) show high degree of polymorphism
than single stranded RNA (4) form the basis of DNA finger printing
143. Select the correct option about Replication fork (5) DNA from every tissue of an individual
shown below show same degree of polymorphism
(6) Satellite DNA can be classified depending
on base composition, length of segments and
nubmer of repetetive units
(1) Six (2) five
(3) four (4) two
148. How many of the following is correct about
human genome
(1) It consists of 31647.7 million genes
(2) The average gene consists of 3000 bases
(3) The smallest gene is dystrophin at 2.4
million bases
(4) about 9.99 % nucleotide bases are exactly
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 All India Test Series - 28.02.2023
the same in all people 155. The proximity between the Henle’s Loop and
(5) The functions are unknown for over 99.9% vasa recta, as well as the counter – current in
of the discovered genes them help in maintaining A osmolarity
(6) less than 2 per cent of genome codes for towards the inner medullary interstitium, i.e.,
protein
from B in the cortex to about C in the inner
(7) Scientists have identified about 2.4 million
locations where single base DNA difference medulla.
occur A B C
(1) Five (2) four 1 Decreasing 900 mOsmol/L 600 mOsmol/L
(3) three (4) two 2 Increasing 300 mOsmol/L 1200 mOmsol/L
149. Who amongst the following scientist had no 3 Increasing 1200 mOsmol/L 3000 mOsmol/L
contribution in the developement of the double 4 Decreasing 600 mOsmol/L 300 mOsmol/L
helix model for structure of DNA ?
156. The cleared blood (without nitrogenous wastes)
(1) Rosalind Franklin (2) Maurice wilkins
after dialysis is pumped back through a _____
(3) Erwin chargaff (4) Meselson & stahl
after adding _____ to it
150. The polypeptide formed from translation of the
(1) Vein, Heparin (2) Vein, Antiheparin
given mRNA strand will contain ____ amino
(3) Artery, Heparin (4) Anti,Antiheparin
acids.
157. Match the columns :
5’ AUG UUU AUG CCU GUU UCU CCC UGA UCU
GGG UUU UAA 3’
Column - I Column - II
(1) 12 (2) 11 Urea accumulation in
A. Renal calculi (i)
(3) 7 (4) 8 blood
Kidney stones
B. Glomerulonephritis (ii)
ZOOLOGY (Oxalates)
C. Uremia (iii) Artificial Kidney
SECTION - A
Inflammation of
D. Hemodialysis (iv)
151. Which of the following is not considered as glomeruli

component of tubular parts of nephron ?

(1) DCT (2) PCT
(3) Loop of Henle (4) Glomerulus
152. On an average, _______ mL of blood is filtered
by the kidneys per minute.
Fill the above blank with suitable option.
(1) 100 – 200 mL (2) 500 – 600 mL
(3) 1100 – 1200 mL (4) 1800 – 2000 mL
153. If the PCT lined by simple cuboidal brush –
border epithelium is cut from a nephron, how
will it affect the process of urine formation ?
(1) Selective secretion of H+, K+,NH3 will not
occur
(2) Urine will be more dilute
(3) facultative reabsorption of Na+ and water
will not take place
(4) Counter current mechanism will stop, and
filtrate will remain isotonic.
154. The functioning of kidneys is efficiently
monitored and regulated by :
(1) Juxta glomerular apparatus
(2) Hormonal feedback mechanism involving
the hypothalamus
(3) The heart, to some extent
(4) All of the above
(1) A - ii, B – iv, C – i, D – iii
(2) A - i, B – iii, C – iv, D – ii
(3) A - ii, B – i, C – iv, D – iii
(4) A - iii, B – iv, C – ii, D – i
158. The collecting duct of nephrons :
(1) Is present only in the cortex
(2) Is present only in the medulla
(3) Extends from cortex to the inner parts of the
medulla
(4) Has an insignificant role in maintaining pH
and ionic balance of blood.
159. Find the correct sequence of mechanism during
urine formation :
(1) Secretion  Filtration  Reabsorption
(2) Reabsorption  Filtration  Secretion
(3) Secretion  Reabsorption  Filtration
(4) Filtration  Reabsorption  Secretion
160. The substances like Na+, glucose and amino
acids in the filtrate formed by the kidneys are
reabsorbed ____ whereas nitrogenous wastes
are absorbed by ______.
(1) Actively; passive transport
(2) Passively; active transport
(3) Actively; active transport
(4) Passively; passive transport
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161. Which of the following is true ? (1) Indian oil corporation
(1) Curd is made with the help of streptococcus (2) Gas Authority of India
(2) Viruses can be grown on artificial culture (3) Oil and natural Gas commission
medium. (4) Indian Agricultural Research Institute and
(3) Bacterial /fungal colonies can be seen with khadi village industries commission
naked eyes. 167. Big holes in swiss cheese are made by :
(4) All of the above (1) A machine
162. Which inoculum is added to milk to form curd (2) A bacterium that produces methane gas
(1) A starter of LAB (3) A bacterium producing a large amount of CO2
(2) A starter of Penicillium (4) A fungus that releases a lot of gases during
(3) Probiotics its metabolic activities.
(4) Lactobacillus bulgaricus and streptococcus 168. Select the incorrectly matched pair
163. Identify A, B, C and D in the table given below: (1) Lipases – Removes oily stains from the
Laundary
(2) Cyclosporin A – Fibrinolytic effect
Organism Biological name Commercial product
(3) Statin – Yeast
A Saccharomyces Ethanol (4) Streptokinase – Modified by genetic
engineering .
Bacteria B Butyric acid 169. Nissl’s granule is present in :
(1) Dendrites
Trichoderma
Fungi C (2) Cell body of neurons
polysporum
(3) Short fibres which branch repeatedly and
Bacteria Streptococcus D project out of the cell body of neurons
(4) All of the above
170. How many of the components given in the box
belong to fore – brain (F), Mid – brain (M) and
A B C D Hind – brain (H)
Multicellular clostridium
1
fungi butylicum
Cyclosporin Streptokinase Corpora quadrigemina, Thalamus, Medulla,
Hypothalamus, cerebrum, Cerebellum, Pons,
clostridium cerebral aqueduct
2 Bacteria Cyclosporin Streptokinase
butylicum
(1) F = 3, M = 2, H = 3
3 Fungi Bacillus Ethanol Penicillin (2) F = 3, M = 1, H = 4
(3) F = 4, M = 2, H = 2
clostridium (4) F = 4, M = 3, H = 1
4 Unicellular fungi Cyclosporin Streptokinase
butylicum
171. The ‘association areas’ of cerebral cortex are
responsible for complex functions like :
(1) Memory
164. Select the incorrect choice w.r.t. STP : (2) Communication
(1) Biological treatment requires aeration (3) Intersensory associations
(2) Primary treatment requires aeration (4) All of the above
(3) Tertiary treatment requires aeration 172. During a reflex action, the afferent neuron
(4) Both (2) and (3) receives signal from :
165. The symbiotic association of plant roots and (1) An effector and transmit the impulse Via
fungi : motor end plate into spinal cord
(1) is called lichen (2) A sensory organ and transmits the impulse
(2) is called mycorrhiza involving fungi Glomus via dorsal root ganglion into the spinal cord
(3) is called mycorrhiza involving fungi (3) A motor end plate and transmits the
Neurospora impulse via an effector into the spinal cord.
(4) is called mycoherbicide (4) Dorsal root ganglion and transmit the
166. The technology of biogas production from cow impulse Via a sensory organ.
dung was developed in India largely due to efforts
of :
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173. Which of the following is an incorrect statement
w.r.t. neuron ?
(1) The axon is a long fibre, the distal end of
which is branched
(2) Neuron is a microscopic structure composed
of three major parts, namely,cell body, dendrites
and axon
(3) Dendrite carry impulses away from the cell
body
(4) Cell body contains cytoplasm, organelles and
granular bodies called Nissl’s granules
174. Which of the following is a mismatch ?
(1) Glycosuria – presence of glucose in urine
(2) Cystitis – Inflammatioin of urinary bladder
(3) Renal calculi – Precipitation of oxalate
stones in kidney
(4) Uremia – Presence of urea in Urine
175. All of the following are correct statements about
non – medullated nerve fibres, except
(1) It is enclosed by Schwann cells that do not
form a myelin sheath around axons
(2) It is commonly found in autonomous and
somatic neural system
(3) It is found in spinal and cranial nerves
(4) Both (1) and (2)
176. Medulla oblongata has all of the following
centres except
(1) Respiratory rhythm centre
(2) Centre controlling gastric secretions
(3) Pneumotaxic centre
(4) Cardiovascular reflex controlling centre
177. Cerebral cortex and inner part of cerebral
hemisphere respectively have
(1) Greyish, opaque whitish appearance
(2) Whitish, transparent greyish appearance
(3) Greyish, transparent greyish appearance
(4) Whitish, opaque blackish appearance
178. A tract of nerve fibres which connects cerebral
hemispheres is present in
(1) spinal cord (2) forebrain
(3) Hind brain (4) Mid brain
179. Read the following statements and choose the
correct sequence of events of transmission of
impulse from one neuron to the next.
I. Fusion of synaptic vesicles with presynaptic
membrane and release of neurotransmitter into
synaptic cleft.
II. Binding of neurotransmitter to the receptor
present on post – synaptic membrane
III. Action potential arises at axon – end
IV. Ion – channels open allowing entry of ions
which can generate new potential in the post
– synaptic neuron.
V. Pre – synaptic membrane depolarises.
(1) III – V – I – II – IV
(2) IV – V – I – III – II
(3) II – I – IV – III – V
(4) I – II – IV – V – III
180. Which of the following beverages are produced
by distillation of the fermented broth ?
(1) Beer and brandy (2) wine and brandy
(3) Brandy and rum (4) wine and beer
181. Match column I with column II and choose the
correct answer.
Column – I Column – II
A. Lipases (i) Clarifying bottle
juices
B. Pectinases (ii) Clot buster
C. Streptokinase (iii) Detergent
formulating
D. statins (iv) Blood cholesterol
lowering agent
(1) A – iii, B – iv, C – ii, D – i
(2) A – iii, B – i, C – ii, D – iv
(3) A – i, B – iii, C – ii, D – iv
(4) A – iv, B – ii, C – i, D – iii
182. Assertion : The descending limb of Henle’s loop
contain hypertonic urine and ascending Henle’s
loop urine becomes hypotonic
Reason : The descending Henle’s loop is
impermeable to Na+ and ascending Henle’s loop
is impermeable to water .
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is false
(4) Assertion and Reason are false.
183. Assertion : Electrical synapses are common in
our nervous system
Reason : Electrical synapses allow slower
impulse transmission than chemical synapses.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is false
(4) Assertion and Reason are false.
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 All India Test Series - 28.02.2023
184. Assertion : Cyclosporin A is an immuno
suppressive agent which is given to individuals
undergoing organ transplantation.
Reason : Cyclosporin A suppresses the
activation of T - cells and prevents rejection
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is false
(4) Assertion and Reason are false.
185. Assertion : The presence of ketone bodies and
glucose in urine is indicative of diabetes mellitus
Reason: Ketonuria is the presence of excess
ketone bodies in urine
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is false
(4) Assertion and Reason are false.
186. Which of the following is an incorrect match
of the organism and their excretory wastes ?
(1) Mammals, frog and shark – Ureotelic
(2) Insects, frog and bony fish – Ureotelic
(3) Reptiles, land snails and birds – Uricotelic
(4) Aquatic insects and salamander –
Ammonotelic
187. During micturition, Urine is passed out by
(1) Relaxation of urethral sphincters by
sympathetic stimulation
(2) contraction of external urethral sphincters
(3) Contraction of detrusor muscles by
sympathetic stimulation
(4) Contraction of detrusor muscles and
relaxation of sphincters by parasympathetic
stimulation
188. Which of the following does not occur in
response to release of atrial natriuretic factor
(ANF)?
(1) stimulates renin – angiotension
mechanism
(2) Increase the elimination of sodium in
urine
(3) Inhibit renin – angiotensin mechanism
and increase the volume of urine
(4) cause vasodilation and decreases the blood
pressure
189. In human, the main nitrogenous excretory
compound is :
(1) synthesised and eliminated by kidneys only
(2) synthesised in kidneys and eliminated
through liver
(3) synthesised in liver and eliminated mainly
through kidneys
(4) Totally degraded within the body into non–
toxic compounds
190. Match column :
(1) A – ii, B – i, C – iv, D – iii
(2) A – i, B – iv, C – iii, D – ii
(3) A – ii, B – i, C – iii, D – iv
(4) A – i, B – ii, c – iii, D – iv
191. In sewage treatment plant, the flocs (aerobic
bacteria + fungal filament) settle in setting
tank.
This settled sediment is called :
(1) Anaerobic sludge
(2) Activated sludge
(3) Primary effluent
(4) Secondary, effluent
192. Which antibiotic was extensively used to treat
the American soldiers during world war – II ?
(1) Griseofulvin (2) Neomycin
(3) Streptomycin (4) Penicillin
193. Go through following matches with respect to
biocontrol agents, and select the correct option.
A. Ladybird beetle – Aphids
B. Dragon flies – Mosquitoes
C. Bacillus thuringiensis – Butterflies
caterpillars
D. Trichoderma – Plant pathogens
(1) only (A) and (B) are correct
(2) Only (C) is correct
(3) Only (D) is correct
(4) All (A), (B), (C) and (D) are correct
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 All India Test Series - 28.02.2023
194. Look at the figure, and select the correct option. 197. Which of the following is correct for the
depolarisation of an axonal membrane ?
(1) K+ voltage gated channels are closed
(2) Na+ voltage gated channels are open
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) K+ channels open and Na+K+ pumps gets
activated
198. Which of the following is true if the post synaptic
receptors are removed in a chemical synapse ?
(1) Synaptic transmission will become fast
(2) Synaptic transmission will not occur
(1) This is fungal colony growing in a petri dish (3) Synaptic transmission will remain
(2) This is a prokaryote that causes respiratory unaffected
disorder (4) Synaptic transmission will slow down
(3) This is an adenovirus that causes 199. Unidirectional transmission of impulse through
Respiratory infections a chemical synapse is due to
(4) This is a nucleoprotein particle that is (1) Release of neurotransmitters by axon and
capable of causing respiratory infections not by dendrites
195. Which of the following animal possess neuron (2) Insulation of axon by myelin sheath
but lack brain ? (3) Secretion of myelin by schwann cells
(1) Mantis (2) Hydra (4) Release of neurotransmitters by dendrites
(3) Pheretima (4) Planaria and not by axon.
196. Match the columns : 200. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t distal
Column – I Column – II convoluted tubule ?
A. Unipolar neurons (i) Cerebral cortex (1) Action of aldosterone on DCT to reabsorb
B. Multipolar neurons (ii) Retina of eye sodium ions
C. Pseudo unipolar (iii) Embryonic stage (2) Conditional reabsorption of Na+
neurons usually and water
D. Bipolar neurons (iv) Dorsal root takes place in the presence of hormones
ganglion (3) Reabsorption of HCO3 and selective
(1) A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D – ii secretion of hydrogen and potassium ions and
(2) A – iv, B – ii, C – i, D – iii NH3 to maintain the pH
(3) A – iii, B – ii, C – iv, D – i (4) 70 – 80% of water and electrolyte
(4) A – iii, B – iv, C – ii, D – i reabsorption.

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