FIRE TECHNOLOGY AND ARSON INVESTIGATION

1, Which of the following best illustrates arson?

A. simultaneous fire
B. unexplained explosion
C. burning nipa hut
D. forest fire
2. Which causes the greatest number of fire?
A. spontaneous combustion
B. leaking gas pipes
C. electrical wiring
D. smoking
3. What are the three essential elements required for combustion or fire, as mentioned in the
text?
A. Water, air, and light
B. Fuel, oxygen, and heat
C. Fuel, nitrogen, and heat
D. Solid, liquid, and gas
4. Those that release or give off energy (heat) thus produce substances with less energy than
the reactants
A. Exothermic
B. Oxidation
C, Endothermic
D. Flames
5. Exemplified by a Bunsen-type laboratory burner where hydrocarbon is thoroughly mixed
with air before reaching the flame zone.
A. Laminar Flame
B. Premixed Flame
C. Turbulent Flame
D. Non-Luminous Flame
6. The type of flame that is those having unsteady, irregular flows.
A. Laminar Flame
B. Premixed Flame
C. Turbulent Flame
D. Non-Luminous Flame
7. A class of fuel in which they are ordinary combustible materials that are usually made of
organic substances such as wood and wood-based products.
A. Class A
A. Class B
B. Class C
D. Class D
8. The name given to such replaceable organic matters like wood, garbage and animal manure
that can be used to produce energy
A. Coal
B. Plastics
C. Fibers
D. Biomass
9. One of the materials that provide useful energy, that are also used to heat and cook food.
A. Tools
B. Plastic
C. Fuels
D. Fibers

10. They come from plants (Coir – coconut fiber, Cotton – seed fiber, pulp – wood fiber),
from animals (wool, silk, protein fibers – leather), from minerals (asbestos).
 A .Chemical fibers
B. Synthetic fibers
C. Natural fibers
D. Artificial fibers
11. Black, combustible, mineral solid resulting from the partial decomposition of matter under
varying degrees of temperature.
A . Coal
B. Plastics
C. Peat
D. Biomass
12.This gas like synthetic liquid fuels is used chiefly where certain fuels are abundant and
others are scarce.
A. Compressed Gas
B. Manufactured Gas
C. Natural Gas
D. Liquefied Gas
13. Gas which at normal temperature inside its container, exist partly in the liquid state and
partly in the gaseous state and under pressure as long as any liquid remains in the container.
A. Compressed Gas
B. Manufactured Gas
C. Natural Gas
D. Liquefied Gas
14. Flammable gases are usually used for burning with air to produce heat, utilize as power,
light, comfort and process. Most commonly used gases are natural gas and the LPG (butane
and propane)
A. Industrial Gases
B. Manufactured Gases
C. Medical Gases
D. Fuel Gases
15. Those used for treatment such as anesthesia (chloroform, nitrous oxide); respiratory
therapy (oxygen).
A. Industrial Gases
B. Manufactured Gases
C. Medical Gases
C. Fuel Gases
16. This group includes a large number of gases used for industrial processes as those in
welding and cutting, refrigeration, chemical processing, and water treatment.
A. Industrial Gases
B. Manufactured Gases
C. Medical Gases
D. Fuel Gases
17. What is the flame composed of, during the rapid combination of oxygen or gaseous
chlorine with other materials?
A. Water particles
B. Solid material
C. Glowing particles of burning material
D. Inert gases
18. What is the reason why can only vapors burn?
A. Because vapors have a unique chemical composition
B. Because solids and liquids are too tightly packed for oxidation
C. Because gases have a higher ignition temperature
D. Because liquids lack oxygen molecules

19. What most likely allows a substance to oxidize?

 A. When its molecules are closely packed
B. Loose packing of molecules
C. With the presence of helium
D. When its molecules are well surrounded by oxygen
20. What must happen for a vapor to start burning?
A. It must be in a gaseous state
B. It must be tightly packed
C. It must reach its ignition temperature and there is enough oxygen
D. It must be in a liquid state
21. What does Specific Gravity measure in relation to a solid or liquid substance?
A. The degree of thermal agitation
B. The weight in comparison to volume of water
C. The force exerted by molecules
D. The temperature at ignition
22. What does Vapor Pressure measure in a liquid?
A. The boiling point temperature
B. The force exerted by molecules
C. The weight compared to water
D. The degree of thermal agitation
23. What does Boiling Point signify in the context of fire properties?
A. The minimum temperature for combustion
B. The temperature at which a flammable liquid forms a vapor-air mixture
C. The measure of the degree of thermal agitation of molecules
D. The constant temperature at which vapor pressure equals atmospheric
pressure
24. What is the Fire Point related to in the properties of fire?
A. The measure of the degree of thermal agitation of molecules
B. The lowest temperature at which vapors support combustion
C. The temperature at which a flammable liquid forms a vapor-air mixture
D. The temperature at which a substance must be heated to initiate combustion
25. What is the Ignition Temperature of a substance?
A. The minimum temperature a substance needs to initiate combustion
B. The temperature at which vapors support combustion
C. The lowest temperature for liquid vapor evolution
D. The boiling point temperature
26. Which type of solid fuels, such as wood and paper, undergo chemical decomposition,
releasing vapors that support flaming combustion?
A. Non-pyrolyze solid fuels
B. Charcoal
C. Pyrolyzable solid fuels
D. Liquid fuels
27.In the context of pyrolyzable solid fuels, what type of reaction occurs when the released
vapors mix with oxygen in the air to produce a flame?
A. Gas-to-gas reaction
B. Solid-to-solid reaction
C. Gas-to-solid reaction
D. Solid-to-gas reaction
28.What is a common example of a non-pyrolyzable solid fuel?
A. Wood
B. Paper
C. Charcoal
D. Liquid fuel

29. What is Bite back in the context of firefighting?

 A condition when the fire becomes stronger and bigger instead of being
extinguished.
B. A controlled explosion during firefighting operations.
C. Sudden ignition of radical gases in a confined space.
D. dust explosion caused by metal post being hit by lightning.
30. During which stage of a fire does the temperature at the base range from 400-800 F, with
pyrolysis products mainly being water vapor and carbon dioxide?
A. Free Burning Phase
B. Smoldering Phase
C. Ignition Stage
D. Incipient Phase (Initial Stage)
31. What condition is associated with the introduction of a sufficient supply of oxygen during
the Smoldering Phase?
A. Flashover occurrence
B. Development of convection currents
C. Backdraft occurrence
D. Formation of thermal columns
32. What is spontaneous heating in the context of fire initiation?
A. The intentional ignition of organic materials
B. The automatic chemical reaction leading to spontaneous combustion
C. A form of static electricity
D. The sudden rise in temperature due to external factors
33. What is the nature of lightning that makes it a potential fire initiator?
A. Slow and steady flow of current
B. Controlled amperage and voltage
C. Natural current with great magnitude, producing tremendous amperage and
voltage
D. Rapid discharge of static electricity
34. A lightning may be in this form when it is longer in duration, and is capable of igniting
combustible materials
A. Hot Bolt
B. Short Circuit
C. Cold Bolt
D. Sparking
35. A lightning may be in this form when it is shorter in duration, and is capable of e of
splintering a property or literally blowing apart an entire structure, produces electrical current
with tremendous amperage and very high temperature.
A. Hot Bolt
B. Short Circuit
C.Cold Bolt
C. Sparking
36. Accidental causes such as this, is unsual or accidental connections between two points at
different potentials (charge) in an electrical circuit of relatively low resistance.
A. Hot Bolt C. Short Circuit
B. Cold Bolt D. Sparking
37. Accidental causes such as this, happens when production of incandescent particles when
two different potentials (charge conductors) come in contact; occurs during short circuits or
welding operations.
A. Hot Bolt C. Short Circuit
B. Cold Bolt D. Sparking

39. Which types of fires are classified as Class B Fires?

 A. Fires resulting from the burning of wood and paper
B. Fires caused by electrical equipment
C. Fires caused by flammable and combustible liquids
D. Fires resulting from the combustion of certain metals
40. What characterizes Class C Fires?
A. Fires resulting from the combustion of certain metals
B. Fires caused by electrical equipment and live wires
C. Fires resulting from the burning of rubber and textiles
D. Fires caused by liquid hydrocarbon deviations
41. Which types of fires fall under Class D Fires?
A. Fires resulting from the burning of wood and paper
B. Fires caused by liquid hydrocarbon deviations
C. Fires caused by flammable and combustible liquids
D. Fires resulting from the combustion of certain metals in finely divided forms
42. What is the purpose of an Accelerant in the context of fire?
A. To facilitate flame propagation
B. To extinguish flames
C. To act as a fire retardant
D. To cool down the fire
43. How is the term "Plant" used in the context of fire preparation?
A. The act of growing fire-resistant plants
B. The preparation and gathering of combustible materials needed to start a fire
C. The act of planting trees in fire-prone areas
D. The preparation of fire-resistant substances
44. What does the term "Trailer" refer to in relation to fire preparation?
A vehicle used to transport firefighting equipment
B. The act of trailing a fire to control its spread
C. The preparation of non-flammable substances
D. The preparation of flammable substances in order to spread the fire
45. According to Republic Act No. 6975, what is the primary responsibility of the Bureau of
Fire Protection (BFP)?
A. To handle emergency medical services
B. To enforce traffic laws
C. To prevent and suppress destructive fires
D. To regulate environmental protection laws
46. Which chapter and sections of Republic Act No. 6975 pertain to the creation of the
Bureau of Fire Protection (BFP)?
A. Chapter 2, Sections 30-39
B. Chapter 3, Sections 40-49
C. Chapter 4, Sections 53-59
D. Chapter 5, Sections 60-69
47. What is the full title of Republic Act No. 6975?
A. The Fire Safety and Prevention Act
B. The Emergency Response Act
C. The Disaster Management Act
D. The DILG Act of 1990
48. What does the term "Pre-Fire Planning" involve in the context of fire protection?
A. Putting out fires before they start
B. Developing and defining systematic courses of action for fire protection
objectives
C. Establishing firefighting teams
D. Evacuating people from burning areas

49. What is the purpose of "Evaluation Size Up" in firefighting?

 A. Assessing the size of the fire
B. Determining the appropriate course of action based on mental evaluation
C. Measuring the area affected by the fire
D. Implementing on-the-spot training for firefighters
50. What is the operation of "Rescue" in firefighting?
A. Putting out fires
B. Forcibly accessing a burning structure
C. Removing and saving people and livestock from the burning building
D. Transferring people, livestock, and property away from the burning area
51.What is the purpose of "Fire Scene Investigation" in the context of firefighting?
A. Putting out the main body of fire
B. Salvaging properties from preventable damage
C. Determining the origin and cause of the fire
D. Displacing toxic gases within a building
52. How does a sprinkler system work in a building?
A. It uses a network of pipes to carry water to ceiling nozzles that spray water when
heat from a fire is detected.
A. It relies on fire extinguishers placed strategically throughout the building.
B. It directly extinguishes fires without the need for water pipes.
C. It uses heat sensors to activate water sprayers on the ceiling.
53. What is the purpose of Fire Bureau personnel inspecting public buildings?
A. To sell fire protection systems to building owners
B. To enforce the local code and ensure fire safety
C. To conduct fire drills for building occupants
D. To assess the structural integrity of the buildings
54. What is the purpose of a Smoke Detector in a home?
A. To regulate temperature
B. To provide ambient lighting
C. To sound an alarm if a small amount of smoke is detected
D.To control home security systems
55. Where are Smoke Detectors typically installed in a home?
A. Attached to the floor in the living room
B. On shelves in the kitchen
C. On the ceiling or wall in several areas of the home
D. Inside cabinets in the bedroom
56.What do fire protection experts recommend regarding the placement of Smoke Detectors
in a residence?
A. One detector for the entire residence
B. At least one detector for each floor of the residence
C. Only in the kitchen area
D. Attached to the floor in bedrooms
57. How is Class A Fire extinguished?
A. By smothering or blanketing
B. By using foam and vaporizing liquid
C. By quenching and cooling with water
D. By controlling with a non-conducting extinguishing agent
60. How are Class C Fires controlled?
A. By quenching and cooling with water
B. By smothering or blanketing (oxygen exclusion)
C. By using foam and vaporizing liquid
D. By using a non-conducting extinguishing agent, such as Carbon Dioxide, Dry
Chemical, and Vaporizing liquids

61. How is a Fire Extinguisher typically constructed?

 A. Made of wood and glass
B. Made of metal
C. Made of plastic
D. Made of ceramic materials
62. What is the primary purpose of a Fire Extinguisher?
A. To create a barrier against fire
B. To detect fires
C. To stop small fires before they propagate
D. To provide emergency lighting
63. Which type of fire is a Water Fire Extinguisher primarily used to fight?
A. Class A fires
B. Class B fires
C. Class C fires
D. Class D fires
64. What is the primary purpose of Dry Chemical Extinguishers?
A. To fight only Class C fires
B. To fight all classes of fires
C. To fight only Class A fires
D. To fight only Class B fires
65. How does a Soda-acid Fire Extinguisher operate?
A. It releases a stream of liquid by manual pumping
B. It uses a stored pressure to expel a stream of liquid
C. It builds pressure inside by a chemical reaction between sodium bicarbonate and
sulfuric acid
D. It releases a foam created by a reaction between sodium bicarbonate and aluminum
sulfate
66. Which type of fire is Carbon Dioxide Fire extinguishers mainly effective against?
A. Class A fires
B. Class B fires
C. Class C fires
D. Class D fires
67. What does the "P" in the fire extinguisher acronym "PASS" stand for?
A. Position
B. Push
C. Pull
D. Point
68. What role do firemen play in fire investigation?
A. Firemen are primarily responsible for fire investigation.
B. Firemen are not involved in fire investigations.
C. Firemen serve as valuable sources of information and are the "Eyes and Ears" at
the crime scene.
D. Firemen focus on controlling fires and do not contribute to investigations.
69. Why are Communication Systems essential in firefighting?
A. To provide entertainment for fire fighters
B. To alert fire fighters to the outbreak of a fire
C. To facilitate communication between fire trucks
D. To control the water pressure in fire hydrants
70. In many countries, what is the purpose of introducing a simple 3-digit number as the
emergency telephone number?
A. To make international calls
B. To report non-emergency incidents
C. To alert fire fighters to the outbreak of a fire
D. To provide information about local events

71. What are the two kinds of ladder appliances in firefighting?

 A. Fire engines and ladder trucks
B. Turntable ladders and hydraulic platforms
C. Booster lines and protective clothing
D. Rescue vehicles and special fire vehicles
72. What is the primary purpose of Rescue Vehicles in firefighting?
A. To carry additional fire fighters
B. To provide communication support
C. To perform unusual rescues and carry additional equipment
D. To boost water pressure and force it through hoses
73. What are the common forcible entry tools carried by Fire Fighting Vehicles?
A. Portable ladders and hydraulic jacks
B. Axes, power saws, and sledge hammers
C. Oxyacetylene torches and crowbars
D. Ropes and harnesses
74. What is the primary function of Airport Crash Tenders among Special Fire Vehicles?
A. To carry additional fire fighters
B. To perform unusual rescues
C. To spray foam or dry chemicals on burning aircraft
D. To carry medical supplies
75. What does the law presume about a fire?
A.The fire is accidental
B. The fire is intentional
C. The fire is caused by negligence
D. The fire is a criminal act

76. Does a fire caused by accident or negligence constitute arson, according to the text?
A. Yes, in all cases
B. No, in no cases
C. Yes, but only in specific circumstances
D. No, only intentional or malicious fires constitute arson

77. According to Article 320 of the Revised Penal Code, what is the penalty for Destructive
Arson?
A. Imprisonment for a fixed term
B. Reclusion Temporal
C. Reclusion Perpetua to Death
D. Community service
78. What is considered another form of arson when it comes to public buildings?
A. Burning public buildings with any amount of damage
B. Burning public buildings with a purpose to destroy evidence for prosecution
C. Burning public buildings with damage exceeding Php6,000.00
D. Burning public buildings for any reason
79. According to Article 323 of the Revised Penal Code, what conditions define Arson of
Property of Small Value?
A. Burning any uninhabited property without any value limit
B. Burning any uninhabited property with a value not exceeding 25.00 pesos
C. Burning any inhabited property with a value exceeding 25.00 pesos
D. Burning any uninhabited property with a value exceeding 25.00 pesos
80. According to Presidential Decree No. 1613, what are considered special aggravating
circumstances in arson?
A. If committed with intent to gain
B. If committed with the benefit of another
C. If the offender is motivated by spite or hatred towards the owner or occupant
D. All of the above
81. What does "willfulness" in the context of arson imply?
 A. Unintentional
B. Accidental
C. Purposeful and intentional
D. Spontaneous
82. What does "malice" in the context of arson denote?
A. Indifference
B. Desire for revenge
C. Accidental
D. Unintentional
83. What is "intent" in the context of arson?
A.The purpose or design with which the act is done
B. The method used to start the fire
C. The duration of the fire
D. The speed at which the fire spreads
84. During the free burning stage of a fire, what leaves a burnt pattern that helps establish the
point of origin?
A. Witness statements
B. Inspection of debris
C. Fingerprint of fire
D. Pyrolytic decomposition
85. When questioning a witness about a fire, what information should be obtained?
A. Their favorite color
B. Time of observation, size and intensity of the fire, and other relevant details
C. Their opinion on firefighting techniques
D. The weather conditions at the time
86. When might arson be used as a means to conceal a crime?
A. When the arsonist wants economic gain
B. When the purpose is punitive
C. When committing another crime or hiding a crime
D. When motivated by jealousy
87. In which scenario might arson be used as a form of punitive measure?
A. Economic gain
B. Concealment of crime
C. Intimidation of economic disabling
D. Inflicting injury due to hatred, jealousy, or revenge
88. In a small town, a fire breaks out at a local business establishment. The investigators find
evidence indicating intentional and malicious destruction of property by fire. What criminal
act is likely to be associated with the intentional and malicious destruction of property by
fire?
A. Burglary
B. Vandalism
C. Arson
D. Fraud
89. What does a purple-violet flame indicate in terms of the burning materials?
A. Wood or paper
B. Petroleum products
C. Magnesium products
D. Potassium products
90. If there is a black smoke with red and blue-green flame, what material might be involved
in the fire?
A. Wood or paper
B. Asphalt
C. Potassium products
D. Calcium products
91. What does a bright reddish-yellow flame suggest in terms of burning materials?
 A. Wood or paper
B. Nitrogen products
C. Calcium products
D. Potassium products
92. How do explosions typically feed in terms of direction?
A. Upward
B. Downward
C. Laterally in all directions
D. Horizontally only
93. What is a crucial skill for an investigator in arson cases, especially when dealing with
people?
A. Proficiency in fire science
B. Ability to analyze debris patterns.
C. Expertise in handling explosives.
D. Skill in interviewing people effectively.
94. What does the depth of char in burning wood indicate in arson investigation?
A. Intensity of the fire.
B. Type of accelerant used.
C. Length of burn and the point of origin.
D. Presence of explosive materials.
95. What does the freezing of leaves in a forest fire indicate in arson investigation?
A. Type of leaves involved.
B. Presence of accelerants.
C. Time of day the fire occurred.
D. Insufficient evidence for arson.
96. What is the purpose of using Ultraviolet Fluorescence in arson investigation?
A. Record temperature changes
B. Illuminate the fire scene
C. Locate accelerant residues and point of origin
D. Measure air quality
97. What is the last step in the basic line of inquiry for an arson investigation?
A. Identifying the point of origin
B. Analyzing burn indicators
C. Determining the depth of char
D. Identification of the fire setters and accomplices
98. What are the main reasons for the low rate of investigation of fires?
A. Administrative problems
B. Physical nature of the fire scene
C. Lack of interest from investigators
D. Both A and B
99. Which of the following best describe arson?
A. Arson is an unintentional act of destruction by fire.
B. Arson involves the intentional or malicious destruction of property by fire.
C. Arson is only considered a crime if it leads to injuries.
D. Arson is synonymous with accidental fires.
100. cut a hole in the concrete floor for a cellar type, the cutting operation should start.
A. At the thickest point of the concrete flooring
B. In the center of the concrete flooring between the floor beams
C. close to the floor beams
D. none of these
 TECHNICAL ENGLISH 1 and 2

1. The prototypes of any documents or forms used in a legal transaction or judicial

proceedings, which contain important matters conveyed in technical
terminologies and presented in a suitable and systematic order in accordance
with the circumstances of any case is what you called?
A. Legal writing
B. Legal forms
C. Legal logic
D. Statutory construction
2. The case report, which contains the initial listing of the facts of the case.
A. Progress Report
B. Preliminary Report
C. Follow-up Report
D. Final Report
3. Legal forms include forms in the following, except
A. Ordinary Civil Actions
B. Special Civil Actions
C. Special Proceedings
D. None of the above
4. The complete, more detailed report, which contains sufficient evidence noted, the
identity of perpetrators, which warrants the filing of the case to court
A. Progress Report
B. Preliminary Report
C. Update Report
D. Final Report
5. This part of information Report contains the reporting unit, date of report, the
subject, and date of information.
A. Body
B. Comments
C. Heading
D. Signature
6. This should include the objective views of the reporting officer and/or P/A and/or
filed sources as to the significance of the information submitted
A. Body
B. Comments
C. Heading
D. Signature
7. Indicated here is the branch/Group or Station submitting. Standard abbreviations
for the designated office may be used here.
A. Reporting Unit
B. Date Acquired
C. Date of report
D. Subject
8. Contains as succinctly as possible the name or description of the matter (s) reported
upon.
 A. Reporting Unit
B. Date Acquired
C. Date of report
D . Subject

9. A document containing facts related to a legal proceeding made underoath is what

you called?
A. sworn statement
B. affidavit
C. inquest
D. complaint
10. A remedy by which a party seeks to establish a status, a right, or a particular fact.
a. Ordinary civil actions
b. Criminal actions
c. Special proceedings
d. Special civil action
11. Given here is the date(s) when each particular information was obtained by the
reporting officer.
A. Place acquired
B. Date of information
C. Date of report
D. Report number
12. Given here is the place(s) where each item of information was obtained by the
reporting officer.
A. Place acquired
B. Date of information
C. Date of report
D. Report number
13. Inserted here is the number of the report.
A. Place acquired
B. Date of information
C. Date of report
D. D. Report number
14. Stated here is any pertinent reference, whether to previously relate information
reports and/or reference material and/or operational reports from which the
information was taken.
A. Source(s)
B. Attachment
B. References
D. Evaluation
15. Stated here is the degree of reliability of the information reported, both as to
source and as to contents by use of evaluation codes (letters and numbers).
A. Source
B. Attachment
C. References
D. Evaluation
16. Enumerate here the different annexes appended and pertinent to the information
report.
A. Source(s)
B. Attachment
 C. References
D. Evaluation

17. Described here are the source to assist the reader in arriving at an evaluation of the
report, while at the same time, for security reason, protecting the source's
identity.
A. Source
B. Attachment
C. References
D. Evaluation
18. This will contain a narrative discussion of the subject(s) of the information report.
This should cover the important points of the report proper.
A. Body
B. Comments
C..Heading
D. Signature
19. The four (4) C Test of a Good Report include all, except:
A. Clear
B. Complete
C. Concise
D. Careful
20. An account of any occurrence prepared after a thorough investigation
A. Report
C. Interview
B. Review
D. Documentation
21. Why are written reports considered important in investigative activities?
A. To entertain the reader with engaging narratives.
B. To create temporary records for daily activities.
C. To preserve information of cases as a permanent record.
D. To save paper and promote environmental sustainability.
22. What primary function do written reports serve in investigative work?
A. To confuse and mislead the reader.
B. To make possible the transmission of fictional stories.
C. To provide inaccurate details of cases.
D. To make it possible to transmit facts or essential data.
23. How do written reports contribute to intelligence activities?
A. By discouraging investigation coordination.
B. By aiding in the creation of fictional stories.
C. By providing accurate details for analysis.
D. By promoting the misinterpretation of information.
24. What is essential for accurate and detailed reporting?
A. A haphazard approach to information collection.
B. A tendency to overlook critical details.
C. Ability to collect and retain information accurately and in detail.
D. A preference for vague and ambiguous information.
25. Why the timely transmission of collected information important in reporting?
A. To create unnecessary delays in the reporting process.
B. To prevent the dissemination of accurate information.
 C. To hinder the understanding of the assignment.
D. To transmit the collected information as soon as possible.

26. Which of the following is a crucial criterion to ensure the quality of a report?
A. Inclusion of vague or unclear terms.
B. Avoidance of precise language.
C. Usage of ambiguous terms.
D. Must not contain vague or unclear terms.
27. How should abbreviations be used in a report?
A. Liberally, without considering appropriateness.
B. Only in the title of the report.
C. Appropriately
D. Never use abbreviations.
28. What should be avoided in terms of language in a report?
A. Use of slang and unnecessary technical terms.
B. Inclusion of complex jargon.
C. Limiting the report to simple language.
D. Avoidance of any technical terms.
29. Mina is a defendant and requiring her appearance in the action in court under the
penalty of having judgment entered against her for failure to do so is what you
called?
A. Judgment
B. Summons
C. affidavit of desistance
D. Trial
30. What is a key requirement for the content of a report?
A. Inclusion of personal biases and prejudices.
B. Making the content fictional.
C. Ensuring the content is factual and free from bias or prejudices.
D. Omitting crucial information.
31. Which question helps identify the individuals involved in an incident or situation?
A. What?
B. Who?
B. When?
C. How?
32. What question seeks to understand the process or method involved in an
occurrence?
A. Where?
B. What?
B. How?
C. When?
33. All are considered basic characteristics of a good report, except
A. Pertinent
B. Biased
C. Complete
D. Timely
34. What is an essential component that a good report should provide comprehensive
details about?
 A. Investigator's Background
B. Weather Conditions
C. Complete Data of Victim or Suspect
D. Incident's Location

35. What is the recommended format for preparing a good report to enhance
readability?
A. Handwritten
B. Printed
C. Typed or Computerized
D. Photocopied
36. Which of the following is NOT typically covered by General Orders?
A. Shifting of functions within the organization
B. Changes in territorial jurisdiction of police precincts
C. Announcing personnel appointments
D. Modification of the organization's skeleton
37. When would Circulars be used in a police organization?
A. For the dissemination of specific orders
B. To implement temporary directives
C. In publication of laws and ordinances
D. For communication of valuable information
38. What is the typical duration of directives communicated through Memoranda in a
police organization?
A. Indefinite duration
B. Temporary or lasting for a certain period
C. Permanent duration
D. Variable duration based on the content
39. How is each criminal uniquely identified in the Identification Report?
A. By their physical characteristics
B. Through a photograph
C. With an identification number
D. By their administrative report
40. What serves as the heart of the identification system in a police report?
A. Administrative Report
B. Fingerprint records
C. Miscellaneous Report
D. Criminal Identification Number
41. Characterizes as the Miscellaneous Report in a police department?
A. Relates to recorded complaint and investigation reports
B. Provides positive identification
C. Informational in nature
D. Requires an identification number
42. What role do police reports play in the creation of record systems?
A. They serve as a gauge for efficiency
B. They are written for policy-formulation
C. They serve as raw materials for record systems
D. They guide prosecutors in trials
43. What serves as a gauge for evaluating the efficiency of police officers?
A. Raw materials for record systems
B. Policy-formulation
 C. Reports guiding prosecutors
D. Police reports
44. For what purpose are police reports written to guide police administrators?
A. Raw materials for record systems
B. Efficiency evaluation
C. Policy-formulation and decision-making
D. Guiding prosecutors in trials
45. What does "perspective" refer to in the context of a police report?
A. The selection of information
B. The organization of the report
C. The point of view from which findings are presented
D. The coherence of the report
46. What should an effective writer be able to distinguish between when writing a
police report?
A. Chronological order and organization
B. Facts and opinions
C. Objectivity and coherence
D. Selectivity and perspective
47. Which order should be followed in writing the report?
A. Selectivity order
B. Objectivity order
C. Stylistic order
D. Chronological order
48. When should a SPOT report be done or acted upon?
A. Within 48 hours
B. Within 36 hours
C. Within 24 hours
D. Within 72 hours
49. When might a progress report be comparatively longer?
A. When it follows up on an initial report
B. When it summarizes investigation findings
C. When it follows up on a project or program
D. When it provides a chronological order of events
50. What is the primary characteristic of a Progress Report in law enforcement?
A. It provides historical information
B. It accounts for ongoing investigations
C. It follows up on a significant incident
D. It analyzes the progress of a case
51. What is the focus of a Fact-Finding Report?
A. Drawing conclusions from gathered data
B. Gathering and presenting data in logical order
C. Analyzing specialized subjects
D. Identifying and solving problems
52. Which type of report involves the presentation of data on a specialized subject?
A. Fact-Finding Report
B. Technical Report
C. Problem-Determining Report
D. Problem-Solving Report
53. What is the purpose of a Problem-Determining Report?
 A. Presenting data in logical order
B. Analyzing specialized subjects
C. Finding the causes of a problem
D. Solving a particular problem

54. As part of the investigation, you need to identify whether the spill was caused by a
faulty dispenser or simple negligence. What type of report is focused on
determining the causes of a problem or incident?
A. Incident Report
B. Technical Report
C. Problem-Determining Report
D. Progress Report
55. To enhance future safety measures, what aspect of the report should focus on
proposing preventive measures?
A. Conclusions
B. Recommendations
C. Witness statements
D. Incident details
56. What kind of details are typically found in a Police Blotter entry?
A. Fictional narratives
B. Material details of daily events
C. Cooking recipes
D. Poetry
57. For what purposes is the information in a Police Blotter used?
A. Artistic exhibitions
B. Legal and statistical analysis
C. Movie scripts
D. Gardening advice
58. In which locations do police units or commands maintain Police Blotters?
A. Outer space
B. Territories and jurisdictions
C. Terrestrial
D. National
59. Which of the following should be included on the front cover of the Police
Blotter?
A. The author's house address
B. Volume or book number
C. The police officer's personal details
D. The officer's shoe size
60. What information should be on the front cover of the Police Blotter?
A. The author's name
B. The weather forecast
C. Name or designation of the police force and district
D. A famous quote
61. What is the primary purpose of a Police Blotter entry?
A. Entertainment
B. Permanent record of incidents
C. Artistic expression
D. Musical inspiration
62. Why are Police Blotter reports essential for investigations?
 A. To create fictional stories
B. To prepare court cases
C. To organize dance competitions
D. To start a book club

63. What is the primary tool used for making entries in the Police Blotter?
A. Pencil
B. Quill
C. Ball pen with blue or black ink
D. Marker
64. What is the recommended manner for handwritten entries in the Police Blotter?
A. Calligraphy
B. Messy and unreadable
C. Clear, concise, and simple
D. Graffiti style
65. What is the purpose of numbering every page of the Police Blotter consecutively?
A. To confuse readers
B. Aesthetic purposes
C. Chronological filling
D. To waste paper
66. How should corrections be made in the Police Blotter?
A. Erase and rewrite
B. Use correction fluid
C. Draw a horizontal line over words or phrases
D. Tear the page and start over
67. John, a witness to a car accident, wants to provide a sworn statement regarding
what he observed. He approaches the legal authorities to offer an affidavit. Who
can offer an affidavit?
A. Only lawyers
B. Only individuals with legal training
C. Any individual with mental capacity
D. Only government officials
68. Can an individual be penalized for not including information they were not aware
of in an affidavit?
A. Yes, always
B. No, never
C. It depends on the case
D. Only if the court insists
69. How must the affidavit of complaint be made?
A. Verbally in front of a magistrate
B. In writing, sworn before a magistrate or authorized court clerk
C. Only in the presence of a lawyer
D. Over the phone with law enforcement
70. What is the purpose of an affidavit of complaint?
A. To provide evidence in court
B. To make a formal complaint against a person
C. To assist law enforcement in their investigation
D. Both B and C
71. When is an affidavit of witness typically used in legal proceedings?
 A. During a traffic violation case
B. During the discovery process
C. Only in civil cases
D. Only at trial
72. Who is the witness being deposed in an Affidavit?
A. The attorney
B. The deponent
C. The judge
D. The notary public
73. What does the term "deponent" refer to in the context of an Affidavit?
A. The person accused of a crime
B. The witness providing the sworn testimony
C. The legal representative of the witness
D. The judge presiding over the case
74. Janna, a concerned citizen, decides to take legal action against her neighbor,
Jester, for continuous disturbance and property damage. She initiates the lawsuit
by filing a Complaint Sheet to address the issues she has been facing. What is the
primary purpose of a Complaint Sheet in a lawsuit?
A. To provide entertainment
B. To initiate legal action officially
C. To share personal opinions
D. To create fictional stories
75. What does the Complaint Sheet contain?
A. Recipes for justice
B. The defendant's favorite color
C. Allegations against the defense, violated laws, facts, and demands
D. Fictional stories
76. What does the term "allegations" refer to in the context of a Complaint Sheet?
A. The defendant's favorite activities
B. Specific laws followed by the plaintiff
C. Claims or assertions made by the plaintiff against the defense
D. Fictional characters involved in the lawsuit
77. What does the plaintiff typically demand in a Complaint Sheet?
A. A party
B. Restore justice
C. Recipes for resolution
D. A judge's favorite color
78. Detective Smith believes he has gathered enough evidence to search a suspect's
house for illegal substances. To proceed legally, he obtains a warrant from a
judge. What is a "warrant" in a legal context?
A. A colorful document
B. A specific type of authorization
C. A detective's badge
D. A suspect's alibi
79. Who typically issues a warrant?
A. Detective Smith
B. The suspect
C. A competent officer, usually a judge or magistrate
D. The neighborhood watch
80. What protection does a person executing a warrant receive?
 A. Protection from the suspect's retaliation
B. A guarantee of success in the investigation
C. Protection from damages if the authorized act is performed
D. A legal immunity shield

81. What is the e-Warrant System designed to do?

A. Track the movement of suspects
B. Electronically document all warrants of arrest
C. Manage police uniforms
D. Replace traditional snail mail
82. Who developed the e-Warrant System?
A. Detective Rodriguez
B. Information Technology Experts from ITMS and DIDM
C. The suspects in the cases
D. The snail mail delivery system
83. An informal and summary investigation conducted by a public prosecutor in a
criminal case involving persons arrested and detained without the benefit of a
warrant of arrest referred to?
A. sworn statement
B. affidavit
C. inquest
D. complaint
84. What information does the Rogues' Gallery frequently provide to the patrol
forces?
A. Artistic inspiration
B. Details about social events
C. Useful information about criminals
D. Updates on police officers' achievements
85. How does Crime Mapping benefit the general public and the community?
A. By organizing public events
B. By helping victims find suspects
C. By providing information on crime incidents
D. By promoting criminal activities
86. What does Crime Mapping offer the public to help reduce crimes in the region?
A. Social media accounts
B. Information on police officers
C. Up-to-date crime incident details
D. Coupons for local businesses
87. How can the public use Crime Mapping to avoid being victims of crimes?
A. By engaging in risky behaviors
B. By taking alternative routes based on crime data
C. By confronting potential criminals
D. By organizing neighborhood patrols
88. What is the significance of deploying more uniformed policemen in crime-prone
areas during the Christmas season?
A. To participate in holiday festivities
B. To enhance the aesthetics of the community
C. To ensure a safer environment during a potentially high-crime period
D. To distribute Christmas gifts to residents
89. You are a senior police officer in charge of commendations and recognitions
within your police department. You have received an outstanding report about
the heroic actions of Police Officer Rodriguez, who bravely rescued a family
from a burning building. As the officer responsible for commendations, you
decide to prepare a subject-to-letter to formally recognize Officer Rodriguez's
exemplary performance. What is the primary purpose of the subject-to-letter in
this scenario?
A. Requesting additional resources for the police department
B. Acknowledging the receipt of a report
C. Formally recognizing and commending an exemplary performance
D. Initiating an investigation into Officer Rodriguez's actions
90. Who is the recipient of the subject-to-letter in this case?
A. Officer Rodriguez's family
B. The local news station
C. The police department's commendations and recognitions office
D. The building owner where the rescue took place
91. Which term best describes the relationship between the sender and the recipient of
the subject-to-letter?
A. Intra-organizational
B. Civilian and military
C. Adversarial
D. External communication
92. What kind of actions or achievements would typically be acknowledged in a
subject-to-letter?
A. Personal grievances of police officers
B. Everyday routine tasks
C. Exemplary performance or commendable actions
D. Financial requests for the police department
93. John is a defendant in a criminal case. He has been summoned to appear in court
for the first time to address the charges against him. John can either appear in
person or through his attorney. The court appearance is a critical step in the legal
process, where John's formal submission to the court's jurisdiction will take
place. What is the primary purpose of John's appearance in court?
A. Seeking legal advice from the judge
B. Submitting to the jurisdiction of the court
C. Proclaiming innocence without legal representation
D. Avoiding the legal proceedings
94. What is the significance of the appearance in the legal process?
A. Optional step for defendants
B. Initial court proceeding to address charges
C. Request for dismissal of the case
D. Submission of evidence
95. Who governs the conduct of an appearance in a criminal case, according to the
scenario?
A. Local community rules
B. State and federal rules of Criminal Procedure
C. Defendant's personal preferences
D. Judge's individual discretion
96. How is a subpoena described in legal terms?
 A. Voluntary legal request
B. Court-ordered command
C. Informal legal suggestion
D. Optional legal notification

97. What does a subpoena essentially require individuals to do?

A. Attend a legal seminar
B. Testify in court or produce information
C. Ignore legal proceedings
D. Share personal opinions
98 .Lino received a subpoena requiring her to appear in court as a witness in a legal
proceeding. The subpoena also requests her to bring specific documents related to the
case. What is a subpoena primarily used for in the legal context?
A. Requesting legal advice
B. Ordering the production of documents
C. Inviting individuals to a party
D. Recommending dismissal
99. In Lino’s case, what is the specific request mentioned in the subpoena?
A. Providing legal consultation
B. Appearing in court as a witness
C. Organizing a court event
D. Conducting an investigation
100. You received a subpoena duces tecum, requiring him to produce specific
documents and materials relevant to an ongoing legal investigation. What is the
primary purpose of a subpoena duces tecum?
A. Inviting individuals to a court party
B. Requesting legal advice
C. Requiring the production of documents or materials
D. Recommending court appearances
 VICE AND DRUG EDUCATION AND CONTROL

1. It is he Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002?

A. RA 9162
B. RA 9344
C.9165
D .none
2. The term "vice" typically refer to?
A. A moral failing or bad habit
B. Illegal activities considered morally offensive by the community
C. Holding back or controlling something, such as drug use
D. Common human vices like anger, arrogance, envy, and gluttony
3. Which of the following best describes a vice?
A. A good habit that promotes moral strength
B. A behavior considered virtuous in society
C. A practice, behavior, or habit generally considered immoral or sinful
D. A trait associated with strong moral character
4. These are activities that are made illegal because they offend the moral standards
of the community banning them.
A. Vice-crime
B. Vice
C. Vice control
D. Human vices
5. What are the big three of vice crimes in most states and communities?
A. Gambling, arrogance, anger
B. Gambling, rudeness, prostitution
C. Gambling, pornography, prostitution
D. Gambling, envy, cheating
6. It is a process of preventing, managing and regulating the use and exploitation of
drugs.
A. Vice control
B. Anger
C. Human vices
D. Vice-crime
7. Which of the following are some of the example of common human vices?
A. Anger, greed, cheating, lying, sloth, gluttony
B. Gluttony, envy, greed, sloth, anger, arrogance
C. Envy, lust, rudeness, gambling, anger, arrogance
D. Anger, arrogance, envy, lying, cheating, sloth
8. Which of the following best describes the behavior of individuals motivated by
greed?
A. prioritize the well-being of others over their own material wealth.
B. They seek to accumulate wealth without harming others.
 C. They compulsively and without regard to whom may be harmed by
their laser-like focus on continuing to accumulate wealth or material
possessions.
D. They are satisfied with their current level of wealth and possessions.

9. What does the term "lust" primarily refer to?

A. Feeling physically attracted to another person.
B. A strong sense of romantic interest or love.
C. Overwhelming craving to satisfy a desire, often self-centered.
D. Overwhelming drive or desire to own material possessions.
10. What is the opposite of vice?
A. Virtue
B. Vitium
C. Vicious
D. Value
11. Which Permanent consultants of the DOB?
A. PDEA
B. DBM
C. DDB
D. BPP
12. What is the primary factor that distinguishes virtue from vice?
A. The psychological development of a habit
B. The moral consideration of a habit
C. The promotion of man's overall well-being
D. The division of habit into good and bad
13. What is the defining characteristic of acts of vice?
A. Being habitually opposed to the direction of reason
B. Being conducive to promoting man's moral good
C. Being habitually performed according to the rule of reason
D. Being suitable to human nature
14. How can virtue be defined in relation to habit and moral choices?
A. Virtue is a bad habit of the mind that leads to immoral choices.
B. Virtue is a good habit of the mind that leads to righteous living and cannot
be misused.
C. Virtue is an inclination to choose the extremes of excess and defect.
D. Virtue is a relative mean between the extremes of excess and defect.
15. Which of the following statements accurately describes the practice of prostitution
in the Philippines?
A. Prostitution is legal in the Philippines, but engaging in commercial sex
with a child under the age of 18 is considered rape.
B. Prostitution is illegal in the Philippines, and engaging in commercial
sex with a child under the age of 18 is considered rape.
 C. Prostitution is legal in the Philippines, and bar managers can
circumnavigate laws to facilitate the practice.
D. Prostitution is illegal in the Philippines, but bar managers can
circumnavigate laws to facilitate the practice.
16. How does the Revised Penal Code in the Philippines define prostitutes?
A. Women who engage in sexual intercourse or lascivious conduct.
B. Women for money or profit, habitually indulge in sexual intercourse
or lascivious conduct.
C. Women who engage in sexual activities for money or profit.
D. Women who habitually engage in sexual activities for money or profit.
17. Which law in the Philippines defines taking advantage of a person's vulnerability
for the purpose of exploitation, including prostitution, as trafficking?
A. Revised Penal Code
B. Act No. 3815
C. Republic Act 9208
D. Republic Act 9710
18. How does the Magna Carta of Women view prostitution in the Philippines?
A. It considers prostitution as an act of violence against women.
B. It defines prostitution as a form of exploitation.
C. It views prostitutes as victims who need protection.
D. It casts prostitutes as individuals with loose morals.
19. What is the penalty for offenses covered by Article 202 of the Revised Penal
Code?
A. Arresto menor or a fine not exceeding 200 pesos.
B. Arresto mayor in its medium period to prision correctional in its minimum
period.
C. A fine ranging from 200 to 2,000 pesos.
D. All of the above.
20. Which law in the Philippines specifically addresses engaging a person into
prostitution and trafficking in persons?
A. Republic Act 9208
B. Republic Act 10364
C. Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act of 2003
D. Article 341 of the Revised Penal Code
21. What does the term "Trafficking in Persons" refer to?
A. The recruitment, transportation, and transfer of individuals across
national borders for the purpose of exploitation.
B. The recruitment, transportation, and transfer of individuals within national
borders for the purpose of exploitation.
C. The recruitment, transportation, and transfer of individuals across national
borders for any purpose, with or without their consent.
D. The recruitment, transportation, and transfer of individuals within national
borders for any purpose, with or without their consent.
22. What does Sex Tourism refer to?
 A. A program organized by travel and tourism-related establishments and
individuals that offers tourism packages with cultural activities.
B. A program organized by travel and tourism-related establishments
and individuals that includes sexual services as enticement for
tourists.
C. A program organized by travel and tourism-related establishments and
individuals that promotes sustainable tourism practices.
D. A program organized by travel and tourism-related establishments and
individuals that focuses on adventure sports and outdoor activities.
23. What does Sexual Exploitation refer to?
A. Participation in consensual sexual activities for personal pleasure.
B. Participation in prostitution, pornography, or the production of
pornography in exchange for money or profit.
C. Participation in educational programs related to sexual health and well-
being.
D. Participation in cultural events and festivals that celebrate human
sexuality.
24. Which of the following actions are considered means of coercion or facilitation in
relation to Vice and Drug Education and Control?
A. Intimidation, threat, use of force, or other forms of coercion
B. Abduction, fraud, deception, or debt bondage
C. Abuse of power or position or legal process
D. All of the above
25. What does pornography refer to?
A. Any representation of a person engaged in real or simulated explicit
sexual activities.
B. Any representation of a person engaged in real or simulated explicit sexual
activities for primarily non-sexual purposes.
C. Any representation of a person engaged in real or simulated non-explicit
sexual activities.
D. Any representation of a person engaged in real or simulated explicit sexual
activities for primarily artistic purposes.
26. Rank of chairman of the DDB
A. Under Sec
B. Director
C. Secretary
D. None
27. Under what circumstances can a closed-door investigation, prosecution, or trial be
ordered by law enforcement officers, prosecutors, and judges?
A. Whenever necessary to ensure a fair and impartial proceeding.
B. Whenever the trafficked person requests it.
C. Whenever the case involves a high-profile individual.
D. Whenever the public demands it.
28. When can the name, personal circumstances, or any information establishing the
identity of the trafficked person be disclosed to the public?
A. Only when the trafficked person voluntarily waives confidentiality in
a written statement duly notarized.
B. Only when the case receives significant media attention.
C. Only when the court orders the disclosure.
D. Only when the trafficked person files a complaint.
29. According to the law, when are law enforcement agencies mandated to initiate an
investigation and counter-trafficking intelligence gathering?
A. Only when they receive statements or affidavits from victims of
trafficking.
B. Immediately upon receipt of statements or affidavits from victims of
trafficking, migrant workers, or their families who possess knowledge
or information about trafficking cases.
C. Only when they receive statements or affidavits from migrant workers or
their families who possess knowledge or information about trafficking
cases.
D. Only when they receive statements or affidavits from victims of trafficking
or their families who possess knowledge or information about trafficking
cases.
30. Who can file a complaint for trafficking under the law?
A. Only the trafficked person.
B. Only the parents, spouse, siblings, children, or legal guardian of the
trafficked person.
C. Only the parents, spouse, siblings, children, or legal guardian of the
trafficked person who have personal knowledge of the offense.
D. Any person who has personal knowledge of the commission of any
offense under this Act, including the trafficked person, the parents,
spouse, siblings, children, or legal guardian.
31. In cases involving trafficking in persons, what is the recommended approach
regarding the affidavit of desistance executed by the victims or their parents or
legal guardians?
A. The cases should be dismissed based on the affidavit of desistance.
B. Public and private prosecutors should support and agree with the motions
for dismissal.
C. Public and private prosecutors should oppose and manifest objections
to motions for dismissal.
D. The affidavit of desistance has no impact on the outcome of the cases.
32. According to Republic Act 9710, how is prostitution regarded?
A. Prostitution is considered a form of violence against women.
B. Prostitution is considered a legal and regulated profession.
C. Prostitution is considered a victimless crime.
D. Prostitution is considered a form of entertainment.
33. Which of the following statements accurately describes Republic Act No. 9211,
also known as The Tobacco Regulation Act of 2003?
A. It solely focuses on regulating smoking in public places.
B. It primarily addresses tobacco advertising, promotion, and sponsorship.
C. It only imposes sales restrictions on tobacco products.
D. It is an omnibus law that covers various aspects of tobacco control,
including smoking in public places, tobacco advertising, promotion,
sponsorship, and sales restrictions.
34. This was created to oversee the implementation of the provision of Republic act
number 9211.
A. Inter-Agency Committee on Tobacco (IAC-Tobacco)
B. Inter-Agreement Committee on Tobacco (IAC-Tobacco)
C. Internal-Agency Committee on Tobacco (IAC-Tobacco)
D. Inter-Agent Committee on Tobacco (IAC-Tobacco)
35. This provides for the establishment of smoke free environments in public and
enclosed places
A. Executive Order No. 25
B. Executive Order No. 26
C. Executive Order No. 27
D. Executive Order No. 28
36. What is the exception with regards to the non-smoking buffer zone?
A. For a single door equipped with an automatic door closer
B. For a particular place with signage
C. Areas with proper ventilation
D. Enclosed public places
37. These are products entirely or partly made of tobacco leaf as raw material
A. Tobacco products
B. Cigarettes
C. Cigar
D. Pipe
38. What is the purpose of forming a Smoke-Free Task Force in cities and
municipalities according to the provided order?
A. To promote smoking awareness
B. To carry out provisions of the order
C. To organize anti-smoking campaigns
D. To enforce traffic regulations
39. Which law is mentioned as the basis for the provisions related to the Smoke-Free
Task Force in the provided text
A. Republic Act No. 6713
B. Republic Act No. 9504
C. Republic Act No. 8749
D. Republic Act No. 9369
40. When should Local Government Units (LGUs) implement or enforce a ban on
smoking, as per the Implementing Rules and Regulations?
 A. Within 3 months
B. Within 6 months
C. Within 9 months
D. Within 12 months

41. What is the purpose of forming a Smoke-Free Task Force in cities and
municipalities according to the provided order?
A. To promote smoking awareness
B. To carry out provisions of the order
C. To organize anti-smoking campaigns
D. To enforce traffic regulations
42. What penal provision is specified for violations of the no-smoking policy outlined
in CSC Memo Circular No. 17-2009?
A. Monetary fines
B. Written warning
C. Grounds for disciplinary action
D. Mandatory counseling sessions
43. According to Presidential Decree No. 1619, what specific actions related to
auditory, visual, or mental processes are considered punishable concerning the use
or possession of volatile substances?
A. Distorting and changing only
B. Changing and disturbing only
C. Distorting, changing, and disturbing
D. None of the above
44. What is the primary purpose of Republic Act No. 10586, also known as the Anti-
Drunk and Drugged Driving Act of 2013?
A. To promote responsible drinking among motorists
B. To discourage the consumption of dangerous drugs
C. To prevent individuals from driving under the influence of alcohol,
drugs, or similar substances
D. To regulate the production and sale of alcoholic beverages
45. According to CSC MC No. 4 Series of 2011, what is the general prohibition
regarding the consumption of alcoholic beverages among government officials
and employees during office hours?
A. True
B. False
C. Yes
D. No
46. According to Article 195 of the Revised Penal Code, what penalty is imposed
upon any person, other than those specified, who directly or indirectly takes part
in any game of monte, jueteng, or any other form of lottery, policy, banking, or
percentage game, dog races, or any other game or scheme depending wholly or
chiefly upon chance or hazard?
A. Arresto menor
 B. Arresto mayor or a fine not exceeding two hundred pesos
C. Prision correccional
D. Prision mayor

47. In accordance with Article 195 of the Revised Penal Code, any person who
knowingly permits any form of gambling to be carried on in any unhabited or
uninhabited place of any building, vessel, or other means of transportation owned
or controlled by him is subject to the same penalty as someone directly
participating in the gambling activity.
A. True
B. False
C. Yes
D. No
48. What is the maximum penalty, according to Art. 196, for a person importing
lottery tickets into the Philippine Islands in connivance with the importer?
A. Prision correccional
B. Fine of 2,000 pesos
C. Arresto mayor
D. Both A and B
49. Under what circumstances does Art. 198 impose arresto mayor or a fine ranging
from 200 to 2,000 pesos, or both?
A. Betting on horse races during the allowed period
B. Employing a totalizer for betting on horse races
C. Participating in horse races with permission
D. Both A and B
50. What is the penalty, as per Art. 199, for participating in cockfights at a place other
than a licensed cockpit?
A. Fine not exceeding 200 pesos
B. Arresto menor
C. Both A and B
D. Arresto mayor
51. According to Art. 197, what is the prescribed penalty for individuals who bet
money on the result of sports contests?
A. Arresto Menor
B. Fine not exceeding 200 pesos
C. Both A and B
D. Arresto mayor
52. What does Republic Act No. 954 prohibit in connection with horse races and
Basque Pelota Games (Jai-Alai)?
A. Betting on horse races
B. Organizing horse races
C. Engaging in activities related to Basque Pelota Games
D. Both A and C
53. In which regions are bets allowed under Republic Act No. 3063 (Horse racing
Bookies)?
A. Luzon
B. Visayas
C. Mindanao
D. Rizal province and chartered cities
54. Depressant is also called?
A. Uppers
B. Downers
C. Highers
D. None
55. According to Presidential Decree No. 483, what sports activities are covered by
the prohibition on betting, game-fixing, and machination?
A. Soccer and Tennis
B. Basketball, Volleyball, and Chess
C. Swimming and Cycling
D. Golf and Horse Racing
56. According to the DOJ Advisory on Drag Racing (Advisory Opinion No. 01, Series
of 2012), what conditions make drag racing legal in the Philippines?
A. Unregulated speed contests
B. Conducted without safety standards
C. Sponsored by unauthorized sports associations
D. Within a controlled and regulated environment, adhering to safety
standards, and sanctioned
57. How does the content of Batas Pambansa Blg. 33, as amended by Presidential
Decree No. 1865, differ from the guidelines provided in the DOJ Advisory on
Drag Racing?
A. Batas Pambansa Blg. 33 prohibits drag racing entirely.
B. Both emphasize safety standards for drag racing events.
C. Batas Pambansa Blg. 33 focuses on public interest and national
security.
D. Both support unregulated motor vehicle contests.
58. What is the correct definition of "Drogue"?
A. A chemical used in medicines for the treatment of disease.
B. The act or process of educating.
C. To regulate, govern, manage.
D. A substance used as a medicine or in making medicines, with potential
for abuse.
59. Golden triangle of drug trafficking is laos, Thailand and?
A. Japan
B. Philippines
C. Burma
D.None
60. What is the definition of "Minimal Dose" of a drug?
A. The largest amount of a drug that will produce a therapeutic effect.
B. The amount needed to produce side effects and desired actions.
C. The smallest amount of a drug that will produce a therapeutic effect.
D. The amount of drug that will cause death.

61. What does toxicology primarily focus on?

A. Studying the chemical makeup of drugs.
B. Understanding the therapeutic effects of drugs.
C. Analyzing the science of poisons, their effects, and antidotes.
D. Investigating drug interactions within the body
62. What characterizes a prescription drug according to the U.S. Food and Drug
Administration?
A. Easily accessible at any store
B. Prescribed for and intended to be used by one person
C. Purchased online without any restrictions
D. Administered without medical supervision
63. It is the excessive feeling of self worth or self esteem or sense of self importance?
A. Anger
B. Lust
C. Pride
D. Greed
64. What is the primary function of Antipyretics among the listed medical uses of
drugs?
A. Relieving pain
B. Combatting allergic reactions
C. Lowering body temperature or fever due to infection
D. Stimulating defecation and encouraging bowel movement
65. category of drugs is specifically designed to calm and quiet the nerves, relieving
anxiety without causing depression and clouding of the mind?
A. Laxatives
B. Sedatives and Tranquilizers
C. Antibiotics
D. Vitamins
66. When choosing the oral route of administration for a drug, what specific
challenges may arise, leading to the consideration of alternative routes?
A. Drug Paraphernalia (assignment and reporting)
B. Digestive juices destroying the drug or irritation to the mucous lining
C. Safety concerns in drug administration
D. Economical considerations in drug delivery
67. Which method of administering cocaine involves rubbing the powder along the
gum line or onto a cigarette filter, numbing the gums and teeth, and is colloquially
known as "numbies" or "cocoa puffs"?
A. Sublingual
 B. Buccal
C. Endotracheal
D. Nasal Insufflation

68. What is the colloquial term for the method of ingesting powdered cocaine through
nasal membranes, where the drug is absorbed through the mucous membranes
lining the sinuses?
A. Snow bomb
B. Coca infusion
C. Nasal parachute
D. Insufflation
69. It is the food trip in the lingo of junkies?
A. Gluttony
B. Pride
C. Anger
D. Lust
70. In the historical context of drug use, what biblical event involving Samson in the
book of Judges is associated with the administration of a drug-laced substance?
A. The Last Supper
B. The Tower of Babel
C. The Battle of Jericho
D. Samson and Delilah
71. Before the Christian era, how did the Greeks and Romans perceive opium in
addition to its use as a drug or indulgence?
A. As a commodity with potential for international trade commerce
B. Solely as a poison
C. Primarily as a religious sacrament
D. As a tool for agricultural enhancement
72. Where was the first reference to the introduction of a substance as an intoxicant,
notably in Northern Iran, and what was the initial purpose of its use?
A. Southern India, for medicinal purposes
B. Northern China, for religious rituals
C. Northern Iran, as an intoxicant
D. Western Europe, for laughter therapy
73. What significant discovery in 1806 by German pharmacist Friedrich W. Serturner
marked the first attempt to cure opium addiction?
A. Codeine
B. Heroin
C. Morphine
D. Opium Cure
74. Those who use drugs to keep them awake or for additional energy to perform an
important work?
A. Spree
B. Spree
 C. Hardcore
D. None
75. What is the primary purpose of codeine today?
A. Pain relief
B. Cough syrup
C. Allergy treatment
D. Antidepressant medication
76. During the Spanish era in the Philippines, who was allowed to use opium
according to drug control laws?
A. Native Filipinos
B. Chinese only
C. Spanish colonizers
D. All residents without restrictions
77. It is called as I can’t syndrome
A. Envy
B. Laziness
C. Gluttony
D. Greed
78. What significant event prompted the enactment of R.A. 6425 (Dangerous Drug
Act of 1972) in the Philippines?
A. Increase in opium addiction among Filipinos
B. Campaign against marijuana cultivation
C. The threat it poses to national security
D. Warning of heroin laboratories in Manila
79. What category does Marijuana belong to according to its origin?
A. Natural
B. Synthetic
C. Hybrid
D. Depressants
80. What is the primary medical use of THC (Tetrahydrocannabinol) in the treatment
of cancer patients on chemotherapy?
A. Pain relief
B. Increases appetite and reduces the vomit response
C. Anxiety reduction
D. Vitamins
81. Volatile substance which are found to be the most commonly abused?
A. Naecotics
B. Solvent
C. Stimulants
D. None
82. What is the term for mixing or senses in perceiving a stimulus, as experienced in
the discovery experiment of Lysergic Acid Diethylamide (LSD)?
A. Synesthesia
B. Hypnosis
 C. Paranoia
D. Hallucinogens

83. How is LSD commonly administered?

A. Only on blotting paper
B. Usually swallowed, but may be sniffed or injected
C. Liquid form with small designs
D. Ingested on decorated paper trips
84. What is the primary psychoactive alkaloid in Peyote?
A. Mescaline
B. LSD
C. Psilocybin
D. PCP
85. Which substance is also known as "angel dust" or "zombie"?
A. Mescaline
B. LSD
C. PCP
D. Morning Glory
86. What is a potential chronic use effect of amphetamine?
A. Brain damage
B. Psychosis
C. Brain paralysis and death
D. Suicidal tendency
87. How is crack cocaine typically administered?
A. Injection
B. Snorting
C. Smoking
D. Ingestion
88. What is the scientific name for opium?
A. Papaver Somniferum
B. Poppy Tears
C. Lachrymal Papaveris
D. Morphin
89. The golden crescent are the Afghanistan, Pakistan, iran and?
A. Philippines
B. Indonesia
C. India
D. None
90. does the term "Administer” refer to?
A. The act of administering medication to oneself
B. Introducing any dangerous drugs into the body of any person with or
without their knowledge
C. Legitimate transportation of controlled precursors
 D. Sale, distribution, supply or transport of legitimately products
91. According to Section 77, Article IX of the Act, what does the term "Board"
specifically refer to?
A. Treatment and rehabilitation centers
B. Dangerous Drugs Board
C. Controlled Delivery investigative technique
D. Illegal manufacture od any drugs
92. What is Dispense in the context of dangerous drugs?
A. Only the sale of medicine with a prescription
B. Any act of giving away, selling, or distributing medicine of any
dangerous drug with or without a prescription
C. Only the distribution of drugs without a prescription
D. Illegal cultivation of any dangerous drugs
93. According to the World Health Organization definition, what characterizes Drug
Dependence?
A. Excessive use of any drug
B. A strong desire or compulsion to take a psychoactive substance, along
with difficulties in controlling substance-taking behavior
C. Use of drugs without any behavioral or cognitive effects
D. Wanting to raise any plant which is the source of dangerous drug
94. What defines Drug Syndicate as per the given description?
A. Any group of people involved in drug-related activities
B. Two or more persons forming or joining together with the intention of
committing any offense under the Act
C. Any organized group promoting drug education and awareness
D. Anyone who takes dangerous drugs
95. What does PDEA stand for in the context of the Philippine legal system?
A. People's Democratic Enforcement Agency
B. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
C. Personal Drug Evaluation Authority
D. Public Drug Elimination Administration
96. How is a "Person" defined under the law mentioned?
A. Only natural individuals
B. Only corporations
C. Both natural and juridical entities
D. Only unincorporated organizations
97. What does Section 22 of the mentioned Department Circular No. 026 focus on?
A. Plea-bargaining provision
B. Grant of Compensation, Reward, and Award
C. Non-applicability of the Probation Law
D. Qualifying Aggravating Circumstances
98. According to Section 23, under what circumstances is plea-bargaining not
allowed?
A. When the penalty is imposable
 B. Regardless of the imposable penalty
C. Only for drug traffickers
D. If the penalty is life imprisonment

99. What is considered a qualifying aggravating circumstance according to Section

25?
A. Use of dangerous drugs
B. Plea-bargaining provision
C. Probation Law for drug traffickers
D. Attempt or conspiracy
100. Which unlawful acts, if attempted or conspired, are penalized under Section
26?
A. Importation of any dangerous drug
B. Maintenance of a den, dive, or resort
C. Criminal liability of a public officer
D. Misappropriation of confiscated drugs
 INTRODUCTION TO CYBERCRIME AND ENVIRONMENTAL LAWS

1. The act known as the “Cybercrime Prevention Act of 2012”

A. Republic Act 10871
B. Republic Act 10175
C. Republic Act 1825
D. Republic Act 1710
2. It aims to steal user data including login credentials, credit card number and sensitive
personal information
A. Identity theft
B. Cyberstalking
C. Phishing
D. Cyber pornograph
3. The transmission of information through ICT media, including voice, video and other
forms of data.
A. Access
B. Communication
C. Alteration
D. Computer
4. Any device or group of interconnected or related devices, one or more of which, pursuant
to a program, performs automated processing of data.
A. Computer program
B. Computer Data
C. Computer system
D. Computer
5. A set of instructions executed by the computer to achieve intended results.
A. Computer program
B. Computer Data
C. Computer system
D. Computer

What refers to all illegal activities

accomplished using technology?
a. Cyber Attack b. Cybercrime c.
Cyborg d. Cyberse
6. What refers to all illegal activities accomplished using technology?
a. Cyber Attack
b. Cybercrime
c. Cyborg
d. Cybersex
7. The collection of tools, policies, risk management approaches, actions, training, best
practices, assurance and technologies that can be used to protect the cyber environment and
organization and user’s assets.
A. Cybercrime
 B. .Cyber
C. Cybersecurity
D. Cyber Law
8. A representation of information, knowledge, facts, concepts, or instructions which are
being prepared, processed or stored in a formalized manner and which are intended for use in
a computer system.
A. Data
B. Cyber security
C. Data security
D. Database

9. Any public or private entity that provides to users of its service the ability to communicate
by means of a computer system.
A. Traffic data
B. Subscriber’s information
C. Data security
D. Service provider

10. Any information contained in the form of computer data or any other form that is held by
a service provider, relating to subscribers of its services other than traffic or content data
A. Traffic data
B. Subscriber’s information
C. Data security
D. Service provider
11. A crime under the Revised Penal Code is referred to as?
A. Cybercrime
B. Net Crime
C. Felony
D. Infraction
12. The access to the whole or any part of a computer system without right.
A. Illegal Access
B. Data Interference
C. Illegal Interception
D. System Interference
13. The interception made by technical means without right of any non-public transmission of
computer data to, from, or within a computer system.
A. Illegal Access
B. Data Interference
C. Illegal Interception
D. System Interference
14. The intentional or reckless alteration, damaging, deletion or deterioration of computer
data, electronic document, or electronic data message, without right, including the
introduction or transmission of viruses.
A. Illegal Access
B. Data Interference
C. Illegal Interception
D. System Interference
15. The acquisition of a domain name over the internet in bad faith to profit, mislead, destroy
reputation, and deprive others from registering the same.
A. Cyber security
B. Cyber sex
C. Cyber-squatting
D. Cyber libel
16. The input, alteration, or deletion of any computer data without right resulting in
inauthentic data with the intent that it be considered or acted upon for legal purposes as if it
were authentic
A. Computer-related Forgery
B. Computer-related Identity Theft
C. Computer-related Fraud
D. Computer-related Scam
17. The intentional acquisition, use, misuse, transfer, possession, alteration or deletion of
identifying information belonging to another, whether natural or juridical, without right
A. Computer-related Forgery
B. Computer-related Identity Theft
C. Computer-related Fraud
D. Computer-related Scam

18. The unauthorized input, alteration, or deletion of computer data or program or

interference in the functioning of a computer system, causing damage thereby with fraudulent
intent.
A. Computer-related Forgery
B. Computer-related Identity Theft
C. Computer-related Fraud
D. Computer-related Scam
19. The willful engagement, maintenance, control, or operation, directly or indirectly, of any
lascivious exhibition of sexual organs or sexual activity, with the aid of a computer system,
for favor or consideration.
A. Cyber security
B. Cybersex
C. Child Pornography
D. Unsolicited Communication
20. Which of the following is considered an offense against the confidentiality, integrity, and
availability of computer data and systems under the provided text?
A. Legal Access
B. Data Interference
C. Authorized Interception
D. System Enhancement
21. Which of the following best describes “Illegal Access”?
A. Authorized entry into a computer system
B. Access to a computer system with permission
C. Access into a computer system without any right
D. Legitimate access to computer data
22. What is the primary focus of the act in relation to computer-related forgery?
A. Unauthorized access to computer systems.
B. Alteration or deletion of computer data without right.
C. Unauthorized distribution of computer data.
D. Production of computer programs for illegal purposes.
23. Defined as offenses committed against computer data, computer data storage media,
computer systems, service providers.
A. Cyber libel
B. Cybersex
C. Cyber Fraud
D. Cybercrime
24. What is a condition for the transmission of commercial electronic communication
according to the law?
A. Sending without any conditions.
B. Unless there is prior affirmative consent from the recipient.
 C. Unless the primary intent is for sales purposes only.
D. The sender's personal use of the products.
25. What is the legal consequence for a person who willfully aids or abets in the commission
of any offense under the Cybercrime Prevention Act?
A. Exemption from liability.
B. No legal consequences.
C. Held liable for the same offense.
D. Community service.
26. What is the legal consequence for an individual who willfully attempts to commit any of
the offenses listed in the Cybercrime Prevention Act?
A. Acquittal of charges.
B. Community service.
C. Immunity from prosecution.
D. Held liable for the attempt.

27. What is the penalty provision for crimes committed through the use of information and
communications technologies, as stated in the Cybercrime Prevention Act?
A. The same penalty as provided in the Revised Penal Code.
B. A penalty two degrees higher than that provided for by the Revised Penal Code.
C. A penalty one degree higher than that provided for by the Revised Penal
Code.
D. Community service without a penalty.
28. What is the relationship between a prosecution under the Cybercrime Prevention Act and
liability under other laws?
A. A prosecution under this Act bars any liability under other laws.
B. A prosecution under this Act is independent of liability under other laws.
C. Liability under other laws is waived in the case of a Cybercrime Prevention Act
prosecution.
D. A prosecution under this Act shall be without prejudice to any liability under
other laws.
29. Alx, an avid social media influencer, has recently been expressing false accusations and
damaging statement about a certain local business owner’s character which later on made the
owner defamed. What legal charge could the business owner file against Alx?
A. Cyber Libel
B. Violence Against Women
C. Defamation
D. Physical Abuse
30. David, a tech-savvy individual, operates a website where he charges users for access to
explicit live webcam shows involving sexual activities among youth. He manages and
facilitates these shows through the use of a computer system.What offense can David be
charged?
A. Cyber Libel
B. Defamation
C. Child Pornography
D. Physical Abuse
31. Which law enforcement authorities are primarily responsible for the efficient and effective
enforcement of the Cybercrime Prevention Act?
A. Bureau of Fire Protection (BFP)
B. National Bureau of Investigation (NBI) and Philippine National Police (PNP)
C. Department of Justice (DOJ)
D. National Privacy Commission (NPC)
32. What authorization is granted to law enforcement authorities regarding the collection of
traffic data in real-time under the Cybercrime Prevention Act?
A. Collection without any restrictions.
B. Collection only with a warrant.
 C. Collection solely for private entities.
D. Collection with due cause.

33. What is included in the term "traffic data" as defined in the Cybercrime Prevention Act?
A. Content of the communication.
B. Identities of the parties involved.
C. Origin, destination, route, time, date, size, duration, or type of underlying
service.
D. All of the above.
34. How long should the integrity of traffic data and subscriber information be preserved
according to the Cybercrime Prevention Act?
A. 3 months
B. 2 months
B. 6 months
C. 4 months
35. Within how many hours from receipt of a court-issued order should a person or service
provider disclose or submit subscriber's information, traffic data, or relevant data according to
the Cybercrime Prevention Act?
A. 24 hours
B. 72 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 12 hours
36. What powers and duties do law enforcement authorities have during the search, seizure,
and examination of computer data, as per the Cybercrime Prevention Act?
A. Only the power to search and seize computer data
B. Power to search, seize, and examine computer data
C. Power to examine computer data without seizing
D. Duty to inform the suspect before conducting a search
37. What is the maximum period for which law enforcement authorities may request an
extension to complete the examination of computer data storage medium, as per the
Cybercrime Prevention Act?
A. 15 days
B. 45 days
B. 30 days
C. 60 days
38. What is the period within which computer data, including content and traffic data,
examined under a proper warrant, should be deposited with the court according to the
Cybercrime Prevention Act?
A. 24 hours
B. 72 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 96 hours
39. What is the consequence for evidence procured without a valid warrant or beyond its
authority, according to the Cybercrime Prevention Act?
A. It will be admissible in court.
B. It will be excluded and inadmissible for any proceeding before any court or
tribunal.
C. It will result in a fine for the law enforcement authorities.
D. It will lead to the immediate release of the accused.
40. What action does the Department of Justice (DOJ) take when computer data is prima facie
found to be in violation of the Cybercrime Prevention Act?
A. Advise the owner to remove the data voluntarily.
B. Seek international assistance for investigation.
C. Issue an order to restrict or block access to the computer data.
D. Conduct an audit of the computer system.
41. Which court has jurisdiction over violations of the Cybercrime Prevention Act, and who
handles cybercrime cases in designated courts?
A. Municipal Trial Court
B. Sandiganbayan
C. Regional Trial Court, specially with trained judges
D. Court of Appeals
42. What government office is designated as the central authority in all matters related to
international mutual assistance and extradition under the Cybercrime Prevention Act?
A. National Bureau of Investigation (NBI)
B. Department of Foreign Affairs (DFA)
C. Office of Cybercrime within the DOJ
D. Cybercrime Investigation Division (CID)
43. What is the purpose of the Cybercrime Investigation and Coordinating Center (CICC)
under the Cybercrime Prevention Act?
A. To conduct investigations into cybercrimes
B. To formulate and enforce the national cybersecurity plan
C. To handle international mutual assistance
D. To administer the Cybercrime Prevention Act
44. An order to disclose and accordingly, require any person or service provider to disclose or
submit subscriber’s information, traffic data, or relevant data in his/her controversial or is
possession or control.
A. Warranty to Disclose Computer Data (WDCD)
B. Warrant to Intercept Computer Dara (WICD)
C. Warrant to Search, Seize and Examine Computer Data (WSSECD)
D. Warrant o Examine Computer Data (WECD)
45. An order authorizing law enforcement authorities to search a particular place for items to
be seized and/or examined.
A. Warranty to Disclose Computer Data (WDCD)
B. Warrant to Intercept Computer Dara (WICD)
C. Warrant to Search, Seize and Examine Computer Data (WSSECD)
D. Warrant o Examine Computer Data (WECD)
46. An order authorizing law enforcement authorities to carry out any or all of the following
activities: (a) listening to, (b) recording, (c) monitoring, or (d) surveillance of the content of
communications, through the use of electronic eavesdropping or tapping devices, at the same
time that the communication is occurring
A. Warranty to Disclose Computer Data (WDCD)
B. Warrant to Intercept Computer Dara (WICD)
C. Warrant to Search, Seize and Examine Computer Data (WSSECD)
D. Warrant o Examine Computer Data (WECD)
47. An order requiring the complete or partial destruction, or the return to its lawful owner or
possessor, of the computer data or any related items turned over to the court’s custody.
A. Preservation Order
B. Destruction Order
C. Reserved Order
D. Warrant Order
48. For persons or service providers situated outside the Philippines, service of warrants and
other court processes shall be coursed through which of the following?
A. National Bureau of Investigation (NBI)
B. Department of Foreign Affairs (DFA)
C. Office of Cybercrime within the DOJ
D. Cybercrime Investigation Division (CID)
49. An electronic document is admissible in evidence:
A. if it complies with the rules on admissibility prescribed by the Rules of Court
B. if it is authenticated in the manner prescribed by the Rules of Court
C. Both A and B
 D. None of the above
50. What does the term "biological diversity" or "biodiversity" encompass?
A. Only terrestrial ecosystems
B. Only marine ecosystems
C. Variability among living organisms from all sources
D. Only diversity within species
51. A pharmaceutical company is interested in exploring the biodiversity of a tropical
rainforest to offer new medicinal product. They started conducting research, collection, and
utilization of biological and genetic resources for purposes of applying the knowledge derived
therefrom. How do you call the activities that the company conducts?
A. Bioprospecting
B. Conveyance
C. Collecting
D. Delineation
52. What is the primary purpose of buffer zones in the context of designated protected areas?
A. To exploit natural resources
B. To provide additional habitat for wildlife
C. To allow unrestricted development activities
D. To avoid or minimize harm to the protected area through special
development control
53. How are "by-products or derivatives" defined in the context of wildlife?
A. Components unrelated to wildlife
B. Waste materials from wildlife
C. Parts or substances extracted from wildlife
D. Products exclusively made from synthetic materials
54. What does the term "collecting" mean in the context of wildlife?
A. Displaying wildlife in a designated area
B. Studying wildlife behavior
C. Gently interacting with wildlife
D. Gathering or harvesting wildlife and its by-products or derivatives
55. What kind of vessel includes in conveyance?
A. Motorized or non-motorized vehicles
B. Non-displacement crafts
C. Seaplanes
D. All of the above
56. In the context of wildlife conservation, what does the term "delineation" involve?
A. The act of collecting wildlife data
B. Mapping the boundaries of protected areas and their buffer zones
C. The extraction of by-products from wildlife
D. Transportation of wildlife to designated areas
57. In the context of wildlife conservation, what does the term "demarcation" involve?
A. The extraction of by-products from wildlife
B. The act of collecting wildlife data
C. Mapping the boundaries using the global positioning system (GPS)
D. Establishing boundaries using visible markers, monuments, and natural
features
58. What does the “ecosystem goods and services" encompass?
A. Only material provisions from ecosystems
B. Benefits exclusively related to human well-being
C. Services limited to cultural resource preservation
D. A variety of provisions and benefits from healthy ecosystems
59. Where can endemic species be found?
A. Globally
B. In specific areas within the country
 C. Introduced by humans
D. Commonly found in multiple countries
60. Which of the following is true about exploration?
A. Exploration is the act of mining
B. Exploration is a form of natural resource extraction
C. Exploration is the act of searching or prospecting for mineral resources
D. Exploration is the process of processing minerals for commercial use

61. Gear refers to any of instrument or device and its accessories utilized in
A. Taking, catching, gathering, killing, or hunting resources within protected area
B. Destroying, disturbing, removing, or possessing resources outside protected area
C. Both A and B
D. Only A
62. What are considered Genetically Modified Organism (GMO) ?
A. Any living organism with a diverse genetic makeup
B. An organism that evolves naturally in its environment
C. An organism modified through modern biotechnology
D. A naturally occurring organism with unique genetic material
63. All of the following describes “hunting”, except:
A. Growing and raising of wild fauna for food
B. Killing wild fauna with the use of weapons
C. Catching wild fauna for recreational purposes
D. Killing or catching wild fauna for food and recreational purposes
64. A group of people sharing common bonds of language, customs traditions, and other
distinctive cultural traits, and who have, since time immemorial occupied, possessed and
utilized a territory
A. Indigenous Cultural Community (ICC)
B. Indigenous People (IP)
C. Either A or B
D. Neither A or B
65. Kaingin is best described as:
A. Cultivation with advanced agricultural techniques
B. Traditional farming methods
C. Controlled irrigation practices
D. Urban development within protected areas
66. In a protected area, a group of individuals is observed extracting sand, gravel, guano,
limestone, and other construction materials for commercial purposes. What activity are they
engaged in?
A. Farming
B. Quarrying
B. Fishing
C. Logging
67. Who are considered as "tenure migrants" in a protected area?
A. Individuals temporarily residing in the area
B. Long-term occupants for more than ten years
C. People occupying the area for cultural events
D. Occupants relying on the area for subsistence for at least five years
68. How are "threatened species" classified based on their risk of extinction?
A. Secure
B. Stable
C. Endangered
D. Flourishing
69. What best describes the scope of wetlands?
A. Limited to inland habitats only
B. Restricted to coastal areas
 C. Includes a variety of habitats like marshes, rivers, lakes, and more
D. Excludes human-made wetlands
70. All of the following are goals of Ecological Solid Waste Management Act, except:
A. Reduction of wastes being generated
B. Reduction of waste sto be disposed via recycling
C. Composting undertaken through materials recovery facilities
D. Improper disposal of residual wastes

71. Ecological Solid Waste Management Act is known as

A. Republic Act 903
B. Republic Act 1903
C. Republic Act 9003
D. Republic Act 3009
72. Which of the following acts is prohibited under Section 48 of Ecological Solid Waste
Management Act?
A. Littering, throwing, dumping of waste matters in public places
B. Conducting public gatherings in parks
C. Planting trees along roads
D. Constructing establishments in designated areas
73. All of the following acts are prohibited under Section 48 of Ecological Solid Waste
Management Act, except:
A. Open burning of solid waste
B. Unauthorized removal of recyclable material intended for collection by authorized
persons
C. Organizing community-based recycling program
D. Permitting the collection of non-segregated or unsorted wastes
74. Lucas, a resident in a local community, has chosen an abandoned landfill as a temporary
dwelling. He builds a makeshift shelter using discarded materials found in the landfill.What
action is Lucas engaging in, which is considered a prohibited act under RA 9003?
A. Constructing an eco-friendly dwelling
B. Organizing a community clean-up drive
C. Squatting in open dumps and landfills
D. Establishing a recycling center
75. In a residential area, a group of individuals decides to dispose of their household waste by
setting it on fire in an open space. The burning releases dark smoke and a strong odor, causing
concern among neighbors and passersby. What prohibited act is being committed by the
group in this scenario, as per RA 9003?
A. Proper waste segregation
B. Eco-friendly waste disposal
C. Controlled burning of solid waste
D. The open burning of solid waste
76. What is the primary objective of RA 6969?
A. To promote the use of chemicals in various industries
B. To generate revenue from the movement of hazardous wastes
C. To protect the public and the environment from the risks of hazardous
substances
D. To encourage the disposal of nuclear wastes in the Philippines
77. What does RA 6969 regulate?
A. Use of chemicals in households
B. Movement and disposal of chemicals
C. Importation of all types of waste
D. Exploration of nuclear materials
78. What characteristic does ignitable waste possess?
A. Ability to corrode metal containers
B. Flash point less than 60°C (140°F)
 C. Production of acidic solutions
D. Spontaneous combustion
79. Which type of waste is considered corrosive?
A. Wastes that produce minerals
B. Materials that undergo spontaneous combustion
C. Solids that are strong acids or bases
D. Wastes with a flash point greater than 80°C (140°F)
80. What is a characteristic of reactive wastes?
A. Flash point less than 60°C (140°F)
B. Ability to corrode metal containers
C. Unstable under normal conditions
D. Production of acidic solutions
81. What is the primary concern associated with toxic wastes?
A. Production of acidic solutions
B. Spontaneous combustion
C. Harmful or fatal effects when ingested or absorbed
D. Corrosion of metal containers
82. Which of the following is not considered toxic wastes that is fatal when ingested or
absorbed?
A. Mercury
B. DDT
C. Lead
D. Magnesium
83. Who bears the responsibility for waste generated until it has been disposed of properly in
an environmentally sound manner, and is liable in case of spill or illegal disposal?
A. Waste disposal facility
B. Government authorities
C. Waste transporters
D. Waste generator
84. A person is found to be using a chemical substance or mixture, and it is discovered that
the said substance was imported, manufactured, processed, or distributed in violation of the
law. The person is:
A. Unaware of the violation
B. Legally using the substance
C. Knowingly using the substance
D. Accidentally using the substance
85. In a protected area, a company engaged in manufacturing and processing chemicals
refuses to submit the required reports and permits inspections. What violation does this
scenario represent under the law?
A. Violation of wildlife protection
B. Violation of air pollution regulations
C. Violation of Clean Water Act
D. Violation of reporting and inspection requirements under RA 6969
86. A manufacturing company operating near a protected water source disposes of medical
wastes directly into the water, causing pollution. What does this action constitute under the
law?
A. Prohibited act causing water pollution
B. Environmentally friendly practice
C. Compliant disposal method
D. Acceptable waste management
87. XYZ Company has been discharging toxic substances into the groundwater, polluting the
environment. They continue this practice even after their permit was revoked due to
violations. What kind of environmental offense does this scenario describe?
A. Improper waste disposal
B. Air pollution
 C. Noise pollution
D. Water pollution
88. ABC Company consistently denies entry, inspection, monitoring, and access to reports
and records requested by the Department of Environment and Natural Resources (DENR) in
line with the Clean Water Act (CWA). What environmental offense does this scenario depict?
A. Improper waste disposal
B. Air pollution
C. Noise pollution
D. Obstruction of environmental monitoring
89. The Philippine Clean Air Act of 1999 formulates a comprehensive national program for
the management of air pollution. Which government agency is primarily responsible for
implementing this program?
A. Department of Health (DOH)
B. Department of Transportation (DOTr)
C. Department of Environment and Natural Resources (DENR)
D. Department of Science and Technology (DOST)
90. In a city where air quality is a growing concern, authorities are seeking to reduce
emissions to improve environmental conditions. A particular type of vehicle has become a
focus due to its significant contribution to air pollutants. This vehicle is:
A. Bicycle
B. Mobile Source
C. Electric cars
D.Skateboard
91. In a region with diverse land uses, environmental agencies are identifying sources of air
pollution. Among these, a category that stands out is characterized by broad areas where
certain activities result in notable air pollutant emissions. This category is known as:
A. Point Source
B. Mobile Source
C. Area Source
D. Stationary Source
92. In discussions related to climate change and its impact, a critical group of gases often
mentioned are those that occur naturally in the atmosphere and contribute to the greenhouse
effect by trapping heat. What is the term commonly used for these gases?
A. Reactive Gases
B. Greenhouse Gases
C. Insulating Gases
D Reflective Gases
93. In a protected forest covered by the Wildlife Resources Conservation and Protection Act,
a group of individuals is observed engaging in the collection of various wildlife species
without proper authorization. They are seen capturing birds, insects, and reptiles for
commercial purposes. What specific activity are they involved in?
A. Ecotourism
B. Collecting
C. Buffer zone delineation
D. Exploration of minerals
94. According to the Wildlife Resources Conservation and Protection Act, what is within the
scope of application and protection by the Department of Environment and Natural Resources
(DENR)?
A. All marine species
B. Only endangered species
C. Terrestrial plant and animal species
D. Exotic species
95. Under the Wildlife Resources Conservation and Protection Act, which of the following
acts is punishable when committed in critical habitat(s)?
 A. Engaging in scientific research on wildlife
B. Establishing a wildlife sanctuary
C. Inflicting injury that cripples or impairs the reproductive system of wildlife
species
D. Planting native trees to promote biodiversity
96. In a protected area, a group of individuals is discovered engaged in activities that include:
i. dumping waste products detrimental to wildlife,
ii. squatting or otherwise occupying parts of the critical habitat,
iii. mineral exploration and/or extraction, and
iv. burning.
What prohibited acts are they effectively committing?
A. i and ii only
B. . iii and iv only
C. ii and iii only
D. i, ii, iii, and iv
97. Jane, a researcher, plans to transport a previously imported wildlife specimens obtained
from a protected area to an international conference for a presentation. What permit should
Jane secure to transport the wildlife specimens for her conference presentation?
A. Reexport Permit
B Export Permit
C. Import Permit
D. Transit Permit
98. John, an enthusiast about wildlife, wants to collect certain species of butterflies in a
protected area for his personal collection. What type of permit should he obtain to ensure that
his activity is legal and regulated?
A. Agricultural permit
B. Wildlife collector's permit
C. Fishing permit
D Mining permit
99. How long is the validity of a wildlife collector’s permit?
A. 1 to 3 years
B. 1 to 3 months
C. 3 to 5 years
D. 1 to 6 months
100. ZITY Company has been discharging toxic substances into the groundwater, polluting
the environment. They continue this practice even after their permit was revoked due to
violations. What kind of environmental offense does this scenario describe?
B. Improper waste disposal
B. Air pollution
C. Noise pollution
D. Water pollution
 TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT AND INCIDENT INVESTIGATION

1 What is the process of giving practice and training in the actual application of traffic safety
knowledge?
a. Traffic Enforcement
b. Traffic Engineering
c. Traffic Education
d. Driver's Education
2. What does the driver do initially to prevent a collision
a. Manipulative skills
b. Vehicle Maneuver
c. Start of Evasive Action
d. Resisting destruction
3. What is the general rule for driving in the Philippines?
a. keep right
c. Keep left
b. watch out
d. None of these
4. What are the signs that give drivers information that they might or might not utilize, but
that will help them somehow?
a. Information signs
b. Instructions signs
c. Caution signs
d. Regulatory signs
5. To whom is a Protocol plate number of 8 assigned?
a. Congressmen
b. Chairman of the Commission on Election
c. Senate President
d. House Speaker
6. What are markings placed on the curbs or edges of the traffic for restriction or for parking
regulation purposes?
a. Curb Markings
b.Pavement markings
c. Reflector Markings
 d. Traffic Island
7. When traversing on a highway with double yellow line with dotted white line in between,
you can?
a. overtake when the other direction is clear of oncoming vehicles
b. overtake as long as there are no traffic enforcers around
c. not overtake when there are oncoming vehicles on the opposite lane
d. not overtake under any circumstances
8. What is the traffic light's color arrangement from bottom to top?
c. Green, yellow, red
a. red, yellow, green
b. yellow, green, red
d. Red, green, yellow
9. What is a serious state or situation of traffic congestion on the roads, resulting from
persistent lines of cars blocking a whole network of intersecting streets and entirely stopping
traffic in all directions?
a. accident
b. Collision
c. Gridlock
d. Traffic Congestions
10. What are the three major pillars of traffic management:
a. Engineering, education, enforcement
b. Engineering, education, environment
c. Engineering, education, economics
d. Engineering, economics, environment
11. The collection of shattered auto parts, trash, and other items left at the accident scene is
referred to?
a. skid mark
b. accessories
c. debris
d paint strip
12. Responsible regulation of transport routes, granting, denying, suspending or canceling
land transport franchises are called?
a. Department of Transportation & Communication
b. LTFRB
c. Land Transportation Office
d. Traffic Management Bureau

13. What is the entire width between the boundary lines of any way or location where, by
right or custom, any portion is accessible to the general public for the purpose of vehicle
traffic?
a. Street
b. Road way
c. Traffic way
d. Subway
14. What are these paintings made on the pavement near crossroads and other locations to
give people a safe area to cross
a. Cross walk
b. Cross Lane
c. Cross lines
d. Center Lane
15. The portion of the traffic way which is the edge of the road or highway is called?
a. shoulder
b. sidewalk
c. curb
d. pedestrian
16. What series of test is used to determine whether a driver is under the influence of
alcoholic beverages or not?
a. walking thru straight-line
b. counting
c. field sobriety test
d. balance
17. On traffic enforcement, what do you call on the act of bringing a motor vehicle as a
consequence of traffic law violation?
A. Confiscation
B. Impounding
C. Encumbrance
D. Seizure
18. Regarding traffic enforcement, what term would you use to describe the act of bringing a
motor vehicle as a result of breaking a traffic law?
A. Confiscation
B. Impounding
C. Encumbrance
D. Seizure

19. When driving on a highway with double yellow line with dotted white line in between,
you can?
a. overtake when the other direction is clear of oncoming vehicles
b. overtake as long as there are no traffic enforcers around
c. not overtake when there are oncoming vehicles on the opposite lane
d. not overtake under any circumstances
20. What kind of stains are left on the road after a hard brake application that locks the wheels
and prevents them from turning?
a. street
b. skid
c. road
d. scuff
21. Clint is a professional driver of trucks, buses, motorcycles and public utility vehicles, his
allowable BAC is?
A. 1 percent
B. 2 percent
C. O percent
D. 0.05 percent
22. Traffic police officer Ambanta stationed the route of a parade has been ordered by his
superior to allow no cars to cross the route. While the parade is in progress, an ambulance
driver Onan is on an emergency he attempts to drive his ambulance across the route while the
parade is passing. Under these circumstances the traffic police officer should.
a. ask the driver to wait until the traffic police officer contact his superior and obtains
decisions
b. stop the parade long enough to permit the ambulance to cross the street
c. hold up the ambulance in accordance with the superior's order
d. direct the ambulance driver to the shortest
23. Ronnie’s plate number is DXP 8213, when should it be registered?
a. 3 week of January
b. 1st week of March
c. 2nd week of February
d. 3rd week of March
24. refers to the collective code that designates the vehicle category or categories that a
licensed driver is permitted to operate.
a. Restriction Code
b. Driver's License Code
 c. Driver's Restriction Code
d. License Code
25. International Driver's License is issued by the?
a. LTFRB
b. Land Transportation Office
c. Department of Foreign Affairs
d. Automobile Association of the Philippines
26. Ricco ferry is tourist and transients who are duly licensed to operate motor vehicles in
their respective countries may be allowed to operate motor vehicles during their stay but not
beyond?
a. 12 months
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
d. 3 years
27. What term refers to the distance traveled before applying the brakes?
a. braking distance
b. reaction distance
c. reaction time
d. braking reaction
28. Benjo is a holder of a driver's license that has been expired for 10 years. Is he allowed to
drive and renew his license
a. He is still allowed to drive provided he will renew his license.
b. He is no longer allowed to drive and are required by the LTO to apply for a
student permit again.
c. He is not allowed to drive but he can renew his license
d. He is still allowed if he pays for the penalties and fine.
29. The following best describes human error as a contributing factor to traffic congestion:
EXCEPT:
a. Poor legislation activities
b. Lack of foresight on the part of pedestrians
c. Effective and efficient traffic officers
d. Slow drivers or bad driving habit
30. Under the Land Transportation Code, it is NOT parking prohibition if you park.
a. within 4 meters of the driveway of a Fire Station
b. within the intersection
c. in front of private driveway
d. on a sidewalk
31. While approaching an intersection, the green traffic light is on, however, Mr. Garcia a
police officer suddenly proved to the center and signals Lino a motorist to stop. What should
Lino do?
a. Ignore the police office and proceed with caution
b. Ignore the traffic light and come to a full stop
c. ignore both the police officer and traffic light and cross the intersection
d. Ignore the police officer and stop only when second signal is made
32. When a car approaches an intersection with a flashing yellow light on, it should:
A. Stop and proceed with caution
B. Slow down and proceed with caution
C Reduce speed
D. Give way to motor vehicles coming from the opposite direction

33. If any of the following conditions are met, a driver involved in a traffic collision is
justified in leaving the scene, except
A. He is in imminent danger of being harmed by other persons by reason of an
accident
B. He surrenders to proper authority
 C. He summons the assistance of a physician or nurse to aid the victim
D. He hides from the police for justifiable cause
34 Poor control measures as a major cause of traffic congestion is characterized by:
A. Narrow bridges and absence of catwalk to control pedestrians
B. Lack of traffic enforcers along intersections
C. Insufficient mechanical control devices and ineffective traffic officers
D. All of the above
35. The Land Transportation Office is under the
a. DILG
b. DPWH
c. DOIC
d. DEPED
36. Traffic safety benefits greatly from the study of biorhythms since it can help prevent
accidents:
A. By hinting on how he will tend to fool in a certain day
B. By knowing his intellectual capacity on certain day
C. By knowing his physical capacity on certain day
D. By ascertaining his physical, emotional and intellectual condition in a certain day
37. When a motorist unloads passengers in the center of the road, he violated:
a. Illegal unloading
b. Illegal unloading
c. illegal stopping
d. Traffic obstruction

38. When traffic units are separated in a car accident, it's called
a final position
b. hazards
c. disengagement
d. stopping
39. It is known as the CLEAN AIR ACT?
a. R.A 8749
b. R.A 8750
c. LOI 222
d. PD 1184
40. A person who engages in risky behavior, has a careless attitude, and shows little regard
for the potential for harm is
a. reckless imprudence
b. reckless drinking
c. reckless negligence
d. reckless driving
41. When approaching an intersection, the BEST thing a cautious driver can do is to?
a. be at the right of way
b. be at the full stop
c. give a signal
d. overtake other vehicle
42. Fauna’s plate number is DXP 8213, when should it be registered?
a. 3 week of January
b. 1st week of March
c. 2nd week of February
d. 3rd week of March
43. It's a condition that requires drivers to wear corrective lenses..
a. a
b. b
c. 1
d. 2
44.Matza is a foreigner applicant for Non-Professional Driver's License,so he must be at least
____ years old.
a. 16
b. 17
C. 18
d. 20
45. Serves as main artery that caters on big volumes of vehicular traffic on national roadway.
a. Traffic way
b. Skyway
c. Major Highway
d. Feeder Roads
46. There are two vehicle, one traveling on the national road and the other on the subsidiary
highway, approached the intersection nearly simultaneously, resulting in a traffic accident.
Who is supposed to give way?
a. Vehicle on the secondary road
b. Vehicle on the left
c. Vehicle on the national ROAD
d. Vehicle on the right
47. Which word best describes a frontal automobile collision?
a.Collision
b. Full impact collision
c. Head on collision
d. Frontal collision

48. Under the Land Transportation Code, it is NOT parking prohibition if you park
a. within 4 meters of the driveway of a Fire Station
b. within the intersection
c. in front of private driveway
d. on a sidewalk
49.It refers to enforcement measures that involve putting someone in custody so they can be
held or detained until they appear before a court to answer to an allegation of breaking the law
a. Arrest
b. Traffic Arrest
c. Traffic Warning
d. Traffic Citation
50. Any vehicle accident that leaves one or more people with injuries that are not life-
threatening is called?
A. Property damage
C. Less Serious Injury
B. Fatal Accident
D. Non-fatal Accident
51. Can an expired Student License be used for purpose of practical driving course?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Maybe
d. Sometimes
52. If the practical driving course is finished within the one-year validity term, can an expired
student license be utilized to apply for an NPDL?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Maybe
d. Sometimes
53. In this way, as they observe traffic, a traffic enforcer tries to get drivers' attention by
staying in full view of the road:
A. Stationary
 C. Visible
B. Conspicuous
D. Inconspicuous
54. An authorized individual permitting a set quantity of passengers, goods, or cargo in buses
or public utility trucks is called?
A. Operator
C. Driver
B. Conductor
D. Pedestrian
55. Single white dotted line indicates the all of the following EXCEPT
a. on two-lane road, it separates traffic moving in the opposite directions
b. on a one-way street, separates traffic moving in one direction
C. absolutely no overtaking
d. overtaking is possible when other lane is clear of oncoming vehicle
55. How do you call a person, with a valid driver's license, on board a motor vehicle?
a. Driver
b.Passenger
c. Motorist
d.Pedestrian
56.On a four-lane, a single continuous line shows every item below EXCEPT
a. overtaking is possible when other lane is clear of oncoming possible
b. when there are slow and fast lanes, NEVER overtake by passing over the solid
white line
c. Lanes 1 and 4 ( outer lanes) for slow moving vehicles. Vehicles on this lane should
not be BELOW the minimum speed limit
d. Lanes 2 and 3 (inner lanes) are usually for faster moving vehicles
57. After the invention of wheeled carts, what was the next challenge that humans faced when
traveling?
a. Wider pathways which will accommodate the much wider wheeled cart
b. An engine which will power the wheeled carriages
c. how to propel the vehicles
d. how to get rid the domesticated animals
58. Considered an emergency car, except:
a. Physician's car
b. Fire truck on call
c. Ambulance on call
d. Police car on call
59. Single white dotted line indicates the all of the following EXCEPT
a. on two-lane road, it separates traffic moving in the opposite directions
b. on a one-way street, separates traffic moving in one direction
C. absolutely no overtaking
d. overtaking is possible when other lane is clear of oncoming vehicle
60.Poor control measures as a major cause of traffic congestion is characterized by:
A. Narrow bridges and absence of catwalk to control pedestrians
B. Lack of traffic enforcers along intersections
C. Insufficient mechanical control devices and ineffective traffic officers
D. All of the above
61. There are more traffic accidents at a particular crossroads than anywhere else in the
neighborhood for a variety of reasons. The police unit assigned to the region should be?
a. Park near the intersection, in plain view, and wait for violators.
b. Park your motorcycle at the center of intersection to caution motorist
c. Park near the intersection, more or less hidden from view
d. Cruise all the assigned area but give extra attention to the intersection
62. Which of the following best describes how effective a traffic law enforcement program is?
A. Decrease in the ratio of convictions to enforcement actions
 B. Reduction of traffic accidents and delay
C. Increase in traffic enforcement actions
D. None of the foregoing
63. In arresting the traffic violator or when it involved arrest due to traffic violation, the
following procedures are followed except:
a. bring the suspended person before the court
b. detention of the arrested person may take place
c. arrest can be effected even without a warrant
d. impose the probable penalty that might be imposed
64. This is typically identified by a car falling on a cliff or the side of the road in mountainous
areas.
a. Non-collision on the road
b. Running off road
c. Collision on the road
d. Hazardous condition of the road
65. Back then, they were the ones that elevated road construction to a whole new level of
excellence:
a. Romans
b. Arabs
c. Chinese
d. Greeks

66. For open country roads with no blind corners the maximum allowable speed is___ km/h
for passenger vehicles
A 60
B. 70
C. 80
D. 200
67. Traffic signs and signals don't exist from it.
a. Uncontrolled Intersection
b. Box Junction
c. Yield-sign intersection
d. Cloverleaf
68. It is completely forbidden, except for conductors collecting passenger fare.
a. Cargo Carrying Devices
b. Riding on running board
c. Riding on top of the MV
d. Hitching
69. Which of the following traffic concepts tells cars and pedestrians what to do at a given
time move or stay still, or when and how to move?
a. Traffic direction
b. Traffic supervision
c. Traffic control
d. Traffic management
70. It is the most common type which involved crossings of two roadways
a. 3-way intersection
b. 4-way intersection
c. 5-way intersection
d. 6-way intersection
71. When you combine verbal warning and citations in the traffic enforcement you are
performing or issuing:
A. Traffic Consultations
B. Written Warnings
C. Traffic Rules
D. Citation Warnings
72. When driving, how should one approach an intersection?
A. Give a signal
B. Be at the full stop
C. Be at the right of way
D. Overtake other vehicles
73. A dog killed in a motor vehicle accident.
A. Property damage
B. Fatal Accident
C. Non-Fatal Accident
D. Vehicular Accident
74. Which of these refers to an event on the road which characterizes the manner of
occurrence of a motor vehicle traffic accident?
A. Chain of events
B. Key Event
C. Cause
D. Primary Cause
75. In vehicular accidents where the driver does not use seatbelt, what evidence can be
shown?
A. Broken glass
B. Head-like hole in the side mirror
C. Distorted glass
D. Dent found in the fouler

76. It refers to any event resulting in unintended injury or property damage attributable
directly or indirectly to the action of a motor vehicle or its loads.
A. Motor Vehicle Accident
B. Accident
C. Traffic Accident
D. Motor Vehicle Traffic Accident
77. This is an enforcement action that entails really inspecting cars and drivers while they are
on the road
A. Road Inspection
B. Road Check
C. Checkpoint
D. Road side inspection
78. What is the space occupied by two streets at the point where they cross each other?
A. Intersection
B. Crossroad
C. Crossing
D. All of these
79. What is the attribute or identifying feature of a motor vehicle which should be stated first
when pursuing or chasing a motor vehicle?
A. Plate Number
B. Body Type
C. Color
D. Make
80. The focal point, or center, of a sketch of a motor vehicle collision is
A. Nearest intersection
B. Point of impact
C. Median strip of the highway
D. Where the vehicle stopped
81. The actual legal owner of a motor vehicle, in whose name such vehicle is duly registered
with the LTO.
A. Owner
B. Proprietor
 C. Operator
D. Operator-owner
82. What is the telling drivers and pedestrians when, how, and where they may or may not
move or stand at a particular place, especially during emergencies or period of congestion?
A. Police traffic direction
B. Traffic direction and control
C. Traffic control
D. Handling emergency situations
83. As a traffic investigator, what is the last action to be undertaken at the scene?
A. Check for injured persons
B. Check for hazards
C. Interview witnesses
D. Call for assistance
84. Which of the following is a mandatory pavement marking?
A. Directional arrows
B. Pedestrian lane
C. Barrel lanes
D. All of these
85. Of the following classifications of traffic signal lights, which is designed primarily to
control and regulate traffic flows?
A. Special pedestrian signals
B. Traffic control signals
C. Motor vehicle control lights
D. Special traffic signal
86. Of the following, which one regulates the movement of turning and passing traffic
regulations?
A. Round and red sign
B. Round black yellow signs
C. Equilateral triangle red signs
D. Eight-sided (octagonal) red and white stop sign
87. Right-of-way rules apply in the following cases, except -
A. Of a vehicle entering from a private road or driveway. The right of way is in favor
of all vehicles utilizing the highway
B. The driver of a vehicle entering a "through highway" or a "stop intersection" shall
yield the right of way to all vehicles approaching in either direction on such "through
highway,
C. The right-of-way shall be given to any ambulances entering an intersection
regardless of the circumstances
D. None of these
88. The reduction of number of traffic violators particularly those related to traffic obstruction
to have free-flow of traffic is a goal of traffic law enforcement which is to
A. All of these
B. Increase traffic efficiency
C increase traffic mobility
D. Increases safety level
89. There are various police units involved in traffic enforcement. Who enforces the R.A.
4136 and or national traffic laws along national roads and thoroughfares?
A. Traffic Management Bureau
B. Traffic Management Division
C. DPWH Enforcement Unit
D. PNP-HPG
90.What is always required when you are caught drank while driving motor vehicle other than
driver's license?
A. Early warning device
B. Official registration
 C. Certificate of registration
D. All of the above
91. It is the standard behind selective enforcement in traffic control.
A. A warning for minor offenses.
B. Direction of enforcement activities to areas prone to traffic danger
C. Selection of strategic areas for strict enforcement.
D. Concentration of enforcement activities during peak traffic hours.
92. Mr. Sammy wants to implement new parking, In implementing new parking regulations, it
is most advisable to utilize.
A. Verbal warning.
B. Written warning.
C. Issue citation
D. Traffic arrest.
93. In Metro Manila the responsibility for developing traffic program primarily rest with.
A. Department of transportation and Communication.
B. Land transportation office.
C. Metro Manila Development Authority
D. Land transportation franchising regulatory Board
94. The most appropriate criteria to use when deciding how to distribute staff would be the
quantity of:
A. Fatal accident
B. Reported accidents
C. Accident involving negligence
D. Amount of traffic using the public road
95. the main contributing factor to road accidents.
A. Traffic educational background of the traffic law violators
B. Human behavior
C. Unsafe road conditions
D. Speeding
96. Several bystanders were hurt when a passenger AUV skidded on a wet roadway. Apparent
good condition should not be used as a point of reference when creating the report.
A. The brakes
B. The driver
C. The tires.
D. The injured bystanders
97. It seems that installing traffic signals will lead to an increase in:
A. Accident involving right of way
B. Accident of confusion
C. Cross traffic accident
D. Accidents due to drunk driving
98. It is the most common defect attributed to the human element in cases of traffic vehicular
accidents.
A. Intellectual
B. Decision
C. Perceptual
D. Attitudinal
99. The phrase "do you know why I called your attention" should not be used when a traffic
police stops a car for a moving offense, mostly because?
A. It implies corruption.
B. It is a leading question.
C. It is a presumption that it is a false arrest action.
D. It invites a denial on the part of the traffic law violator
100. In accident scenarios, the following would be displayed as skid marks:
A. If the vehicle was traveling in the wrong direction or on the wrong side of the
road.
 B. If the driver failed to observed the right of way..
C. If the driver did not obey the traffic signal.
D. All of the foregoing

SPECIALIZE CRIME INVESTIGATION WITH LEGAL MEDICINE

1. The investigation of cases that are unique and often require special training to fully
understand their broad significance refers to?
A. Special Investigation
B. Special Crime Investigation
C. Specific Crime Investigation
D. Special Crime
2. involves the first exposure of the criminal offense to the investigative effort refers to
A. The In-Depth Investigation.
B. The Preliminary Investigation
C. The Concluding Investigation
D. The Prelim Investigation
3. It is a statement of fact made by a party which is against his interest or unfavorable to the
conclusion for which he contends or inconsistent with the facts alleged by him is called
A. Confession
B. Admission
C. Conclusion
D. Testimony
4. The principle on the rights of a suspect from forced self-incrimination during police
interrogation is called
A. Golden Doctrine
B. Cardinal Doctrine
C. Miranda Doctrine
D. Miranda Principle
5. An order in writing issued in the name of the Philippines commanding or directing a peace
officer to arrest the person described therein and brings it before the court refers to
A. Search Warrant
B. Warrant
C. Arrest Warrant
 D. Order
6. An act of willfully and maliciously damaging or destroying a building or other property by
fire or explosion pertains to
A. Malicious mischief
B. Arson
C. Murder
D. Destruction of property
7. These measurements are taken from two fixed points at the scene to the object you desire to
locate. This corresponds to
A. Triangulation
B. Rectangular
C. Polar
D. Straight line
8. An order in writing, issued in the name of the People of the Philippines, signed by a judge
and directed to a peace officer, commanding him to search for a certain personal property and
bring it before the court
A. Search Warrant
B. Warrant
C. Arrest Warrant
D. Order
9. A person who is hit by a hard object refers to
A. Abrasions
B. Hematoma
C. Lacerated wound
D. Incised wounds
10 Identification of a deceased person by looking at their teeth
A. Forensic Chemistry
B. Forensic Pathology
C. Forensic Odontology
D. Forensic Medicine
11. A method of operation or pattern of criminal behavior so distinctive that separate crimes
or wrongful conduct are recognized as the work of the same person
A. Criminal Intent
B. Criminal behavior
C. Nature of Crime
D. Modus Operandi
12. It refers to the forcible expulsion of a fetus from the mother's womb.
A. Murder
B. Abortion
C. Infanticide
D. Parricide
13. Post-mortem change that is characterized by the discoloration of the body after death is
A. Rigor Mortis
B. Livor Mortis
C. Algor Mortis
D. All of the above
14. Any person who killed his father, mother or child, whether legitimate or illegitimate, or
any of his ascendants, or his spouse, is guilty of what crime?
A. Murder
B. Parricide
C. Homicide
D. Any of the choices
15. When should an autopsy be done on a regular basis?
A. When death is uncertain
B. When death is suspicious
 C. When homicide is certain
D. When death is apparently caused by violence
16. Taking and moving a person against their will from one location to another is the
fundamental element of this crime is called?
A. Abduction
B. Kidnapping
C. Illegal detention
D. Coercion
17. The perpetrator must have intended to kill the victim in an attempted or frustrated
homicide. If the offender has no intention of killing, they are accountable for?
A. Physical Injury
B. Homicide
C. Serious Physical Injury
D. Unjust Vexation
18. For those who are not present, a basic graphic that helps them visualize the scene in their
minds is called
A. Sketch
B. Crime Scene Sketch
C. Photograph
D. Rough Sketch
19. The term "body of the crime" in Latin is also known as
A. Corpuz Delicti
B. Corpus Delecti
C. Corpus Delicti
D. Corpuz Delecti
20. Scientific examination of real evidence, application of instrument and methods of the
physical sciences in detecting crime refers to
A. Interview
B. Interrogation
C. Information
D. Instrumentation
21.A postmortem change resulting in the stiffening of the body muscles due to chemical
changes in their myofibrils is called?
a. Algor Mortis
b. Rigor Mortis
c. Livor Mortis
d. Pallor Mortis
22.Upon the adoption petition's verdict, Parlo killed Manong, his adoptive father. What was
the crime committed by Parlo?
a. Homicide
b. Murder
c. Parricide
d. None of the above
23.Which of the following is not a part of three bridges?
a. When the dead person has been moved
b. When the dead body has been embalmed
c. When the dead body has been contaminated and the chain of custody was not
properly accounted
d. When the body is burned or cremated
24.Vern snatched the bag of a lady walking along Bgc Street, what was the crime he
committed?
a. Estafa
b. Theft
c. Robbery
d Malicious mischief
25.Glass cracks caused by stretching that started on the glass's opposing surface are referred
to as:
A. Concentric
B. radial
C. gradient
D. none
26.Nani entered through the window of Ginas's house and took Gina’s cash savings that were
kept in the cabinet. While he is about to exit through the window, he stepped on a 2 day old
child of Gina and eventually died. On what crime can Nani be charged?
a. Robbery
b. Robbery with Homicide
c. Robbery with Infanticide
d. Robbery and Murder
27.The forcible expulsion of a fetus from the mother's womb refers to?
A. Murder
B. Infanticide
C. Abortion
D. Parricide
28.The following are rape by sexual assault, Except;
A. Inserting penis into another person's anal orifice
B Inserting penis into another person's mouth
C. Inserting any instrument or object, into the genital or anal orifice of another
person.
D. Inserting penis while the woman is sleeping.

29.What type of wound is a wound resulting from instinctive reaction of self-protection?

A. Defense
B. Patterned
C. Self-inflicted wound
D. Offensive
30.What kind of instrument will result in an incised wound?
A. Sharp pointed Instrument
B. Blunt Instrument
C. Sharp pointed and Sharp Edge
D. Sharp Edge
31.A crucial feature of the gunshot wound exit is
A. The edge is inverted
B. The size is smaller than the missile
C. The edge is everted
D. The shape is round
32.The taking and transporting of a person against his will from one place to another is what
type of crime?
A. Abduction
B. Kidnapping
C. Illegal detention
D. Coercion
34.Which body system is involved in the cessation of a person's mental organ function at the
point at which they are deemed medically "dead"?
A. Digestive
B. Central Nervous
C. Respiratory
D. Cardiac
35.The location is where the suspect either carries out criminal activity or leaves tangible
proof of it.
 a. Crime scene
b. Body of evidence
C. Body of the crime
d. Victim
36.Which of the following are the two methods of reasoning that assist critical thinking and
which are peculiar to the investigative process?
a. Conductive and conducive
b. Assumption and presumption
c. Conclusion and analysis
d. Deductive and inductive
37.Which of the following is not the presence of physical evidence ?
a. Corpus delict
b. Circumstantial evidence
c. Tracing evidence
d. Associative evidence
38.The measurement method that establishes a straight line from one fixed point to another,
from which measurements are taken at right angle is
a. Rectangular
b. Baseline
v. Compass point
d. Triangulation
39.It is considered as evidence when a witness tells the investigator what they see, smell,
hear, taste, and touch
a. Documentary
b. Parol
c. Testimonial
d. Real
40.The investigation technique is effective but also risky. A science operator pretends to be
someone else, adopts a role, and gathers information it is refers to?
a. Acting
b. Undercover
c. Replacement
d. Work and social
41.The sudden rise of temperature of the body after death due to rapid and early putrefactive
or some internal changes called?
a. Post-mortem placidity
b. Rigor mortis
c. Post-mortem caloricity
d. Stupor
42. When an investigator searches for indicators of death using LIVOR MORTIS, which
statement is true?
a. The body gradually cools.
b. The first sign is a greenish skin discoloration appearing on the right lower
abdomen about the second or third day after death.
c. All of the body muscles are affected.
d. The skin, no longer under muscular control, succumbs to gravity and forming new
shapes, among others.
43.Everything below should be included in a crime scene sketch, EXCEPT
a. A north heading on the diagram.
b. A scale of distance.
c. Type of search pattern.
d. Date and location of the crime scene
44.What is the main psychological element that will enable you to have a successful
interrogation of the suspect?
a. Interrogation laced with threats.
 b. Interrogation in the convenience of hotel setting.
c Public interrogation of the suspect.
d. Interrogation conducted in privacy.
45.The suspect showed signs of perspiration, color change, dry mouth, pulse, and respiration,
among other things. What does this appear to be in your analysis?
a. It can be an expression of embarrassment.
b. Considered as circumstantial evidence of guilt
c. It manifest physiological symptoms of guilt.
d. It manifests sufficient, strong and convincing evidence of guilt.
46. The police officer must get the necessary search warrant from the
a Chief of police
b. Court/judge
c Prosecutor's office
d. Any of these
47.Prior to being permitted to conduct a home search, the police officer must first obtain a?
a. Good reason
b. Search warrant
c. Good suspicion
d. Good rate of experience
48. It is the MOST essential requisites of admission and confession
a. It must be voluntarily and freely given.
b. No violence was used against the suspect.
c. Their suspect was not tortured.
d. The offender fully understands his confession.

49. What is the time span of blood's fluidity within the blood vessel?
a. 3-4 hours
b. 5-7 hors
c. 6-8 hours
d. 10-1 confession
50.To be admissible as evidence, a dying declaration must meet all of these requirements,
except;
a. the victim's declaration must identify the person responsible for his or her
condition and state the circumstances and manner by which the slight injuries
were inflicted.
b. the victim must die from the injuries received
c. the victim must believe he or she is about to die
d. the victim must be rational and competent
51.In investigating sex crimes, you need to consider everyone as
A Victim
b. Suspect
c. Witness
d. All of the above
52. The following are the elements of the crime of homicide except one;
A. The act of killing attended with treachery, superior strength, and
premeditation
B. That the person was killed
C. That the accused killed him without any justifying circumstances
D. That the accused had the intension to kill, which is presumed
53.Which of the following describes "corpus delicti"?
i.corpus delicti is the body or substance of the crime.
ii. corpus delicti is the fact that a crime has actually been committed.
iii. corpus delicti is the body of the person who is a victim of the homicide or murder.
a. II, III
b. I, II
 c. I,III
d. I, II, III
54. What is the crime committed If the offender killed a person whose age is LES5 12 years
of age?
a. Homicide, in the absence of any qualifying circumstance under Article 248.
b. Murder, if not attended by circumstance under article 246.
c. Murder, even if the offender is any of the parent.
d. Parricide, regardless of relationship by consanguinity.
55. What rights do searches and seizures have under the constitution?
a. Search must be done by the police only.
b. Search must be upon order of the court
c. Search must be conduct when where is a warrant
d. Search must not deprive the person of this property
56. Evidence is the type of material that is subject to the court's interpretation
a. Physical
b. Object
c. Real
d. All of the above
57. You observed in the suspect the following: sweating, color change, dry mouth, pulse and
breathing. In your analysis, what does this manifest?
a. It can be an expression of embarrassment.
b. Considered as circumstantial evidence of guilt.
c. It manifests sufficient, strong and convincing evidence of guilt.
d. It manifest physiological symptoms of guilt.
58. The search warrant that the police officer needs must be obtained from the what we
called?
a. Chief of police
b. Court/judge
c Prosecutor's office
d. Any of these
59. Before the police officer may be allowed to search the person's home, he/she is required to
secure a
a. Good reason
b. Search warrant
c. Good suspicion
d. Good rate of experience
60. What is the MOST essential requisites of admission and confession?
a. It must be voluntarily and freely given.
b. No violence was used against the suspect.
c. Their suspect was not tortured.
d. The offender fully understands his confession.
61. A wound produced by a sharp pointed instrument.
a. Stab Wound
b. Lacerated Wound
c. Incised Wound
d. Punctured Wound
62. This determine deals with the legal implications superimposed on biological cause and
mechanism of death
a. Manner of Death
b. Cause of Death
c. Natural Death.
d. Accidental Death
63. The initial injury that led to a sequence of events, which caused the death of the victim.
a. Immediate Cause of Death injury or disease that finally killed the individual
b. Proximate Cause of Death
 c. Cause of death
d. Manner of Death
64. It is the ability to go down to the level of the minor, the prostitute or slum dwellers, or the
level of the other professionals or the members of the elite.
a. Endurance
b. Courage
c. Acting Ability
d. Endurance
65. A clinical type of death where the person gives up or surrenders accepting death
a. Physiological Death
b. Psychic Death
c. Biological Death
d. Sociological Death
66. This is the physical possibility that the suspect could have committed the crime.
a. Motive
b. Opportunity
c. Intent
d. Intelligence
67.Which of the following is a genderless act which involves unconventional sexual acts of
violence and aggression committed on the genital, oral or anal orifices of another person?
a. Defloration
b. Sexual assault
c. Rape
d. Sexual harassment
68. Vitoria murdered his two-day-old illegitimate grandson. What offense does Vitoria have
to pay for?
a. murder
b. parricide
c. infanticide
d. homicide
69. Ina murdered his legitimate father. Ina is liable for what crime?
a, murder
b. parricide
c. infanticide
d. homicide
70.It is the chemical procedure used to recover engine and serial numbers that have been
altered or removed.
a. micro etching
b. macro etching
c. etching
d. chemical etching
71. a kind of thief-catcher whose goals were purely financial or mercenary
A. Informant
B. Informer
C Hirelings
D. Social Climbers
71.The cutting of a body part of another person to weaken his defense refers to?
A. Castration
B. Mayhem
C. Mutilation
D Amputation
72. The epidermis and upper part of the dermis are completely affected by the most
superficial second-degree bums.
a. First-degree burn
b. Second-degree burn
 c. Third-degree burn
d. fourth-degree burn
73. Forensic Specialists have the duty to train investigators and crime searchers in the, of
evidence
a. Analysis
b. Recognition
c. Cataloguing
d. Interpretation
74. produced by steam, moist heat, or any hot liquid, such oil or water. or even melted metal
or rubber. The normally well-defined region of injury appears blistered and erythematous is
called?
a. radiant burns
b. dry burns
c. wet burns
d. scalds
75. involves analyzing a person's behavior to assess deception. This study focuses on the
body's observable outward behavior to determine the subject's emotional state
a. Interview Method
b. Kinesic Interview Method
c. PEACE method
d. mendez method
76. Refers to inquiries that prompt a specific response and could be interpreted as
manipulating the interviewee.
a. Closed questions
b. Forced-choice questions
c. Multiple questions
d. Leading questions
77.It is a methods that the interviewer can use to seize the initiative and command the
interview setting. From mirroring to proxemics, or the application of improved information
collection techniques. Both spoken and unspoken forms
a. Verbal Cues
b. Body Language Cues
c. Kinesic Subject Control
d. Confession Behaviors
78. The new Principles on Effective Interviewing for Investigations and Information
Gathering also know as?
a. Mendez Method
b. Miranda Doctrine
c. Reid Method
d. Mendoza method
79. It also aids the interviewer in figuring out whether the interviewee is experiencing
psychosis or a personality disorder
a. Practical Kinesic Interrogation Phase
b. reid method
C.mendez method,
d. PEACE method
80. Criminals who quickly experience regret for their actions.
a. Non-emotional offenders
c. Sensitive offenders
b. Emotional offenders
d. None of the above
81. What is the crime committed If the offender killed a person whose age is LES5 12 years
of age?
a. Homicide, in the absence of any qualifying circumstance under Article 248.
b. Murder, if not attended by circumstance under article 246.
 c. Murder, even if the offender is any of the parent.
d. Parricide, regardless of relationship by consanguinity.
82.The form of evidence that is subject to the sense of the court is evidence.
a. Physical
b. Object
c. Real
d. All of these
83. As a general rule, what does the constitution provide in so far as search and seizure is
concern?
a. Search must be done by the police only.
b. Search must be upon order of the court
c. Search must be conduct when where is a warrant
d. Search must not deprive the person of this property
84.In cases when there is even the smallest chance that a deceased person was poisoned
A. Thoroughly examine the body
B. It should be subjected to autopsy
C. The organs should be removed before embalming
D. B and C
85.. describes how the body's complex protein and carbohydrate molecules are broken down
into simpler ones by the activity of digestive enzymes.
a.Desiccation
b. Putrefaction
c. Decomposition
d. Autolysis

86.This is most noticeable on the mucous membranes, which are rendered vulnerable to
drying after death because they are maintained wet during life (by lip-licking, blinking, etc.).
The conjunctiva may seem black, and the membrane may appear "burned".
a. Desiccation
b. Putrefaction action
c. Decomposition
d. Autolysis/ self-digestion
87. THE FOLLOWING are accident-related evidence, EXCEPT:
a. Testimony of the witness
b. Usually there is but one shot
c. A special area of the body is involved
d. There is no special area involved
88.The following are evidence of suicidal gunshot wound, EXCEPT:
A. History ofdespondency, family problem which may cause him to commit suicide
b. The presence of usually but one gunshot wound. In most cases, after a shot,
especially at the head, the victim can no longer voluntarily act to inflict another shot.
c. Portions of the body involved are those accessible to the hand of the victim utilized
in committing suicide, he will not think of the difficult way of ending his life unless
he has the intention of deceiving the investigators.
d The fire is not in contact nor near as shown by the absence of burning,
singeing and tattooing of the area around the gunshot wound.
89. The following are evidence that shows that the wound is homicidal, except one:
a. The fire is made when the victim is usually some distance away from the assailant
b. Signs of struggle/ defense wound maybe present in the victim
c. The site or sites of the wound of entrance has a point of election
d. There is no special area involved
90. In order to be sexually satisfied, one must first be humiliated, hurt, or beaten.
a. Sadism
b. Masochism
c. Sado-masochism
 d. Voyeurism
91. Commonly known as indecent exposure, is an exposure of a sex organ for sexual
gratification.
a. Buggery
b. Exhibitionism
c. Cunnilingus
d. Coprophagy
92. The same strategy or pretext is always used by these types of sexual criminals.
a. Fetishism
b. Symbolism
c. Sex Fantasy
d. Ritualism
93. Sexual gratification where the victims are children
a Pedophilia
b. Satyriasis
c. Nymphomania
d. Necromania
94. voluntary sexual relations between a married individual and a non-spouse.
a. Adultery
b. anilingus
c. Anthropagy
d. Bestiality
95. What should be established first before or during the conduct of interview or
interrogation?
a. Motive that impels the offender
b. Intent in commission of the crime
c. Rapport with the subject
d. Guilt of the subject
96. What is the main psychological component that will enable you to have a successful
interrogation of the suspect?
a. Interrogation laced with threats.
b. Interrogation in the convenience of hotel setting.
c Public interrogation of the suspect.
d. Interrogation conducted in privacy.
97. Which requirements for admission and confession are the MOST important?
a. It must be voluntarily and freely given.
b. No violence was used against the suspect.
c. Their suspect was not tortured.
d. The offender fully understands his confession.
98. When interviewing witnesses at the scene of an accident, which procedure is advised to
follow?
A different investigator should interview each witness separately and in private
b. Each witness should be interviewed alone and In private.
c All witnesses should be interviewed by the same officer.
d. Witnesses who agree about what took place should be interviewed as a group to
avoid unnecessary duplication.
99. You saw that the suspect was sweating changing color, having a dry mouth, breathing,
and pulse. What manifestation does this have in your analysis?
a. It can be an expression of embarrassment.
b. Considered as circumstantial evidence of guilt.
c. It manifest physiological symptoms of guilt.
d. It manifests sufficient, strong and convincing evidence of guilt.
100. Before the police officer may be allowed to search the person's home, he/she is required
to secure a what you called?
a. Good reason
 b. Search warrant
c. Good suspicion
d. Good rate of experience

FUNDAMENTALS OF CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION & INTELLIGENCE

1.It deals with the identity, location and arrest of a person who commits a crime and
simultaneously identify, collect, preserve and evaluate evidence for the purpose of bringing
criminal offender to justice
A Investigation
B. Investigative process
C. Criminal Investigation
D. Criminal Inquest
2. Through this tool of criminal investigation tangible things can be used to detect crimes,
identify the criminals, facilitate, and assist the investigator in its task in achieving the
objectives of criminal investigation.
A. Information
B. Criminalistics
C. Instrumentation
D. Interview/interrogation
3.What specific offence has been committed? Who committed 7 When it was committed?
Where it was committed? Why was committed? And how it was committed? This are called?
A. Cardinal Points
B. Golden Rule
C. Three I's
D Bridges burn
4. It may be in sensory, written or physical forms which can be obtained from regular,
cultivated or grapevine sources
A. Information
B. Data
C. Evidence
D. Proof
5. It is an act or declaration made in the presence and within the hearing or observation of a
party who does or says nothing, when the act or declaration naturally calls for action if
comment is not tru
A. Admission by Silence
B. Res inter alios acta
C. Admission
D. Negative admission
6. The process of identifying unknown fugitive commonly done in a headquarters who is
mixed with innocent person lined before the witness refers to?
a. Police Lineup
b. A or D
c. Physical Show up
d. Police Identity
7.The police files of photograph of known criminals, their modus operandi, hiding places and
names of associate criminals is called?
a. Verbal description
b. General Photograph
c. Artist Sketch
d. Rogues Gallery
8. Person who by social or professional position possesses or has access to information of
continuing interest and who willingly provides information to the police either in response to
a specific request or his own initiative
A. Incidental informant
C. Automatic informant
B. Casual informant
D. Recruited informant

9. Covert observation of a person, place, or things by human or technical means to acquire

information is called?
A. Surveillance
B. Stationary surveillance
C. Technical
D. Mobile

10. Sometimes called "roping. An investigation technique whereby the operative conceals his
true identity and adopts an assumed role to obtain information or accomplish a specific
mission.
A . Undercover assignment
B. Dwelling assignment
C. Work assignment and social assignment
D. Personal contact assignment
11. The methodology involving the systematic searching, handling, distribution and
accountability of all evidence found at the crime scene, including the documentation of every
ortice of evidence from the point of initial discovery at the scene, to its collection and
transport to the point of examination, its temporary storage and its final disposal is referred to
us.
A. Corpus delicti
C. Blotter
В. Necropsy report
D. Chain of custody
12.It is an area where you could stay in which there are no possible evidence that may
accidentally be disturbed or altered
a. crime scene
b. headquarters
 c. command post
d . police station
13. Considered a hesitant and reluctant type of witness referred to?
A. suspicious type
B. drunken type
c. talkative type
d. know-nothing type
14. Through this tool of criminal investigation tangible things may be used to detect crimes,
identify the criminals, facilitate and assist the investigator in its task in achieving the
objectives of criminal investigation.
a. Information
b. criminalistics
c. instrumentation
d. Interview/Interrogation
15. This are place, building or enclosed area where police undercover man mace for debating
or reporting purposes
a. Safe house
b. House
c. convoy
d. Made
16. It is the physical evidence that links a suspect to the scene of the crime?
a Associative evidence
b. Physical evidence
c. Object evidence
d. Circumstantial evidence
17. It is a device that will pick up sound from a distance away.
A Tap
b. Tap and Trace
c. Voice Amplifier
d. White Nose Amplifier
18. An art or science of making, devising, and protecting codes
A. Cryptography
b. codes
c. ciphers
d. cryptograph
19. One who provides information voluntarily without asking for any consideration in return
is generally regarded as
a. Special informer
b. Informant
c informer
d. Special informant
20. The search method or pattern that breaks the area into smaller ones is what we called?
A. grid
B. strip
c. quadrant
d. quadrant
21. Which phase of a criminal investigation that the investigator should apprised the person of
his right under Republic Act 74387
A. During the identification of criminal offender
B.During the arrest, detention and interrogation of the offender
C. During the gathering of evidence to prove the guilt of criminal offender
D. During police line-up
22. Coerced and uncounseled statements are considered involuntary or forced confession
which are usually what you call?
A. Judicial
 B. Prosecutorial
C. Extrajudicial
D. Admission
23.After apprising him of his rights under Republic Act 7438, John Encarnacion who was
invited and interrogated for the case of murder executed an extra-judicial confession
acknowledging his quilt to the crime charged. What is the
effect of such confession to his case?
A. It can be used as evidence against him
B. He will be convicted for the crime of murder
C. He waived his rights to prove his innocence
D. His case will prosper
24. The written confession of Julie Bega the accused is used as a script in describing events of
the crime. This strengthens the prosecutor's case and serves to convince the judge that the
accused was not maltreated. This process are called?
A Mental reconstruction
B. Reconstruction
c. Crime reenactment
D. Physical reconstruction
25.The following questions are part of the cardinal points of
criminal investigation, EXCEPT:
a. How was the crime committed?
b. Why was the crime committed?
c. What is the offender's marital status
d. Where was the crime committed?
26.Which of the following is physical evidence which helps in locating the suspect?
A. Corpus delicti
B. Trace evidence
C. Associative evidence
D. Documentary evidence

27.The investigation technique is effective, but also risky because the operative conceals his
true identity, adopts and assumes a role to obtain information, is what we called?
A. Undercover/ roping.
B. Acting assignment
C. Room assignment
D. Work assignment
28.Which part of the Constitution mandates the protection of the citizen from unreasonable
search and seizure?
A. The Bill of Rights
B. National Security of the state
C. Preamble
D. Territorial Integrity of the State
29. What is the process by which observation of a person, place or things by human or
technical means to acquire information is being conducted?
A. Intelligence
B. Surveillance
C. Instrumentation
D. Shadowing
30.Which of the following is the best illustration of "eavesdropping the crimescene"?
a. Playing the role of curious spectator and mixed with the crowd to listen their
conversation
b. Search physical evidence at the scene
c. All of these
d. Estimate the extent of the scene
31.Which of the following need not be present in order to prove the guilt of the accused by
means of confession or admission?
A. Confession must be supported by corroborative evidence
B. Corpus delict must be established separately
C. Confession must be voluntarily and freely given
D. Confession must be ratified by the judge of the fiscal
32. Rina is an investigator who investigates murder case perpetrated by an unknown suspect.
A person in the name of Roy, a call center agent, saw the crime and he is willing to identity
the suspect. Which of the following methods will Rina not utilize to establish the identity of
the suspect?
A. Verbal Description (Portrait Parle) and Rogue's Gallery (Photographic Files)
B. General Photographs and Cartographic Sketch (Artist's Assistance) [Compose
Artist)
C. Police Line-up
D. Systematic interview that may lead to the identity of a known criminals
13. Emilyn is an investigator, investigating a suspected rape-slaying case which was alegedly
witnessed by a certain person who volunteered to identify and testly against the perpetrator.
What are the factors that Emilyn should not consider to determine the accuracy of his
identification of the suspect?
A. His ability to observe and remember the distinct appearance of the suspect
B. The prevailing conditions of visibility and observation when the crime was
committed
C. His state of mind when he witnessed the commission of the crime
D. The lapse of time between the criminal event and when identification was made
34. Shane is an investigator who investigates an alleged robbery with homicide case
perpetrated by an unknown
suspects. Since there are no witnesses to the crime the following may give you a hint to
identify the suspect, except
A. Motive and opportunity
B. Declaration and acts indicative of guilt, preparation for a commission of crime and
possession of fruits of a crime of the perpetrator
C. Modus Operandi, associative evidence and criminal potentiality
D. Knowledge, skills, tools or facilities that could easily be adopted to criminal
use by the suspect
35.In this method af shadowing, operatives and station at a food point assuming that subject
followed the same general route each day.
A. ABC Method
C. Combined Foot-Auto Surveillance
B. Leap Frog Method
D. Fixed surveillance
36.Patrol woman Nimpa De Taza is examining crime scene, which a dead victim sustained a
gunshot wound in the heed with a handgun near his hand. He was informed that the victim
had a painful terminal illness. Patrol woman De Taza concluded that the wound is self
inflicted. This is an example which the investigator use what kind of reasoning?
A. Deductive
B. Logical
C.Reasonable
D. Inductive
37.Which of the following must be done to maintain the physical integrity of evidence?
A. Evidence must be photographed and packaged
B.Evidence must be property documented
C. identity, tag and seal the evidence
D. Maintain of custody
38.The process in surveillance wherein the subject or suspect is being guarded against by one
who usually stays at the rear of the subject is
 A. two-man shadow
B. one-man shadow
C. convoy
D. envoy
39.Which of the following is part of the Golden Rules in homicide investigation?
A. Be careful with the processing of the evidence at the crime scene.
B. The investigator is the heart and soul of investigation.
C. Every crime leaves evidence that points to the suspect.
D. Never touch, alter and change the position of anything until measured and
photographed.
40.The evidence that can be associated with a single
unique source is?
A. Class characteristics
B. Testimonial
C. Physical
D Individual characteristics.
41.The search method or pattern that breaks the area into smaller ones is
A. grid
B. strip
C. spiral
D. quadrant
42. The measurement method that uses straight line measures from two fixed objects to the
evidence to create a triangle with the evidence in the angle formed by the two straight lines is
A. Compass point
B. Baseline
C. Triangulation
D. Rectangulation

43.The most unusual style of interrogation:

A. Jolting
B. Hypnotism
C. Mutt and Jeff
D. Bluff on a split pair
44.The interview of a witness can be described by the acronym IRONIC, which stands for:
A. Inquiry, Recognition Organization. Novelty Identity, Continuity
B. Identity, Rapport, Omnipresent. Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion
C. Identity, Recognition, Opening statement, Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion
D. Identity, Rapport, Opening statement, Narration, Inquiry Conclusion.
45. It is the application of all procedures for the search of missing persons.
A. Rogues gallery
B. Trading
C. menhunt
D. order of battle
46. In questioning a witness, an ideal type of written statement is
A. Narrative type because it is easier and will be short
B. Question and answer because it provides details of act
C. Combination of the two
D. Your convenient type
47. When is the labeling of evidence:
A. In the crime scene upon collection.
B. After tagging the evidence
C. Upon taking photographs
D. None of these
48. Mina Castronuevo was invited by the NBI operatives to answer questions pertinent to the
murder case investigated. After the Questioning at the NBI Headquarters however, he was
held for further questioning and considered him a suspect already, Persons who can visit him
are as follows, except
A. Lovers, friends and countrymen
B. Immediate member of his family
C. Any medical doctor, priest or religious ter
D. Personnel of the CHR
49. Which of the following is not one of the questioning techniques that should be utilized in
interrogation?
A. Chronological
B. Going backward
C. General to specific
D. Going upward
50. To prove the chain of custody of evidence the following must be demonstrated except:
A. The evidence must be free from alteration, contamination and switching
B. The evidence offered is the same evidence found at the scene
C. There is no opportunity to replace or improperly alter the evidence
D. Any change in the condition of the evidence can be explained
51.Elements of investigative process are
1. Recognition
2. Collection
3. Dissemination
4. Preservation
5. Evaluation

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1,3,4 and 5
C. 1.2.4 and 5
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

52.One of the stages of criminal investigation is the identification of criminals, which can be
done in any or a combination of the following, except
A. By confession or admission by the criminal
B. By corpus delicti
C. By circumstantial evidence
D. By eyewitness
53.Statement no. 1. Confession is a voluntary statement, either oral or written, made by a
person charged with the commission of a crime which he admits participation in, or
commission of, the criminal act. It cannot be implied. It should be direct and positive
acknowledgment of guilt. Statement no. 2 Admission is a statement by the accused regarding
facts pertinent to the crime. It tends, in connection with the proof of other facts, to prove the
suspect's guilt. It can be implied.
A. Statement No. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is false
B. Statement No. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is true
C. Statements No. 1 and 2 are both true
D. Statements No. 1 and 2 are both false
54.Identification of criminals as the initial phase of terminal investigation can be done in any
combination of the subsequent means, except:
1)by confession (DIRECT OF ADMISSION OF GUILT) or (CERTAIN FACTS) by the
criminal
2) by circumstantial evidence (INDIRECT EVIDENCE) and associative evidence
3) by presentation of corpus delict
4) try description of eyewitness

a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 only
 c.1, 2 and 4
d. 3 only
55.What are the minimum requirements needed for such extrajudicial confession be
admissible as evidence in court?
1. It must be taken under oath in the presence of his counsel
2. Confession be reduced into writing, in a particular dialect known to the confessant himself
3. Such confession must be given voluntarily
4. The same must be signed by the confessant or otherwise thumb marked

a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
56. A crime may generate evidence in the form of physical objects, to make effective use of
articles found at the scene the investigator must
A. Preserve its physical and legal integrity
B. Evaluate its investigation at hand worth
C. Recognize and collect them
D. All of the above
57. As a criminal investigator, your primary duty is to establish the following facts, EXCEPT
a. Corpus delicti or facts that thecrime was committed
b. Method of operation of the perpetrator
c. Identity of the accused by the guilty party
d. Damages to the victim caused to the victim or his/her family
58.Circumstantial Evidence is an evidence that indirectly proves a fact in issue through an
inference which fact finder drisws from the evidence presented. It is sufficient to produce the
conviction of the accused if
1. There are more than one circumstances present

2. The facts from which the inferences derived are proven

3. The combination of all the circumstances is such as to produce a conviction beyond

reasonable doubt

A 1, 2 and 3
C. 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2
D. Only 3
59.Circumstantial Evidence in an evidence that indirectly proves a fact in issue through an
inference which fac accused if finder draws from the evidence presented. It is sufficient to
produce the conviction of the
1. There are more than one circumstances present
2.The facts from which the inferences derived are proven
3.The circumstances presented should be supported by testimonial evidence 4. The
combination of all the circumstances is such as to produce a conviction beyond reasonable
doubt

A. 1 and 3
B. 1, 2 and 3
C.1,2 and 4
D. 2 and 4
60. Aira is one of the police operates asked to trace a fuge. Which of the following
information for his capture will aira consider?
1. His full name, known aliases, description and disanctive marks, modus operand motive and
associates
2. 2. His habits, hangouts, ominal record, residence, employment, relatives and close friends
3 . His physical condition LTO records ched SSS number, selective service history and
handwriting specimen
A. 1and2
B. 1and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 1.2 and 3

61. Police Investigator Caroline tries to reconstruct the crime scene. What are the components
of the crime scene situation which you would analyzed?
1. Suspect's arrival at the scene
2. Place of entry
3. Movement of suspect from point of entry and his contact with the victim
4.Place of exit
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 2 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1, 3 and 4

62. __________ is the covert observation of a person, place, or things by human or technical
means to acquire information
A Surveillance
B. Stationary surveillance
C. Mobile
D. Technical
63.Rough tailing or shadowing is the one that ________
A, General Impression about the target is needed
B. So much precision is needed
C. The targets aware that he is being told
D. None of them

64.Statement no 1, in Physical of reconstruction, the physical appearance of the crime scene is

reconstructed from the description, of the witnesses and the indication of the physical
evidence Statement no. 2. In mental reconstruction after physical reconstruction, conclusions
are made about the consistency of the accounts of the various witnesses. No assumption is
made without supporting evidence.
A. Statement no. 1 is incorrect
B. Statement 2 is correct
C. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both correct
D. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both incorrect
65. How can the chain of custody of evidence be proven in court proceedings?
A. Any change in the condition of evidence can be explained.
B. The evidence offered is the same evidence found at the scene
C. There is no opportunity to replace or improperly alter the evidence
D. All of these
66.Statement no. 1 in the reconstruction of a crime, the investigator rational theory of the
crime may begins with deductive logic and later on inductive logic Statement no. 2. A rational
theory of one is more than a learned guess, but less than a certainty, but have very high order
of probability.
A Statement no. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is false
B. Statement not is false while statement number 2 is true
C. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true
D. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both false
67. The interview of a witness can be described by the acronym IRONIC, which stands for:
A. Inquiry, Recognition Organization. Novelty Identity, Continuity
 B. Identity, Rapport, Omnipresent. Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion
C. Identity, Rapport, Opening statement, Narration, Inquiry Conclusion
D. Identity, Recognition, Opening statement, Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion.
68. Statement No. 1-The systematic procedure for verbal description of a person after a short
period of visual observation is termed Portrait Parle ; Statement No. 2-Description of police
characters which a witness may refer and that is kept by police unit for purpose of references
is Rogue's Gallery
A. Statement No 1 and 2 are both correct.
B. Statement No. 1 is correct while statement No. 2 is incorrect
C. Statement No. 2 is correct while statement 1 is incorrect
D. Statement No.1 and 2 are both incorrect
69. What are the Golden Rules in homicide investigation?
A. Never touch, alter and change the position of anything until identified,
measured and photographed
B. If article has been move it can never be restored again to its original position
C. Never touch the position of anything until identified, measured and photographed
D. A and B are true
70. Statement no. 1-Tagging of physical evidence aside from the marking should be made
immediately after receipt by the evidence custodian Statement no. 2- Marking or labeling of
physical evidence should be made at the crime scene upon collection
A. Statement No 1 and 2 are both incorrect
B. Statement No. 2 is incorrect
C. Statement No 1 and 2 are both correct
D. Statement No 1 is correct
71. Physical evidence are contaminated, altered of shape, damaged or lost because of
Improper packaging and Non-maintenance of chain of custody.
A, Yes
B. No
C. True
D. False

72. Which is not one of the questioning techniques that should be utilized in interrogation?
A. Chronological
B. Going backward
C. General to specific
D. Going upward
73. The following are considered as an DIFFICULT TO FIND object in crime scene
investigation, EXCEPT:
A. Testimonial even
B. Physical evidence
C. Object evidence
D. Associative evidence
74. Which of the following must be done to maintain the physical integrity of evidence?
A. must be photographed and packaged
B. Evidence must properly documented
C. Identify, tag and seal the evidence
D. Maintain chain of custody
75. It is called an item of information of the characteristics of the areas of operations and the
enemy which the commander feels he needs before he can reasonably arrive at a decision
A. Line Intelligence
B. Essential Element of Information Line
C. Strategic
D. Priorities
76. It was organized as the first law enforcement agency with statewide investigative
authority, the forerunner of the Federal Bureau of Investigation.
 a. Office of Strategic Services
b. Texas rangers
c. Breed of Investigation
d. None of the above
79. This is pertains to the dimension and the distance of the relative object to one another
a. Measurement
b. Legend
c. Scale
d. compass
80. The act or practice of spying. The use of spy by a government in order to discover the
military or political secret of other nations is what you called?
a. Treason
b. Espionage
c. wiretapping
d. Sabotage
81.disloyalty to one's own country by giving away or selling its secret to the enemy referred
to?
a. Espionage
b. treason
c. Sedition
d. Sabotage
82. agent who have reached to the enemy, gather information and able to get back without
being caught
a. expendable agent
b. agent of influence
c. double agent
d. penetration agent
83. It is any action promoting or inciting discontent or rebellion against a government
a. Sabotage
b. Treason
c. Sedition
d. Espionage
84. An agent who leaks false information to the enemy
a. agent of influence
b. agent in place
c expendable agent
a double agent
85. It is a device that will pick up sound from a distance away.
a. Tap and Trace
b. Voice Amplifier.
c. Trace
d. White Nose Amplifier
86. . It is a kind of evidence that tends to prove additional evidence of a same character to the
point.
A Corroborative evidence
B. Cumulative evidence.
C Direct Evidence
D.Circumstantial Evidence
87. PO lll Aira submitted an intelligence report evaluated as B-5. What is the interpretation of
this evaluated intelligence report?
a. Information is usually from a reliable source and possible true
b. Information is usually from a reliable source and is improbable.
c. Information is usually from a reliable source and is probably true
d. Information is usually from a reliable source and is doubtfully true
88. What is the most important consideration in search no matter what method is used?
 a. That the search must be geometric
b. That the search must be meticulous and redundant
c. That the search must be systematic
d. That the search must be trigonometric
89. SPO IV Del Mundo evaluated the information gathered as "completely reliable, source
probably true. What is the information's evaluation rating
A. A 1
B.A 2
C. A. 10
D. 3
90. One of the elements of sketch wherein the graphic direction for proper orientation of the
scene representation must indicate the ____ direction for proper orientation of the scene.
A. North
B. East
C. West
D. South
91. These are the possible sources of physical evidence, EXCEPT
A. victim
B. crime scene
C. court
D. Suspect
92. A place, building or enclosed area where police undercover men meet for reporting
purposes is called?
a. Safe house
b. Drop
c. convoy
d. made
93.This is refers to a place where agents or informants leave their messages to the other
Agents
A. Safe House
B. Live drop
C. Precinct
D. A and B
94. SPO |V Shane Cañon conducting an interrogation, what are the legal matters that she
should inform the suspect before the interrogation?
A.That he has the right to remain silent and anything he says can be used against him
in court
B. That he has the right not to answer questions that may be incriminatory to him
C. That he has the right to have a competent and independent counsel of his own
choice, present during question
D. All of the above
95. The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly the conversations of other
people is what you called?
a. Wire Tapping
b. Bugging
c. Eavedropping
d. Bagging
96. It is a combination of the elements stated in assessment
a. Analysis
b. Integration
c. Evaluation
d. Deduction
97. The agent will gain access to the subject by going to the different hang out places of the
subject and gather Information
a. Work Assignment
 b. Social Assignment
c. Assignment
d. Resident Assignment
98. An art or science of making, devising, and protecting codes and ciphers
a. Codes
b. jargons
c. Coded text
d. Ciphers
99. It is a combination of the elements stated in assessment
a. Analysis
b. Integration
c. Deduction
d. Dissemination
100. It is an Information and material whose unauthorized disclosure would cause
exceptionally grave damage to the Country.
a. Top Secret.
b. confidential
c. Secret
d. Restricted

CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION

1. What is the name of the facilities where convicted offenders serve out their sentences, such
as halfway homes?
a. Correctional Institutions
b. Facility
c. Correctional Administration
d. New Bilibid Prison
2. It is a branch of the administration of the Criminal Justice System charged with the
responsibility for the custody, supervision, and rehabilitation of the convicted offender.
a. Conviction
b. Corrections
c. Penalty
d. Facility
3. It is a court-issued writ mandating that the identified individual be detained in correctional
facilities while they awaiting for trial.
a. Commitment
b. Commitment Order
c. Mittimus
d. Mittimus Order
4. Deals with understanding the nature of criminal law and its procedure of administration
refers to?
a. Sociology of Law
 b. Criminal Etiology
c. Penal Science
d. Penal Management
5. The bureau of corrections is under what department?
a. Department Development of social Welfare and
b. Department of Justice
c. Provincial Government
d. Department of the Interior and Local Government
6. It is refers to the institutional record of an inmate which consists of his mittimus or
commitment order issued by the Court after conviction,
6. It is the attempt to prevent future crimes through fear of punishment.
a. Retribution
b. Deterrence
c. Incapacitation
d. Rehabilitation
7. It’s goal is to implement a better jail management system across the country, it directs,
oversees, and controls the administration and operation of all district, city, and municipal
jails.
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
b. Department of Justice
c. Bureau of Corrections
d. Parole and Probation Administration
8. The one that exercise supervision and control over provincial jails.
a. BJMP
b. Bureau of corrections
C. Provincial government
d. Parole and probation administration
9. It is the idea that re-entry of an offender should be in the mainstream of society rather than
the usual abrupt re-entry at the end of a prison sentence.
a. Reintegration
b. Deterrence
c. Incapacitation
d. Rehabilitation

10. If an adult performed these actions, these wouldn't be considered crimes.

a. Blue Flu
b. Furlough
c. Safekeeping
d. Status Offense
11. It is a correctional institution that has the authority to detain persons awaiting trial or
adjudication or confine convicted offenders for a short period of time.
a. Halfway houses
b. Penal Colonies
C. Jails
d. All of these
12. The law that established the Penology and Jail Management Bureau
a. RA 8551
b. RA 9165
C. RA 6975
d. RA 4890
13. A prison model which has total individual isolation and silence refers to?
a. Pennsylvania Prison Model
b. Auburn Prison Model
c. Work Release
d. Halfway houses
14. Prisoners whose sentences are from one day to six months are
a. Municipal prisoners
b. Provincial prisoners
c. City prisoners
d. District prisoners
15. In the 13th century a criminal could avoid conviction by claiming refugee in a church for
a period of 40 days, at the end of which time he is compelled to leave the realm by a road or
path assigned to him.
a. Benefit of the Clergy
b. Hulks
c. Galleys
d. None of the above
16. The basis of this old school of penology is the human free-will.
a. Penology School
b. Classical School
c. Neo-Classical
d. Positivist
17. It is a school of penology which adheres that crimes, as any other act, is a natural
phenomenon.
a. Eclectic Theory
b. Classical School
c. Neo-Classical
d. Positivist
18. It is the act of putting the offender into shame or humiliation.
a. Garrote
b. Musketry
c. Social Degradation
d. Corporal Punishment
19. Throughout the history of the death penalty, prisoners were typically hanged from frames
consisting of two upright posts and a transverse beam.
a. Galley
b. Gallows
c. Hulk
d. Double Blade
20. Fusillade is another name for this type of capital punishment.
a. Garrote
b. Firing
c. Corporal Punishment
d. hanging
21. Which model emphasize the assumption that criminal behavior is caused by biological or
psychological conditions that require treatment?
A. Medical model
b. Reform model
c. Rehabilitation model
d. Community model
22. Rina is a parolee and her maximum period of his prison term has expired. What document
is issued to her?
a. Certificate of final discharge
b. Certificate of discharge
c. Certificate of prison term completion
d. Certificate of release
23. Princess Fiona was required to provide financial remuneration for the losses incurred by
the victim. What is this type of sentence?
a. Fine
b. Payment
 c. Retribution
d. Restitution
24. Robin Padilla served his sentence at the New Bilibid Prison in Muntinlupa. Why was he
photographed at the Reception and Diagnostic Center?
a. It is a rare opportunity to have his photograph
b. He is an actor
c .Photographing the inmate is part of the procedure
d. To have a souvenir photo of the actor
24. Detention prisoners who are awaiting judgment or trial of their case are under the
supervision and control of
a. Bureau of Corrections
b. Provincial jails
c. Davao penal colony
d. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
25. . A minimum and maximum amount of time to be served in prison is what we called?
a. determinate sentence
b. corporal punishment
c. Indeterminate sentence
d. A capital punishment
26. It is considered as a forerunner of modern penology because it has all the elements in a
modern system.
a. Bridewell Workhouse
b. Elmira Reformatory
c. Walnut Street Jail
d. Borstal Institution for Boys
27. That the individual calculates pleasures and pains in advance of action and regulates his
conduct by the result of his calculations refers to?
a. Denied individual responsibility
b. Free will
c. Pleasures and avoiding pain
d. Natural Phenomenon
28. There are three (3) casework techniques applied by the parole officer, which is not
included?
a. The trick and treat Techniques
b. The executive techniques
c. The guidance, counseling and leadership techniques
d. The manipulative techniques
29. Established in the United States, it was the first juvenile reformatory.
a. Borstal Institution for Boys
b. Elmira Reformatory
c. New York House of Refuge
d. Bridewell Workhouse
30. A special group of prisoners composed of incorrigibles, intractable and dangerous persons
who are so difficult to manage inside prisons.
a. Medium Security Prisoners
b. Maximum Security Prisoners
c. Super Maximum Security Prisoners
d. Minimum Security Prisoners
31. A person's attitudes and behaviors are shaped by their life experiences, and one of the
following is regarded as the cornerstone of reformation.
a. Recreational Program
b. Religious Program
C. Educational Program
d. Work Program
32. It is the most common form of sexual perversion in prison and jail facility.
 a. Pseudo Marriage
b. Masturbation
c. Homosexuality
d. Sodomy
33. What is the rank of the head of the BJMP?
a. Chief of Jail Bureau
b. Director
c. Director General
d. Chief Superintendent
34. These are inmates whose cases are automatically under reviewed by the
Supreme Court.
a. Maximum security prisoners
b. Super security prisoners
c. Minimum security prisoners
d. Medium security
35. How many days may a prisoner be granted at any point throughout their confinement, and
can he be allowed to have days taken away for each month that they have spent studying,
teaching, or providing mentorship.
a. 15 days
b. 23 days
c. 25 days
d. 30 days
36. Prisoners whose sentences are from one day three years are what we called
a. Municipal prisoners
b. Provincial prisoners
C. City prisoners
d. District prisoner
37. Prisoners are aimed to prevent moral or physical contamination of one group by another
and to prevent unnecessary custodial risk. Refers to?
a. Classification
b. Imprisonment
c. Segregation
d. all of the above

38. It is the first workhouse in England on 1557 to 1576.

a. Singsing Prison
b. Brideswell IInstitution
c. Alcatraz Prison
d. Walnut Street Jail
39. In the New Bilibid Prison, all minimum security prisoners are confined at?
a. NBP Main building
b. Camp Bukang Liwayway
c. Camp Sampaguita
d. Medium Security Prison
40. This penal colony was originally established in 1904 to exile offenders sentenced to
banishment during Spanish Regime.
a. Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm
b. Sablayan Prison and Penal Farm
c. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm
d. None of the Above
41. Prison work assignments are usually given to prisoners
a. After recreational activities
b. At early morning hours
c. Before sleeping hours
d. During middle hours of the day
42. The period of deducted sentence granted to a prisoner who remained in prison on the
occasion of disorder arising from conflagration, earthquake or catastrophe under RA 10592.
a. 2/5 period of sentence
b. 1/3 period of sentence
c. 1/4 period of sentence
d. 1/5 period of sentence
43. Eunice is a prisoner having served on 4 years of his sentence is given a reward for good
conduct time allowance, diligence and loyalty for?
a 15 days
b. 20 days
c. 23 days
d. 30 days
44. Punishing a criminal to serve as example to others is a theory of what we called?
a. Self-Defense
b.Social Defense
c. Exemplarity
d. Equality
45. BFP and BJMP Professionalization Act of 2004
a. RA 9263
b. RA 8551
c. RA 6975
d. RA 9657
46.Nilo is an inmate and he use telephone calls, the telephone calls are permitted for inmates
for a period of how many minutes?
a. Not exceeding 1 minutes
b. Not exceeding 5 minutes
c. Not exceeding 8 minutes
d. Not exceeding 10 minutes
47.The Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm, a National Penitentiary in the Philippines under the
BUCOR is located in
a. Palawan
b. Zamboanga
c. Davao
d. Occidental Mindoro

48. Rjay is an inmate and is given a "shakedown" before admission, it means:

a. He has taken the process of identification, record, fingerprint and photograph
b. He has been examined for contraband
c. His commitment paper are delivered to record clerk
d. All of these
47. Annabel is in the maximum security prison, under the prison service manual, prescribed
color of prison uniform for maximum security prison is-
a. Orange
b. Brown
C. Stripe Orange
d. Blue
48. Prison work assignments are usually given to prisoners,
a. After recreational activities
b. At early morning hours
c. Before sleeping hours
d. During middle hours of the day
49. Raffy is a prisoner, he goes out of the institution to attend educational classes it refers to?
a. Study release
b. Work furlough
c. Guidance counseling
 d. Vocational program
50. When the offender is in transit, the ratio of for every offender shall be observed in BJMP.
a. 1:2
b. 1:1+1
c 1:7
d. None of the Above
51. The Bucor shall maintain the custodial personnel-inmate-ratio of
a. 1:2
b. 1:1+1
c. 1:7
d. None of the Above
52.In case of mass jailbreak, all members of the custodial force shall immediately issue
firearms and assigned to critical posts to:
a. Plug off the escape routes
b. To shoot the escapees
c. Protect the other inmates
d. To give warning shots
53. Who among the following prisoners is a national prisoner?
1. One who is sentenced to maximum term of imprisonment of more than 3 years or a fine of
more than 5,000.
2. One sentenced to serve 2 or more prison sentences m the aggregate exceeding the period
of 3 years.
3. Regardless of the length of sentence, one sentenced for violation of Custom Law or other
laws within the jurisdiction of the Bureau of Customs
4. Regardless of the length of sentence, one sentenced for violation of Immigration Laws and
Flection Laws
a. 1, 2, and 3
b. 2, 3, and 4
c. 1, 3, and 4
d. All of the above
54. Ricca Furri was sentenced to imprisonment on Sept. 30, 2003. On Oct. 20, 2003 the judge
who promulgated the decision died. What is the effect of the judge's death to the service of
Jose's sentence?
a. His sentence will not be binding anymore
b. He will have to serve his sentence
c. His sentence will be suspended
d. His sentenced will be reduced
55. This theory in criminology states that criminals are totally responsible for their behaviors
and the stress is more on the effect of their felonious act than upon the criminal himself.
a.Biological theory
b. Positivist theory
c. Classical theory
d. None of the above
56. The Supreme Court automatically reviews the cases of criminals convicted and meted out
the penalty of
a. 12 years 6 months and 1 day
b. Life imprisonment
c. Death
d. 6 years, 1 month and I day
57. Which of the following is an open correctional institution known to be the best and
"prison without walls
a. Davao penal colony
b. Sablayan penal colony
c. Iwahig penal colony.
d. San Ramon prison and penal farm
58. It is also known as the "Industrial Good Time Law".
a. Republic Act No. 2489
b. Republic Act No.6425.
c. Act No. 2489
d. Act No. 3815
59. The followings are the general procedure of inmate counting as part of institutional
procedures, except:
a. Each inmate is counted physically at specified times.
b. During the count, all movements shall cease until the count is completed.
c. The count must be accurate. A positive verification must be made that the inmates
are physically absent.
d. Result of each of a group of inmates is submitted to the Warden
60. What is the purpose of a fence in a minimum Security Institution?
a. To avoid inmates from escaping the prison institution.
b. To keep away the civilian population from entering the institution.
c. To protect jail officers from possible ambush.
d. All of the above.
61. Psychologist is responsible for the interview of the inmate and administration of tests.
a. True
b. False
c. Yes
d. No
62. General Service Branch Responsible for the maintenance and repair of jail facilities and
equipment.
a. True
b. False
c. Yes
d. No
63. Ms. Mojica was convicted for the crime of infanticide. After serving her sentence, she
committed again the same crime. Ms. Mojica may be considered as a
a. Recidivist
b. Quasi-recidivist
c. Mentally retarded person
d. Habitual delinquent
64. When the government punishes an individual defendant, he or she is theoretically less
likely to commit another crime because of fear of another similar or worse punishment.
a. Deterrence
b. General Deterrence
c. Specific Deterrence
d. All of the Above
65. It is giving the same food that is off diet, or requiring the prisoners to perform drab or
boring daily routine.
a. Uniformity
b. Hard Labor
c. Monotony
d. A and C
66.A special group of prisoners composed of incorrigible, intractable, and highly dangerous
persons who are the source of constant disturbances even in a maximum security prison and
wear orange color of uniform.
a. Medium Security Prisoners
b. Maximum Security Prisoners
c. Super Maximum Security Prisoners
d. Minimum Security Prisoners
67. What is the rank of a warden in city jails.
a. Inspector
 b. Chief inspector
c. Superintendent
d. Director
68. Elijah was sentenced to suffer a term of imprisonment from One (1) day to six (6) months
It is classified as:
a. Provincial prisoners
b. City prisoners
c. Insular prisoners
d. Municipal prisoners
69. An operation conducted by BJMP officers where a prisoner maybe checked at anytime for
possession of contrabands inside prison cell.
a. Man-haunt operation
b. Operation greyhound
c. Operation Bravo
d. Thunderbolt Operation
70. How many uniform are given to a newly admitted prisoner?
a. 1
b. 2
C.3
d. 4
71. One who is sentence to a prison term of six (6) months and one (1)day to three (3) years.
Or those detain there in waiting for preliminary investigation of their case cognizable by the
RTC
a. Municipal prisoners
b. Provincial prisoners
c. City prisoners
d. District prisoners
72. Phase IV (re-entry) of the BJMP Therapeutic Modality includes the following, except
a. learning how to follow the rules and norms of the community
b. transition to life outside of jail
c. creating a new lifestyle applying the tools and concept
d. reintegration into mainstream of society

73. In case of mass jailbreak, all members of the custodial force shall immediately issue.
firearms and assigned to critical posts to:
a. Plug off the escape routes
b. To shoot the escapees
c. Protect the other inmates
d. To give warning shots
74. On the whole, in the event that a jailbreak, escape, or riot is underway or has recently
occurred, the control center officer will:
a. Sound the alarm
b. Locked prisoners in their respective cells
c. Notify the nearest police precinct
d. To give warning shots
75. Who among the following is a provincial prisoner?
a. A prisoner serving a term below six (6) years
b. A prisoner serving a term of six (6) years and up
c. A prisoner serving a term six (6) months and one (1) day to three (3) years
d. . A prisoner serving a term six (6) months and one (1) day to five(5) years
76. This theory in criminology states that people are totally responsible for their behaviors
and the stress is more on the effect of their felonious act than upon the criminal.
a. Positivist Theory
b. Psychological Theory
c. Biological Theory
 d. Classical Theory
77. Prisoners whose sentences are from one day to six months are
a. Municipal prisoners
b. Provincial prisoners
c. City prisoners
d. District prisoners
78. The New Bilibid Prison, the Correctional Institution for women (CIW), Iwahig Prison and
Penal Farm, and Sablayan Prison and Penal Farm are all under this agency. BJMP
a. Bureau of corrections
b. BJMP
c. Provincial government
d. Department of Justice
79. Prisoners whose sentences are from one day to six months are
a. Municipal prisoners
b. Provincial prisoners
c. City prisoners
d. District prisoners
80.An inmate may be released through the following, EXCEPT:
A. Service of sentence;
B. Order of the Court
C. Parole
D. Commutation
81. The following are authorized to COMMIT a person to jail, EXCEPT:
A. Police Officer
B. Supreme court
C. Court of Appeals
D. Sandiganbayan
82. The second officer in command of the BJMP is the:
A. Deputy Chief for Administration
B. Deputy Chief for Operations
C. Chief of the Directorial Staff
D. Director
83. This punishment involves banishing an individual from the location of their offense and
forbidding them from approaching or entering the 25-kilometer buffer zone
A. Destierro
B. Destero
C. Distyero
D. Dissero
84. It was promulgated in 1433 in one of the islands in the Philippines. It was the most
extensive and severe law that prescribes harsh punishment during the pre-spanish era.
A. Code of Kalantiao
B. Hammurabic Code
C. Code of Draco
D. None of the Above
85. In escorting, one inmate should be escorted with how many jail guards?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
86. In the escort of high risk inmates, how many guards should be provided per inmate?
A. 2
B. 8
C. 6
D. 10
87. One who has been promoted from first class who served imprisonment with good conduct
time allowance for a period equivalent to one fifth of the maximum term of his prison
sentence or 7 years in case of life sentence.
A. Third class inmate
B. Second class inmate
C. First class inmate
D. Colonist
88. The following are authorize to release an inmate when sentence is due, EXCEPT:
A. Supreme court
B. President
C. Prison director
D. Jail guard
89. The following are rights of an inmate, except;
A. To receive compensation for labor
B. To send and receive mail matters
C. To practice religion or observe religious faith
D. To participate in any athletic activity such as basketball and others
90. . What is the time frame of imprisonment of arresto mayor?
A. 6 months and 1 day to 6 years
B. 1 month and 1 day to 6 months
C. 1 day to 30 days
D. 12 years and 1 day to 20 years

91. What law renamed the Bureau of Prison to Bureau of Correction during the Aquino
administration in the Philippines?
A. Ε.Ο 727
Β. Ε.Ο 292
C. E.O 645
D. E.O 104
92. Who among the following is a provincial prisoner?
A. prisoner serving a term below six (6) years
B. prisoner serving a term of six years and up
C. A prisoner serving a term of six (6) months and one day to three years
D. A prisoner serving a term of three (3) years and one (1) day up
93. an organization that is under the Department of Justice and is in charge of housing and
rehabilitating national offenders, those who have been given jail sentences longer than three
years.
A. BJMP
B. Bureau of Corrections
C. Provincial Government
D. Parole and Probation Administration
94. Under the American Regime, provincial jails were initially constructed in 1910. Who is
currently in charge of the mentioned jails?
A. BJMP
B. Provincial Government
C. DOJ
D. Municipal or City Mayor
95. The Bureau of Corrections is under the what we called?
A. Department of Social Welfare and Development
B. Department of Justice
C. Department of the Interior and Local Government
D. Department of Health
96. The B.J.M.P. is under the administration of the:
A. Executive Department
B. P.N.P.
 C. D.I.L.G.
D. D.O.J
97. What is the difference of pardon and probation?
A. Probation is a part of the judicial power, while pardon is a part of the executive
power.
B. Probation is an executive power while pardon is exercised by the court
C. Probation and pardon can be exercised by the court
D. Probation and pardon is a constitutional power of the president
98. While Caroline was sleeping inside her house, Shane, her neighbors lighted and discharge
a firecracker under her bed which caused her to panic. Caroline filed a complaint at the
Barangay Level but no amicable settlement was reached. The case was brought to the court
and Shane was eventually convicted. Since alarms. and scandals is one of the crimes which
can be granted with amnesty, can Shane apply with such?
A. Yes, the law was very clear that alarms and scandals can be granted with amnesty
B. No, Juan can not apply since amnesty can only be granted before conviction
C. Yes, as long as the grant is approved by the President
D. No, Juan is not a political offender
99. In terms of the duration to be used, which of the following BEST characterizes the
difference between pardon and amnesty?
A. Pardon is exercised after conviction, while Amnesty can be availed of before,
during and after the trial of the case, or even after conviction.
B. Amnesty is availed after conviction while Pardon can be availed before, during
and after the trial of the case, even after conviction.
C. Pardon can be applied before conviction while amnesty can be applied after
conviction
D. Pardon and amnesty can be applied anytime
100. According to the new GCTA law, an offender will receive how many days of deduction
every month if he behaves well throughout the first and second years of his sentence?
A. 20 days
B. 23 days
C. 25 days
D. 30 days

NON INSTITUTIONAL CORRECTIONAL

1. An alternative to incarceration that allow convicted persons to remain at large and under
varying degrees of restriction and supervision and certain conditions imposed by the granting
court referred?
a. Probation
b. Work release
c. Parole
d. Halfway house
2. Which nation created probation as part of its initial efforts to humanize the criminal justice
system under its common law system?
a. England
b. United States
c. Greece
d. France
3. It is an executive clemency that requires the concurrence of congress?
a. Probation
b. Pardon
c. Amnesty
d. Parole
4. It is an agency under Department of Justice responsible for providing less costly alternative
to imprisonment of first-time offenders who are likely to respond to individualized
community-based programs.
a. Board of Pardons and Parole
b. Parole and Probation Administration
c. Office of the President
d. Court
5. It is an act of grace given to political prisoner as a means of forgiveness on his criminal
responsibility.
a. Parole
b. Probation
c. Pardon
d. Amnesty
6. It must be first conducted before an application for probation can be granted
a. Preliminary investigation
b. Preliminary Hearing
c. Post-Sentence Investigation.
d. Pre-probation Interview
7. When shall probation take effect?
a. 72 hours after its issuance of probation order
b. Upon its issuance
c. 72 hours before its issuance of probation order
d. After its issuance
8. It is the reduction of the duration of prison sentence by which a heavier or longer sentence
is reduced to a lighter or shorter term.
a. Reprieve
b. Commutation of Sentence
C. Petitioner
d. Parolee
9. It is also known as "respite" which means the withholding of the sentence for an interval of
time, it is a temporary suspension of death penalty.
a. Commutation
b. Reprieve
c. Ordeal
d. Commutation of Sentence
10. How many hours should a probationer report to court after the effectivity of his probation
program?
a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 72 hours
d.100 hours
11. What document is necessary for an inmate to be released on Parole?
a. Certificate of Final Release and Discharge
b. Release Document
c. Post-Sentence Investigation Report
d. Final Release
12. A partner organization of the Department of Justice offers less expensive jail alternatives
for criminals who are expected to benefit from customized community-based treatment plans.
a. Board of Pardons and Parole
b. Bureau of Corrections
C. Provincial Government
d. Parole and probation Administration
13.Application for probation shall be filed with the Trial Court which has a what you called
___over the case
a. Authority
 b. Jurisdiction
c. Responsibility
d. Venue
14. What kind of information did the Post-Sentence Investigation gather?
a. Useful
b. confidential
c. important
d. secret
15. It is a means of obtaining the release of anyone who has been arrested or detained for
committing a crime but is unable to post bail because to extreme poverty. By the judge's
ruling, an accused individual will be released through a respectable member of the
community who is known as?
a Bail
b. Probation
c. Parole
d. Release on recognizance
16. This is where the first probation statute was enacted officially, the term probation was first
used to refer to court duty, and the first probation demonstration took place in practice
a. Europe
b. England
c. Massachusetts
d. United States of America
17. After granting the probation, the probationer must present himself to the probation officer
within;
A. 24 hours
B. 32 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 72 hours
18. It is a condition given by the President during his/her birthday.
A. Amnesty
B. Executive Clemency
C. Parole
D. Probation

19. Executive clemency extended to convicted and persons who have not yet been tried by the
court is
A. Amnesty
B. Commutation
C. Pardon
D. Reprieved
20. Is an act of grace and a recipient is not entitled to it as a matter of right referred to
A. pardon
B. probation
C. parole
D. none of these
21. Kimmy was 17 years old when he was convicted for the crime of theft. Can he apply for
probation under the Adult Probation System?
a. No, because his crime is theft
b. No, because he is only 17 years old
C. No, because he is entitled for parole
d. No, because he is convicted of a crime
22.Which of the following does not belong to the common law practices to which the
emergence of probation is attributed?
a. Recognizance
b. Reprieve
 c. Benefit of Clergy
d. Penance
23. It is a historic case that resulted in the world's first institutionalized probation law
a. People vs Vera
b. Killits Case
c. People vs De vera
d. Massachusetts case
24.The French term parole d' honneur means?
a. Honorable man
b. Testing period probation
c Word of honor
d. Pride and honor
25.Which of the following should a probationary officer to avoid?
a. Make periodic report
b. Go and play in the gambling den
c. Work regularly to support family
d. Stay away from bad associates
26. This theory in crime causation focuses on the criminal disorders, chromosomes
irregularity and abnormal brain activity.
a. Age reform
b. Age of Discernment
c. Age of Reason
d. None of these
27.What law pioneered the existence of probation in the Philippines?
a. PD No 968
b. PD No 603
c. Act 4221
d. RA No. 1070
28.Which Philippine statute was the first to establish probation?
a. PD No 968
b. PD No 603
c. Act 4221
d. RA No. 10707

29.The central goal of the probation administration is to enhance the safety of the community
by reducing the incidence of criminal acts by person that is ?
a. To be convicted
b. Previously convicted
c. been convicted Just.
d. Not yet convicted
30.When probation supervision service shall commence?
a. Upon its Issuance of probation order
b. Three days prior to issuance
c. 72 hours on the reporting of the probationer.
d. All of these
31. Probation is a privilege granted to deserving and qualified petitioners, when does it
become a matter of right?
a. After submission of PSIR
b. When the convicted applies to probation.
c. When no appeal is undertaken
d. When his probation is approved
32. Probation is a privilege granted to deserving and qualified petitioners, when does it
become a matter of right?
a. After submission of PSIR
b. When the convicted applies to probation.
 c. When no appeal is undertaken
d. When his probation is approved
33. Christian Mark Abesia whose application for probation has been given due course by the
proper court has failed to present himself/herself to the proper Office within seventy two (72)
hours from his/her receipt of the Probation Order or within reasonable time therefrom, and
who cannot be located despite efforts exerted.
a. absconding probationer
b. absconding petitioner
c. fugitive from justice
d. escape
34. When to file the application for probation?
a. 15 days before conviction and sentence at the time of imprisonment start.
b. 15 days before conviction and sentence at imprisonment the time of
c. 15 days after conviction and sentence at any time before imprisonment start
d. 15 days after the conviction and sentence at the time of imprisonment
35.. It is an act amending Presidential Decree no. 968, otherwise known as the "Probation
Law of 1976".
a. RA 6975
b. RA 8551
c. PD 603
d. RA 10707
36. Princess Aira was convicted of the crime homicide where she was sentenced to a penalty
of Reclusion Temporal. She appealed the case to the higher court, while the appeal is
pending; she filed a petition for parole. Which of the following statement is correct?
a. Her petition must be acted upon because the penalty does not exceed 20 years
b. Her petition must be denied on the ground of pending appeal.
c. Her petition must be acted upon because the sentence is not yet final
d. It depends upon the Board whether to grant or deny the petition
37.Mr. Ken Fernandez was convicted by a court and meted a sentence of 6 years
imprisonment. Which of the following must undertake by Mr. Ken Fernandez in order that his
intention for probation is entertained?
a. The application be filed with the trial court
b. Apply an appeal to modify the decision of final judgment
c. Apply for probation with the period of perfecting an appeal.
d. Petition congress for amnesty
38.Mr. Pamaypay was sentenced to serve a maximum sentence of not more than six (6) years.
He filed petition for probation, but his petition will not be considered if:
a. He was convicted of subversion
b. He was previously convicted by final judgment of an offense punished by
imprisonment of not less than six month and one day and/or fine of not less than
PhP1000.
c. He was previously granted probation
d. He was previously granted parole
39.Miss Caroline was previously convicted to a sentence of 15 days. He served imprisonment
for this conviction. After several years he was sentenced to suffer imprisonment of 0-6-1 after
committing another crime. Can he file petition for probation for his present conviction,
despite of his previous conviction?
a. Yes, because her previous conviction is less than six month and one day.
b. Yes, because her present conviction is not more than 6 years
c. No, because his previous conviction would disqualify him to avail of probation
d. No, because probation is only once
40.Pardon cannot be extended to one of the following instances.
a. Murder
b. Brigandage
c. Rape
 d. Impeachment
41.The PPO in question submits this to the board via the PPA's technical services no later
than 15 working days after the parolee reports for supervision.
a. Courtesy investigation report
b. Arrival report
c. Progress report
d. Terminal/Final report
42.Who shall approve the request of a probationer to travel outside his area for more than
30days?
a. The Trial Court Judge
b. The Chief Probation Officer
c. Parole Officer
d. Probation Officer
43.Parole is usually given to individuals who exhibited good behavior inside prison or jail
and_
a. deem safe to be returned to the society.
b. with definite sentence
c. granted conditional pardon
d. convicted with heinous crime
44. What is the nature of post investigation report conducted by the Probation officer?
a. Final and executory
b. Shall not be appealable
c. Recommendatory
d. Temporary
45. Of all the duties performed by the Board Secretary of the Board of Pardons and Parole,
which is not one?
a. Authenticate and/or attest all minutes, resolutions recommends of the Board
b. Prepare and serve all notices of board meetings or sessions to the members of the
board
c. Prepare and keep the minutes of all the board sessions in a book of purpose.
d. Prepare an annual report to be submitted to the President about the list of
probationers
46.Post Sentence Investigation Report which will serve as guide for the court granting or
denying the application is what we called?
a. Optional
b. jurisdictional
c. mandatory
d. required
47.Brief of an investigation conducted by probation officer not within the jurisdiction of the
court.
A. Post Sentence Investigation Report
B. Pre sentence investigation report
C. Courtesy investigation report
D. Initial investigation report
48.It is one which if granted wipes away the guilt of the grantee without any condition
attaches to it.
A. Absolute Pardon
B. Amnesty
C. Commutation
D. Conditional Pardon
49. It is the temporary suspension in the execution of sentence?
A. Pardon
B. Appeal
C. Commutation
D. Reprieve
50. Pardon cannot be exercised in what of the following instances except.
A. Before conviction
B. Before trial
C. After conviction
D. Before conviction and before trial
51.What does the waiting time mean when an offender is granted an absolute pardon and their
civil and political rights have been restored after being released from prison?
a. To give time to the offender to think
b. To allow the released prisoner to suffer the consequences of his criminal act
c. To allow the offender to demonstrate that he has established a new pattern of good
conduct
d. All of these
52.In determining whether a petitioner may be placed on probation the court shall consider
information relative to which of the following?
a. Character
b. Antecedents
c. Mental and physical condition of the offender
d. All of these
53.The following are offender disqualified under P.D. 968, EXCEРТ.
a. Presently serving his sentence
b. Convicted of any offense against public order
c. Serving a term of prison mayor
d. 18 years of age and above
54.Which of the statement is TRUE?
a. It is not mandatory for the parolee to comply with the terms and conditions
appearing in the release document
b. Outside travel for a cumulative duration of more than thirty (30 days within a
period of one (1) year shall be considered transfer of residence
c. A parolee may be authorized by the Parole and Probation Officer to travel outside
his operational jurisdiction for a period of more than thirty (30) days.
d. A parolee cannot transfer to a residence other than that indicated in the release
Document without the prior written approval of the Board of Pardon and Parole
55.What is the significance of the Post-Sentence Investigation Report to the application of
probation?
a. To determine whether the applicant has immoral conduct
b. To determine the past offenses of the applicant
c. It would serve as a basis to grant or deny the application for probation
d. To know the personal affairs of the applicant
56.Which is NOT an advantage of probation?
a. it restores probationer his civil rights
b. It conforms to the concept of restorative justice
c. It makes the probationer a tax eater rather than a taxpayer.
d. It prevents first time convict to become hardened criminal
57.Parole shall not be granted to the following inmates except;
a. Those convicted of offenses punished with death penalty
b. Those convicted of treason, conspiracy, or proposal to commit treason of espionage
c. Those suffering mental disorder
d. Those convicted of offenses punished with prison correctional
58.Forms of executive clemency, except;
A. Commutation
B. Amnesty
C. Reform Model
D. Reprieve
59. It is a judicial disposition after which the defendant after conviction and sentence is
released.
 A. Probation
B. Pardon
C. Parole
D. Amnesty
60. The continuing relationship between probation officer and probationer is known as-
A. Affiliation guidance
B. Pre-sentence Investigation
C. Supervision
D. None of these
61. Reducing the degree of death penalty inflicted upon the convict.
A. Commutation
B. Commutation service of sentence
C. Amnesty
D. Pardon
62. A French word meaning "word of honor".
A. Pardon
B. Probation
C. Parole
D. Amnesty
63. A person place on probation?
A. Prisoner
B. Parole
C. Probation aid
D. Probationer
64. A recipient of absolute pardon is_____ from civil liability imposed upon him by the
sentence.
A. partially exempted
B. exempted
C. conditionally exempted
D. not exempted
65. Generally bail is a matter of?
A. Right
B. Privilege
C. Parole
D. Pardon

66. For a convicted offender, probation is a form of what you called?

A. Punishment
B. Treatment
C. Enjoyment
D. Incarceration
67. Pardon cannot be extended to one of the following instances.
A. Murder
B. Rape
C. Brigandage
D. Impeachment
68. Pardon is exercised when the person is
A. Already convicted
B. Not yet convicted
C. About to be convicted
D. Serve the sentence
69. Petition for request for pardon is processed by-
A. Board of pardons and Parole
B. Director of Prisons
C. Judge that sentenced prisoner
 D. Pre-Parole and pardon Committee
70. Presidential Decree 968 established the System.
A. Juvenile Justice
B. Family Welfare
C. Adult Probation
D. Civilian Police
71. Refers to the term of imprisonment with no definite duration w/in a prescribed maximum.
A. Amnesty
B. Indeterminate sentence
C. Parole
D. Probation
72. The following are forms of executive clemency, EXCEPT
A. Commutation
B. Reform model
C. Amnesty
D. Pardon
73. The following are offender disqualified under P.D. 968, except.
A. Presently serving his sentence
B. Convicted of any offense against public order
C. Serving a term of prison mayor
D. 18 years of age and above
74. The pardoning power is exercised by-
A. Director of Prisons
B. Board of Pardons and Parole
C. President
D. Secretary of Justice
75. The Post Sentence Investigation is submitted by the Probation officer to the court within
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 90 days
D. 120 days
76. Those who have been once on probation under the Probation Law:
A. are qualified to apply for probation
B. are disqualified to apply for probation
C. should be confined in prison
D. may be granted for another probation

77. Under the Indeterminate Sentence Law, who acts as the chairman of the Board of Pardons
and Parole?
A. PNP Chief
B. DILG Secretary
C. DOJ Secretary
D. Chief Executive
78. It is an act of grace and the recipient of the grace is not entitled to it as a matter of right. It
is discretionary and within the prerogative of the Chief Executive
A. Parole
B. Pardon
C. Amnesty
D. Executive Clemency
79. It is an administrative arm of the president in the exercise of his constitutional power to
grant executive clemency.
A. Parole and Probation Administration
B. Secretary of Justice
C. Bureau of Corrections
D. Board of Pardon and Parole
80. The form of conditional release that is granted after a prisoner has served a portion of his
sentence in a correctional
A. Conditional pardon
B. Probation
C. Parole
D. Commutation
81. Pardon includes any crime and exercised by president, while ______ is a blanket pardon
to classes person or communities who may be guilt political offense.
A. Amnesty
B. Pardon
C. Commutation
D. Parole
82. What document is issued to the parolee after he has substantially met and achieved the
terms and conditions of his parole program?
A. Certificate of Final release
B. Certificate of Final Release and Discharge
C. Certificate of Discharge
D. None of these
83. In probation system's philosophy and concept, it is stated that the individual has the ability
to____ and to modify his anti-social behaviors with the right kind of help.
A. Challenge
B. Aggravate his behaviors
C. Change
D. None of these
84. In the hearing for the violation committed by the probationer, the latter shall have the
right to be informed of the violation charged and to adduce evidence in his favor. This right is
in pursuant to his right to ?
A. Equal protection
B. Presumption of innocence
C. Miranda rights
D. Due process of law
85. Payment of civil liability to the victim by the probationer shall be given to the following
except the-
A. Clerk of Court of the Trial Court
B. Paid directly to the victim with receipt filed with PO
C. Deposited to the victim's account
D. Supervising Probation Officer on case
86. Probation is granted to who are sentenced to _____a prison term of not more than six (6)
years.
A. recidivist
B. second time offenders
C. first time offender
D. senior citizens
87. It is a correctional model wherein criminals are punished because they have infringed the
rights of others and the security of the sanction should fit the seriousness of the crime.
A. benefit of the clergy
B. custodial model
C. rehabilitation model
D. just desert model
88. Which of the following should not a probationer do?
A. make periodic office report
B. go and play in a gambling den
C. work regularly to support his family
D. stay away from bad associates
89. Which of the following is exercised by executive clemency with the concurrence of
Congress?
A. probation
B. amnesty
C. pardon
D. parole
90. The judge will base the grant of probation on the report of the what you called?
A. social worker
B. probation officer
C. prosecutor
D. police officer
91. When can a drug user or one who is in possession of drugs be placed on probation?
A. first time offender
B. first time offender and less than 21 years old
C. second time offender and less than 21 years old
D. second time offender
92. The child and youth welfare code of 1974 was promulgated on December 10, 1974 by
virtue of what Presidential decree?
A. P.D. 613
B. P.D. 603
C. P.D. 916
D. R.A. 9344
93. Who among the following may have his penalty suspended under PD 603?
A. Eduardo who is 30 years old
B. Peter who is 10 years old
C. Ronald who is 25 years old
D. Jack who is 20 years old
94. It is the one who has the authority to assist the Chief Executive in his exercise of the
power to grant executive clemency?
A. Administration
B. BOARD
C. DOJ
D. Administrator
94. A parolee may work or travel abroad if he has no pending criminal case in any court
Application for travel and work abroad shall be approved by the Administration and
confirmed by the what you called?
A. Probation and Parole Officer
B. BOARD
C. Regional Director
D. Administration
95. Which of the following instances Pardon cannot be exercised?
a. before conviction
b. before trial
c. before conviction
d. c and a
96. Under Article VII, Section 10 paragraph (B) of the Philippine Constitution, pardoning
power is vested with the
a. Chief Executive
b. Department of Justice
c. Judiciary
d. all of the Above
97. What is the effect of the recommitment of a Parolee?
A. Serve the remaining portion of the maximum sentence
B. Minimum sentence impose
C. Serve the remaining portion of his Sentence
 D. Serve the original sentence of imprisonment
98. As a general rule Violation of Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act of 2002 is qualified to
apply for Probation, EXCEPT:
A. Sec. 70
B. Sec. 17
C. Sec. 13
D. Sec. 12

99. This decree mandated the disqualification of the petitioner's application for probation if an
appeal is perfected.
A. BP 76
B. PD 1257
C. PD 1357
D. PD 968
100. The following are considered as discretionary conditions of probation except;
A. Abstain from visiting house of ill repute
B. Drinking intoxicated liquor to excess
C. Report at least once a month
E. All the above

SPECIALIZED CRIME INVESTIGATION 2

1.Which of the following is an interview that basic and specific data or facts regarding a
criminal case.
A. Objective Interview
B.Cognitive Interview
C. Subjective Interview
D. Background Interview
2.It is the narration (without interruption) of the past event or incident.
A. Subjective Interview
B. Background Interview
C.Objective Interview
D.Cognitive Interview
3.It is to obtain further information that was missed during the first interview.
A.Preliminary Interview
B.Follow- up Interview
C.Final Interview
D.Interview
4.It is the unlawful killing of any person and it is the generic term for killing.
 A.Parricide
B.Murder
C..Homicide
D.Infanticide
5.Any person who, not falling with the provisions of Article 246, shall kill another, shall be
guilty of murder and shall be punished by Reclusion Perpetua to death.
A.Parricide
B.Murder
C.Homicide
D.Infanticide
6.Which of the following is the reason why witnesses refuse to talk and testify?
A.Sadness
B.Fear of reprisal
C.Fear in Family
D.Fear in Friends
7.The investigator should review the facts at the crime scene and information sources in order
that he would be ready for the questioning.
A. Warming up
B. Approach
C.Cognitive
D.Preparation
8.There are witnesses who are shy and they shun publicity that will bring them discomfort to
their ordinary or obscure way of living. 1.) It pertains to knowledge or facts which the
investigator had gathered or acquired from persons or documents, which are pertinent or
relevant concerning the commission of the crime or criminal activities.
A.Investigation
B.Information
C.Interview
D.Interrogation
9. As applied in criminal investigation, it refers to the simple and friendly questioning of a
person who has knowledge relevant to the crime or case under investigation.
A.Investigation
B.Information
C.Interview
D.Interrogation
10. It is the aggressive and confrontational questioning of a person about his participation in a
crime.
A.Interview
B.Investigation
C.Interrogation
D.Instrumentation
11. It is the sum total of the application of all arts and sciences in crime detection and
investigation.
A.Instrumentation
B.Interrogation
C.Interview
D.Investigation
12. It is a general term that refers to the field of science applied in answering legal questions.
A.Criminalistics
B.Forensic Science
C.Criminal Procedure
D.Minimization
13.It more descriptive than forensic science for describing the services of a crime laboratory.
Forensic Biology
B.Forensic Science
 C.Criminalistics
D.Forensic Chemistry
14.Which of the following is the information taken from records, files from the government
or non-government agencies and news items.
A.Regular Source
B.Cultivated Source
C.Grapevines Source
D.None of the above
15. It is an information disclosed by the underworld characters such as prisoners or ex-
convicts.
A.Regular Source
B.Cultivated Source
C.Grapevines Source
D.None of the above
16. Which of the following is the information are furnished by informants and informers.
A.Regular Source
B.Cultivated Source
C.Grapevines Source
D.None of the above
17. What does the 1935 Philippine Constitution state regarding the rights of the accused in
criminal proceedings?
A.Right to be informed of his rights to remain silent and to have a competent and
independent counsel
B.Right to remain silent and to counsel
C.Right to be informed of his rights to remain silent and to have a counsel of his
choice
D.Right to be heard by himself and counsel
18.This is being done by preliminary or exploratory questions to clear the promote a
conducive ground for cordiality, respect, and trust for each other.
A.Bigotry
B.Avoid Implied Answer
C.Warming Up
D.None of the above
19. Which if the following is the qualities of a good interviewer?
A. Behave
B. Rapport
C.Brave
D.Faithful
20.)The killing of a child less than three days of age, whether the killer is the parent or
grandparent, any other relative of the child, or a stranger.
A.Parricide
B.Murder
C.Homicide
D. Infanticide
21.)What is the first stage in handling an interview?
A.Preparation
B.Cognitive Interview
C.Approach
D.Warming Up
22.)What should the investigator do during the preparation stage?
A.Review facts at the crime scene
B.Select the approach
C.Ask preliminary questions
D.Interview the subject without interruption
23.)During the warming up stage, what is the goal of asking preliminary questions?
 A.To select the approach
B.To review facts at the crime scene
C.To promote cordiality
D.To clear the atmosphere
24.)What is the second stage in handling an interview?
A.Preparation
B.Cognitive Interview
C.Approach
D.Warming Up
25.)What is the goal of the cognitive interview stage?
A.To select the approach
B.To promote cordiality
C.To review facts at the crime scene
D.To have the subject narrate their account without interruption, intervention or
inference
26.)What is the purpose of asking one question at a time during questioning?
A.To avoid multiple complex and legalistic questions
B.To review facts at the crime scene
C.To promote cordiality
D.To select the approach
27.)Which of the following is NOT a key aspect of the preparation stage in handling an
interview?
A.Reviewing facts at the crime scene
B.Adapting the approach to be employed
C.Being ready for the questioning
D.Having background data of the subject
28.)How should the investigator select their approach?
A.By asking preliminary questions
B.By reviewing facts at the crime scene
C.By having background data of the subject
D. All of the above
29.)What is the goal of the warming up stage in handling an interview?
A.To clear the atmosphere
B.To review facts at the crime scene
C.To have the subject narrate their account without interruption, intervention or
inference
D.To ask preliminary questions
30.)According to the E Rules in Questioning, what should be avoided as a response to a
question?
A.Nod of the head
B.Implied answers
C.Clear answer
D.Oral answer
31.)Which of the following is NOT a key aspect of the preparation stage in handling an
interview?
A.Reviewing facts at the crime scene
B.Adapting the approach to be employed
C.Being ready for the questioning
D.Having background data of the subject
32.)How should the investigator select their approach?
A.By asking preliminary questions
B.By reviewing facts at the crime scene
C.By having background data of the subject
D.All of the above
33.)What is the goal of the warming up stage in handling an interview?
 A.To clear the atmosphere
B.To review facts at the crime scene
C.To have the subject narrate their account without interruption, intervention or
inference
D.To ask preliminary questions
34.)When interviewing witnesses, it is advisable to:
A.Ask embarrassing questions
B.Ask legalistic questions
C.Ask questions that can be answered with a simple "yes" or "no"
D.Save the witness's face
35.)Which type of witness is reluctant and has a low level of intelligence?
A.Suspicious Type
B.Know-Nothing Type
C.Drunken Type
D.Disinterested Type
36.)How should an investigator handle a suspicious witness?
A.Prune unnecessary matters from their narrations
B.Provide sincere explanations or psychological pressure
C.Let them lie and repeat their narrations
D.Take a written statement during their sobriety
37.)Which type of witness tends to exaggerate and add irrelevant or new matters to their
narrations?
A.Drunken Type
B.Know-Nothing Type
C.Disinterested Type
D.Talkative Type
38.)How should an investigator handle a deceitful witness?
A.Ask embarrassing questions
B.Provide sincere explanations or psychological pressure
C.Save their face
D.Let them lie and repeat their narrations
39.)What is the purpose of interrogation for a suspect?
A.To hide the truth
B.To establish guilt
C.To extract information
D.To provide legal advice

40. Which technique involves the suspect being identified by several complainants and
witnesses?
A.Pretense of Physical Evidence
B.Drama Approach
C.Pretense of Solid Evidence against the Accused
D.Reverse Line-up
41. What is the purpose of the Reverse Line-up technique?
A.To confuse the suspect with tricks and bluffs
B.To associate the suspect with other crimes and make them desperate to confess
C.To offer help and kindness to the suspect
D.To dig deep into the past troubles of the suspect
42.What does the Stern Approach involve?
A.Digging deep into the past troubles of the suspect
B.Pretending to have solid evidence against
 the accused
C.Displaying a serious and stern personality towards the suspect
D.Using tricks and bluffs to confuse the suspect
43.Which law penalizes torture and other cruel, inhuman and degrading treatment or
punishment?
A.RA 9745
B.RA 7438
C.1935 Philippine Constitution
D.1973 Philippine Constitution
44.According to the 1973 Philippine Constitution, what are the rights of a person under
investigation for the commission of an offense?
A.Right to remain silent and to counsel
B.Right to be heard by himself and counsel
C.Right to be informed of his rights to counsel
45What is the difference between a confession and an admission?
A.Confession includes an acknowledgment of guilt, while admission does not
B.Confession is made in court, while admission is made during custodial
investigation
C.Confession accepts guilt, while admission denies guilt
D.Confession is voluntary, while admission is coerced
46.When is a judicial confession made?
A.During arraignment
B.During custodial investigation
C.In an open court
D.During interrogation
47.What are the rights of the accused during a custodial investigation?
A.Right to confess
B.Right to be informed of the charges
C.Right to refuse counsel
D.Right to remain silent
48.Which approach involves the investigator showing kindness and offering help to the
suspect?
A.Drama Approach
B.Tricks and Bluffs
C.Sympathetic Approach
D.Friendly Approach
49.What does the Friendly Approach involve?
A.Pretending to have solid evidence against the accused
B.Using tricks and bluffs to confuse the suspect
C.Faking commotion in the interrogation room
D.Digging deep into the past troubles of the suspect
50.How does the investigator use the Bluffing technique?
A.Faking physical evidence against the suspect
B.Selecting the weakest link among the suspects
C.Faking contact with family members
D.Using a line-up to identify the suspect
51.What is the purpose of the Drama Approach?
A.To dig deep into the past troubles of the suspect
B.To pretend to have solid evidence against the accused
C.To create a commotion and make the suspect anxious
D.To offer help and kindness to the suspect
52.Which approach involves faking contact with the suspect's family members?
A.Stern Approach
B.Friendly Approach
C.Sympathetic Approach
 D.Tricks and Bluffs
53.What does the Stern Approach involve?
A.Using tricks and bluffs to confuse the suspect
B.Digging deep into the past troubles of the suspect
C.Pretending to have solid evidence against the accused
D.Displaying a stern personality towards the suspect by pretending to have physical
evidence against them
54.What does the Line-up technique involve?
A.Digging deep into the past troubles of the suspect
B.Using tricks and bluffs to confuse the suspect
C.Pretending to have solid evidence against the accused
D.Asking the complainant or witness to identify the suspect from a group of people
emain silent and to have a counsel of his choice if he can afford it
D.Right to be informed of his rights to remain silent and to have a competent and
independent counsel
55.Which law defines certain rights of a person arrested, detained or under custodial
investigation?
A.RA 7438
B.RA 9745
C.1935 Philippine Constitution
D.1973 Philippine Constitution
56.What does the 1935 Philippine Constitution state regarding the rights of the accused in
criminal proceedings?
A.Right to be informed of his rights to remain silent and to have a competent and
independent counsel
B.Right to remain silent and to counsel
C.Right to be informed of his rights to remain silent and to have a counsel of his
choice
D.Right to be heard by himself and counsel
57.According to the 1987 Philippine Constitution, what should be done if a person under
investigation cannot afford the services of a counsel?
A.The person must be informed of his rights to remain silent and to have a counsel of
his choice if he can afford it
B.The person must be informed of his rights to remain silent and to have a competent
and independent counsel
C.The person must be informed of his rights to remain silent and to have a counsel of
his choice
D.The person must be provided with a counsel
58.According to Sec 5, Rule 113 (RPC), a person can be arrested without a warrant when:
A.They are attempting to commit an offense
B.They have just committed an offense
C.They are about to commit an offense
D.All of the above
59.In which situation can a peace officer or a private individual make a warrantless arrest?
A.The person to be arrested is temporarily confined while their case is pending
B.The person to be arrested is a escaped prisoner
C.The person to be arrested is serving a sentence by final judgment
D. All of the above
60.Which provision of the 1987 Philippine Constitution states that the rights of a person under
investigation cannot be waived except in writing, signed and in the presence of a counsel?
A.Section 17(1) of Article III
B.Section 12(1) of Article III
C.Section 17 of Article III
D.Section 20 of Article III
61.What does RA 9745 prescribe penalties for?
 A.Torture and other cruel, inhuman and degrading treatment or punishment
B.Violations of the right to remain silent and to counsel
C.Violations of the right to be informed of rights to remain silent and to have a
competent and independent counsel
D.Violations of the right to be heard by himself and counsel
62.What is the primary objective of crime scene investigation?
A.Collect physical evidence
B.Establish what happened
C.Preserve the crime scene
D.Identify witnesses and victims
63.What does the "Golden Rule" of the crime scene emphasize?
A.Not touching or altering the crime scene
B.Removing any object from the crime scene
C.Giving priority to preserving human life
D.Adding additional evidence to the crime scene
64.Which of the following is an example of transient evidence?
A.DNA
B.Urine
C.Weapons
D.Fingerprints
65.What does the "MAC rule" stand for in crime scene investigation?
A.Maintain, Avoid, Collect
B.Measure, Annotate, Coordinate
C.Magnify, Assess, Capture
D.Modify, Analyze, Communicate
66.What is the purpose of collecting and preserving physical evidence in a crime scene
investigation?
A.To identify the responsible individuals
B.To establish the truth about the event
C.To assist with the prosecution of the case
D.To secure and maintain the integrity of the crime scene
67.What is the definition of fragile evidence?
A.Evidence that is difficult to interpret or analyze
B.Evidence that is easily contaminated or tampered with
C.Evidence that loses its value if not collected promptly
D.Evidence that is easily broken if collected carelessly
68.Which step should investigators NOT take when processing a crime scene?
A.Collecting physical evidence
B.Altering or changing anything at the scene
C.Marking and photographing objects
D.Measuring and sketching the scene
69.How is crime scene investigation related to criminal events?
A.It aims to establish the truth about the alleged crime
B.It focuses on arresting suspects at the crime scene
C.It involves the process of interviewing witnesses and victims
D.It follows a systematic process of documenting and preserving evidence
70.What is the significance of physical evidence in a crime scene investigation?
A.It enables the truth to be determined about the event
B.It assists in determining the appropriate punishment
C.It helps identify the location of the crime
D.It provides the motive behind the crime
71.What is an example of an outdoor crime scene?
A.Crime scene inside a hospital
B.Crime scene inside a ship
C.Crime scene inside a building
 D.Crime scene inside a vehicle
72.What is the definition of a continuing/ running crime scene?
A.Crime scene that occurs during the day
B.Crime scene that transitions from indoors to outdoors or vice versa
C.Crime scene that starts indoors and remains indoors
D.Crime scene in one location only
73.What should the first responder do upon receiving a call or walk-in complainant?
A.Interview the complainant
B.Secure the place of incident
C.Take photographs of the crime scene
D.Check the time of arrival
74.What is the duty of the first responder at the crime scene?
A.Take the dying declaration of severely injured persons
B.Conduct a preliminary interview with witnesses
C.Arrest the suspect/s if present
D.Evacuate the wounded to the nearest hospital
75.What should the first responder do if the suspect is arrested at the scene?
A.Take note of any statements made by the suspect
B.Bring the suspect to the investigator for questioning
C.Record the time of arrest
D.Isolate the arrested suspect from any probable witnesses of the incident
76.What are the two primary duties of first responders at a crime scene?
A.Provide emergency services and preserve life
B.Investigate the crime and interview witnesses
C.Collect and analyze evidence
D.Secure the crime scene and make arrest
77.What is the first step for investigators upon arriving at the crime scene?
A.Receive the crime scene from the first responder
B.Photograph and/or video the entire crime scene
C.Put on surgical gloves before touching any objects
D.Record the date and time of arrival
78.What is the general procedure for entering a crime scene?
A.Examine the status of the victim before entering
B.Put on surgical gloves before touching any objects
C.Remove the victim's body before examining the scene
D.Gather information from the victim regarding the circumstances of the crime
79.Who is authorized to remove a dead body from the crime scene?
A.First responder
B.Investigator-on-case
C.Ambulance personnel
D.Medical examiner or coroner
80.What should be recorded upon entering the crime scene?
A.Time and date of arrival
B.Location of the scene
C.Weather conditions and visibility
D. All of the above
81.Who is responsible for removing the dead body at a crime scene in a homicide or murder
case?
A.The first responder.
B.Any member of the investigating team.
C.Any police officer.
D.Only a coroner or a medical examiner.
82.What should investigators do to ensure the preservation of the crime scene before evidence
processing?
A.Do not touch, alter or remove anything at the crime scene.
 B.Determine the status of the victim.
C.Record time/date of arrival at the crime scene, location of the scene, condition of
the weather, condition and type of lighting, direction of wind and visibility.
D.Put on surgical gloves before entering the crime scene.
83.When searching for evidence at a crime scene, what should investigators do if any doubt
exists about the value of an item?
A.Treat it as evidence until proven otherwise.
B.Consult with the first responder.
C.Remove it from the crime scene for analysis.
D.Ignore it until further investigation.
84.What should investigators do if latent fingerprints may be present at a crime scene?
A.Closely examine the area where they may be present.
B.Examine the area with UV light.
C.Photograph the area for record.
D.Develop the prints immediately.
85.What should investigators note and treat as evidence within the crime scene?
A.Hairs and fibers.
B.Earth particles foreign to the scene.
C.Stains, spots, and pools of liquid.
D. All of the above
86.What should investigators do with fragile evidence that may be destroyed or contaminated
if not collected immediately?
A.Treat it as evidence until proven otherwise.
B.Preserve it in suitable containers.
C.Collect it using proper protective measures.
D.Photograph it for documentation.\
86. This fact is significant because of its investigative importance in corroborating or
disputing alibis, or in establishing the victim’s movements prior to death.
A. Determination of Time of Death
B.Determination of Deceased Person
C. Determination of Time of Autopsy
D.None of the above
87.When is the initial search for evidence considered completed at a crime scene?
A.After notes, sketches, and photographs have been completed.
B.After a thorough examination of the scene.
C.After investigative measurements have been taken.
D.After the investigator has returned to the starting point.
88.In a large outdoor area, what is the recommended approach for searching for evidence?
A.Divide the area into sections and search using a systematic pattern.
B.Conduct a general survey of the scene first before starting the search.
C.Seek the assistance of specialized search teams.
D.Start the search from the center and move outward.
89.Which of the following methods of searching a crime scene involves dividing the area into
quadrants and assigning a searcher or a group of searchers to each quadrant?
A.Ship Method
B.Zone or Sector Method
C.Double Strip or Grid Method
D.Spiral Method
90.In which method of searching a crime scene do the searchers follow each other while
searching for pieces of evidence?
A.Wheel Method
B.Double Strip or Grid Method
C.Ship Method
D.Spiral Method
91.According to the given information, what is the purpose of conducting an arrest?
 A None of the these
B.To commence criminal proceedings
C.To ensure the suspect's safety
D.To maintain public peace
92.In which cases can an arrest be made without a warrant?
A.If the suspect is a citizen
B.If the suspect is known to be armed
C.If there is no time to apply for a warrant
D.If the suspect is a repeat offender
93.Who is authorized to issue a warrant of arrest and search warrant?
A.Defense attorneys
B.Judges
C.Public prosecutors
D.Police officers
94.When is a warrant of arrest no longer needed?
A.When the suspect is proven innocent
B.When the suspect is released on bail
C.When the suspect is under detention
D.When the suspect has been located
95.How is an arrest made?
A.By obtaining a court-issued warrant
B.By restraining the person to be arrested
C.By using violence or force
D.By submitting to the custody of the arresting officer
96.Who may conduct an arrest?
A.Both police officers and private individuals
B.Only police officers
C.Only private individuals
D.Only judges
97.How long does the head of the office have to implement a warrant of arrest?
A.110 days from the date of issuance
B.10 days from the expiration of the warrant
C.10 days from the date of issuance
D.There is no specific time period
98.What is the duty of the arresting officer while conducting an arrest?
A.To inform the person being arrested of the cause of arrest and the warrant
B.To file the appropriate information against the arrested person
C.To take the person arrested to the nearest police station or jail
D.Both A and B
99.Under what conditions can a person be exempted from arrest?
A.If they are a diplomatic agent
B.Both A and B
C.If they are a senator or representative
D.If the offense is punishable by less than 6 months of imprisonment
100.How long does a police officer have to detain a person before delivering them to proper
judicial authorities, according to the amended Article 125 of the RPC?
A.18 hours
B.12 hours
C.36 hours
D.It depends on the penalty for the offense