Date : 24/08/2020 Test Booklet Set No.

09
Gujarat

Questions & Solutions

for
GUJCET 2020 (PCE)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Read the following instructions carefully before you open the question booklet.

1. The Physics and Chemistry test consists of 80 questions. Each question carries 1 mark. For each correct response, the candidate
will get 1 mark. For each incorrect response 1/4 mark will be deducted. The maximum marks are 80.

2. This test is of 2 hours duration.

3. Use Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on OMR Answer Sheet and marking answers by darkening the circle (•).

4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.

5. On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator in the Room/Hall. The candidates are
allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

6. The Set No. for this Booklet is 09. Make sure that the Set No. Printed on the Answer Sheet is the same as that on this booklet. In
case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet
and the Answer Sheet.

7. The candidate should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

8. Do not write your Seat No. anywhere else, except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.

9. Use of White fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.

10. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.

11. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his/her seat.

12. Use of simple (manual) Calculator is permissible.

13. The candidate should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and must
sign the Attendance Sheet (Patrak-01). Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet (Patrak-01) will be deemed
not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and will be dealt with as an unfair means case.

14. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All
cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.

15. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.

16. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Set No. as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.
(Patrak-01)
 PHYSICS
1. The distance between two slits is 3 mm & screen 6. The nucleus of gold is about ...... times heavier
is placed at 2 m distance. When blue-green light than an -particle.
of wavelength 500 nm is used then distance (A) 50 (B) 10
between two fringes will be?
(C) 100 (D) 200
(A) 0.43 mm (B) 0.33 mm
Answer (A)
(C) 0.5 mm (D) 0.4 mm 𝑀Δ𝑢 197
Sol. = = 50
𝑀∝ 4
Answer (B)
𝐷 500 × 10−9 × 2 7. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is
Sol. Distance = λ = m –13.6 eV. What is the kinetic energy of electron
𝑑 3 × 10–3

= 0.33 mm in this state?

2. For what distance is ray optics a good (A) –13.6 eV (B) +13.6 eV
approximation when the aperture is 4 mm wide & (C) –27.2 eV (D) +27.2 eV
the wavelength is 500 nm? Answer (B)
(A) 32 m (B) 18 m Sol. |TE| = |KE|
(C) 8 m (D) 6 m 8. The minimum wavelength for Balmer series is
Answer (A) ........

a2 16  10−6 9 4
Sol. z f = = = 32 m (A) (B)
 500  105 R R

3. Resolving power of microscope is 36 R

(C) (D)
5R 4
2 1.22 n
(A) (B) Answer (B)
1.22 n sin  2 sin 
1  1 1  1 1 
1.22n sin  1.22 Sol. = R 2 − 2  = R 2 − 2 
(C) (D)   n1 n2  2  
2 n 2n sin 
9. Calculate the energy equivalent of 1g of
Answer (None of above)
substance
2𝑛 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝛽
Sol. (A) 9 × 1013 J (B) 4 × 1012 J
1.22𝜆

4. How much is the De-Broglie wavelength for an (C) 6 × 1011 J (D) 7 × 1012 J
electron accelerated by an 100 V potential Answer (A)
difference?
Sol. E = mc2
(A) 123 nm (B) 0.123 nm
10. In which process neutron is converted into
(C) 12.3 nm (D) 0.123 cm proton?
Answer (B) (A) β+ decay (B)  - decay
12.27 (C) β– decay (D)  decay
Sol. d = Å
V Answer (C)
5. The threshold frequency of cesium is 5.16 × 1014 Sol. n → p + e–
Hz. Then its work function is ...... eV. 11. The Forbidden gap between conduction band &
(A) 2.14 (B) 1.14 valance band is maximum for ........
(C) 1.12 (D) 4.12 (A) Insulator (B) Metal
Answer (A) (C) Semiconductor (D) Superconductor
Sol.  = hf Answer (A)
12. The below truth table is for which gate? 16. Two point electric charges +10–8 C and –10–8 C
are placed 0.1 m apart. Find the magnitude of
Input Output
Total Electric field at the center of the line joining
A B Y the two charges.

0 0 1 (A) 3.6 × 104 NC–1 (B) 7.2 × 104 NC–1

(C) Zero (D) 12.96 × 104 NC–1
0 1 1
Answer (B)
1 0 1
Sol. Both charges will give their respective field in
1 1 0 same direction
2𝑘𝑞
(A) AND (B) OR ∴𝐸= 2
(𝑑⁄2)
(C) NOR (D) NAND
𝑞 = 10−8 𝐶
Answer (D)
d = 0.1 m
13. For a pure Si crystal has 5 × 1028 atom m–3. It is
17. The charge density of uniformly charged infinite
doped by 1 PPM concentration of pentavalent
As. Calculate the number of electron & holes. plane is . A simple pendulum is suspended
vertically downward near it. Charge q0 is placed
(Given that ni = 1.5 × 1016 m–3)
on metallic bob. If the angle made by the string
(A) 5.4 × 109 m–3 (B) 4.5 × 109 m–3 is  with vertical direction then ......
(C) 4.5 × 10–9 m–3 (D) 5.4 × 10–9 m–3 tan  cot 
(A)   (B)  
Answer (B) q0 q0
Sol. Each As atom will provide 1 free electron total
q0
no. of free electrons (C)   tan  (D)  
tan 
1
𝑛𝑒 = × 5 × 1028 = 5 × 1022
106 Answer (A)
𝑛𝑒 𝑛ℎ = 𝑛𝑖2 Sol. 𝐸 =
𝜎
2𝜀0
𝑛𝑖2
 𝑛ℎ = 𝑞𝐸 𝑞𝜎
𝑛𝑒 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃 = =
𝑚𝑔 2𝜀0 𝑚𝑔
14. In diode, increasing the forward voltage, the
thickness of depletion layer .........
(A) Does not change (B) Increases
(C) Decreases (D) Cannot be decided
Answer (C)
15. If charge q is placed on one of the vertex of a
cube. Then flux passing through any one surface 18. The dimensional formula of Polarization P is
of cube is ........ .......
q q (A) M1 L–2 A1 T1
(A) (B)
0 60 (B) L–2 A–1 T–1
q (C) L2 A–1 T–1
(C) (D) None of these
24 0 (D) L–2 A1 T1
Answer (C) Answer (D)
Q dipole moment
Sol. total = Sol. Polarization =
8 0 volume

total  AT L 
one surface = =
Q
P =
3 240 L3
19. If relative permittivity for any substance is 80 23. One electric cell (having emf of 2V & internal
then its electric susceptibility is ...... resistance of 0.1) and other electric cell (having
(A) 7 × 10–10 (B) 7 × 10–9 emf of 4V & internal resistance of 0.2) are
connected in parallel to each other. Then its
(C) 79 (D) 81 × 10–10
equivalent emf will be ........... V
Answer (C)
(A) 2.57
Sol. r = 1 + e  e = 80 – 1 = 79
(B) 2.67
20. 2 F capacitor is connected with 50 V supply &
(C) 1.33
3 F capacitor is connected with 100 V supply.
(D) 0.38
Now after removing battery if two plates of same
type of charges are placed to form new capacitor Answer (B)
then potential difference is ............. V. E1 E2
+
(A) 333 (B) 80 r1 r2
Sol. Enet =
1 1
(C) 200 (D) 75 +
r1 r2
Answer (B)
𝐶1 𝑉1 +𝐶2 𝑉2 2×50+3×100 24. The source of magnetic field is ....... & source of
Sol. 𝑉𝐶 = = = 80 volts
𝐶1 +𝐶2 2+3 electric field is ...........
21. The emf of a car battery is 12 V. If internal (A) scalar, scalar
resistance of battery is 0.4 , then maximum (B) vector, vector
power drawn from battery is ....... W.
(C) scalar, vector
(A) 360
(D) vector, scalar
(B) 30
Answer (D)
(C) 4.8
25. A coil having 10 Am2 magnetic moment is placed
(D) Zero in a vertical plane & is free to rotate about its
Answer (A) horizontal axis coincides with its diameter. A
uniform magnetic field of 2T in the horizontal
V2
Sol. P = direction exists such that initially the axis of the
r
coil is in the direction of the field. The coil rotates
22. The resistance of the platinum wire of a platinum through an angle of 90º under the influence of
resistance thermometer at an ice point is 5  & magnetic field. The moment of inertia of coil is
at steam point is 5.23 . When the thermometer 0.1 kg m2. What will be its angular speed?
is inserted in a hot bath, the resistance of a
(A) 10 rad/s
platinum wire is 5.795 . Calculate the
(B) 5 rad/s
temperature of the bath.
(C) 20 rad/s
(A) 365.65 ºC
(D) 40 rad/s
(B) 354.56 ºC
Answer (C)
(C) 345.65 ºC
Sol. U + K = 0
(D) 245.65 ºC
1 2
Answer (C) I  = MB
2
Sol. R = R0 (H  T)
2MB
𝑡=
𝑅𝑡−𝑅0
× 100 =
5.795−5
× 100 =
𝑅100 −𝑅0 5.23−5 I
26. 10 A current is passing through a very long wire 30. Out of the following given loops in which loop,
of radius 5 cm. Then magnetic field at a distance the direction of induced current is from
of 2 cm insider from its curved surface is ........ ×
a → c → b.
10–5 T.
a
(A) 6.7 × 10–5 v
(A) c
(B) 2.4 × 10–5 b
(C) 2.4 × 105 a
v
(D) 2.4 (B) b c
Answer (D)
𝜇0 2𝐼 10−7 ×2×10 a c
Sol. 𝐵 = 𝑟= × 3 × 10−2 v
4𝜋 𝑅 2 25×10−4 (C)
b
27. In India, declination at Delhi is ........
a
(A) 0º41 W c
v
(B) 0º41 E (D)
b
(C) 0º58 E
(D) 0º58 W Answer (D)
Answer (B) Sol. Using Lenz’s law, current will be in clockwise
28. The relative permeability in a core of a solenoid direction.
is 400. The windings of a solenoid are insulated
31. Which is not the unit of Inductance?
from the core and carry a current of 2 A. If the
number of turns is 1000 per meter. Then (A) V.s.A–1
magnetic intensity inside the core of solenoid is (B) WbA–1
....... A/m
(C) H
(A) 2 × 103
(D) Wb.s.A–1
(B) 2.5 × 10–3
(C) 2.5 × 103 Answer (D)

(D) 2 × 10–3 Sol.  = Li

Answer (A)  Unit = Wb.A–1
Sol. H = ni = 1000 × 2
dI
29. The coil having 1000 turns & Area of 0.10 m2 e = −L  unit of L  V.s.A–1
dt
rotates at half a revolution per second & it is
placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.01 T 32. A bulb of 100 W rating is connected with 220 V
perpendicular to the axis of rotation of coil. Then supply. The resistance of bulb is .........
max. emf voltage generated in coil is ...... V
(A) 484 m–1
(A) 5.0
(B) 484 
(B) 0.5
(C) 3.14 (C) 2.2 

(D) 0.314 (D) 2.2 × 10–3  m–1

Answer (C) Answer (B)
Sol. Emax = NAB
V 2 220  220
Sol. R = = = 484 
= 1000 × 0.01 × 0.1 ×  P 100
33. A sine voltage having maximum value of 283 V 37. The earth rotates on its axis takes 24 hours to
& frequency of 50 Hz is applied to LCR series complete one revolution. How much time it takes
connection where R = 3 , L = 25.48 mH at sun from earth to have shift of 1º?
& C = 796 F. Then impedance is ........ at (A) 4 hrs.
resonance condition.
(B) 4 min.
(A) 5 
(C) 4 sec.
(B) 15  (D) 24 hrs.
(C) 3  Answer (C)
(D) 4  24  60
Sol. t = = 4 second
Answer (A) 360

Sol. Z = R2 + ( XC − XL ) 38. For glass lens f = +50 cm. Then power of lens is
2

.........
R=3
(A) –2 D
1 1 (B) +0.02 D
XC = = =4
C 2fC
(C) +2 D
XL = L = 2fL = 8  (D) –0.02 D
34. What is correct for real transformer? Answer (C)
(A) Pi > P0 100
Sol. P = = +2 D
(B) Pi < P0 f(cm)
(C) Pi = P0
39. A lens (n = 1.5) is placed in a liquid. To make it
(D) All are correct disappear, the value of n of liquid should be .......
Answer (A) (A) n < 1.5
Pout (B) n = 1.5
Sol. n = 1
Pin
(C) n > 1.5
35. The source of displacement current is ........ (D) Any n
(A) Changing Electric Field Answer (B)
(B) Static Electric Field Sol. Lens should be kept in liquid having same
(C) Changing Magnetic Field refractive index as that of lens.
(D) Static Magnetic Field 40. What is the type of nature of image formed for
Answer (A) an object placed an axis of concave mirror
between pole & centre?
36. The range of wavelength for Ultraviolet is from
....... to ....... (A) Virtual, erect & diminished

(A) 0.1 m to 1 mm (B) Real, inverted & diminished

(B) 700 nm to 400 nm (C) Real, inverted & magnified

(C) 1mm to 700 nm (D) Virtual, erect & magnified
(D) 400 nm to 1.0 nm Answer (C, D)
Answer (D) Sol. C & D both possible
 CHEMISTRY
43. Which reagent is required to convert cyclohexanol
to cyclohexanone?
41. ⎯⎯⎯
NaBH4
⎯
→ " X" . What is “X”
(A) O3 / H2O – Zn dust (B) PCC

in the reaction? (C) Anhydrous CrO3 (D) DIBAL - H

Answer (B)
O
|| Sol.
–CH 2 – CH – CH 3 OH O
(A) | PCC
OH
Cyclohexanol Cyclohexanone

44. Which of the following acid has highest pKa value?

(B)
(A) O2NCH2COOH (B) NCCH2COOH
(C) FCH2COOH (D) C6H5CH2COOH
Answer (D)
(C) Sol. Acidic strength 
1
 stability of conjugate base.
𝑝𝐾𝑎

C5H5CH3COOH is weakest acid among all so has

highest pKa value.
(D) (1) CO2 /ether NaOH+ CaO
45. C6H5CH2 – MgBr ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
( 2) H O+
→ ' X' ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
→' Y ' ?
3

What is the final product in this reaction?

Answer (C)
(A) C6H5CH2CH3 (B) C6H5CH3
Sol. As we know NaBH4 is a weak reducing agent and
(C) C6H6 (D) C6H5CH2OH
reduce only aldehyde, ketone into alcohol and
Answer (B)
doesn’t reduce carboxylic acid derivative into
Sol.
alcohol except acid halide.

42. Which of the following has highest boiling point?

(A) Ethoxy ethane
(B) n-Butane
(C) Pentanal
(D) Pentan-1-ol 46. Which of the following compound has least Basic
strength?
Answer (D)
(A) C6H5NH2
Sol. N – Butane = –1°C
(B) NH3
Pentanal = 103°C (C) (C2H5)2NH
Ethoxy ethane = 34.6°C (D) C2H5NH2
Pentanol = 138°C Answer (A)

-7-
Sol. Basic strength  Lone pair Availability. In Aniline 50. Which amino acids are used in the preparation of
(C6H5NH2) as the lone pair is in conjugation so it is Nylon-2-Nyon 6?
least basic among all given. (A) Phenol and Formaldehyde
47. The source of nitrogen in Gabriel synthesis of (B) Phthalic acid and glycine
amines is ........
(C) Amino Caproic acid and glycine
(A) NaN3 (B) KCN
(D) Ethylene glycol and Phthalic acid
(C) C6H4(CO)2N–K+ (D) NaNO2
Answer (C)
Answer (C)
Sol. nH2N-CH2-COOH + nNH2-(CH2)5 – COOH
Sol.

51. Zeiglar Natta catalyst is a mixture of.........

(A) TiCl4 & (C2H5)2Al (B) TiCl2 & (C2H5)3Al
48. The best reagent for converting 2-phenyl
propanamide into 1-Phenyl ethanamine is .... (C) TiCl3 & (C2H5)4Al (D) (C2H5)3Al & TiCl4

(A) NaBH4 (B) H2/Pt Answer (D)

(C) LiAlH4 (D) NaOH/Br2 Sol. Zeigler Natta catalyst = Al (C2H5)3 & TiCl4

Answer (D) 52. Which antihistamine drug is used to prevent

acidity?
Sol.
(A) Phenelzine (B) Cimetidine
(C) Morphine (D) Equanil
Answer (B)
Sol. Fact
53. Name the sweetner which is a trichloro derivative
of Sucrose?

49. Giving ‘T’ Symbol for true statement and ‘F’ (A) Sucralose (B) Saccharin
symbol for false statement, select correct option. (C) Alitame (D) Aspartame
(i) Most naturally occurring amino acids have L- Answer (A)
configuration Sol. Sucralose is a trichloro derivative of sucrose.
(ii) β-D ribose sugar is present in RNA 54. The deficiency of which vitamin causes scurvy?
(iii) Amylose is water insoluble component made (A) Riboflavin
up of -D-(+) glucose units
(B) Thiamine
(iv) All monosaccharides are non-reducing sugars.
(C) Ascorbic acid
(A) TTFF (B) TFTF
(D) Pyriodoxine
(C) TTFT (D) FTTF
Answer (C)
Answer (A)
Sol. The deficiency of Ascorbic acid (Vitamin C) causes
Sol. Fact scurvy.
55. Which of the following statement is correct? 58. The molality of aqueous solution of any solute
(A) Amorphous solids are anisotropic in nature having mole fraction 0.25 is ........

(B) Silicon doped with Arsenic impurity is a p-type (A) 16.67 m (B) 18.52 m
semiconductor (C) 33.33 m (D) 9.26 m
(C) In the unit cell of rhombic Sulphur, the axial Answer (B)
distance are equal and the value of each axial Sol. nsolute = 0.25 ; nH2O = 0.75
angle is 90º Mass of H2O = 0.75 x 18 = 13.5g
(D) In MnO, all the domains are aligned in the
nsolute
same direction Molality =
mass of H2O(kg)
Answer (None is correct)
0.25
Sol. Fact = x1000 = 18.51m
13.5
56. What are the fractions of Fe2+ and Fe3+ in Fe0.93O
59. The osmotic pressure of 0.5 M aqueous solution of
respectively?
CH3COOH having 2pH at temperature T is ......
(A) 0.85, 0.15
(A) 1.02 RT (B) 0.051 RT
(B) 0.93, 0.07
(C) 0.51 RT (D) 0.102 RT
(C) 0.75, 0.25
Answer (C)
(D) 0.80, 0.20
Sol. CH3COOH CH3COO(ag) + H+
Answer (A)
t = 0, 0.5 M
Sol. Let Fe2+ = x & Fe3+ = (0.93-x)
0.5 (1 – ) 0.5 0.5
By charge conservation,
0.5(1 − ) + 0.5 + 0.5
+2(x) + 3(0.93-x) – 2(1) =0 i=
0.5
2x + 2.79 – 3x – 2 = 0
i = (1+)
-x + 0.79 = 0 ⟹ x = 0.79
pH = 2 ⟹ 0.5 = 10-2
0.79
Fraction of Fe2+ = = 0.85 0.01
0.93 = = 0.02
0.5
Fraction of Fe3+ = (1-0.85) = 0.15 𝜋 = icRT
57. Maximum amount of a solid solute that can be 𝜋 = (1.02) (0.5) RT
dissolved in a specified amount of a given liquid
𝜋 = 0.51 RT
solvent does not depend upon ..........
60. On the basis of the given following electrode
(i) Temperature
potential, which one is the strongest reducing
(ii) Nature of Solute agent?
(iii) Pressure EoCr O2− |Cr 3+ = 1.33 V
2 7
(iv) Nature of Solvent
(A) (ii)
o
EMnO −
|Mn2+
= 1.51V
4

(B) (i) & (iii) o

EBr |Br −
= 1.09 V
2

(C) (ii) & (iv)

EoZn2+ |Zn = −0.76 V
(D) (iii)
Answer (D) (A) Mn2+ (B) Cr3+
Sol. As the solute is solid so solubility does not depend (C) Br– (D) Zn
on pressure in this case. Answer (D)
 1 Answer (A)
Sol. Reducing power  SOP value 
SRP Value Sol. From the integrated Rate equation.
61. For which of the following electrolytes the graph of 65. Time required to decompose SO2Cl2 to half of its
initial amount is 40 minutes. If the decomposition is
m against C gives negative slope.
a first order reaction, what will be the rate constant
(A) Sodium acetate of the reaction?
(B) Acetic acid (A) 2.88 × 10–2 s–1 (B) 1.73 × 10–2 s–1
(C) Ammonium hydroxide (C) 2.88 × 10–4 s–1 (D) 1.73 × 10–4 s–1
(D) Water Answer (C)
Answer (A) Sol. For 1st order Reaction,
ln 2 ln2
Sol. m v/s c is a straight line with negative slope K= = = 2.88 x 10-4 s-1
t1/ 2 40x60
for strong electrolyte sodium Acetate.
66. Which of the following is a reversible sol?
62. One electrolysis of aqueous solution of a halide of
a metal ‘M’ by passing 1.5 ampere current for 10 (A) As2S3 sol (B) Gelatin sol
minutes deposits 0.2938 g of metal. If the atomic (C) Fe(OH)3 sol (D) Gold sol
mass of the metal is 63 gm/mole, then what will be Answer (B)
the formula of the metal halide? Sol. Gelatin sol is a reversible sol.
(A) MCl3 (B) MCl2 67. From the figure, in which of the following vessel,
(C) MCl (D) MCl4 the pressure of the gas is the highest.
[Temperature and volume of the gases are the
Answer (B)
same in each vessel].
Sol. From Faraday’s 1stLaw of electrolysis, m = Zit.
P Q R S
63
0.2938 = x 1.5 x 10 x 60 1 mol He 1 mol SO2 1 mol H2 1 mol CH4
n x 96500

63 x 1.5 x 600
n=
96500 x 0.2938
1g Charcoal 1g Charcoal 1g Charcoal 1g Charcoal
n=2
(A) P (B) Q
 Formula = MCl2
(C) R (D) S
63. In the presence of a catalyst, the heat evolved or
Answer (A)
absorbed during the reaction .......
Sol. As He gas will not adsorbed so the pressure of the
(A) Increases
gas will be highest in P.
(B) Decreases 68. Which soluble complex is formed in the leaching
(C) May decrease or increases process of Gold?
(D) Remains unchanged (A) [Au(CN)4]2– (B) [Au(OH)2]–
Answer (D) (C) [Au(OH)4]2– (D) [Au(CN)2]–
Sol. Remains unchanged Answer (D)
64. Which of the following graph has intercept equal to Sol. [Au(CN)2]- is formed in the leaching process of
zero? Gold.
69. Which of the following slag is formed during the
R
(A) log 0 →t (B) logR → t extraction of iron in the blast furnace?
R (A) FeCO3 (B) CaCO3
(C) CaSiO3 (D) FeSiO3
(D) R → t
1
(C) logK →
T Answer (C)
Sol. In the extractive metallurgy of Iron, 74. Although Zirconium belongs to 4d-transition series

CaCO3 ⎯⎯ → CaO + CO2 and Hafnium belongs to 5d transition series, even
CaO + SiO2 → CaSiO3 then they show similar physical and chemical
(Flux) (Slag) properties because ........

70. Which of the following is the correct order? (A) Both have same number of electrons

(A) Stability: HI < HBr < HCl < HF (B) Both belongs to d-block

(B) Acidic strength: HCIO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 < HClO (C) Both have similar atomic radius

(C) Ionic character: MF < MCl < MBr < MI (D) Both belongs to the same group of the
periodic table
(D) Electron gain enthalpy: I < Br < Cl < F
Answer (C)
Answer (A)
Sol. Due to lanthanoid contraction, Zr & Hf shows
Sol. Since order o fBDE  stability ….
similar properties and also have similar atomic
stability order = HF > HCl > HBr > HI radius due to which also they show similar
71. In which of the following oxoacid of Sulphur, S-O- Physical and chemical properties.
O-S bond is present? 75. Which isomerism is possible in hexa ammine
(A) H2S2O8 (B) H2S2O7 cobalt (III) hexacyanido chromate (III) complex?
(C) H2S2O4 (D) H2S2O3
(A) Co-ordination isomerism
Answer (A)
Sol. H2S2O8: Marshall’s acid or peroxo-disulphuric acid (B) Linkage isomerism
O O (C) Ionistion isomerism
|| ||
(D) Solvate isomerism
H S–O S–O
O O H Answer (A)
III III
Sol. Since the complex is [Co(NH ) ]+3 [Cr(CN) ]–3
72. Concentrated HNO3 oxidise white phosphorus into 3 6 6

which substance? So, co-ordination Isomerisation is possible in the

(A) H4P2O7 (B) H3PO2 above complex

(C) H3PO4 (D) H3PO3 76. Which of the following complex will absorb
maximum wavelength of light?
Answer (C)
(A) [Co(NH3)5(H2O)]3+ (B) [CoCl(NH3)5]2+
Sol. P4 + 20HNO3→ 4H3PO4 + 20NO2 + 4H2O
(C) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (D) [Co(CN)6]3–
(Phosphoric acid)
Answer (B)
73. The divalent ion of which of the following element
in aqueous solution has magnetic moment Sol. CFSE  strength of ligand  1/
5.92 BM? ∵ complex [CoCl (NH3)5]2+ has minimum charge
(A) Cr (B) Co among all the complex so has lower CFSE so will
absorb maximum wavelength of light.
(C) Fe (D) Mn
77. The complex having highest electrical conductivity
Answer (D)
in aqueous solution under similar conditions is
Sol. For Magnetic Moment of 5.92 BM
.......
𝜇 = √𝑛(𝑛 + 2) = 5.92 ⇒ n = 5 (A) Triaqua trichlorido cobalt (III)
Co2+ : [Ar]3d7 ⇒ n=3 (B) Penta aqua chlorido cobalt (III) chloride
Fe2+ : [Ar]3d6 ⇒ n=4 (C) Tetra aqua dichlorido cobalt (III) chloride
Cr2+ : [Ar]3d4 ⇒ n=4 (D) Hexa aqua cobalt (III) chloride
Mn2+ : [Ar]3d5 ⇒n=5 Answer (D)
Sol. Since, electrical conductivity  Number of ions 79. R’ – Cl ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Na/ether
→ 2, 3-dimethyl butane. What is R’
produced in aqueous solution in the above reaction?
In complex (Co(H2O)6)Cl3; the total number of ions (A) isobutyl (B) isopropyl
produced in aqueous solution is equal to 4. (C) sec-butyl (D) n-propyl
78. How many optically active isomers are possible in Answer (B)
the compound having formula C4H9Br? Sol.
(A) 2 Na/Ether
(B) 3 2 Cl 2 3 + 2NaCl
4
(C) 1
80. 1 mole of metal ‘M’ reacts completely with alcohol
(D) 4 to give 1.5 moles of H2. Then what will be the
Answer (A) valency of metal ‘M’?
Sol. In C4H9Br, the possible structural isomers are:- (A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 2 (D) 1
Answer (A)
Sol. Mn+ R-OH → (R-O)nM+1/2H2(g)
If 1 mole of metal gives 3/2 moles of H2 with
alcohol that means,
 Two optically active isomers (d + l) of C4H9Br M ⟶ M3+ + 3e–
are possible. 3H+ + 3e– ⟶ 3/2 H2(g)

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