English (1103CMD300122016) 11/3CMD3//122/16 Test Pattern

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET(UG)

MINOR TEST-3
(Academic Session : 2022 - 2024) 11-09-2022
PRE-MEDICAL : NURTURE COURSE (PHASE-1 & 2)
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
Important Instructions :

1. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and it contains 200 questions. Each question carries
4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect
response, 1 mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

2. In this Test, each subject (Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology) will consist of two
sections. Section A will consist of 35 questions (all questions are mandatory) and Section
B will have 15 questions. Candidate can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these
15 questions. In case if candidate attempts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
questions will be considered for marking.

3. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.

4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.

5. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this
Test Booklet with them.

6. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray
marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified
space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.

7. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals)

Form Number : in figures

: in words

Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :

Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :

ALLEN Mumbai City Office : KK Solitaire, Plot No. 278, Opp. Vanita Vikas School, Near Railway Station, Ghatkopar
East Mumbai : 400077 | +022-62423699 mumbai@allen.ac.in www.allen.ac.in

Corporate Office : ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan) INDIA-324005
+91-744-2757575 info@allen.ac.in www.allen.ac.in

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SUBJECT : PHYSICS
SECTION-I 5. A graph between x-y coordinates is given for a
Attempt All 35 questions particle moving in x-y plane from point A to
point B. Which of the following option is
1. If a body starts from rest and travels 120 m in
correct.
the 8th second, then its constant acceleration is
:
(1) 16 m/s2 (2) 10 m/s2
(3) 0.227 m/s2 (4) 0.03 m/s2
2. A body starting from rest accelerates at a
constant rate a m/s2 for some time after which (1) This graph represents path of the particles
it decelerates at a constant rate b m/s2 to come
to rest finally. If the total time elapsed is t (2) Particle does not change its direction
seconds, the maximum velocity attained by the during the motion
body is given by (3) Average velocity from A to B is zero
aB ab (4) Particle travels in a straight line
(1) t m/s (2) t m/s
a+b a−b
6. If a car covers 2/5th of total distance with v1
2ab 2ab
(3)
a+b
t m/s (4)
a−b
t m/s speed and 3/5th distance with v2 speed then the
average speed is :
3. The motion of a particle is described by the
equation x = a + bt2 where a = 15 cm and b = 3 1 −−−− v1 + v2
(1) v1 v2 (2)
2√ 2
cm /sec2. Its instantenous velocity at time 3 sec
2v1 + v2 5v1 v2
will be - (3) (4)
v1 + v2 3v1 + 2v2
(1) 36 cm/sec (2) 18 cm/sec 7. A preson is moving in a circle of radius r with
(3) 16 cm/sec (4) 32 cm/sec constant speed V. The change in velocity in
4. A body is thrown up vertically with 100 m/sec. moving from A to B is
It travels a distance 5 m in last second of its
journey while going up, (before coming to rest
momentarily). If it is thrown up by 500 m/sec,
how much distance it travels in last second of
journey while going up. (1) 2V cos 40° (2) 2V sin 40°
(1) 5m (2) 10m (3) 15m (4) 20m (3) 2V cos 20° (4) 2V sin 20°
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8. At any instant of time acceleration and velocity 12. A body is projected vertically up at t = 0 with a
of a particle are given by a i j & ⃗ = ^ +^ velocity of 98 m/s. Another body is projected
v 6 i 8 j , then rate of change of speed at
⃗= ^ + ^ from the same point with same velocity after 4
the same instant will be : seconds. Both bodies will meet at t =
3^i + 4^j 6i
( ^ + 8^j ) (1) 6 s
(1) ( ) (2)
25 (2) 8 s
25
7 7 (3) 10 s
(3) (3^
i + 8^j ) (4) (3^
i + 4^j )
25 25
(4) 12 s
9. A body moves along the curved path of a semi
circle. Calculate the ratio of distance to 13. Distance and displacement of a moving object
displacement : have same magnitude when
(1) 11 : 7 (2) 7 : 11 (1) object moves in circular motion
– –
(3) 11 : √2 × 7 (4) 7 : 11√2 (2) object moves along a zig - zag path
10. x2 (3) object moves along a straight line and
A particle moves along the curve y= .
2 always moves along the same direction
2
Here x varies with time as x t . Where x
=
(4) it moves along a straight line and returns
2
and y are measured in metre and t in second. At back to the starting point
t = 2s, the velocity of the particle (in ms–1) is :
14. A particle is moving such that its position
(1) 2^i − 4^j (2) 2^i + 4^j corrdinates (x, y) are
(2m, 3m) at time t = 0
(3) 4^i + 2^j (4) 4^i − 2^j
(6 m, 7m) at time t = 2 s and
11. A particle starts from rest, it acceleration (a) (13m, 14 m) at time t = 5 s.
versus time (t) is as shown in the figure. The Average velocity vector (vav ) from t = 0 to t =
⃗

maximum speed of the particle will be

5 s is
1 1
(1) (13 i + 14 j ) ms
^ ^ −

5
7 ^ ^ 1
(2) ( i + j ) ms
−

3
1
(3) 2 (^i + ^j ) ms −

11 ^ ^
(1) 110 m/s (2) 55 m/s (4) ( i + j ) ms
− 1
5
(3) 550 m/s (4) 660 m/s
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15. In a two dimensional motion, instantaneous 19. The velocity (v) - time (t) graph for a particle
speed υ 0 is a positive constant. Then which of moving along x-axis is shown in the figure. The
the following are necessarily true ? corresponding position (x) - time (t) is best
represented by
(1) The average velocity is not zero at any
time
(2) Average acceleration must always vanish
(3) Displacements in equal time intervals are
equal
(4) Equal path lengths are traversed in equal
intervals.
16. A very large number of balls are thrown
(1) (2)
vertically upwards in quick succession in such
a way that the next ball is thrown when the
previous one is at the maximum height. If the
maximum height is 5 m, the number of ball
thrown per minute is (take g = 10 ms–2)
(1) 120 (2) 80 (3) 60 (4) 40 (3) (4)

17. Drops of water fall from the roof of a building

27 m high at regular intervals of time. When
the first drop reaches the ground, at the same 20. The velocity - time relation of an electron
instant fourth drop begins to fall. What are the starting from rest is given by u = kt, where k =
distances of the second and third drops from 2 m/s2. The distance traversed in 4 sec is :
the roof ? (1) 9 m (2) 16 m
(1) 6 m and 12 m (2) 6 m and 3 m (3) 27 m (4) 36 m
(3) 12 m and 3 m (4) 8 m and 2 m 21. The position vector of a particle is given as
18. A 100 m long train is moving with a velocity of r (t 2 4t 6) i (t 2 ) j . The time after
⃗ = − +
^
+
^

10 m/s. Find out the time taken by train to cross which the velocity vector and acceleration
a bridge of length 150 m. vector becomes perpendicular to each other is
equal to :-
(1) 25 s (2) 20 s
(1) 1 sec. (2) 2 sec.
(3) 15 s (4) 10 s
(3) 1.5 sec. (4) 5 sec.
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22. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Assuming 25. A body is projected vertically upward from the
the air resistance to be constant and surface of the earth, its displacement time
considerable :- graph is :
(1) the time of ascent ⩾ the time of descent
(2) the time of ascent < the time of descent (1) (2)
(3) the time of ascent > the time of descent
(4) the time of ascent = the time of descent
23. The displacement - time graph of a moving
particle is shown. The instantaneous velocity of (3) (4)
the particle is positive at the point :

26. The velocity versus time curve of a moving

point is shown in the figure. The retardation is :

(1) D (2) F (3) C (4) E

24. A person walks along an east - west street and a
graph of his displacement from home is shown
in figure. His average speed for the whole time (1) 1 cm/sec2
interval is
(2) 2 cm/sec2
(3) 3 cm/sec2
(4) 4 cm/sec2
27. It the body loses half of its velocity on
penetrating 3cm in the wooden block, then how
much will it penetrate more before coming to
rest ? (Retardation produced by the block is
uniform)
(1) 0 (2) 23 m/s
(1) 1 cm (2) 3 cm
(3) 8 m/s (4) None of these
(3) 2 cm (4) 4 cm

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28. the displacement time graph for two particles A 31. A ball dropped from the top of a tower falls
and B are straight lines inclined at angles of first half height of tower in 10 s. The total time
30° and 60° respectively with the time axis. spent by ball in air is [Take g = 10 m/s2]
The ratio of the speed vA : vB is (1) 14.14 s (2) 15.25 s
–
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : √3
(3) 12.36 s (4) 17.36 s
(3) –
√ 3 :1 (4) 1 : 3 32. A body thrown vertically up with initial
29. The acceleration (a) - time (t) graph for a velocity 52 m/s from the ground passes twice a
particle moving along a straight line starting point at a height h above at an interval of 10 s.
from rest is shown in figure. Which of the The height h is (g = 10 m/s2)
following graph is the best representation of (1) 22 m (2) 10.2 m
variation of its velocity (v) with time (t) ?
(3) 11.2 m (4) 15 m
33. The velocity of a body depends on time
t2
according to the equation v= + 20 . The
10
body is undergoing
(1) Uniform acceleration
(2) Uniform retardation
(3) Non-uniform acceleration
(1) (2)
(4) Zero acceleration
34. A rocket is launched upward from the earth's
surface whose velocity time graph is shown in
figure. Then maximum height attained by the
(3) (4) rocket is :

30. A ball is thrown upward with speed 10 m/s

from the top of the tower reaches the ground
with a speed 20 m/s. The height of the tower is (1) 1 km (2) 10 km
[Take g = 10 m/s2]
(3) 100 km (4) 60 km
(1) 10 m (2) 15 m (3) 20 m (4) 25 m

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35. A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration at 38. A balloon rises from rest on the ground
time t = 0 is 5 m/s2 which varies with time as vertically upwards with a constant acceleration
shown in the figure. The maximum speed of the g/8. An object is dropped from the balloon
particle will be : when it has risen to the height h. What is the
time taken by the object to reach the ground ?
−−
h
(1) 4√
g
−−
g
(2) 2√
h
(1) 7.5 m/s (2) 15 m/s −−
h
(3) 20 m/s (4) 37.5 m/s (3) 2√
g
SECTION-II −−
g
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate (4) 4√
h
can choose to attempt any 10 question out of
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts 39. A body falls from rest freely under gravity with
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted an acceleration of 9.8 m/s2. Neglecting air
questions will be considered for marking. resistance the distance travelled by the body
during the third second of its motion will be :
36. If the velocity of a particle is v = At + Bt2,
(1) 14.7 m
where A and B are constants, then the distance
travelled by it between 1s and 2s is : (2) 24.5 m
3 (3) 19.6 m
(1) A + 4B
2
(4) 29.4 m
(2) 3A + 7B
40. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. The
3 7
(3) A+ B velocity at one third of the maximum height is
2 3
8m/s. The velocity with which the ball was
A B
(4) + thrown is
2 3
–
37. Position of a particle moving along x - axis is (1) 4√2
given by x = 2 + 8t – 4t2. The distance (2) –
4√3
travelled by the particle from t = 0 to t = 2 is :
–
(3) 4√6
(1) 0 (2) 8
–
(4) 2√6
(3) 12 (4) 16
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41. The displacement (x) - time (t) graph of a 44. The motion of a particle along a straight line is
particle is shown in figure. Which of the described by equation x = 8 + 12t – t3 where x
following is correct ? is in metre and t in second. The retardation of
the particle when its velocity becomes zero, is

(1) 6 ms–2 (2) 12 ms–2

(3) 24 ms–2 (4) zero
(1) Particle starts with zero velocity and 45. A particle starts moving with acceleration 2
variable acceleration m/s2. Distance travelled by it in 3rd half second
is :-
(2) Particle starts with non-zero velocity and
variable acceleration (1) 1.25 m (2) 2.25 m
(3) Particle starts with zero velocity and (3) 6.25 m (4) 30.25 m
uniform acceleration 46. A lift is coming from 8th floor and is just about to
(4) Particle starts with non-zero velocity and stop at 4th floor. Taking ground floor as origin
uniform acceleration and positive direction upwards for all quantities,
which one of the following is correct ?
42. If magnitude of average speed and average
velocity over an interval of time are same, then (1) Δx < 0, v < 0, a > 0

(1) Particle must move with zero acceleration (2) Δx > 0, v < 0, a < 0

(2) Particle must move with uniform (3) Δx > 0, v < 0, a > 0
acceleration (4) Δx > 0, v > 0, a < 0
(3) Particle must be at rest 47. In one dimensional motion, instantaneous
(4) Particle must move in a straight line speed u satisfies 0 u v0 .
⩽ <

without turning back (1) The displacement in time T must always

43. A body is dropped from a height H. The time take non-negative values.
taken to cover second half of the journey is (2) The displacement x in time T satisfies
−
−−− −
−−
2H H –v0T < x < v0T.
(1) 2√ (2) √
g g
(3) The acceleration is a always a non-
H
−
−−
–
−
−−−
2H 1 negative number.
(3) √ (√ 2 − 1) (4) √ ×
–
g g (√ 2 − 1) (4) The motion has no turning points.

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48. The displacement of a particle is given by x = (t
2
–2) where x is in metres and t in seconds. The
distance covered by the particle in first 4
seconds is
(1) 4 m (2) 8 m
(3) 12 m (4) 16 m
49. A car moves from x to y with a uniform speed
vu and returns to x with a uniform speed vd. the
average speed for this round trip is
vu + vd 2vu vd
(1) (2) vd + vu
2

(3) vu − vd
−−
v v
−−
√ u d (4)
2
50. The position x of a particle with respect to time
t along x-axis is given by x = 9t2 –t3, where x is
in metres and t in seconds. What will be the
position of this particle when it achieves
maximum speed along the positive x-direction
?
(1) 24 m (2) 32 m
(3) 54 m (4) 81 m

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SUBJECT : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I 55. IP1 and IP2 of Mg are 178 and 348 K. cal mol–
Attempt All 35 questions 1. The enthalpy required for the reaction

Mg → M g 2 +
2e is :-
+
−

51. In which of the following element has highest

value of ionisation energy - (1) + 170 K.cal (2) + 526 K.cal.
(1) V (2) Nb (3) Ta (4) Cs (3) –170 K.cal (4) –526 K.cal
52. The correct order of electron affinity is :- 56. The IP1, IP2, IP3, IP4 and IP5 of an element are
(1) Be < B < C < N (2) Be < N < B < C 7.1, 14.3, 34.5, 46.8, 162.2 eV respectively.
The element is likely to be:-
(3) N < Be < C < B (4) N < C < B < Be
(1) Na (2) Si (3) F (4) Ca
53. From the given set of species, point out the
species from each set having least atomic 57. The electron affinity values for the halogens
radius : shows the following trend :-
(1) O–2, F–, Na+ (1) F < Cl > Br > I (2) F < Cl < Br < I
(2) Ni, Cu, Zn
(3) Li, Be, Mg (3) F > Cl > Br > I (4) F < Cl > Br < I
(4) He, Li+, H– 58. The process requiring the absorption of energy
Correct answer is :- is .
(1) O–2, Cu, Li, H– (2) Na+, Ni, Be Li+ (1) F → F– (2) Cl → Cl–
(3) F–, Zn, Mg, He (4) Na+, Cu, Be, He (3) O → O2– (4) H → H–
54. Covalent radius of an element represents - 59. Which of the following will have the most
(1) Half of the distance between two similar negative electron gain enthalpy and which the
atoms when they are bonded together by a least negative ?
single bond.
(1) F, Cl (2) Cl, F
(2) Half of the distance between two similar
atoms when they are bonded together by a (3) Cl, S (4) Cl, P
double bond. 60. Which arrangement represents the correct order
(3) Half of the distance between two similar of electron gain enthalpy (with negative sign)
atoms when they are bonded together by a of the given atomic species ?
triple bond.
(1) S < O < Cl < F (2) O < S < F < Cl
(4) covalent radius of an atom can be
measured by any method (3) Cl < F > S < O (4) F < Cl < O < S

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61. Which is the correct order of electronegativity - 66. Which of the following set of elements belongs
(1) Cl > S > P > Si to same period :-

(2) Si > Al > Mg > Na (1) Zn, Cd, Hg (2) Fr, Ra, U

(3) F > Cl > Br > I (3) K, Ca, Ag (4) None

(4) All 67. The atom having the valence shell electronic
configuration 4s2 4p2 would be in :-
62. Electronegativity scale of pauling is based upon :
(1) Group II A and period 3
(1) Bond length (2) Bond energy
(2) Group II B and period 4
(3) Atomic radius (4) Covalent radius
(3) Group IV A and period 4
63. Outermost electronic configuration of the most
electronegative element is : (4) Group IV A and period 3
(1) ns2np3 (2) ns2np6 68. Which of the following electronic configuration
belongs to inert gas elements :
(3) ns2 (4) ns2np5
(1) ns2 (n–1)d10 (2) ns2(n–1)s2p6
64. In periodic table, the basic character of oxides /
hydroxides ? (3) ns2 np6 (4) None
(1) Increases from left to right and decreases 69. Consider the following ionisation reactions
from top to bottom A g →A g
( )
+
( e )+
−
IE in (KJ/mol) is A1
2
A g →A g
+
( )
+
(e )+ IE in (KJ/mol) is A2
−

(2) decreases from right to left and 2 3

A g →A g
+
( )
+
( e IE in (KJ/mol) is A3
)+
−

decreases from top to bottom

then correct order of IE is
(3) decreases from left to right and increases
from top to bottom (1) A1 > A2 > A3 (2) A1 = A2 = A3
(4) Increases from left to right and increases (3) A1 < A2 < A3 (4) A3 = A2 < A1
from top to bottom 70. The electronic configuration of elements X and
65. Element which occupied position in the Z are 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5 and 1s2 2s2 2p5
lother meyer curve on the peaks, were :- respectively. What is the position of element X
with respect to position of Z in the periodic
(1) Alkali metals
table
(2) Highly electro positive elements
(1) Just below Z (2) Just above Z
(3) Elements having large atomic volume
(3) Left to the Z (4) right to the Z
(4) All
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71. Which of the following sequence contains 76. Correct order of Ist I.P. are :-
atomic number of only representative elements (a) Li < B < Be < C
(b) O < N < F
(1) 55,12,29,53 (2) 13,33,60,83 (c) Be < N < Ne
(3) 3,33,53,87 (4) 22,33,55,66 (1) a,b (2) b,c
72. Which two elements are in same period as well (3) a,c (4) a,b,c
as same group of modern periodic table :-
77. Mg forms Mg(II) because of :-
(1) Z = 23, Z= 31 (2) Z = 65, Z = 66
(1) The oxidation state of Mg is + 2
(3) Z = 52, Z = 87 (4) Z = 58, Z = 46
(2) Difference between I.P1 and I.P2 is greater
73. Select the correct match - than 16.0 eV
(A) Group no = 17, p-
P = ns2np4 (3) There is only one electron in the outermost
block
energy level of Mg
(B) Group no = 4, d-
Q = (n–1)d2 ns2 block (4) Difference between I.P1 and I.P2 is less
than 11 eV
R = (n–2)f7 (n– (C) Group no = 16, p-
1)d1ns2 block 78. With reference to ionisation potential which
S = (n–1)d10ns2np5 (D) Group no = 3, f one of the following set is correct :
(1) Li > K > B (2) B > Li > K
(1) (P–A), (Q–B), (R–C), (S–D)
(3) Cs > Li > K (4) Cs < Li < K
(2) (P–C), (Q–B), (R–D), (S–A)
79. (a) M g → M g
−
( )
(3) (P–A), (Q–C), (R–B), (S–D) ( )

(b) M g → M g
( )
(
+

(4) (P–B), (Q–D), (R–C), (S–A) (c) M g → M g 2

+ +

( ) ( )

74. Spot the incorrect order of atomic radii :- (d) M g 2 → M g 3

+ +

( ) ( )

(1) rCu > Zn (2) rCl > F Minimum and maximum I.P. would be of :-
(3) rP>S (4) rSc > Ti (1) a, d (2) b, c (3) c, d (4) d, a
75. Decreasing order of size of ions is :- 80. Triad - I [N3–, O–2, Na+]
Triad - II [N+, C+, O+]
(1) Br– > S2– > Cl– > N3– Choose the species of lowest IP from triad - I
(2) N3– > S–2 > Cl– > Br– and highest IP from triad - II respectively
(3) Br– > Cl– > S–2 > N–3 (1) N3–, O+ (2) Na+, C+
(4) N–3 > Cl– > S–2 > Br– (3) N3–, N+ (4) O–, C+
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–
81. If the ionic radii of K+and F are nearly the SECTION-II
same (i.e. 1.34Å) then the atomic radii of K and This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
F respectively are :- can choose to attempt any 10 question out of
(1) 1.34 Å, 1.34 Å (2) 0.72 Å, 1.96 Å these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
(3) 1.96 Å, 0.72 Å (4) 1.96 Å, 1.34 Å questions will be considered for marking.
82. The strength of bonds by 2s - 2s, 2p - 2p and 2p
86. Which among the following depicts a negative
- 2s overlapping has the order :-
overlap of orbitals ?
(1) s – s > p – p > s – p
(2) s – s > p – s > p – p (1)
(3) p – p > s – p > s – s
(2)
(4) p – p > s – s > p – s
83. A sigma bond is formed by the overlapping of (3)
:-
(1) s-s orbital alone
(2) s and p orbitals alone (4)

(3) s–s, s–p or p–p orbitals along internuclear

87. In which following compound, central atom has
axis
four bond pair and one lone pair :
(4) p–p orbital along the sides
(1) NH 4 +
(2) ICl 4
−
(3) SF4 (4) XeF4
84. According to the valence bond theory, when a
88. In the protonation of NH3 molecule, following
covalent bond in formed between two reacting
atoms, the potential energy of the system statement is true :
becomes - (1) A covalent bond is formed
(1) negative (2) positive (2) Hydrogen bond is formed
(3) minimum (4) maximum (3) Hybridisation state of N is changed
85. Number of σ and π bonds present in (4) Shape of NH3 molecule is changed
C H 3 CH CH C ≡ CH are -
− = −
89. The d-orbitals involved in sp3d hybridisation is :
(1) 10 σ, 3π (2) 10 σ, 2π (1) dx 2 y2
−
(2) dz 2
(3) 9 σ, 2π (4) 8 σ, 3π (3) d xy (4) d xz

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90. The percentage of p-character in PCl5 is : 96. Which of the following is affected by stable
(1) 20 (2) 60 (3) 80 (4) 25 configuration on an atom :
(a) Electronegativity
91. The first ionisation enthalpy of Boron is
(b) Ionisation potential
slightly less than Beryllium because :
(c) Electron affinity
(1) 2p-electron is more shielded than 2s-
Correct answer is :
electron
(1) Only electronegativity
(2) effective nuclear charge in Beryllium is
more than Boron (2) Only ionisation potential
(3) of inert pair effect (3) electron affinity and ionisation potential
(4) lanthanoid contraction (4) All of the above
92. Screening effect is not observed in :- 97. Electronegativity of the following elements
(1) He+ (2) Li+2 increases in the order.
(3) H (4) All of these (1) O, N, S, P (2) P, S, N, O
93. Select the incorrect order of atomic radii. (3) P, N, S, O (4) S, P, N, O
(1) Li > I > Br > Cl > F 98. In 6th period of the modern periodic table,
(2) Na > Li > F electronic energy levels are in the order :
(1) 6s, 4f, 5d, 6p (2) 6s, 6p, 4f, 5d
(3) I > Br > Cl > Li > F
(3) 4f, 5d, 6s, 6p (4) None
(4) Cs > Rb > K > Na > Li
99. The element having electronic configuration
94. The correct order of decreasing second
5d0 6s2 belongs to :
ionization energy of Li, Be, Ne, C, B
(1) Ne > B > Li > C > Be (1) d-block, 12th group
(2) Li > Ne > C > B > Be (2) f-block, III B group
(3) Ne > C > B > Be > Li (3) f-block, 14th group
(4) Li > Ne > B > C > Be (4) s-block, 2nd group
95. Second electron affinity of an element is : 100. Which among the following shows the
(1) Always exothermic limitation of Lewis octet rule ?
(2) Endothermic for few elements
(1) CH4 (2) NO
(3) Exothermic for few elements
(3) CO2 (4) NH 4
+

(4) Always endothermic

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SUBJECT : BOTANY

SECTION-I 103. Kingdom of unicellular eukaryotes is

Attempt All 35 questions (1) Monera (2) Protista
101. Which one of the following option is correct ? (3) Fungi (4) Plantae
104. In bacterial chromosomes, the nucleic acid are
(1) linear DNA molecule
(2) circular DNA molecule
(3) of two types DNA and RNA
(4) linear RNA molecule
105. Transfer of genetic material from one
bacterium to another in the transduction
(1) A-Cell wal, B-Cell membrane, C- process is through
Heterocyst, D-DNA, E- Mucilagenous (1) conjugation
sheath
(2) bacteriophages
(2) A-Cell wal, B-Cell membrane, C-DNA, D-
(3) another bacterium
Heterocyst, E- Mucilagenous sheath
(3) A-Muclilagenous sheath, B-Cell (4) same bacterium
membrane, C-DNA, D-Heterocyst, E-Cell 106. Photosynthetic bacteria have pigments in
wall (1) leucoplasts (2) chloroplasts
(4) A-Cell membrane, B-Cell wall, C-DNA, (3) chromoplasts (4) chromatophores
D-Heterocyst, E-Mucilagenous sheath
107. Rod shaped bacteria are known as
102. Which statement is not true about methanogens
? (1) coccus (2) spiral
(1) They are archaebacteria (3) bacillus (4) vibrio
(2) They live in marshy areas 108. The body of a slime mould is known as
(3) Methane is their preferred carbon source. (1) plasmodium (2) fruiting body
(4) They are present in guts of several (3) mycelium (4) protonema
ruminant animals
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109. Which of the following fixes atmospheric 114. Mycoplasma is a
Nitrogen ? (1) Eukaryotic and multicellular
(1) Nostoc (2) Algae (2) prokaryotic and multicellular
(3) Methanogens (4) None of these (3) prokaryotic and unicellular
110. Red color of the Red Sea is caused by ? (4) eukaryotic and unicellular
(1) E.coli 115. The members of monera have cell wall made
(2) Gonyaulax up of polysaccharide + amino acid. Which
(3) Trichodesmium member of monera lack cell wall ?
(4) Trichoderma (1) Archaebacteria
111. Specialized cells called heterocysts are present (2) Mycoplasma
is
(3) Both A and B
(1) dinoflagellates (2) chrysophytes
(4) Cyanobacteria
(3) euglenoids (4) cyanobacteria
116. N2-fixing organisms and nitrifying organisms
112. Which of the following does not belong to the are placed in
kingdom Protista ?
(1) Plantae (2) Animalia
(1) Chrysophytes (2) Euglenoids
(3) Protista (4) Monera
(3) Cyanophyceae (4) Dinoflagellates
117. The members of BGA lack which of the
113. Which of the following are the characters of
following pigment in their chromatophores ?
dinoflagellates ?
A. Planktonic golden yellow algae with soap (1) Chl a (2) Chl b
box like structure. (3) Phycoerythrin (4) Phycocyanin
B. Marine red biflagellated protista. 118. Two flagella are found in which protist
C. Appear yellow, green, brown, blue and red (1) Gonyaulax (2) Euglena
in colour.
(3) Diatoms (4) More than one
D. Biflagellated organisms with pellicle.
E. Saprophytic unicellular forms 119. Euglenoids have their flexible body due to
(1) A, B and C only (2) B, D and E only (1) Chlorophyll (2) Cell wall
(3) B and C only (4) B and E only (3) Pellicle (4) Cellulose

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120. Diatoms are indestructible because of the 125. Bacterial disease do not include
presence of
(1) Cholera (2) Citrus canker
(1) CaCO3 in cell wall
(3) Mumps (4) Typhoid
(2) Silicaeous cell wall
126. The modes of reproduction in members of
(3) Mucilaginous cell wall
kingdom Monera is
(4) All of the above (1) Fission
121. Which of the following is wrong about protista ? (2) Spore formation
(1) Protistans are both autotrophic and (3) Primitive type of sexual reproduction
heterotrophic (4) All of the above
(2) Some protists have cell walls 127. The members of kingdom Protista do not from
(3) Protists do not have membrane bound a link with
organelles (1) Plants (2) Animals
(4) All of the above (3) Fungi (4) Viruses
122. Most of them have two flagella one lies 128. The Boundaries of which kingdom are not well
longitudinally and the other transversely in a defined.
furrow between the wall plates belongs to (1) Monera (2) Protista
(1) Euglenoids (2) Protozoans (3) Fungi (4) Plantae

(3) Dinoflagellates (4) Diatoms 129. Accumulation of Diatomaceous earth takes

123. Bacteria can also live in extreme habitats (1) thousands of years
except (2) millions of years
(1) Deep oceans (2) Hot springs (3) billions of years
(3) Deserts (4) Molten rocks (4) Hundred of years
124. Which of the following is not true w.r.t. 130. Mycoplasma
Bacteria ?
(1) Partially lack cell wall
(1) bacterial structure is very simple
(2) are largest living cells
(2) they are very complex in behaviour
(3) cannot survive without oxygen
(3) bacteria as a group show the least
extensive metabolic diversity (4) are pathogenic in animals and plants
(4) vast majority of bacteria are heterotrophs
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131. Find the incorrect match 135. Uses of Diatomaceous earth are
(1) Amoeboid protozoan - Pseudopodia (1) used in polishing
(2) Flagellated protozoan - Trypanosoma (2) used in filtration of oils and syrups
(3) Ciliated protozoan - cell wall present (3) sound proofing
(4) Sporozoans - have an infectious spore like (4) All of these
stage in their life cycle SECTION-II
132. Freshwater organisms found in stagnent water This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
(a) They have a protein rich layer called can choose to attempt any 10 question out of
pellicle which makes their body flexible these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
(b) When deprived of sunlight they behave like more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
heterotrophs questions will be considered for marking.
(c) Pigments are identical to those present in
136. Identify the organism
higher plants
The given statements are the features of :-
(1) Algae (2) Dinoflagellates
(3) Mycoplasma (4) Euglenoids
133. The incorrect statements regarding spores of
slime moulds
(1) possess true walls (1) Desmid (2) Diatom
(2) are dispersed by water currents (3) Dinoflagellate (4) Euglena
(3) extremely resistant and survive for many 137. The inclusion bodies of bacteria are all except
years (1) Polysome (2) Glycogen granules
(4) both (1) & (3) (3) Volutin granules (4) Gas vacuoles
134. Beneficial roles of prokaryotes do not include 138. Nitrobacter
(1) helpful in making curd from milk (1) Oxidizes Ammonia to NItrite
(2) algal bloom (2) Reduces N2 to Ammonia
(3) helps in recycling of nutrients like N, P, Fe (3) Oxidizes NItrite to NItrate
and S
(4) Reduces NItrite to NItrate
(4) used for antibiotic production
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139. Which of the following is common in Blue- 146. Mode of reproduction exhibited by the protists
green algae, Diatoms and Euglenoids is
(1) Cell membrane (2) Cell wall (1) Asexual reproduction
(3) Chlorophyll a (4) More than one (2) Sexual reproduction
140. An example of filamentous bacteria is (3) Both asexual and sexual reproduction
(1) Nostoc (2) E.coli (4) A short of sexual reproduction
(3) Frankia (4) More than one 147. How many of the following organisms lack cell
141. The DNA of bacteria is wall
Mycoplasma, E.coli, Euglena, Diatoms,
(1) linear
Gonyaulax, Amoeba, Nostoc, Paramoecium
(2) single stranded
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
(3) present inside a nucleus
148. Thermoacidiophiles are the bacteria
(4) circular
(1) that live in high temperatures about 50-60
142. The members of protista do not show which C
type of nutrition ?
(2) that live in conditions having low H+ ion
(1) Holozoic (2) Saprophytic concentration
(3) Photosynthetic (4) Chemosynthetic (3) found in hot sulphur springs
143. The organisms having soap box like structure (4) belonging to eubacteria
are
149. Penicillin is ineffective against Mycoplasma as
(1) Desmids (2) Diatoms
(1) It is a weak antibiotic
(3) Dinoflagellates (4) Eubacteria
(2) It lacks cell wall
144. Naked cytoplasm, multinucleated and
saprophytic are the characteristics of (3) It is not a bacteria
(1) Monera (2) Protista (4) None of these
(3) Fungi (4) Slime molds 150. Organisms living in salty areas are called as
145. The extra - chromosomal, self replicating, (1) Methanogens
circular dsDNA in bacteria are called (2) Halophiles
(1) plastid (2) polysomes
(3) Heliophytes
(3) plasmid (4) nucleoid
(4) Thermoacidophiles
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SUBJECT : ZOOLOGY

SECTION-I 154. The diagram is about the open circulatory

Attempt All 35 questions system of cockroach. Identify the correct
labelling and it match.
151. The abdomen of adult male & female
cockroach consists of _____ segments
(1) 10 segments
(2) 3 segments
(3) 20 segments
(4) 11 segments
152. The following diagram depicts mouth parts of
cockroach which structure Among these acting
as tongue

(1) A = Alary Muscles - 10p

B = Chambers of Heart - 12
(2) A = Alary Muscles - 12p
B = Chambers of Heart - 13
(3) A = Chambers of Heart - 13
B = Alary Muscles = 12p
(4) A = Alary Muscles - 15p
(1) A (2) C B = Chambers of Heart - 10p
(3) B (4) D 155. The number of ommatidia in each eye of
cockroach
153. Malpighian tubules in cockroach are located at
(1) 2
(1) The junction of foregut & midgut
(2) 2000
(2) The junction midgut and hindgut
(3) 40000
(3) The junction of mesenteron and ileum
(4) 200000
(4) Both (2) and (3)
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156. Brain of cockroach is Represented by 160. Given below is a diagram of the head region of
(1) Sub - Pharyngeal ganglion cockroach with certain labeling. Find out the
option which include all correct labelling
(2) Supra-pharyngeal ganglion
(3) Sub-Oesophageal ganglion
(4) Supra-Oesophageal ganglion
157. The structures that help in excretion in
cockroach are
(1) Fat bodies
(2) Uricose glands
(3) Malpighian tubules
(4) (1), (2) & (3) (1) A-compound eye B-Ocellus
158. Cockroach moves on the rough surface by . (2) C-Mandible D-Labium
(1) Arolium (2) Pulvilus (3) E-labrum F-Maxilla
(3) Claw (4) Plantulae (4) G-Antenna D-Labium
159. Following are the characters of female 161. In each body segment of Cockroach
Reproductive system of cockroach, Find the exoskeleton has hardened plated called
correct statements.
(1) Sclerites
(i) Ovaries of Female cockroach are located
from 2nd to 6th abdominal segment (2) Setae
(ii) on an average Female produces 9-10 (3) Chaetae
ootheca (4) Nacre
(iii) Each ootheca contain 14-16 fertilized eggs.
162. In both sexes of Cockroach, the 10th segment
(iv) A pair of spermatheca is present in the 6th
bears a pair of jointed filamentous structures
segment of Abdomen
called ?
(1) ii & iii
(1) Anal styles
(2) i, iii, iv
(2) Antennae
(3) i, ii, iii
(3) Maxillary palp
(4) i, ii, iii, iv
(4) Anal cerci
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163. Identify the Grinding mill in the given diagram 167. Examples of economically important insect is :-
of digestive system of cockroach (1) Limulus (2) Apis
(3) Anopheles (4) Locusta
168. In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in
which part of the reproductive system :-
(1) Vas deferens
(2) Seminal vesicles
(3) Mushroom glands
(4) Testes
169. Malpighian tubules of cockroach excrete uric
acid through :-
(1) E (2) C (3) D (4) B
(1) Hind gut
164. Cockroach is :
(2) Fore gut
(1) Ammonotelic (2) Guanotelic
(3) Midgut
(3) Ureotelic (4) Uricotelic
(4) Both (1) and (3)
165. A characteristic mushroom shaped gland is
present in the ....... segmetns in Male 170. The genital pouch of female cockroach is
Cockroach which functions as an accessory formed by :-
reproductive gland.
(1) 6,7,8th tergum
(1) 5-6 Abdominal
(2) 6,7,8th sternum
(2) 6-7 Abdominal
(3) 7,8,9th tergum
(3) 2-3 Thoracic
(4) 7,8,9th sternum
(4) 2-6 Abdominal
171. Which type of wings are related with flying in
166. Which of the following is not a sensory
structure of arthopoda :- cockroach ?
(1) Malpighian tubules (1) Forewings
(2) Ocelli/simple eye (2) Tegmina
(3) Antenna (3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Statocyst (4) Hind wings
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172. In Cockroach ...... are the main excretory 176. Number of segments in cockroach leg :
organs and they excrete ........ is their (1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 9
nitrogenous waste product.
Fill in the blank spaces with correct options: 177. Maximum digestion takes place in which part
of cockroach ?
(1) Trachea, Uric acid respectively
(1) in crop (2) In Gizzard
(2) Malpighian tubules, Uric acid respectively
(3) In mesenteron (4) In oesophagous
(3) Nephrocytes, Urea respectively
178. Cockroach is :
(4) Malpighian tubules, Ammonia resectively (1) Nocturnal and omnivorous
173. Pickout the correct statements with respect to (2) Diurinal and omnivorous
cockroach : (3) Nocturnal and carnivorous
(a) Spermetheca is a part of male reproductive (4) None
system.
(b) Ootheca contains 14-16 unfertilised eggs 179. Collaterial glands of cockroach help in :
(c) Collateral glands are present in male (1) Fertilization
reproductive tract. (2) Formation of ootheca
(d) Female on an overage produces 9-10
(3) Copulation
Oothecae.
(1) a, b & c (2) a & d (4) Formation of oothecal chamber
180. In the life history of cockroach (Periplaneta)
(3) b & d (4) d only There is :
174. Mark the incorrect match w.r.t. function - (1) No Metamorphosis
(1) Seminal vesicles - Storage of sperm (2) Paurometabolous metamorphosis
(2) Phallic gland - Covering of spermatophore (3) Complete metamorphosis
(3) Collaterial gland - Oothecal covering (4) Anamorphosis
(4) Phallomeres - Nourishing sperms 181. Which of the following structures does not
175. Heart of cockroach consists of elongated open into the genital chamber of female
muscular tube lying cockroaches ?
(1) Mid ventral line of thorax (1) A single median oviduct

(2) Mid ventral line of abdomen (2) Spermatheca

(3) Lateral to the alimentary canal (3) A pair of anal cerci

(4) Mid dorsal line of thorax and abdomen (4) A pair of collateral glands
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182. Select the correct sequence of organs in the 185. Match the Column-I and Column-II correctly.
alimentary canal of cockroach starting from Column-I Column-II
mouth :
(A) Ovary (i) 10th segment
(1) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Crop →

Gizzard → lleum → Colon → Rectum (B) Gizzard (ii) Excretary organ

(2) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard → Malpighian
(C) (iii) Grinding of food
Crop → lleum → Colon → Rectum tubules

(3) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard → 2-6th abdominal

(D) Anal cerci (iv)
lleum → Crop → Colon → Rectum segment

(4) Pharynx → Oesophagus → lleum → Crop (1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
→ Gizzard → Colon → Rectum
(2) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
183. Which of the following characteristic is (3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
incorrect with respect to cockroach ?
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(1) A ring of gastric caeca is present at the
junction of midgut and hind gut. SECTION-II
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
(2) Hypopharynx lies within the cavity
can choose to attempt any 10 question out of
enclosed by the mouth parts.
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
(3) In females, 7th,-9th sterna together form a more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
genital pouch. questions will be considered for marking.
(4) 10th abdominal segment in both sexes, 186. What are the epidermal cells producing
bears a pair of anal cerci. movable bristles in cockroach known as ?
184. Find out the incorrect pair w.r.t. cockroach. - (1) Trichocysts
(1) A pair of testis - 4th - 6th abdominal (2) Interstitial cells
segmental
(3) Trichogen cells
(2) Mushroom gland 6-th - 7th abdominal
segmental (4) Oenocytes
(3) Titillator - Left phallomere 187. In cockroach, wings are

(4) Innermost layer of spermatophore - small (1) Prothoracic (2) Metathoracic

tubules (3) Mesothoracic (4) Both 2 and 3
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188. Longest podomere of cockroach's leg is 193. Find out the incorrect match w.r.t. location of
structures in cockroach.
(1) Coxa
(1) Testes - 4th-6th abdominal segment
(2) Trochanter or femur (2) Ovaries - 2nd-6th abdominal segment
(3) Tibia (3) Mushroom gland - 6th - 7th abdominal segment
(4) Tarsus (4) Spermathecae - 7th - 8th segment
189. The total number of ganglia in cockroach are 194. The given diagram is of reproductive system of
female cockroach with some labellings. Which
(1) Three thoracic and three abdominal labelled structure represents vagina of
(2) Three thoracic and six abdominal cockroach ?
(3) Three thoracic and eight abdominal
(4) Two thoracic and six abdominal
190. Palpigers are structures present on insect's
(1) Labrum (2) Labium
(3) Antennae (4) Maxillae (1) A and B (2) D only
191. ....... is the part of alimentary canal of (3) C and D (4) B and C
cockroach which secretes peritrophic 195. Find out the correct identification and
membrane explantion related to given structure
(1) Gizzard (2) Midgut
(3) Oespophagus (4) Crop
192. Read the following statements
(a) The haemolymph is composed of coloured
plasma and haemocytes.
(b) Head is triangular in shape and lies
(1) Labrum → Upper lip withy sensory setae
anteriorly at right angles to the longitudinal
body axis. (2) Mandible → These are appendages having
(c) Blood vascular system of cockroach is an grinding and incising region
open type.
(d) The entire midgut is lined by cuticle. (3) Maxilla → Present beneath the mandible
How many statements are correct w.r.t. on either side of head capsule
Periplaneta americana ?
(4) Labium → Lower lip and has labial palp
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 1 respond to taste and smell
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196. Common duct of salivary gland of cockroach 200. Male and female cockroach differ due to
open near the base of which of the following presence or absence of which structure ?
structure ? (1) Anal cerci and anal style
(2) Anal cerci
(3) Anal style
(4) Anal setae
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

197. What is the function of spiracular nervous

system in cockroach ?
(1) Regulate the activity of hindgut
(2) Regulate the activity of gonads
(3) Regulate the activity of foregut
(4) Control the activities of spiracles
198. Function of Antennae in cockroach is :
(1) Tactile and olfactory receptor
(2) Gustato receptor
(3) Auditory receptor
(4) Olfactory receptor
199. In cockroach stink gland is found in ?
(1) 4th and 5th terga (2) 5th and 6th terga
(3) 5th and 6th sterna (4) 4th and 5th sterna
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