MOCK PORTAL

SOLUTIONS

THE MOST AUTHORITATIVE

GMAT SOLUTIONS EVER WRITTEN

Verbal
(Mid-course)
Revision Test 1
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1. C

Purpose: Through her narrative, the author wants to describe how Thurgood Marshall
argued against segregation in the courts through his time at the NAACP, and in various
landmark battles leading up to Brown v. Board of Education. It would be somewhat inaccurate
to credit the author with a Main Idea here; rather, she approvingly reports the main idea of
scholars, namely that Marshall’s earlier strategies laid the legal groundwork for his later
destruction of the “separate but equal” doctrine.

Paragraph Structure: ¶1 introduces the scope of the passage leading back from Brown v.
Board of Education to Thurgood Marshall’s earlier career, as well as the scholars’ notion that
Marshall’s early segregation cases were necessary to establish legal precedents against
discrimination, as a foundation for his success with Brown. Clearly, the author intends to step
us through these precedents in later paragraphs.

First, some background. ¶2 discusses Marshall’s time with the NAACP, and the two opposing
strategies within the organization to oppose “separate but equal” laws. While Marshall had
faith in the ultimate victory of strategy #2 (the rejection of “separate but equal” as utterly
impossible and illogical), he had to rely on #1 (the argument that African-American facilities
weren’t equal, and in so doing trying to improve opportunities for African-Americans).
“BACKGROUND; BROAD STRATEGIES” might be your notes next to ¶ 2.

¶3 discusses how Marshall made the leap from strategy #1 to #2. Several examples are used,
but the major one is 1948’s Shelley v. Kraemer, in which Marshall used sociological data
proving that the sum total of a series of individual discriminatory practices
“constituted…unsupportable discrimination.” This was an important leap into the second
strategy as defined in ¶2; Marshall was able to use sociological data again in Brown, since
using this strategy in Shelley established its legal precedence. To fill out your Roadmap,
circling the names of the cases in ¶ 3 would be useful; so might the note “HOW T.M. ENDED
SEPARATE-BUT-EQUAL.” You need to recognize that ¶ 3 completes the circle that ¶ 1 began.

The Big Picture:

Sometimes the author simply reports someone else’s “big idea” instead of propounding one
of her own. As long as she is squarely behind that idea, it’ll make no difference to your
approach to the questions. It’s when the author and other writers differ that you must be on
your guard.

To keep track of the author’s stances, watch for Emphasis Keywords—signals of what the
author finds important or impressive. This passage features several: “his successful
argument,” “necessary forerunners,” “Marshall correctly believed,” “enjoyed several
successes,” “his successful use of the strategy.”

As noted earlier, there are four various references to “success” throughout the passage, and
we can readily see the “strategy” of ¶ 2 that led to the “successful legal argument” of Brown.
(A) is way too broad in its focus on Marshall the attorney rather than Marshall the strategist.
“Reveal the details”? A full-length biography couldn’t do justice to (A), let alone a passage.
(B)’s scope, meanwhile, is way too narrow, restricted as it is to a small portion of ¶ 2.
(D) One can well imagine other litigators taking some valuable lessons in patience and
ingenuity from Marshall, but the author never goes there.
(E) gets the emphasis all wrong. The author is trying to “call attention to “Marshall’s legal
strategizing, not to highlight “separate but equal.”

2. C
Purpose: The author seeks to present Haraway’s unique and new slant on how science and
nature interrelate. If there’s a Main Idea, it’s that Haraway’s thesis (that science and nature
are one, not separate) and style (freewheeling, and inclusive of a lot of pop sources beyond
traditional scholarship) are going to be hard for many to swallow.

Paragraph Structure: ¶1 points to the broad thrust of Haraway’s book, identifying it as both
ambitious in scope and inventive in its use of primatology as a means of exploring humans
and our science. “H’S SCOPE & THEME” is a good way to sum this ¶ up.

In a lengthy ¶ 2, the author summarizes the bulk of Haraway’s views and contrasts them
sharply with a traditionalist stance. The gist of it is that it’s wrong to separate the “knower”—
the person studying nature or history—from the object of the knowing. To Haraway, both
humans and the creatures of nature participate in the knowing process. Also in contrast to
the conventional view, Haraway opts for multiple and partial realities instead of espousing a
single reality. “H’S VIEWS” might be written next to ¶ 2. The author never explicitly signs on
to Haraway’s viewpoint in ¶ 2, but the bold and energetic language suggests that this is not
a man who finds Haraway’s views especially objectionable. Quite the contrary.

The scope of ¶ 3 is “H’S STYLE,” and that style is presented as being every bit as iconoclastic
as its author’s ideas. All in all Primate Visions is cited as “a complex alternative to traditional
history,” though it is less a grand unified history than a compendium of “distinct voices.”

¶ 4 takes us into “H AND CULTURE.” Haraway has no compunctions about dragging TV and
movies and sci-fi into her presumably scholarly treatise, and the author leads us to believe
that many—presumably traditionalists—are going to be uncomfortable with her.

(A) misses the topic (Haraway’s book) and distorts the scope; gender and class are factors
raised in ¶ 1 but far from the content of the rest.
(B) “Two different methods”? But the passage is all about what one writer, Haraway, did.
“Writing”? That’s ¶ 3 only. “The history of science”? Too broad and leaves out the
science/nature disjunction. Otherwise (B) is fine.
(C) fits our pre-phrase like a glove, except that we didn’t anticipate the “proposal” idea. But
if (C) is right, then there must be a proposal at the heart of this thing; let’s check it. “She
proposes an approach…” That’s in the middle of ¶ 2 which, we should recall, explains the
thrust of the Haraway thesis. Yes, Haraway does propose, does want, to change the way
science and nature are viewed. (C) is an eminently satisfactory précis of the text. Having
found (C), which fits so well, we go into (D) and (E) knowing that they must be poor. But we
will check them for the record anyway, just to be sure.
(D)’s first seven words may sound vaguely like what’s being discussed in the passage, but
that’s moot, because to reduce this passage to a speculation on “the history of women in
science” (emphasis ours) is a huge distortion.
(E) narrows the focus to “writing styles,” which (at best) covers ¶ 3 only.

3. B

Purpose: The author’s aim is to explore how we might go about reconciling the two. That
reconciliation plan, as it were, is the Main Idea. In a nutshell, the idea is that there ought to
be an investigation into which side is right: “To break the impasse between the two
philosophies, we must investigate the authority of each perspective.”

Paragraph Structure: ¶1 introduces objectivism; as the word implies, it involves hard

science and what can be measured in order to study the mind. Only with hard data can we
find reliable knowledge, says this group. Hard science has surpassed, according to
objectivists, the ineffectual method of recording an individual’s feelings and sensations.

As we might expect, ¶2 presents the subjectivist perspective: Hard science is fine until it
conflicts with data gathered by introspection. Knowledge is more than objective fact; it’s also
subjective experience. Each ¶ is easily defined by a quick note off to the side: “OBJ” and
“SUBJ,” respectively. Where, you might ask at this point, is the author going? He has laid out
the two approaches; so what?

Quickly, ¶3 reveals that the issue is how to reconcile them; and just as quickly, the author
concedes the unlikelihood of any reconciliation. That’s because the two viewpoints share no
common assumptions or beliefs, so there can be no effective argument between the two
camps. “RECONCILIATION HARD” is what you might write next to the ¶ in your test booklet.

¶4: The author wants us to “get” the problem, so he explains an analogous situation, likening
this debate to one between different religions as to the creation of the universe. Each side is
confident in its own version of events, so the only way to end the conflict is to investigate the
authority of the texts upon which each of the creations stories is based.

In ¶5, the author proposes that this same solution be applied in the objectivist/subjectivist
debate over the study of the mind. We must question the authority of both, he says; and that
sounds like a job for epistemology, the study of knowledge.

We saw that the passage picks up in interest in ¶ 3 and beyond, when the author gets past
sheer definitions to an idea for resolving a philosophical debate. That purpose, illustrated by
¶ 4 and fully described in ¶ 5, is pretty clearly reflected in (B).
(A) The very fact that the author seeks reconciliation suggests that both approaches have
some validity. But (A)’s omission of the reconciliation idea renders a death blow to this
answer choice.
(C), (D) The purpose is neither to “criticize” one approach nor to “defend” one over the other.
As with (A), both choices’ failure to focus on the proposed reconciliation effort dooms them.
(E) The “legitimacy” of the two perspectives is exactly what the author wants to have studied.
He cannot “evaluate” that legitimacy in this passage because the work hasn’t yet been done.

4. B

Purpose: The author’s strongly-articulated purpose is to advocate a particular ethical

stance. That stance turns out to be the Main Idea: Instead of acting as the client’s stooge or
mouthpiece, the defense lawyer has to keep in mind responsibilities to the court and to
society at large.

Paragraph Structure: ¶ 1 begins with a question that sounds rhetorical at first, but then a
group’s answer to the question is described – and it turns out to be a group to which the
author will be antagonistic. If you’re defending a client, must you believe that s/he is
innocent? Nope, say some scholars; you’re supposed to be the client’s advocate, assembling
the facts to the client’s advantage, and presenting the kind of case the client would were s/he
so trained. Save the “judging” of the client for the judge.

From its opening Contrast Keyword “But,” ¶ 2 prepares us for a very different position on
the issue, courtesy of our author: You, the attorney, have a duty to the court and to society.
The author elaborates on what that is: If you sincerely believe that the client is innocent, then
go for it, but if you know the client is guilty, don’t deny it. Instead, simply tilt the facts towards
leniency as far as you can. That’s what society would want you to do. ¶ 4 just expands on the
general point of view, the last sentence especially. (You might have noticed that back in ¶ 2,
the author fails to consider the situation in which the attorney only suspects that the client is
guilty. But given the next to last sentence of ¶ 3 we can probably guess at the author’s answer:
Don’t take the case.)

The author uses the phrases “should” or “should not” a total of six times. There can be no
clearer indication of the author’s purpose. Always watch for words and phrases that the
author keeps repeating. Remember, s/he does so for a reason!

The sheer repetition of “should” and “should not” reveals the advocacy at the heart of the
passage, and only (B) picks up on it. (B) reasserts the “twofold obligation” in other, wordier
terms.

(A) “Ethical dilemmas” are not part of the Scope; rather, the author is providing broad hints
of how to handle the ethics of the profession. Hence, he is trying to clarify things, not
complicate them. (C) deals with that which is, whereas the passage is concerned with that
which should be. For that reason, (C) is wholly outside of the Scope.
(D) is too narrow, limiting the discussion solely to the issue of when and whether an attorney
should accept a case. That’s discussed, or at least hinted at, but only in a couple of sentences.
(E) waves the flag and gets all generalized and pseudo-eloquent, but it has nothing to do with
the purpose and scope of this passage, which is quite specific.
5. D
¶ 1 begins by defining the characteristics of the traditional community, and then details the
technological changes that have led to the decline of the traditional community and the
forming of computer conferences. At the end of ¶ 2 you have to figure that the author’s
Purpose is either going to be to take a pro or con stand on the question, or merely to explain
it without asserting a view.

Structurally, ¶ 2 and ¶ 3 are interestingly parallel. Each presents a pair of arguments for a
position, a brief first opinion and then a second, lengthier, clearly more important argument.
¶ 2 is the advocates’ position. To them, the common topics of computer conferences is clearly
less persuasive than are the elaborate conventions, that create an essential support system
for conference participants, one that is not unlike the traditional community as described in
¶ 1. Meanwhile, that “But” in and of itself signals the author’s overall Purpose: to rebut the
advocates’ argument. He accomplishes it in ¶ 3. To the author, the limiting need for computer
literacy takes a back seat to the real issue: Computer conferences are self-selecting groups
lacking the “non-intentionality” and “genuine diversity” of the traditional community. The
author ends by urging conference participants to get out of the house.

(D) serves to sum up the author’s dissenting view of the viability of the computer-conference
“community.” And (D) gains strength by acknowledging, as the author does, that his
opponents have a point.
(A) is a 180, the confident phrase “can substitute effectively” summing up the view with
which our author emphatically takes issue.
(B) is a state of affairs the author would like to see happen—computer users interacting with
their real-life neighbors—but he only recommends doing so and actually sounds forlorn
rather than optimistic.
(C) is a point that the author concedes to his opponents, that yes, computer conferences can
be respectful and supportive. And (E) goes a dangerous step beyond the author’s views as
asserted here, by suggesting that even if his main objections (limited computer access and
lack of diversity) were met, he still wouldn’t be satisfied, would still say that computer
conferences are “unacceptable substitutes.” One cannot put words into an author’s mouth
that way.
6. B
Due to competition from a recently opened SpendLess discount department store, discount
stores in Goreville's central shopping district are expected to close within five years. But
those locations will not be vacant long, for new stores have replaced all those that closed
because of the opening five years ago of a Colson's non-discount department store.

The question is which option would most weaken the argument? The arguer infers that
stores that leave because of the SpendLess will be replaced in their locations by other stores
because that is what happened after the Colson's department store came in. Since the
reasoning relies on a presumed similarity between the two cases, any information that
brings to light a relevant dissimilarity would weaken the argument. If the stores that were
driven out by Colson's were replaced mostly by discount stores, that suggests that the stores
were replaced because of a need that no longer exists after the opening of SpendLess.

A. The fact that Colson's may be seeing fewer customers does not mean that the discount
stores that close will not be replaced; they might be replaced by stores that in no way
compete with Colson's or SpendLess.
B. Correct. This option most seriously weakens the argument.
C. If anything, this strengthens the argument by indicating that Goreville's central
shopping district is thriving.
D. This, too, strengthens the argument because one is more likely to open a new store in
an area with a growing population.
E. Because this statement does not indicate whether any of these stores that offer goods
not sold at SpendLess or Colson's will be among those that are closing, it is not
possible to determine what effect it has on the strength of the argument.
7. C
Veterinarians generally derive some income from selling various manufacturers' pet-care
products, but very few veterinarians accepted free promotional materials from one such
manufacturer to mail to their clients.

What would most help explain why so few veterinarians accepted the free promotional
materials to mail to their clients? The passage says that veterinarians generally derive
income from selling pet-care products, which suggests that it should have been in many
veterinarians' financial interest to accept and mail out the free promotional materials to
increase sales. Any evidence that mailing out these specific promotional materials from this
manufacturer would not actually have been in many veterinarians' financial interest could
help explain why so few veterinarians accepted the materials.

A. This suggests that most of the veterinarians should have had a financial interest in
accepting and mailing out the promotional materials in order to increase their sales of
the manufacturer's products.
B. Even if the promotional materials supplemented the manufacturer's usual promotional
activities, they could still have increased the veterinarians' sales of the manufacturer's
products and thus generated more income for the veterinarians.
C. Correct. If this manufacturer's products are available in pet stores and supermarkets but
most other products sold by veterinarians are not, then distributing the manufacturer's
promotional materials could have encouraged customers to buy this manufacturer's
products from pet stores and supermarkets rather than to buy competing products from
the veterinarians. Thus, the veterinarians may have been concerned that the promotions
would reduce their profits.
D. The passage says the manufacturer's products are of high quality, so we have no reason
to suppose that clients' demand for quality products would discourage veterinarians
from accepting the manufacturer's promotional materials.
E. Presumably the manufacturer's products are specially formulated for pets, so any
products veterinarians recommend only when no specially formulated pet-care products
are available would not reduce the veterinarians' interest in promoting the
manufacturer's products.
8. E
It is generally thought that the reason scientists tend to do their most creative work before
age forty is that creative capacity declines with age. Yet those scientists who do creative work
after forty tend, disproportionately, to have started their careers in science later in life. So a
better explanation is that many scientists over forty have just been at it too long.

What roles do the two portions of the argument that are in boldface play? The argument
describes a phenomenon and what is commonly thought to explain it. Then, the first
boldfaced statement introduces evidence that suggests that there may be another
explanation. After this evidence is further developed, the argument then concludes that there
is indeed a better explanation for the phenomenon; that explanation is stated in the second
boldfaced portion.
A. The accuracy of the first statement is never called into question by the argument; rather,
it is relied upon as the basis for the argument's conclusion.
B. The first statement is not an objection against the position the argument defends; instead,
it is a basis for that position.
C. The first statement is not used to support a position the argument challenges, and the
second statement is the explanation the argument supports, not the one it challenges.
D. The second statement is indeed an explanation that the argument favors; but the first
statement is not used to support a competing explanation that the argument challenges.
E. Correct. This option correctly identifies the roles played by the boldfaced portions of the
argument.
9. E
Market research shows that improving some amenities for economy-class passengers would
allow NorthAir to raise its economy ticket prices more than enough to cover the additional
cost of providing those amenities. But NorthAir has decided not to improve those amenities,
even though it is looking for ways to improve its profitability.

What would most help explain why NorthAir decided not to improve the seating and other
amenities, even though the resulting increase in economy-class ticket prices would more
than cover the expense? NorthAir is looking for ways to improve its profitability. Making
improvements that would increase ticket prices enough to generate more revenue than they
cost should improve profitability, other things being equal. But if improving the amenities
would generate side effects that reduced profitability, those side effects would provide a
good reason for NorthAir's decision not to improve the amenities and hence would help
explain why NorthAir made that decision.

A. The passage says that for NorthAir, the cost of providing better economy seating and
other amenities would be more than met by the increased revenue from the higher ticket
prices that passengers would be willing to pay. This could give NorthAir a competitive
edge, with improved profitability.
B. Even if NorthAir faces little or no competition on certain routes, offering extra amenities
might increase passengers' interest in flying those routes. It might also lead passengers
to choose NorthAir on other routes that competing airlines also serve. Both of these
effects could improve NorthAir's profitability.
C. Even if a few NorthAir economy passengers would not pay more for extra amenities, the
market research indicates that most of them would, so offering the amenities could still
improve NorthAir's profits attributable to economy-class seating.
D. This suggests that improving the amenities would not increase the total number of
NorthAir passengers. But improving the amenities might still enable the airline to
increase its ticket prices per passenger enough to improve its profitability.
E. Correct. This suggests that improving the economy-class amenities would reduce
NorthAir's revenue from sales of business-class tickets, which are likely much more
expensive than economy-class tickets. This reduction in revenue could be enough to
reduce NorthAir's total profitability despite the increased revenue from economy-class
ticket sales.
10. D
Asthma is more common among competitive swimmers than among other competitive
athletes. Chlorine is a lung irritant generally present in swimming pool water.

What would cast doubt on the hypothesis that exposure to chlorine in swimming pools
accounts for the high incidence of asthma among adult competitive swimmers? Evidence of
any other factor that would provide an alternative explanation of why asthma is more
common among adult competitive swimmers than among other competitive athletes would
make it rash to assume that frequent exposure to chlorine explains the high incidence of
asthma among these swimmers, so a statement providing such evidence would logically fill
in the blank at the end of the passage to complete the argument.

A. This might help explain why competitive athletes in general are not especially likely to
have asthma, but it does not explain why adult competitive swimmers are more likely to
have asthma than other competitive athletes are.
B. This provides additional evidence that exposure to chlorine explains why adult
competitive swimmers are more likely to have asthma than other competitive athletes
are, so it does not cast doubt on that hypothesis.
C. A lower incidence of asthma among competitive athletes than among nonathletes does
not help explain the higher incidence of asthma among adult competitive swimmers than
among other competitive athletes.
D. Correct. Routinely encouraging children with asthma to take up competitive swimming
would likely have made the proportion of adult competitive swimmers with asthma
exceed the proportion of other competitive athletes with asthma, even if chlorine in
swimming pool water never causes asthma in swimmers.
E. This might help explain why people with asthma are just as likely as other people to
become competitive athletes, but it does not help explain why adult competitive
swimmers are more likely to have asthma than other competitive athletes are.
11. D
A review in 1994 revealed that every year since 1963, Marut's Foreign Trade Agency had
seriously underestimated what Goro's GNP would be five years later, but accurately
estimated what Goro's GNP had been the previous year.

What conclusion do the stated facts most strongly support? Goro's GNP in each year at least
from 1969 through 1993 had been seriously underestimated by the agency five years in
advance, yet was then accurately estimated by the agency one year after the fact. It follows
that for each of these years, the agency's earlier projection of Goro's GNP must have been
much lower than its later estimate.

A. This is not supported by the information given. The fact that the agency consistently
underestimated each year's GNP in its five-year projections and then correctly estimated
it after the fact does not indicate that Goro's GNP fluctuated greatly.
B. This is not supported by the information given. The reason the agency's five-year
projections were inaccurate might well have been that Goro deliberately released data
intended to mislead the agency in making those projections.
C. This is not supported by the information given. The fact that the underestimates
remained large throughout the years in question does not indicate that the
underestimates increased over time.
D. Correct. As explained above, for many years there were serious discrepancies between
the agency's five-year projections of Goro's GNP and its retrospective estimates of each
previous year's trade. In any year at least from 1970 through 1993, these discrepancies,
if noticed, would have given the agency reason to doubt some of the five-year projections.
E. This is not supported by the information given. Even though at least some of the five-year
projections were eventually known to be serious underestimates, they could still have
affected Marut's economic planning. The economic planners might have retained an
unreasonable faith in the accuracy of the most recent projections.
12. E
Bumblebees visit both larkspur and dandelions in certain meadows. A study found that more
larkspur seeds were produced in meadow plots in which both larkspur and dandelions grew
than in similar plots from which all dandelions had been removed. The researchers inferred
that dandelions facilitate larkspur pollination.

What evidence would cast the most doubt on the inference from the study's findings to the
conclusion that dandelions facilitate larkspur pollination by attracting more pollinators? The
argument assumes that the only relevant difference between the two types of plots was
whether dandelions were present. Evidence that the plots differed in some other way that
could provide a plausible alternative explanation of why more larkspur seeds were produced
in the plots with dandelions would weaken the argument.

A. This would suggest that the larkspur pollination should have been lower in the plots with
dandelions, so it does not provide a plausible alternative explanation for the study's
findings.
B. This is fully compatible with the claim that the dandelions attracted more pollinators to
the mixed plots, and it would also help to support the argument's conclusion that
dandelions facilitated larkspur pollination in those plots.
C. Although this suggests that the mixed plots won't remain mixed for long, it does not
provide a plausible alternative explanation for the study's finding that larkspur seed
production was higher in the mixed plots.
D. The argument is not about how fit larkspurs are as a species, but about why they
produced different numbers of seeds in the different plots.
E. Correct. This provides a plausible alternative explanation for why larkspur seed
production was lower in the plots from which dandelions had been removed, since
digging them out would have disturbed the soil.
13. A
Moneyland operates seventeen casinos, the most in a certain state, and is intent on
expanding. Another operator, Apex Casinos, is acquiring the Eldorado casino chain, but must
sell five casinos to comply with a state law forbidding any owner to operate more than one
casino per county. After these transactions, Apex will operate twenty casinos in the state.

What observation would cast the most doubt on the prediction that Apex will have the most
casinos in the state after the transactions? Apex will operate twenty casinos, whereas
Moneyland now operates just seventeen, and no one else operates even that many. It follows
that Apex will operate more casinos after its transactions than Moneyland or any other one
owner now operates. However, if Moneyland also acquires three or more casinos during the
transactions, then Apex will not have the most casinos in the state afterward. Thus, any
observation suggesting that Moneyland is about to acquire several casinos would undermine
the prediction.

A. Correct. Since Apex is acquiring Eldorado, Moneyland and Apex will be the only
remaining licensed casino operators in the state. Therefore, Moneyland is the only
likely buyer for the five casinos Apex needs to sell. So Moneyland is likely to acquire
the five casinos during the sale and end up with twenty-two casinos—more than
Apex.
B. This does not undermine the prediction. Even if the Eldorado casinos cannot operate
profitably for long without extensive renovations, Apex will still have twenty casinos
immediately after its transactions.
C. This supports rather than undermines the prediction. If fewer counties permit
casinos, there will be fewer opportunities for Moneyland or any other operator to
acquire more casinos to surpass the twenty Apex will own.
D. This supports rather than undermines the prediction. If Moneyland's seventeen
casinos are in most of the state's counties already, then there are fewer counties in
which Moneyland could acquire additional casinos to surpass the twenty Apex will
own.
E. This supports rather than undermines the prediction. Apex's use of the funds from
selling the five casinos to acquire the Eldorado chain will not help anyone else to
acquire more casinos to surpass the twenty Apex will own.
14. B
A study shows that the more social contact people report, the better their mental skills are,
so engaging in social interaction is sufficient for maintaining mental sharpness.

What would suggest that the study does not establish the truth of the conclusion? The study
shows a correlation between mental sharpness and social interaction but does not indicate
why this correlation exists. Evidence that mental sharpness contributes to social interaction
or that some third factor affects both mental sharpness and social interaction, could provide
an alternative explanation for the correlation and thus cast doubt on the explanation that
social interaction contributes to mental sharpness.

A. People are often wrongly advised to do things that are not actually beneficial. And even
if exercising mental capacities does help to maintain them, the passage says that social
interaction provides such exercise.
B. Correct. This provides evidence that the correlation observed in the study results from
mental sharpness facilitating social interaction, in which case the study results do not
indicate that social interaction facilitates mental sharpness.
C. This would be expected, given the argument's conclusion that social interaction helps to
maintain better mental skills overall.
D. A study that analyzes data from prior studies can provide evidence just as well as a study
that collects its own data can.
E. The argument's conclusion would be compatible with this observation, and would then
suggest that social interaction contributes to the mental sharpness needed for tasks
similar to math problems.
15. C
A company plans to increase the total efficiency of its farms in an arid region by drilling down
to an aquifer whose water will be used to raise fish in ponds and to help irrigate the farms'
vegetable fields. The ponds and accompanying vegetation should help reduce the heat
around the farms.

What would make it most likely that implementing the plan would increase the farms' overall
efficiency? The farms will become more efficient if the plan significantly increases their
production for little or no added cost.

A. Vegetation native to an arid region may be no more likely to thrive around ponds than
non-native vegetation would be, and in any case would not clearly increase the farms'
total crop production or efficiency.
B. This makes it slightly more likely that the plan would increase the farms' profitability,
not their efficiency or productivity.
C. Correct. Fertilizing the fields with the waste while irrigating the crops might significantly
improve crop production. But it would cost little or nothing extra, since the waste would
already be in the irrigation water. Thus, this feature of the plan would likely enhance the
farms' efficiency by increasing their productivity for no significant extra cost.
D. This government assistance might slightly reduce the work the company has to do to
procure a loan. But probably it would neither increase the farms' production nor reduce
the overall expense of implementing the plan (including the expense incurred by the
government).
E. If anything, this suggests that the plan might reduce the farms' efficiency by eliminating
productive crop land.
16. D
The Flyna Company sells furniture mostly made in Country X from local wood. Illegal logging
is widespread in Country X. Flyna has set up a certification scheme for lumber mills.
Specialized staff make surprise visits to Country X mills, inspect documentation to ensure
that the wood supply has a legal origin, and certify mills as approved sources for legally
obtained lumber. Flyna uses only lumber from certified mills. According to the argument,
Flyna's claim that its wood supply is legally obtained is justified.

What additional information would, if true, most undermine the justification for Flyna's
claim that its Country X wood is legally obtained? Clearly, much depends on the
thoroughness of the certification scheme. For example, the staff auditing the mills would
need to be qualified for the job and meticulous in meeting their responsibilities. The auditing
visits would need to be frequent enough, and not predictable by mill management. Flyna
would need to be genuinely committed to ensuring legality of wood sources; it would need
to monitor its staff to ensure that they were doing their jobs effectively.

A. This suggests that Flyna could make good judgments as to the competence and
trustworthiness of most of the inspectors hired to certify lumber mills.
B. This could provide a perverse incentive to loggers to violate legal restrictions on logging.
However, this would not undercut Flyna's justification for its claim that its system
ensures that all its lumber is legally sourced.
C. This has no bearing on whether Flyna's certification system will be effective in
guaranteeing that Flyna's lumber is legally sourced. We are not told, for example, that
Flyna has been unable to find enough qualified inspectors for the certification system to
be effective.
D. Correct. This means that 90 percent of Country X's certified lumber mills are not
inspected in any particular year. Moreover, since the selection of the 10 percent of lumber
mills to be inspected in a given year is random, some lumber mills might go for much
longer than ten years without inspection; during this period, many of those mills might
fall below certification standards and even use lumber illegally obtained.
E. This indicates that a significant amount of illegal logging occurs in Country X; this
suggests that it is possible that some illegally sourced wood could find its way to lumber
mills that Flyna uses and has certified. But the information given here is not sufficiently
specific to indicate that the Flyna certification system would fail to prevent the company's
use of illegally sourced wood.
17. D
Two automobile models XCT and ZNK are compared with respect to (1) what insurance
companies pay on average to replace a stolen vehicle and (2) what insurance companies pay
on average to repair a crashed vehicle. On (1), insurance companies pay less for XCTs than
for ZNKs. On (2), insurance companies pay more for repairing XCTs than ZNKs. An insurance
expert explains that repairs to XCTs are especially labor-intensive; this tends to raise the cost
of repairs.

Which piece of new information most strongly supports the expert's explanation for the fact
that the replacement value is greater for the car that has lower repair costs? We should look
for information that supplements the explanation in a way that shows the coherence of the
two facts given regarding insurance payments for the two cars.

A. The frequency of accidents is not directly relevant to the higher cost of collision repair
for those XCTs that are involved in collisions.
B. This information is not directly relevant to the higher cost of collision repair for XCTs. It
neither undermines nor supports the claim that XCT labor costs are higher per crashed
vehicle and does not help support that claim as an explanation for the discrepancy in
question.
C. This neither supports nor undermines the expert's explanation. If we had information
concerning the supply of XCT mechanics and ZNK mechanics relative to the demand for
each, we would have some evidence that could throw light on differences in labor costs.
D. Correct. ZNKs are more valuable because buyers know that total repair costs will be
lower. This is reflected in the market value of ZNKs compared to that of XCTs. Replacing
a stolen XCT costs insurance companies less than replacing a stolen ZNK because the
lower market value of XCTs is related in the high cost of collision repair.
E. This is unlikely to lower the market value of XCTs. The market value of XCTs is the factor
that determines how much it costs to replace a stolen XCT.
18. B
Continued high-level pesticide use often kills off the targeted pests' natural enemies. In
addition, the pests that survive the application of the pesticide may become resistant to it,
and these pesticide-resistant pests will continue breeding.

What can be done to prolong the effectiveness of pesticide use? It can be inferred that the
ongoing use of a particular pesticide will not continue to be effective against the future
generations of pests with an inherent resistance to that pesticide. What would be effective
against these future generations? If farmers periodically change the particular pesticide they
use, then pests resistant to one kind of pesticide might be killed by another. This would
continue, with pests being killed off in cycles as the pesticides are changed. It is also possible
that this rotation might allow some of the pests' natural enemies to survive, at least until the
next cycle.

A. Not enough information about chemically stable insecticides is given to make a sound
inference.
B. Correct. This statement properly identifies an action that could extend the effectiveness
of pesticide use.
C. Gradually increasing the amount of the pesticides being used will not help the situation
since the pests are already resistant to it.
D. Continued use of pesticides is assumed as part of the argument. Since pesticides would
be unnecessary for fallow fields, this suggestion is irrelevant.
E. Breeding higher-yielding varieties of crops does nothing to extend the effectiveness of
the use of pesticides.
19. B
Manufacturers must equip all cigarette lighters with child-resistant safety levers, but
children can figure out how to circumvent the safety levers and thereby often start fires.

What point would most logically complete the argument? What would make it likely that the
number of fires caused by children playing with lighters would remain the same? In order
for children to start fires using lighters equipped with safety levers, they must be given the
opportunity to figure out how the safety levers work and then to use them. They must, that
is, have access to the lighters.

A. If safety-lever-equipped lighters are more expensive than lighters that are not so
equipped, fewer lighters might be sold. This would most likely afford children less access
to lighters, thus giving them less opportunity to start fires with them.
B. Correct. This statement properly identifies a point that logically completes the
argument: it explains why children are likely to have access to lighters equipped with
safety levers.
C. The speed with which fires are extinguished does not have any bearing on the number of
fires that are started.
D. This provides a reason to believe that the number of fires started by children will most
likely decrease, rather than stay the same: fewer children will be able to operate the
lighters, and thus fewer fires are likely to be started.
E. This information about how many fires were started by children before safety levers
were required does not have any bearing on the question of how many fires are likely to
be started by children now that the safety levers are required.
20. A
In the Appenian railroad system, interurban routes generally carry enough passengers to be
profitable, but few rural routes do.

What would suggest that closing unprofitable rural routes would not enhance the railroad
system's profitability? Any evidence that closing the unprofitable rural routes would
indirectly reduce the profitability of other components of the railroad system would support
the conclusion that closing those rural routes will not enhance the system's profitability.
Thus, a statement providing such evidence would logically complete the passage.

A. Correct. This suggests that closing the rural routes could discourage many passengers
from traveling on the profitable interurban routes as well, thus reducing the profitability
of the railroad system as a whole.
B. Even if some of the least used rural routes have already been closed, it remains true that
most of the remaining rural routes are too little used to be profitable.
C. Closing very old routes would be at least as likely to enhance the railroad system's
profitability as closing newer routes would be.
D. Even if there is better railroad service to some large cities than others, closing
unprofitable rural routes could still enhance the system's profitability.
E. Even if suburban routes are the most heavily used and profitable, closing underused,
unprofitable rural routes could still enhance the system's profitability.
21. C
Smith-Diatom is trying to develop a new way to make dye-sensitive solar cells in hopes of
developing a means for using solar energy to produce lower-cost electricity. Their new
technology will use diatoms, single-celled algae with silicon shells that have a complex
structure. This structure results in increased photon activity, which results in more efficient
and lower-cost energy production than current dye-sensitive solar cells do.

What statement would provide the strongest support for the claim that Smith-Diatom's plan
would result in the production of lower-cost energy than can be attained from the current
dye-sensitive solar cells? One potential problem with Smith-Diatom's plan would be if the
intended use of diatoms would be costly. Any statement that ruled out a potentially costly
aspects of production, e.g., costly engineering processes, would provide support for the claim
in question.

A. Nothing in Smith-Diatom's plan is related to diatom's connection to oceanic food chains

or to their role in cycling carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
B. That producing electricity by means of dye-sensitive solar cells is much more costly than
other types of electricity production would help explain why Smith-Diatom wants to find
a lower-cost means of producing solar energy, but it does not give us reason to think that
Smith-Diatom's plan will be successful.
C. Correct. If no special engineering processes are needed to carry out Smith-Diatom's plan,
one potential costly aspect of solar-electricity production is ruled out, thereby providing
some reason to think Smith-Diatom's goal of producing lower-cost electricity might be
attainable.
D. The fact that dye-sensitive solar cells work more efficiently in lower light than other solar
cell technologies would help support the claim in question only if we knew that the cost
of producing such cells is not prohibitive. Also, it could be the case that although dye-
sensitive solar cells work more efficiently in lower light than other solar cell technologies,
the other solar cell technologies might work much more efficiently in good lighting
conditions.
E. If the production of dye-sensitive solar cells does not harm the environment, that might
be good reason to use such solar cells, but it is not relevant to determining whether
Smith-Diatom's plan will be likely to attain its goal.
22. D
Ackerburg's transit authority plans to lower subway fares, projecting that this will increase
ridership by 10 percent and thereby reduce or eliminate the subway system's operating
deficit.

What evidence would support the expectation that lowering subway fares will reduce the
operating deficit? The passage says the additional income from the projected increase in
ridership will more than offset the decrease due to the lowered fares. The claim that lowering
fares will reduce the operating deficit could be supported either by additional evidence that
lowering the fares will increase ridership at least as much as projected or by evidence that
the plan will not increase overall operating expenses.

A. The fact that fares have never been reduced provides no evidence about what would
happen if they were reduced.
B. This suggests that the planned fare reduction would not affect revenue from student
riders, but it does not suggest how it would affect revenue from all other riders.
C. These maintenance projects will probably increase the operating deficit, making it less
likely that the fare reduction will reduce or eliminate that deficit.
D. Correct. This indicates that the plan will not involve extra operating expenses for
running trains and thus increases the likelihood that the plan will reduce the operating
deficit.
E. Ackerburg may differ from other cities in the region in ways that make the higher fares
optimal for Ackerburg's subway system.
23. B
The northwest coast of North America has chevrons—large wedge-shaped mounds of
sediment—pointing toward the ocean. Two explanations have been offered for these
phenomena: (1) they were formed by erosion, according to most geologists; and (2) meteor
impacts caused massive waves that threw the formations up from the Pacific Ocean.

Which of the answer choices most helps to decide which explanation is correct? If (2) is the
true explanation, then one would expect evidence such as residues of ocean matter to be
present in chevrons. If (1) is the true explanation, the chevrons would need to be analyzed
to determine the sources of the eroded material, and the factors, such as wind or water, that
produced the erosion.

A. This information neither confirms nor conclusively eliminates either explanation (1) or
explanation (2). The scientists hypothesize is that these chevrons, at these locations on
the coast, were caused by meteor impacts, not that geological structures with a similar
shape are generally formed in that way. The scientists' reasoning is consistent with the
hypothesis that different wedge-shaped geological structures are formed in many
different ways.
B. Correct. The ocean microfossils containing metals typically found in meteors would
indicate that the metals were found in fossils that originated in the ocean. This provides
strong evidence that meteors landed in the ocean; the fact that the metals are now found
in the chevrons strongly supports explanation (2).
C. The oral-history testimony concerning flooding by ocean waves provides weak evidence
consistent with each of the two explanations. Erosion of rocks can deposit sediment, and
ocean waves could form mounds of such sediment.
D. This information points out that some additional bits of evidence that might help confirm
explanation (2) are currently lacking, but such evidence might be discovered later, and
the impacts might have occurred so long ago that all evidence of their exact locations has
been obliterated. The fact that such evidence happens to be lacking now does not
significantly count for or against either of the proposed explanations.
E. This indicates that some types of sedimentary structures (such as sand dunes) can be
shaped by ocean waves, but it gives no evidence of whether the chevrons might have
originated as sand dunes. It also gives no indication of whether the dunes in question
have a chevron shape or some other shape. So this does not provide information to
significantly support either of the explanations.
24. B
At the end of the workweek, Patrick is paid a certain amount for each hour of child care he
has provided. Patrick usually receives adequate weekly income under this arrangement, but
in the winter Patrick's income fluctuates, because children are unpredictably absent due to
illness.

Which plan would be most likely to meet the two goals of uniform weekly income and
adequate weekly income? Patrick must find a way to ensure that his weekly income is both
adequate—that is, not reduced significantly from current levels—and uniform—that is, not
subject to seasonal or other fluctuations. A successful plan would thus most likely be one that
does not increase Patrick's costs. Further, the plan need not increase Patrick's weekly
income; it must merely ensure that that income is more reliable. It should therefore also
provide some way to mitigate the unexpected loss of income from children's absences.

A. This plan might raise Patrick's income slightly, because he and the neighbor might pay
out less in costs if they pool their resources. But this plan would have no effect on the
problem that unpredictable absences pose for Patrick's weekly income.
B. Correct. This statement properly identifies a plan that would most likely keep Patrick's
income adequate (he would probably receive approximately the same amount of money
per child as he does now) and uniform (he would receive the money regardless of
whether a child was present or absent).
C. While this plan might somewhat mitigate the unpredictability in Patrick's income that
results from sick children's absences—because parents would be less likely to keep sick
children at home—it would increase Patrick's costs. Paying a helper and investing in
different facilities would reduce Patrick's income and might thus result in that income
being inadequate.
D. Under this plan, if we assume that parents did not balk at the increase in Patrick's hourly
rate and find alternative child care, Patrick's income would most likely be adequate. But
this plan would not help make Patrick's weekly income uniform. His income would
continue to fluctuate when children are absent. Remember, there are two goals with
regard to Patrick's income: adequacy and uniformity.
E. This plan might increase Patrick's income, in that he might be paid for more hours of child
care each week. The goals here, however, are to make Patrick's weekly income both
adequate and uniform, and this plan does not address the issue of uniformity.
25. A
North American consumers think that drinking frozen concentrated orange juice saves
energy because the concentrated juice can be transported in fewer truckloads than an
equivalent amount of not-from-concentrate juice. But more energy is required to
concentrate the juice than is saved by this reduction in the number of truckloads used for
transportation.

What additional evidence would most help to support the conclusion that drinking frozen
concentrated orange juice rather than not-from-concentrate juice does not save energy?
Factors other than the concentration process and the number of truckloads used for
transportation may also affect the amounts of energy used to provide the two types of juice.
Evidence of any such factor that increases the amount of energy needed to provide frozen
concentrated juice more than it increases the amount needed to provide the same amount of
not-from-concentrate juice would help to support the editorial's conclusion.

A. Correct. This suggests that it takes much more energy per truckload to transport frozen
concentrated juice than to transport not-from-concentrate juice, which is not frozen.
B. If anything, this suggests that a higher proportion of not-from-concentrate juice goes bad
and is discarded rather than being drunk. This waste would increase the amount of
energy used to provide each glass of not-from-concentrate juice that is drunk.
C. Since Brazil is far from North America, this suggests that the average amount of energy
used to transport each serving of not-from-concentrate juice may be increasing.
D. Since both types of juice must be kept cold until ready to drink, this suggests that a much
larger amount of space must be refrigerated to provide each serving of not-from-
concentrate juice. That may mean that more energy needs to be used to keep each serving
of not-from-concentrate juice cold.
E. It may take extra energy to keep the temperature of not-from-concentrate juice more
constant. If it does, that would increase the amount of energy used to provide each
serving of not-from-concentrate juice.
26. D
This sentence begins with a phrase, [t]he largest . . ., describing the main subject Jupiter. The
remainder of the sentence describes Jupiter’s size and possession of moons, using the idiom
not only x but y to introduce parallel adjective phrases.

A. In this version, so massive as Saturn violates the parallelism established by the idiom
as + adjective + as + noun. For the sake of clarity, the noun described by the opening
adjectival phrase should immediately follow that phrase. The phrase next larger is
unidiomatic and unclear. The superlative (largest) is appropriate in this
consideration of all the planets.
B. As in answer choice A, Jupiter should immediately follow the opening phrase.
C. This version violates the parallelism of the idiom not only x but y, following the first
half of the template with an adjective phrase and the second half with a verb phrase.
D. Correct. The placement of the subject in relation to the opening modifier, the
properly constructed phrasing, and the proper use of comparison words make the
meaning of the sentence clear.
E. The phrase so massive as violates the idiom as x as y. Consideration of Jupiter’s size
among all the planets, including Saturn, requires the superlative form, largest.
27. D
This sentence states that whereas many dinosaur fossils from China suggest that there is a
kinship between dinosaurs and birds, the wealth of fossils are more ambiguous about what
they suggest about the ancestry of birds. The word wealth is a mass noun followed by a
prepositional phrase; because wealth follows the article the, the emphasis is on it rather than
on the noun in the prepositional phrase, fossils. The singular wealth requires a singular main
verb (seems). The comparative expression more likely . . . must be followed by an infinitive
verb (to inflame) so it will be parallel to the verb with which it is compared (to settle).

A. The singular subject wealth does not agree with the plural verb seem; both items being
compared should be in parallel form (inflame and settle); the relative clause that they
will inflame violates the parallelism.
B. Again, the relative clause violates the desired parallelism; the singular subject, wealth,
requires a singular verb, seems.
C. The subject and the verb agree with one another, but the placement of the modifier at
this stage makes the modifier appear to describe origin of the birds rather than the verb
seems.
D. Correct. The verb seems agrees in number with the noun wealth; the infinitive to inflame
is parallel with the verb to which it is compared, to settle.
E. The clause wealth . . . seems more likely that it will inflame is not idiomatic, and that it
will inflame is not parallel with the infinitive verb to settle.
28. B
This sentence makes three points about hummingbirds: they live in the Western
Hemisphere, they survive extreme climates, and their range is wide and varied.
Hummingbirds, not hummingbirds’ range, should be the subject of the sentence.

A. The opening modifier, found . . . and surviving . . . should modify hummingbirds, not, as it
does, hummingbirds’ range.
B. Correct. Hummingbirds is the subject of the sentence, and the use of the absolute
phrase their range extending appropriately connects the final clause to the rest of the
sentence.
C. This version has no main verb for the subject Hummingbirds and as a result is
ungrammatical.
D. Like answer choice C, this version has no main verb for the subject Hummingbirds.
E. This version begins with the subject Hummingbirds attached to a pair of verb phrases
(are found . . . and survive . . .) followed by the conjunction and, which suggests that what
follows should also be a verb phrase; instead, a new subject is introduced, their range.
Replacing the comma before survive with and would render the sentence acceptable.
29. C
This sentence compares the success Jacobi experienced after moving to New York to the
success she had previously experienced in Germany. The phrase less successful anticipates
the conclusion of the comparison with the phrase than.. . . The main subject of the sentence
is photographer Lotte Jacobi, and the main verb is earned. The opening clause She was less
successful . . . therefore creates a comma splice if the comma is not followed by a conjunction.
The most efficient way to incorporate the information about Jacobi’s comparative successes
in Germany and in New York is to turn this clause into an adjectival phrase describing Jacobi.

A. Less successful . . . anticipates than rather than compared to. . .; a comma is insufficient to
join two independent clauses into a single sentence.
B. As compared to is an incorrect way to complete the comparison introduced by less; Being
. . . is unnecessarily wordy and awkward.
C. Correct. The idiomatic construction less successful . . . than is incorporated into an
introductory adjectival phrase modifying Lotte Jacobi.
D. When compared to is an incorrect phrase to complete the comparison introduced by less.
E. A comma is insufficient to join two independent clauses into a single sentence; past-
perfect tense is misleading, since it refers to Jacobi’s experience in New York, which in
fact followed her experience in Germany.
30. B
This sentence focuses attention on two hypotheses about black holes—one about their
location and the other about their mass. These hypotheses appear as parallel relative clauses
that black holes . . . exist at . . . and that the mass . . . is proportional. The subject of the first
relative clause (black holes) is plural, so the clause must be completed with the plural form
of exist.

A. This version does not provide the relative pronoun that to provide parallel structure for
presenting the two things scientific evidence reveals about black holes. This leaves it
somewhat unclear whether the final clause is intended to convey part of what the
scientists discovered or to express a claim that the writer is making independently of the
scientists’ discovery. The sentence illogically compares mass to galaxy.
B. Correct. The structure of the sentence makes the meaning clear, and the plural verb form
agrees with the plural subject.
C. The comma appears to signal that the final part of the sentence is intended as an
independent clause expressing a separate claim rather than describing part of the
scientists’ discovery. But if it were intended in that way, it should be set off as a separate
sentence, not conjoined with the preceding clause. Like answer choice A, this version
makes an illogical comparison between mass and galaxy.
D. The singular verb exists does not agree with the plural subject black holes. As in answer
choice C, the comma is inappropriate because it does not introduce a new independent
clause.
E. The singular verb exists does not agree with the plural subject black holes. Like answer
choice A, this version lacks the relative pronoun that, which would clarify the relationship
between the two clauses.
31. A
This sentence describes a cause-and-effect sequence; in the underlined portion of the
sentence, the relative pronoun that refers to the plural noun reactions. The verb in the
relative clause must therefore be a plural verb. The causal sequence is most clearly expressed
by a relative clause that turns the object emotional reactions (from the clause lying causes
emotional reactions in an individual) into the subject (that) of a new clause (that in turn
create unconscious physiological responses). In turn is best placed before the verb of the
second relative clause, create, to clarify that a chain of events is being described.

A. Correct. This construction clearly indicates the causal sequence.

B. The singular verb creates does not agree with the subject referenced by the relative
pronoun that (reactions).
C. This construction is less successful at clarifying the chain of events because creating
seems to refer back to lying; if used as a participial, creating would have to be preceded
by a comma.
D. This construction does not make clear the causal chain of events, because it is unclear
which noun to create should attach to; the infinitive construction implies intent, which
does not really make sense.
E. Because reactions is not a person, who is the wrong relative pronoun to use.
32. E
The phrase such . . . diseases like malaria and dengue is not a correct way in English to
indicate that the two diseases mentioned are examples of a larger category; the correct
expression is such . . . as. . . .

A. This use of such . . . like . . . is incorrect English; the correct expression is such . . . as.. . . It
is better to keep the preposition on close to the verb it goes with, focus, so as not to repeat
it.
B. The correct expression is such . . . as.. . . It is better to keep the preposition on close to the
verb it goes with, focus, so as not to repeat it. This use of the gerund vaccinating (followed
by of) would normally be preceded by the, but this would make the phrase awkward. It
would be preferable to use vaccination, which is parallel to extermination.
C. This answer choice incorrectly repeats the preposition on before exterminating.
D. This answer choice incorrectly repeats the preposition on before extermination. This use
of the gerund vaccinating (followed by of) would normally be preceded by the, but this
would make the phrase awkward. It would be preferable to use vaccination, which is
parallel to extermination.
E. Correct. This version uses either . . . or . . . correctly and appropriately uses the parallel
forms vaccinating and exterminating.
33. B
The point of the sentence is that dancers representing one chief perform at the court of
another chief in return for gifts. The court of each other is unidiomatic and unclear. It could
be intended to indicate, somewhat implausibly, that each team has a court that the other
teams visit, but represent their own chief strongly suggests that the court referred to is the
court of another chief. The correct pronoun to refer to a different chief is another.

A. The court of each other is unidiomatic and unclear. Each other seems to refer, somewhat
illogically, to the dancers.
B. Correct. The sentence clearly explains the idea, using the correct pronoun another and
the correct idiom in return for.
C. This could be confusing in that the other indicates that there is only one other chief,
whereas group of tribes suggests that there may be a number of chiefs. As a return on is
the incorrect idiom; a return on normally refers to a gain from an investment, not a direct
exchange of one good for another.
D. Each other’s court somewhat illogically indicates that the dancers each have a court.
Entertainment being provided in return for is awkward and indirect.
E. As a return on is the incorrect idiom; a return on normally refers to a gain from an
investment, not a direct exchange of one good for another.
34. E
Genetic homogeneity is presented as a cause of cheetahs’ vulnerability to disease. The
opening adjectival phrase refers to the fact that individual cheetahs are almost like clones of
one another because of how genetically similar they are. This adjectival phrase should be
followed by what it describes, individual cheetahs. But the structure of the sentence makes
it seem that this adjectival phrase is meant—illogically—to describe the cheetah species’
homogeneity. The sentence structure also fails to make clear that the intended reference is
to just one (the only) cheetah species.

A. The sentence nonsensically presents the opening phrase as describing homogeneity.

B. The resulting sentence opens with a reference to a plurality of individuals (to one
another), but confusingly identifies this with a single (collective) entity, a species.
C. The resulting sentence nonsensically presents the opening phrase as describing
homogeneity.
D. The resulting sentence nonsensically presents the opening phrase as describing
homogeneity.
E. Correct. The sentence is clear and the opening phrase correctly modifies members of the
cheetah species.
35. D
The intended meaning of the sentence seems to be that the electricity production of
windmills is expected to approximately double by year’s end. But instead of saying almost
double, we have almost expected, which is an unclear idea. Also unclear is what the relative
pronoun which refers to.

A. The placement of almost makes it nonsensically modify is expected. What the relative
pronoun which refers to is ambiguous: for example, does it refer to the expectation, the
possible doubling, or the year?
B. The resulting sentence misplaces the adverb almost.
C. The phrase production is expected that it will . . . makes no sense—as opposed to, for
example, it is expected that production will. . . .
D. Correct. This sentence clearly conveys the expectations of production: almost to double
and thus to provide. There is no ambiguity as to what will be providing enough electricity.
E. The referent of the relative pronoun which is ambiguous, and the conditional verb form
would thus be providing is unnecessarily wordy.
36. A
The sentence points out two pieces of evidence that prove the early existence of ballgames
in Mesoamerica: waterlogged latex balls and representations of ballplayers. The two noun
phrases together serve as subjects for the verb attest, creating a sentence that logically and
correctly expresses its main idea.

A. Correct. Waterlogged latex balls and representations of ballplayers together serve as

subjects for the verb attest.
B. Painting could refer to something that has been painted, but on that interpretation the
sentence does not make sense, because the painting is itself the representation and a
single painting would not plausibly be on multiple ceramics. Alternatively, it could refer
to an ongoing act of painting, which could not plausibly constitute the kind of evidence
referred to. The singular verb attests does not agree with the compound subject balls and
painting.
C. The singular verb attests does not agree with the compound subject balls and ceramics.
D. Balls, not finding, should be the subject of the verb since the balls are the evidence.
Painting could refer to something that has been painted, but on that interpretation the
sentence does not make sense, because the painting is itself the representation and a
single painting would not plausibly be on multiple ceramics. Alternatively, it could refer
to an ongoing act of painting, which could not plausibly constitute the kind of evidence
referred to. The singular verb attests does not agree with the compound subject finding
and painting.
E. Balls and representations should be the subject of the verb attest since they are the
evidence—not finding; the plural verb attest does not agree with the singular subject
finding.
37. E
This sentence explains why a currently ruined structure probably used to be a church. In the
best-worded answer choice, the abstract subject (the probability that a certain hypothesis is
true) is explained abstractly in a relative clause (That a ruined structure was probably . . .)
followed by a passive verb (is indicated), followed by the prepositional phrase (by . . .), which
is completed by a parallel listing of forms of evidence, all presented as noun phrases in the
expression, (by) (its) A + B, as well as (by) C.

A. This version makes the relationship between as well as . . . and the rest of the sentence
unclear. The most plausible hypothesis is that the artifacts are another of the types of
evidence, parallel with the structure’s orientation and its plan. The sentence violates the
parallelism required in the list by failing to supply the preposition in the final item
following as well as.
B. The subject of this version of the sentence, structure, is completed by the verb was
indicated, creating the illogical assertion that the structure itself, rather than its probable
identity, was indicated by its orientation, plan, and attendant artifacts.
C. Opening the sentence with the predicate adjective indicating leads to a confusing and
awkward withholding of the subjects orientation . . . plan . . . artifacts.
D. The only plausible subject for the singular verb indicates is the plural orientation . . . plan,
as well as the artifacts. Very little about this sentence makes sense.
E. Correct. The relationships among the parts of the sentence are clear and logical.
38. A
Opening with a past date (1999) describing the end point of a period of discovery, this
sentence calls for a past perfect main verb to follow the subject astronomers. In order to
economize on words and maximize clarity, the object of the main clause, stars, is modified
by a passive relative clause that are orbited by planets followed by the adjective phrase about
the size of Jupiter. This structure avoids an awkward and confusing string of relative clauses
and prepositional phrases.

A. Correct. This version is clear and uses the correct verb form had discovered.
B. The use of a prepositional phrase with planets necessitates the introduction of a relative
clause that were. . ., in which the referent of the relative pronoun that is somewhat
uncertain (stars? or planets?). The past tense verb were suggests, improbably, that the
size of the planets may have changed significantly since 1999.
C. The string of relative clauses is awkward and wordy.
D. If the sentence was written after 1999, the present perfect tense is illogical, because 1999
is in the past. If it was written in 1999, this way of referring to the then-present time is
odd and misleading. The prepositional phrase is wordy and indirect.
E. As in answer choice D, the present perfect tense is illogical.
39. E
The sentence most effectively uses parallel structure to contrast two types of termites in the
social structure of termite colonies: those who reproduce, and those who serve the colony in
a number of ways. The progressive verb form are serving should be changed to simple
present tense serve to parallel reproduce. In the final list of responsibilities, parallelism
demands that all assume the gerund form as objects of the preposition: by tending . . .
gathering . . . building . . . or battling.

A. The progressive verb form are serving is inappropriate for this general claim about
termite behavior. It should parallel the previous verb reproduce. It is unnecessary to
introduce a new clause or they battle intruders, because battling is another way some
termites serve the colony and should therefore be expressed as another object of the
preposition by.
B. In that they is an awkward and wordy construction—a poor substitute for by in this
context.
C. The preposition by clarifies how the termites serve their colony and should govern all of
the task descriptions, not just the final one.
D. There is no need to repeat the preposition by, because all tasks can be described in a
series of parallel objects of the same preposition. To violate parallel structure by omitting
the preposition before one gerund but repeating it for the rest confuses the reader.
E. Correct. The sentence uses proper parallel structure and is clear and concise.
40. E
This sentence introduces the claim that global warming is considered to be the cause of
extreme weather changes and then illustrates these changes with two examples introduced
by the phrase such as. The correct causal sequence of events in the first example is heavy
rain, which caused significant damage and flooding. The relative pronoun which, referring to
changes, is lacking a verb to complete the relative clause.

A. The relative pronoun, which, is without a verb. The phrase which, like the heavy rains
incorrectly suggests that the extreme weather is something different from the heavy
rains and the heat wave, and that each of these three phenomena separately caused
damage and destruction.
B. Like answer choice A, the relative pronoun has no verb to complete the phrase, and the
sequence of events in the first example positions costly destruction and flooding as two
separate or unrelated results of the rain.
C. The causal sequence in the first example is confusing, suggesting, somewhat implausibly,
that heavy flooding occurred on its own but caused damage only because of the rain.
D. The sequential logic of the first example is confused—indicating, implausibly, that
flooding caused heavy rain and that the rain, but not the flooding, caused more than $2
billion in damages.
E. Correct. This version of the sentence correctly uses the phrase such as to introduce the
two examples of extreme weather changes, and it correctly identifies the sequence of
events in the first example.
41. E
The sentence explains that fish discharge electric currents for several purposes, which are
most efficiently and effectively described in a parallel structure: to find and attack, to defend,
or to communicate and navigate. The use of either is inappropriate in this sentence because
more than two uses of electric currents are listed; idiomatic usage requires either to be
followed by or to identify alternatives, not by also.

A. Either inappropriately introduces a list of more than two alternatives, and it should not
be followed by or also; parallelism requires that for communicating and navigating be
changed to to communicate and navigate.
B. Defend is not parallel with the list of gerunds, leaving the reader to wonder how to make
sense of defend themselves.
C. The lack of parallelism obscures the relationships among the items in the series; it is
especially confusing to list an infinitive phrase (to find . . .), an object of a preposition (for
defense), and nouns with no grammatical connection to the verb phrase (communication
and navigation).
D. This answer choice also violates parallelism by mixing an infinitive with objects of the
preposition for. Or also is an unidiomatic, contradictory expression.
E. Correct. The different ways in which the various species of fish use their electric power
are correctly expressed in a series of parallel infinitives.
42. C
The opening adjectival phrase Native to South America must be followed immediately by the
noun it modifies: peanuts. The sentence makes two main points about peanuts—they were
introduced to Africa and they were quickly adopted there. The most efficient way to make
these points is to make peanuts the subject of two main verbs: were introduced and were . .
. adopted.

A. When incorrectly intervenes between the opening adjectival phrase and the noun it
modifies, and it is also unnecessary because early in the sixteenth century explains when.
Because of being is wordy and indirect.
B. This version of the sentence has no main verb, since having been introduced and quickly
adopted both introduce adjectival phrases.
C. Correct. The sentence is properly structured and grammatically correct.
D. This version of the sentence has no main verb because introduced and adopted both
function as adjectives.
E. This version of the sentence has no main verb because introduced and having been . . .
adopted function as adjectives.
43. E
The sentence explains that scientists recovered DNA evidence from skeletons, revealing
evidence of malaria. As the sentence is written, the participial phrase studying skeletons is
misplaced; grammatically it modifies the subject of the main clause, thus illogically indicating
that the evidence studied the skeletons.

A. The participial phrase studying skeletons illogically modifies evidence.

B. The participial phrase studying skeletons illogically modifies evidence.
C. The sentence incorrectly states that DNA evidence was recovered from studying
skeletons rather than from the skeletons; the phrase being able to deduce from this is
awkward and wordy.
D. The construction skeletons . . . allowed scientists gives the action of the sentence to the
skeletons rather than the scientists; the antecedent of the pronoun they is ambiguous,
possibly referring either to scientists or to skeletons.
E. Correct. Scientists is the subject of the main clause, and studying skeletons correctly
modifies scientists.
44. E
The sentence indicates that information shows the planet to be continually bombarded by
meteors. However, the plural verb show incorrectly corresponds to the word satellites in the
prepositional phrase from military satellites, rather than to the singular subject information.
The correct combination of subject and verb is information shows.

A. The singular subject information does not agree with the plural verb show.
B. The singular subject information does not agree with the plural verb show. The verbal
noun bombarding (rather than bombardment) is awkward and unnecessary.
C. The singular subject information does not agree with the plural verb show.
Bombardment from is an unidiomatic way of expressing the intended relationship. This
construction appears to indicate, illogically, that someone or something located on the
large, exploding meteoroids is sending the bombardment to Earth.
D. Continually should modify bombarded, not shows. Bombardment from is an unidiomatic
way of expressing the intended relationship. This construction appears to indicate,
illogically, that someone or something located on the large, exploding meteoroids is
sending the bombardment to Earth.
E. Correct. The singular subject information agrees with the singular verb shows.
45. C
The point of the sentence is that confining babies can inhibit muscle development. As it is
written, however, muscle development is the subject of the sentence, and the sentence
appears to be saying that muscle development confines babies much of the time.
Furthermore, the passive construction can be inhibited could even be seen as illogically
suggesting that inhibiting development is the purpose of confinement. The sentence can be
expressed more clearly and concisely by making confining the subject of the verb can inhibit:
confining babies . . . can inhibit muscle development.

A. The intended meaning of the sentence is obscured. The sentence appears to indicate
that muscle development confines babies much of the time, which surely is not what
is intended.
B. The antecedent of their should be babies, but given that babies comes far after the
pronoun, the reader is liable to take the antecedent of their to be child development
specialists.
C. Correct. The sentence clearly and concisely indicates that confining babies . . . can
inhibit muscle development.
D. The word babies is the subject of the verb can inhibit, suggesting incorrectly that
babies inhibit their own or someone else's muscle development.
E. This sentence uses an awkward and wordy construction to indicate that the sites of
confinement can result in muscle development being inhibited, when in fact the
confinement itself is the cause.
46. D
The passage contrasts the way in which Renaissance scholars studied and contextualized
classic Roman texts with the ways in which students of the era were taught snippets of Latin
excerpted from them. The methods and motives of Renaissance teachers are explained, and
the passage concludes by asserting that this pedagogical practice prevents modern readers
from understanding the meanings that such snippets held for most Renaissance readers.

The passage focuses primarily on the way Roman classics were taught during the
Renaissance, so Choice D is the correct answer. The approach that sixteenth-century scholars
took is mentioned, but it serves only to introduce and contrast with the pedagogical methods
used in schools; therefore Choice B is incorrect. The passage mentions a supposed
incompatibility between Roman classics and the teaching of morality as motivating
Renaissance teaching methods, but that incompatibility is not the passage’s main topic; thus
Choice A is incorrect. Choices C and E are also incorrect, since the passage does not discuss
the effect of Roman classics on educated Renaissance people or the teaching of Roman
classics today.

47. E
The passage discusses the views of the nineteenth-century African American intellectual
Frederick Douglass and asserts their continuing relevance to the issues of the modern era.
The second paragraph critiques a book about Douglass written by Waldo Martin and faults
the author for failing to adequately explain some apparent inconsistencies in Douglass’
political views.

The passage discusses the views and intellectual legacy of Frederick Douglass. The key claim
in the first paragraph is that while some of Douglass’ views are no longer widely accepted,
“there is a central aspect of Douglass’ thought that seems not the least bit dated or irrelevant
to our current concerns”. The second paragraph critiques a study of Douglass’ career by
Waldo Martin and claims that Martin has failed to offer a “convincing rebuttal to those critics
who dismiss Douglass’ ideology as a relic of the past”. This indicates that Choice E is correct.

48. D
The passage describes the opposition of most advocates of scientific management to
reducing work hours during the 1920s and then describes the positions taken by a few
reformers and by Henry Ford to justify workweek reduction. It notes that most employers,
however, did not agree with Ford and points to some supporting labor data.

The passage is primarily concerned with discussing the opposition to, and the advocacy and
adoption of, 40-hour workweeks during the 1920s; therefore Choice D is the correct answer.
Because the passage lays out different viewpoints but does not consider their relative merits,
Choice A is not correct. The passage does not discuss the benefit to workers of a 40-hour
workweek or the opinion or role of labor unions on the issue, so Choices B, C, and E are
incorrect.
49. E
The passage deals with the historical study of leisure in Europe and discusses the view that
the concept of leisure underwent a fundamental change at the time of the Industrial
Revolution (the “discontinuity” hypothesis). The second paragraph explains how the
hypothesis can accommodate certain historical data, and the third paragraph discusses the
usefulness of the hypothesis while at the same time outlining some potential drawbacks.

The first paragraph of the passage tells us that the difference between preindustrial and
industrial society in Europe was so great that “the modern distinction between the
categories of work and leisure” cannot be meaningfully applied to the former, implying that
there exists a discontinuity between the two periods. The second paragraph argues that the
discontinuity approach can accommodate historical data. Finally, the third paragraph admits
that, while useful in some respects, this approach “can pose problems of its own” and briefly
describes these problems. All this points to Choice E as correct.

50. B
The passage raises the question of how seeds reached the Hawaiian Islands. It introduces
one possible method —ocean and air currents —but refers to evidence that casts doubt on
that method. It then introduces a second method — bird transport — and discusses two ways
in which that might occur.

Given the description of the passage above, it is clear that Choice B is correct: the passage
focuses on “different theories about the transport of plant seeds to Hawaii.” Choice A can be
eliminated: while the passage does refer to flotation experiments, it does not elaborate on
experimental methods. Choice C identifies an idea that is part of the passage’s main concern,
but since this is only one of the competing theories discussed in the passage, not the primary
focus, Choice C is incorrect. Choices D and E are incorrect because the passage does not
resolve any disputes.