Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Pharmacology Mcqs
Pharmacology Mcqs
1
OP01
[Mar96]
With
regards
to
pethidine’s
physical
properties:
Most
likely
B
A.
It
has
an
octanol
coefficient
of
10
[From
Stoelting
table
p
93]
B.
It
has
a
pKa
of
8.4
pKa
8.5
C.
?
Protein
binding
70%
D.
?
Cl
1020ml/min
E.
?
Vd
305L
Octanol:water
coefficient
30
-‐
32
Elimination
half
time
3-‐5hrs
Unionized
%
at
normal
pH
7%
OP02
[Mar96]
Which
factor
does
NOT
predispose
to
bradycardia
with
E
fentanyl
in
doses
of
50
mcg/kg?
Bradycardia
is
more
prominent
with
fentanyl
than
morphine
(careful
in
A.
Calcium
channel
antagonist
infants)
B.
Beta-‐blocker
Factors
predisposing
to
bradycardia/asystole
during
opioid
induction
C.
Benzodiazepines
D.
?
E.
Slow
injection
of
drug
*
presence
of
beta
and/or
calcium
channel
blockade
* rapid administration
OP03
[Mar96]
[Mar99]
[Jul99]
[Feb00]
[Apr01]
Naloxone:
C,
E
A.
Is
not
an
antagonist
of
agonist-‐antagonist
drugs
Naloxone
is
a
nonselective
antagonist
of
all
3
opioid
receptors.
B.
Is
not
an
antagonist
at
?mu
&
sigma
receptors
Side
effects
include
increased
sympathetic
outflow,
tachycardia,
C.
Causes
pulmonary
oedema
hypertension,
pulmonary
oedema
and
arrhythmias.
D.
Can
cause
hypotension
in
experimental
shock
animal
models
E.
May
cause
an
abrupt
increase
in
sympathetic
tone
[Stoelting
p121]
OP03b
[Mar97]
Naloxone:
B
A.
Is
effective
at
antagonising
a
full
agonist
but
not
a
partial
agonist
B.
Causes
pulmonary
oedema
as
above
C.
?
D.
?
OP04
[Mar96]
[Jul99]
{Diagram
of
numbered
structure
of
morphine}
A
-‐
substitution
CH3
for
CH2CHCH2
gives
naloxone
Which
substitutions
correct?
A.
N17
substitution
gives
antagonist
activity
B.
C6
methylation
produces
codeine
C.
Glucuronidation
occurs
at
C2
D.
Diacetylation
decreases
lipid
solubility
C3
methylation
produces
codeine
Glucuronidation
occurs
at
C3
and
C6
(ie
gives
M6G
and
M3G)
Diacetylation
increases
lipid
solubility
2
Also
remembered
as:
C
Morphine
base
structure
with
questions
about
substitutions
A.
C3
and
C6
increase
lipid
solubility
A
-‐
probably
true:
C3
and
C6
acetylation
(ie
-‐OH
swapped
for
-‐OCO.CH3)
B.
Acetyl
group
on
?C3
gives
heroine
gives
heroin
that
is
more
soluble
C.
N-‐
substitution
gives
antagonist
B
-‐
false,
needs
C3
and
C6
D.
C5
glucuronidation
site
C
-‐
true,
as
above
+
N
subsitutions
result
in
nalorphine,
nalbuphine,
E.
C3
methyl
gives
codeine
butorphanol
and
naloxone
D
false
E
True
OP05
[Mar96]
[Jul98]
[Jul00]
Pethidine
in
doses
of
2
to
2.5
mg/kg
causes
A
all
of
the
following
EXCEPT:
D
also
possible
in
large
doses
(see
below)
A.
Bradycardia
B.
Decreased
systemic
vascular
resistance
Interferes
with
compensatory
sympathetic
nervous
system
reflexes
and
C.
?Normal
arterial
BP
/
?decreased
BP
causes
orthostatic
hypotension,
vasodilation,
decreased
SVR.
D.
Increased
cardiac
output
Rarely
causes
bradycardia,
may
increase
heart
rate
(modest
atropine-‐
like
properties).
Large
doses
of
pethidine
result
in
decreases
in
myocardial
contractility.
[stoelting
p104]
OP06
[Mar96]
Regarding
the
clearance
of
morphine:
B
A.
Affected
by
cirrhosis
“Renal
metabolism
makes
a
significant
contribution
to
the
to
the
total
B.
Affected
by
hepatic
blood
flow
metabolism
of
morphine,
which
offers
a
possible
explanation
for
the
C.
Shows
low
hepatic
extraction
ratio
absence
of
any
decrease
in
systemic
clearance
of
morphine
in
patients
D.
?
with
hepatic
cirrhosis
or
during
the
anhepatic
phase
of
liver
transplant”
E.
?
[Stoelting
p95]
High
hepatic
extraction
ratio
0.6-‐0.8
“If
hepatic
extraction
ratio
is
high
(>0.7),
the
clearance
of
the
drug
will
depend
on
hepatic
blood
flow”
[Stoelting
p13]
OP07
[Jul97]
[Mar99]
[Jul99]
[Jul00]
[Feb04]
[Jul04]
Fentanyl:
A.
With
pKa
8.4
is
90%
ionised
at
physiological
pH
A,
G
B.
Has
an
octanol
coefficient
of
10
A
-‐
pKa
is
8.4,
91%
ionized
at
pH
7.4
C.
Is
1,000
times
more
potent
than
morphine
B
-‐Octanol
coefficient
600-‐900
D.
Has
first-‐pass
lung
uptake
reduced
to
20%
by
propranolol
C
-‐
75-‐125
x
more
potent
than
morphine
E.
Has
up
to
50%
uptake
in
the
lung
D
?
F.
Elimination
half-‐life
<
2
hour
E
75%
uptake
into
lungs
G.
Carried
on
albumin
mostly
F.
Elimination
half-‐time
3-‐6hrs
H.
Carried
on
alpha-‐1
acid
glycoprotein
mostly
G/H.
Albumin
tends
to
bind
acidic
and
neutral
drugs,
a1-‐acid
I.
Can
cause
hypertension
with
MAOI
glycoprotein
tends
to
bind
basic
drugs,
non-‐specific
binding
to
other
J.
Alfentanil
acts
faster
as
it
has
a
higher
unionised,
unbound
fraction
plasma
proteins
occurs
to
a
much
smaller
extent
but
albumin
is
much
more
abundant
[Goodman
&
Gillman
online]
I.
PETHIDINE
causes
interactions
with
MAO
J.
Alfentanil
does
have
a
higher
unionized
fraction,
but
has
a
lower
unbound
fraction
stoelting
says
pulmonary
first
pass
uptake
is
substantially
↓
in
patients
treated
chronically
with
propranolol:
as
a
result,
2-‐4
times
as
much
injected
fentanyl
enters
the
systemic
circulation
in
the
time
period
immediately
after
injection
(reflects
ability
of
one
basic
lipophilic
amine
to
inhibit
the
pulmonary
uptake
of
a
second
basic
lipophilic
amine)
OP08
[Jul97]
An
opioid
which
can
not
be
used
for
TIVA:
A.
Morphine
B
B.
Pethidine
C.
Fentanyl
Faunce
p245
-‐
Pethidine
not
used
in
TIVA
due
to
negative
inotropism
D.
Sufentanil
and
histamine
release
as
well
as
its
active
metabolite,
norpethidine,
E.
Alfentanil
which
can
cause
seizures
in
large
doses
3
OP09
[Mar98]
Nalbuphine:
None.
A.
Works
at
mu
receptor
only
Is
an
agoinst-‐antagonist
opioid.
Equal
potency
as
an
analgesic
as
B.
Has
same
side
effects
as
pentazocine
morphine,
1/4
potency
of
nalorphine
as
antagonist.
C.
?
Selective
for
mu
(antagonist),
and
delta
&
kappa
(agonist)
[Rang,
Dale,
D.
?
Ritter,
4th
ed,
p593]
Incidence
of
dysphoria
is
less
than
that
with
pentazocine,
and
in
contrast
to
pentazocine,
it
doesn’t
increase
BP,
PAP,
HR,
atrial
filling
pressure.
[Stoelting
p
119]
OP10
[Mar98]
Pethidine
A,
B
A.
100mg
is
equal
to
10mg
morphine
in
effect
Pethidine
is
1/10
as
potent
as
morphine.
B.
Increases
heart
rate
It
may
increase
heart
rate
(some
atropine-‐like
qualities)
C.
No
effect
on
cardiac
output
In
large
doses,
decreases
myocardial
contractility.
D.
Is
preferred
to
morphine
for
analgesia
[Stoelting
p103-‐4]
E.
?
OP10b
[Mar98]
Pethidine
produces:
B
A.
Miosis
Tends
to
cause
mydriasis,
not
miosis
(mild
atropine
like
actions)
B.
More
severe
hypotension
with
comparable
dose
of
morphine
“Hypotension
after
meperidine
injection
is
more
frequent
and
more
C.
More
biliary
spasm
than
morphine
profound
than
after
comparable
doses
of
morphine”
D.
?
“Biliary
tract
spasm
is
less
after
mepridine
injection
than
after
morphine
injection”
[Stoelting
p104]
OP11
[Mar98]
TIVA
with
morphine
causes
the
following
EXCEPT:
A
A.
Mydriasis
B.
Muscle
rigidity
C.
Respiratory
depression
D.
?
OP12
[Mar98]
[Jul98]
[Jul02]
[Mar03]
Codeine:
C
A.
Substitution
at
C6
position
of
morphine
B.
10%
of
codeine
is
metabolised
to
diacetyl
morphine
Methyl
substitution
at
C3
C.
IM
100mg
is
equivalent
to
10
mg
morphine
10%
of
codeine
is
demethylated
to
morphine,
any
remaining
is
D.
Methyl
substitution
at
the
?C5/?C6
position
of
morphine
demethylated
to
inactive
norcodeine.
E.
Can
be
safely
given
IV
because
causes
no
histamine
release
100-‐120mg
(depends
on
source)
IM
codeine
equivalent
to
10mg
F.
Has
higher
first
pass
effect
than
morphine
morphine.
Administration
of
codeine
IV
is
not
recommended
because
histamine-‐
induced
hypotension
is
likely
The
presence
of
this
methyl
group
limits
first-‐pass
hepatic
metabolism
and
accounts
for
the
efficacy
of
codeine
when
administered
orally.
OP13
[Jul98]
Morphine
metabolism:
C,
F,
G
A.
Principally
metabolised
to
morphine-‐6-‐glucuronide
75-‐85%
M3G,
5-‐10%
M6G.
B.
Metabolites
have
shorter
half-‐life
M3G
longer
half-‐time.
C.
Found
in
extrahepatic
sites
Renal
metabolism
makes
a
significant
contribution
to
total
metabolism
D.
Metabolites
freely
cross
the
blood-‐brain
barrier
of
morphine.
E.
?All
have
analgesic
effect
/
?
Are
30%
renally
excreted
Metabolites
have
limited
ability
to
cross
BBB.
F.
In
neonates,
predominantly
by
sulphation
M6G
analgesic
effect,
M3G
not
analgesic
&
may
cause
more
adverse
G.
In
adults,
mostly
to
morphine-‐3-‐glucuronide
effects.
Metabolites
are
principally
renally
excreted
&
only
10%
biliary
excretion.
[Stoelting
p95]
Because
of
low
conjugating
capacity
in
neonates,
morphine-‐like
drugs
much
longer
duration
of
action
[Rang
4th
ed
p598]
Sulfation
is
an
important
pathway
for
elimination
of
morphine
in
neonates
[Evers
&
Maze,
2004
p69]
4
OP14
[Jul98]
Buprenorphine:
?A
if
the
other
options
are
bad
due
to
sublingual
route
A.
Effective
orally
None
B.
?
Agonist-‐antagonist,
more
potent
than
morphine
(0.3mg
equivalent
to
C.
?
10mg
morphine)
Affinity
50x
that
of
morphine,
slower
dissociation
from
receptors,
can
provoke
opioid
withdrawal.
Well
absorbed
but
undergoes
significant
first-‐pass
metabolism
so
not
given
orally.
[Sasada
&
Smith
p51]
OP15
[Mar99]
[Feb00]
[Jul02]
Sufentanil:
C,
D
&
E
if
was
AAG
A.
30
times
as
potent
as
fentanyl
5-‐10x
potency
of
fentanyl
B.
<
7%
excreted
unchanged
in
urine
<1%
of
sufentanil
appears
unchanged
in
urine
(high
lipid
solubility
-‐
C.
Greater
protein
binding
than
fentanyl
reabsorbed
in
renal
tubules)
D.
Half-‐life
of
elimination
between
fentanyl
&
alfentanil
Fentanyl
84%
bound,
sufentanil
93%
bound
(this
is
the
most
bound
E.
Predominantly
bound
by
?albumin/
?
alpha1-‐acid
glycoprotein
opioid)
Half-‐time
~3hrs,
fentanyl
~5hrs,
alfent
~1.5hrs.
“Binding
to
a1-‐acid
glycoprotein
constitutes
a
principal
proportion
of
the
total
plasma
protein
binding
of
sufentanil”
[Stoelting
p93
&
109]
OP16
[Mar99]
[Jul00]
Pethidine
is
the
traditionally
favoured
opioid
in
C
and
E
obstetrics
because:
A.
Norpethidine
does
not
cross
the
placenta
Pethidine
readily
crosses
the
placenta
(highly
lipid
soluble)
B.
Does
not
undergo
ion
trapping
With
a
pKa
of
8.5,
it
is
prone
to
ion
trapping
in
the
foetus
C.
Causes
less
neonatal
depression
Placental
transfer
of
an
active
metabolite,
norpethidine
with
a
longer
D.
It
does
not
cross
the
placenta
elimination
half-‐life
has
also
been
implicated.
E.
It
is
thought
to
cause
less
respiratory
depression
in
the
neonate.
Was
popular
in
labour
as
was
thought
to
cause
less
neonatal
respiratory
depression,
now
disproven.
5
OP21
[Apr01]
Tramadol:
B
A.
Has
beta
blocking
properties
Tramadol
is
racemic
mixture
of
2
enantiomers,
(-‐)
inhibits
noradrenaline
B.
Blocks
noradrenaline
reuptake
uptake
and
the
(+)
inhibits
5HT
reuptake.
C.
Has
greater
opioid
activity
than
morphine
(OR:
As
potent
a
mu
agonist
5-‐10x
less
potent
than
morphine.
as
morphine)
Yohimbine
is
a
selective
antagonist
at
presynaptic
alpha2
receptors,
D.
Is
directly
inhibited
by
yohimbine
leading
to
enhanced
release
of
noradrenaline
from
nerve
endings.
E.
Only
the
+ve
enantiomer
is
active
[Stoelting
p
177
+322]
OP22
[Jul01]
The
most
unlikely
thing
to
occur
with
morphine
E
administered
in
recovery
is:
This
should
take
longer
to
develop,
others
are
all
immediate
side
effects.
A.
Constipation
B.
Respiratory
depression
C.
Sedation
D.
Nausea
and
vomiting
E.
Physical
dependance
F.
Pruritis
OP23
-‐Deleted
OP24
[Jul01]
Extrahepatic
de-‐esterfication
of
Remifentanil
A
Occurs
in
RBC
E
B
By
Plasma
Cholinesterase
Metabolised
(hydrolysed)
by
nonspecific
plasma
and
tissue
esterases
C
NOT
in
incubated
blood
(not
red
cell
esterase)
D
Has
(?mean)
clearance
less
than
1L/min
It
does
not
appear
to
be
a
substrate
for
pseudocholinesterase.
E
Has
an
active
metabolite
HOWEVER:
in
vitro
where
no
tissue
esterases
are
present,
red
cells
only
hydrolyze
remifentanil
more
rapidly
than
whole
blood
where
some
of
Alt
options:
the
remifentanil
is
bound
&
buffered.
This
is
unlikely
to
translate
to
an
in
C.
Hydrolysis
does
not
occur
in
vitro
in
incubated
blood
vivo
effect
and
abnormal
pseudocholinesterase
is
NOT
thought
to
be
a
E.
The
drug
is
hydrolysed
to
an
active
metabolite
which
undergoes
problem.
further
hydrolysis
Clearance
nearly
3L/min
(Q75
Jul01)
The
principal
metabolite,
remifentanil
acid,
is
300-‐4600x
less
potent
than
remifentanil.
This
and
other
inactive
metabolites
undergo
renal
excretion.
(BUT
I
don’t
think
the
active
metabolite
is
further
metabolised,
it
is
excreted
as
it
is).
OP25
[Jul01]
The
following
are
metabolites
of
morphine
except:
E
A.
Morphine-‐6-‐glucuronide
B.
Morphine-‐3-‐glucuronide
C.
Normorphone
D.
Codeine
E.
Hydromorphine
OP26
[Jul01]
Fentanyl
given
at
dose
of
50-‐150
mcg/kg:
C
A.
Causes
potent
cardiac
depression
High
dose!
B.
Does
not
cause
muscle
rigidity
Can
cause
cardiac
depression
(bradycardia
-‐
may
cause
hypotension
and
C.
Has
an
elimination
half-‐time
of
more
than
3
hours
reduced
cardiac
output),
rigidity,
and
can
significantly
reduce
or
even
D.
Not
enough
to
relieve
the
stress
response
to
surgery
eliminate
the
metabolic
stress
response
to
surgery.
[Peck
&
Hill
p145]
E.
Preserve
cardiac
output
However,
lacks
direct
myocardial
depressant
effects
[Stoelting
p106]
Elimination
half-‐time
3-‐6hrs
[Stoelting
p93]
OP27
[Jul04]
Prolonged
duration
of
action
of
morphine
in
renal
failure
is
B
due
to
A.
Morphine
3-‐glucuronide
B.
Morphine
6-‐glucuronide
C.
Metabolism
of
morphine
D.
?
E.
?
6
OP28
[Jul-‐06]
Which
is
NOT
a
side
effect
of
morphine:
B
A.
Seizures
B.
Mydriasis
C.
Respiratory
depression
D.
Histamine
release
E.
?
Morphine
analogues
7
Anticholinergics
and
antimuscarinics
All answers from Stoelting chapter 10
AH01 [Jul97] [Mar98] [Jul98] [Mar99] [Jul99] Glycopyrrolate: A
A. Has mandelic acid rather than tropic acid
B. Tertiary amine
- Naturally occurring anticholinergics (atropine and scopolamine) are
esters formed by the combination of tropic or mandelic acid and an
C. ? organic base (tropine, scopine, or an N-methylated derivative of
D. ? tropine).
(See also MB08)
- Synthetic anticholinergic drugs like glycopyrrolate contain mandelic
acid rather than tropic acid.
- Structurally, these drugs resemble cocaine.
- Glycopyrrolate increases metabolic oxygen consumption (atropine no
change, scopolamine decreases it)
- Glycopyrrolate is a synthetic quaternary amine
8
AH04 [Jul00] Atropine: B – the resulting relaxation decreases airway resistance and increases
A. ? dead space, as well as the effect vagal activity has in HPV
B. Increases anatomical & alveolar dead space
C. ?
D. ?
- Antagonism of ACh effects on airway smooth muscle present
predominantly in large and medium sized airways.
- decreases airway resistance
- increase dead space by about 1/3, but this effect depends largely on the
degree of preexisting bronchomotor tone
- glycopyrrolate is equally effective bronchodilator
AH06 [Jul04] Which of the following is the most toxic effect of atropine C
in children? “Small children are particularly vulnerable to drug-induced increases in
A. Hypotension body temperature, with ‘atropine fever’ occurring occasionally in this age
B. Tachycardia group after administration of even a therapeutic dose of anticholinergic
C. Hyperthermia drug.”
D. Hypertension Although the best choice would be central effects: “fatal events include
seizures, coma and medullary ventilatory centre paralysis”
[Stoelting p274]
9
Cardiovascular
CD01
Milrinone:
A
A
Decreases
pulmonary
vascular
resistance
Milrinone
is
a
peripheral
vascular
dilator,
so
decrease
vascular
resistance.
B
Increases
systemic
vascular
resistance
It
is
absorbed,
but
increases
mortality
when
given
orally.
C
Is
poorly
absorbed
when
given
orally
Thrombocytopenia
occurs
with
amrinone,
but
is
rare
with
milrinone
D
Chronic
use
causes
thrombocytopenia
Milrinone
is
a
selective
phosphodiesterase
III
inhibitor,
↑cAMP,
↑stimulation
of
protein
kinases
that
increase
inward
calcium.
This
produces
positive
inotropic
effects.
It
also
↑cGMP
which
↓Ca2+
causing
smooth
muscle
relaxation
in
the
lungs
and
peripherally,
↓PVR
and
SVR.
It
has
minimal
effects
on
heart
rate
and
myocardial
O2
consumption.
Stoelting
p317
CD03(i)
Ephedrine:
E
A
Has
direct
alpha
actions
only
see
above
B
Has
direct
beta
actions
only
C
Has
indirect
(alpha)
actions
only
D
?
E
Has
both
indirect
&
direct
actions
on
alpha
&
beta
receptors
CD03a(ii)
Ephedrine
D?
-‐ α
1
&
2
and
β
1
&
2
&
3
Predominantly
A1,
B1
and
B2
(used
as
chronic
oral
medication
because
of
-‐ More
alpha
than
beta
bronchodilating
effects)
-‐ Indirect
this
and
direct
that...
-‐ Direct
this
and
indirect
that...
CD03b
Ephedrine:
C
&
D
true
A
?increases/?decreases
skeletal
muscle
blood
flow
A
true
if
increased
B
Acts
only
by
indirect
effects
Increase
blood
flow
to
skeletal
&
cardiac
muscle,
decreased
flow
to
renal
C
Not
metabolised
by
GIT
MAO
and
splanchnic
flow.
D
Not
metabolised
by
COMT
E
Increase
renal
blood
flow
10
CD03c
Ephedrine
has:
B
A
Direct
agonist
on
alpha
receptors
all
are
true
but
B
is
most
true.
B
Direct
and
indirect
effects
on
α
&
β
C
Indirect
actions
on
alpha
receptors
D
Direct
actions
on
beta
receptors
E
Indirect
actions
on
beta
receptors
CD04
The
principle
(?urinary)
metabolite
of
adrenaline
is:
D
-‐ Normetanephrine
Principle
metabolite
in
urine
is
D.
Also
produced
for
adrenaline
is
B
&
for
noradrenaline
-‐ Metanephrine
is
A.
Diffusion
away
≈
20%
-‐ 3,4-‐dihydroxy-‐mandelic
acid
Uptake
into
organs
↓Metabolised
by
COMT
(liver)
-‐ 3-‐methoxy,
4-‐hydroxymandelic
acid
accounts
for
-‐ 3-‐methoxy,
4-‐hydroxy
phenylalanine
more
offset
of
Normetanephrine
action
than
excretion
11
CD05
Thiazide
diuretics:
C,
J
true
A. Work
mainly
on
PCT
B
-‐
decreased
effect
Note
H
&
I
true
in
Stoelting,
false
in
Goodman
&
Gillman
B. Not
effective
if
severely
sodium
depleted
Thiazides
produce
diuresis
by
inhibiting
reabsorption
of
Na
&
Cl.
Used
in
C. Action
is
independent
of
acid-‐base
balance
HTN,
oedema,
diabetes
insipidus,
tx
hypercalcaemia.
Principle
action
in
ascending
loop
of
Henle,
some
action
in
proximal
&
D. Increase
GFR
immediately
distal.
Result
in
loss
of
Na,
Cl,
HCO3
with
associated
loss
of
K
(if
enhanced
E. Decrease
BP
by
decreasing
contractility
distal
delivery
of
Na
&
H2O).
F. Cause
hypoglycaemia
HTN
rx
due
to
decreased
ECF
which
often
leads
to
decreased
CO,
but
sustained
effect
due
to
↓SVR
&
peripheral
vasodilation
(takes
weeks
to
G. Interferes
with
kidney
concentrating
mechanisms
develop,
due
to
loss
of
Na).
H. Causes
hypocalcaemia
Side
effects:
↓K/Cl
-‐
metabolic
alkalosis,
↓Na/Mg
-‐
kaliuresis
+
side
effects
of
electrolyte
disturbance,
hyperglycamia
(unknown
mechanism),
I. Used
to
treat
hypercalcaemia
hyperuricemia
J. Potentiate
hyperglycaemia
K. Are
effective
as
antihypertensives
by
decreasing
cardiac
output
L. Cause
hypernatraemia
M. Washes
out
the
medullary
concentration
gradient.
CD05b
Thiazide
diuretics
B
A. Increase
calcium
excretion
in
the
urine
A
arguably
true
from
Stoelting
but
B
less
controversial.
B. Decreased
efficacy
in
sodium
depletion
Faunce
says
increased
Ca
reabsorption
in
DCT
C. Main
side
of
action
is
the
proximal
tubule
D. Cause
equivalent
amount
of
diuresis
to
frusemide
E. ?
CD06
Sodium
nitroprusside
in
healthy
pt:
D
A
Decreases
venous
more
than
arterial
resistance
Causes
venous
and
arterial
relaxation,
decreases
SVR
&
PVR
(so
inhibit
B
Has
no
effect
on
control
of
pulmonary
vascular
resistance
HPV),
increased
cerebral
blood
flow.
C
Decreases
cerebral
blood
flow
Inhibits
spontaneous
contractions
of
the
non-‐pregnant
human
uterus
D
Causes
uterine
relaxation
E
Does
not
inhibit
hypoxic
pulmonary
vasoconstriction
12
CD07
Which
one
of
the
following
statements
about
clonidine
is
correct?
B,
C
(C
is
better
answer)
A
Increase
MAC
requirements
Decreases
MAC
requirement.
B
Cause
transient
hypertension
with
IV
administration
Is
available
in
patch
form.
C
With
IV
bolus
cause
hyper-‐
then
hypo-‐
tension
Has
transient
alpha
1,
then
alpha
2
action
on
IV
admin
D
Causes
hypotension
immediately
E
Is
not
(?administered/absorbed)
transdermally
Clonidine
is
a
centrally
acting
partial
α2
adrenergic
agonist
(220:1
α1:α2).
Stoelting
p340.
B. The glycone portion causes the cardiac effects -‐ aglycone (steroid & lactone ring): intrinsic cardiac activity
C. &
D.
?
-‐ glycone
(attached
sugar
residues):
responsible
for
pharmacokinetics
(eg
tissue
uptake)
Both
are
required
for
drug
to
be
clinically
useful.
CD09
Digoxin:
D
A. Decreases
ventricular
response
to
vagal
stimulation
in
AF
Inotropic
action
results
from
increased
intracellular
Ca+
-‐
increase
phase
4
slope
(ie
increase
rate
of
automaticity),
especially
if
K+
is
low.
B. Decreases
myocardial
oxygen
consumption
Inhibits
Na/K/ATPase
pump
→
↑
intracellular
Ca++
and
+ve
iontropic
C. Increases
the
R-‐T
interval
effect
→
↑
contractility
&
automaticity
&
force
of
contraction.
Indirect
but
prominent
vagotonic
effect
-‐
sensitisation
of
baroreceptors
&
D. Decreases
AV
conduction
activation
of
vagal
nuclei
resulting
in
inhibition
of
Ca++
currents
in
the
AV
node
and
activation
of
acetylcholine
mediated
K+
currents
in
the
atrium.
Thus
↓
SA
node
discharge,
slow
AV,
↑
refractory
period.
At
therapeutic
concentration:
PR
prolonged,
ST
depressed,
T
flattened,
QT
shortened
CD10
Which
of
the
following
ECG
changes
would
be
most
likely
in
E
and
A
digoxin
toxicity?
No
unequivocal
features
on
ECG
confirm
toxicity,
but
[toxic]
typically
A
Increased
PR
interval
cause
atrial
or
venticular
dysrhythmias
and
delayed
conduction
through
B
Increased
QT
interval
AV
node.
Atrial
tachycardia
with
block
is
the
most
common
cardiac
C
Peaked
T
waves
dysrhythmia
attributed
to
dig
toxicity.
Also
see
junctional
bradycardia,
D
ST
elevation
ventricular
bigeminy,
2nd/3rd
degree
heart
E
Ventricular
extrasystoles
[Goodman
and
Gillman]
Although
digitalis
intoxication
can
cause
virtually
any
arrhythmia,
certain
types
of
arrhythmias
are
characteristic.
Arrhythmias
that
should
raise
a
strong
suspicion
of
digitalis
intoxication
are
those
in
which
DAD-‐related
tachycardias
occur
along
with
impairment
of
sinus
node
or
AV
nodal
function.
Atrial
tachycardia
with
AV
block
is
classic,
but
ventricular
bigeminy
(sinus
beats
alternating
with
beats
of
ventricular
origin),
"bidirectional"
ventricular
tachycardia
(a
very
rare
entity),
AV
junctional
tachycardias,
and
various
degrees
of
AV
block
also
can
occur.
With
severe
intoxication
(e.g.,
with
suicidal
ingestion),
+ +
severe
hyperkalemia
owing
to
poisoning
of
Na
,K
-‐ATPase
and
profound
bradyarrhythmias,
which
may
be
unresponsive
to
pacing
therapy,
are
seen.
ECG
effects
are:
1. Prolonged
P-‐R
intervals
due
to
delayed
conduction
of
the
AV
node
2. Shortened
QTc
intervals
because
of
more
rapid
ventricular
depolarisation
3. ST
segment
depression
4. Diminished
amplitude
or
inversion
of
T
waves.
Stoelting
p314
13
CD12
Clonidine:
B
(up
to
65%
excreted
unchanged
in
urine)
A
Elimination
half-‐life
of
3
hrs
(??or
3-‐6hrs)
Clonidine
is
a
centrally
acting
selective
alpha2
agonist.
B
Excreted
50%
unchanged
in
urine
(or
50%
renally
excreted)
t1/2
6-‐10hrs
C
Oral
bioavailability
50%
Oral
bioavailability
100%
D
Cannot
be
absorbed
topically
Comes
in
patches
E
Is
highly
protein
bound
Very
lipid
soluble,
Vd
1.7-‐2.5L/kg,
20%
protein
bound
CD13
deleted
(same
as
CD05)
CD14
Adenosine:
None.
A
Slows
conduction
velocity
and
increases
refractory
period
Acts
on
A1
receptors
(Gi
protein)
coupled
to
K+
channels
in
SVT
tissue
B
Is
metabolised
in
plasma
causing
AV
nodal
block.
Slows
conduction
velocity
and
increases
PR
C
Decreases
urate
levels
interval.
Sasada.
It
shortens
the
action
potential.
Stoelting
p385
D
Methylxanthines
increase
response
Adenosine
is
a
naturally
occurring
purine
nuceloside
used
to
dx
&tx
SVT.
Metabolised
in
RBC
&
vascular
endothelium
(t1/2
<10sec)
Uric
acid
levels
may
↑
10-‐20%
Methylxanthines
such
as
theophylline
and
caffeine
block
adenosine
receptors
so
larger
than
usual
doses
are
required
to
produce
an
effect.
Adenosine
is
potentiated
in
patients
taking
dipyridamole
is
an
adenosine
uptake
inhibitor.
Goodman
&
Gillman
CD15
Catecholamine
substitution:
C
and
B
(C
most
correct)
A
Alpha
carbon
CH2
substitution
give
beta
selectivity
Dobutamine
isomers:
both
are
beta
agonists,
opposite
effects
at
alpha1
B
Beta-‐hydroxy
substitution
gives
increased
affinity
(levo
dobutamine
is
the
alpha1
agonist)
[Stoelting
p300]
C
D-‐dobutamine
antagonist,
L-‐Dobutamine
agonist
D
?
Substitution
at
alpha
carbon
blocks
oxidation
by
MAO
and
prolongs
the
action
of
these
drugs,
particularly
the
noncatecholamines
(eg
ephedrine,
amphetamine).
Substitution
of
beta
hydroxyl
group
will
mean
it
loses
it
direct
action
(ie
becomes
indirectly
acting)
CD16
Esmolol
C
A
Active
at
beta1
&
beta2
receptors
Negative
inotrope
&
chronotrope
used
in
acute
supraventricular
B
Half-‐life
<2mins
dysrhythmias
(AF/flutter),
HTN,
AMI.
C
Has
methanol
as
metabolite
Competitive
BBlocker,
relatively
selective
for
B1.
Little/no
intrinsic
D
Is
metabolised
by
(?acetyl/?plasma)
cholinesterase
sympathomimetic
activity.
Vd
3.43L/kg,
56%
protein
bound,
t1/2
9.2mins,
E
Is
excreted
unchanged
in
the
urine
metabolism
by
red
cell
esterases
to
methanol
&
acid
metabolite
with
F
Is
a
non-‐selective
beta1
receptor
antagonist
weak
beta
antagonism,
Cl
285
ml/min/kg,
<1%
excreted
unchanged
in
urine
14
CD16b
Esmolol:
C
A
Is
a
non-‐selective
beta
antagonist
B
Has
intrinsic
sympathomimetic
activity
On
Peck
&
Hill
table
13.2
-‐
no
membrane
stabilising
activity.
C
Does
not
have
membrane
stabilising
activity
Others
as
above
D
?
CD17
Mannitol:
C,
G
(both
correct,
different
options
different
years)
A
Less
sodium
delivered
to
distal
tubule
Osmotic
diuretic.
Low
MW
(182
daltons)
-‐
freely
filtered
at
glomerulus
&
B
Hypotonic
medulla
not
reabsorbed.
Increases
osmolality
of
glomerular
filtrate
&
tubular
fluid
C
Increased
sodium
loss
-‐
osmotic
effect.
D
Urine
osmolality
>
plasma
osmolality
Renal
blood
flow
increased,
rate
of
renin
secretion
decreases.
Mannitol
E
increased
sodium
reabsorption/?causes
hypernatraemia
washes
out
medulla
interstitial
gradient
(isotonic
medulla)
-‐
decreased
F
?MW
greater
than
600
ability
to
concentrate
urine.
Na
&
K
may
fall
(more
delivered
at
lower
G
Washes
out
the
medullary
interstitial
gradient
concentration)
&
urea
may
increase
CD17b
Osmotic
diuretics:
B
A
Include
mannitol
and
the
dextrans
B
Wash
out
the
medullary
osmotic
gradient
Mannitol
&
urea
are
osmotic
diuretics.
C
Cause
sodium
retention
D
E
Have
a
molecular
weight
>600
daltons
CD18
Guanethidine:
B
A
Causes
sedation
as
a
side
effect
Guanethidine
was
an
antiHTN
-‐
postganglionic
adrenergic
blocking
agent.
B
Postural
hypotension
occurs
Uptake
&
storage
via
norad
pump
&
vesicles
-‐
replaces
norad
storage
&
C
Decreases
reuptake
of
catechols
presynaptically
blocks
release
D
?
Sophie
is
right
-‐
the
uptake
is
POSTsynaptic
and
NOT
presynaptic
[Katzung
and
Longnecker’s]
Side
effects
include
expansion
of
intravascular
volume,
necessitating
its
use
with
a
diuretic,
as
well
as
orthostatic
and
exercise-‐induced
hypotension,
diarrhea,
and
sexual
dysfunction.
Tricyclic
antidepressants,
amphetamines,
chlorpromazine,
and
ephedrine
may
interfere
with
its
effectiveness
by
their
effects
on
guanethidine's
uptake
mechanism.
Guanethidine
is
contraindicated
in
patients
with
pheochromocytomas
and
should
not
be
given
to
those
receiving
monoamine
oxidase
(MAO)
inhibitors.
CD18b
Guanethidine:
B
A
Acts
primarily
at?/on?
the
CNS
B
Produces
anti-‐hypertensive
effects
primarily
by
presynaptic
inhibiting
Poorly
lipid
soluble
release
of
noradrenaline
Doesn’t
cross
BBB
C
Highly
lipid
soluble
D
Mental
depression
is
a
troublesome
side
effect
E
Orthostatic
hypotension
is
not
a
prominent
side
effect
CD19
Labetalol:
C
A
Alpha
agonist
and
beta
agonist
Racemic
with
4
isomers:
2
inactive,
1
alpha
blocker,
1
beta
blocker.
B
Alpha
agonist
and
beta
antagonist
Alpha
blocking
weak.
C
Alpha
antagonist
and
beta
antagonist
Labetalol
is
a
selective
α1
and
nonselective
β
antagonist.
Presynaptic
α2
D
Is
a
more
potent
alpha
blocker
than
phenoxybenzamine
receptors
are
spared
such
that
noradrenaline
can
inhibit
further
release
E
Alpha
>
beta
effect
via
negative
feedback.
Labetalol
is
1/10
to
1/5
as
potent
as
phentolamine
in
blocking
α
receptors
and
is
1/4-‐1/3
as
propranolol
in
blocking
β
receptors.
Stoelting
p335.
CD20
Frusemide:
C
true,
G
true,
E
[C
is
best
answer
&
direct
quote
from
stoelting]
A
30%
plasma
protein
binding
B
??%
absorption
Loop
diuretic,
inhibits
Na
reabsorption
in
PT
&
ALH
-‐
reduces
tonicity
of
C
Elimination
half-‐life
less
than
1
hr
renal
medulla.
No
active
secretion.
D
Promotes
active
secretion
60-‐70%
absorbed
orally,
bioavailability
43-‐71%,
90+%
protein
bound,
Vd
E
Affects
the
uricosuric
effect
of
probenecid
0.11-‐0.13
L/kg,
50-‐80%
excreted
unchanged
in
urine,
rest
appears
in
the
F
Effects
not
decreased
until
large
decrease
in
GFR
bile
&
faeces.
Cl
2.2ml/kg/min,
elimination1/2
<1hr.
G
Causes
a
diuresis
which
is
dependent
on
GFR
over
a
wide
range
Uricosuric
drugs
are
substances
that
increase
excretion
of
uric
acid.
Frusemide
impairs
the
naturetic
effect
of
probenecid.
Responsiveness
is
directly
related
to
the
GFR
over
a
wide
range
CD20a
Frusemide:
B
A
Has
30%
(?35%)
protein
binding
B
Has
an
elimination
half-‐life
<1hr
As
above
C
90%
excreted
in
bile
D
Increases
rate
of
secretion
in
the
renal
tubules
CD20b
Frusemide
does
NOT
cause:
C
A
Hyponatraemia
Causes
hypokalaemia,
hyponatraemia,
hypocalcaemia,
B
Hypokalaemia
hypomagnesaemia,
metabolic
acidosis.
C
Hypouricaemia
D
Hypomagnesemia
Causes
minimal
hyperuricaemia
E
Hypocalcaemia
15
CD21
The
antiarrhythmic
effect
of
lignocaine:
A
-‐
yes
by
slowing
phase
IV
A
Because
it
increases
the
refractoriness
in
cardiac
muscle
In
low
concentration,
↓rate
of
phase
IV
depolarisation,
duration
of
B
Therapeutic
level
2-‐5ng/ml
action
potential,
effective
refractory
period
&
conduction
velocity
C
?
Therapeutic
level
1-‐5mcg/ml
[Stoelting]
CD22
The
effects
of
beta
blocker
-‐
the
following
is
not
true
B,
G,
H
(multiple
years
worth
of
questions)
A
Relax
uterine
muscle
B
Increased
AV
conduction
D
is
true:
“Blockade
of
β2
receptors
↑PVR
and
CVR
due
to
ref:
C
Decreased
lipolysis
propranolol”
in
Stoelting
p326
and
Sasada.
Non-‐selective
β
blockers
may
D
Increased
SVR
impeded
LV
ejection
due
to
unopposed
α1
adrenergic
peripheral
E. Mask
hypoglycaemia
vasoconstriction.
F. Negative
inotropy
G. Opposing
effects
of
insulin
B
the
most
false
hence
the
most
correct!
Non-‐selective
B-‐blockers
eg
H. Lipolysis
propranolol
cause
initial
B2
block
and
initial
increase
in
SVR.
CD23
Phentolamine;
E
A
Is
a
selective
alpha-‐1
antagonist
Competitive
alpha
blocker,
nonselective
but
has
alpha1>2,
some
beta
B
Binds
covalently
to
the
alpha
receptor
agonism
&
serotoninergic
activity.
C
Causes
bradycardia
Phenoxybenzamine
binds
covalently.
D
Is
a
selective
alpha-‐2
antagonist
Decreased
BP
&
reflex
tachycardia.
E
Increases
cardiac
output
Positive
inotropy
related
to
indirect
effect
of
alpha2
block
&
norad
release.
CD24
A
non-‐selective
beta-‐blocker
with
a
low
extraction
ratio,
long
half-‐ None
–
pindolol
is
correct,
Next
best
is
D
life
and
ISA:
Atenolol
&
metoprolol
B1
selective
A
Atenolol
Propranolo
&
labetalol
nonselective
B
Propranolol
ISA
=
intrinsic
sympathetomimetic
action,
ie
agoinsm
and
antagonism.
C
Metoprolol
Propranolol,
atenolol,
metoprolol
-‐
no
ISA
(pure
antagonist)
D
Labetalol
Labetalol
may
have
some
ISA
&
some
alpha1
antagonism
.
E
?
ISA
in
oxprenolol,
pindolol,
penbutolol,
acebutolol
Pindolol
is
the
correct
answer.
Non
Selective.
FPM
10%.
3-‐4
hrs.
Partial
agonist
activity.
CD24b
Which
ONE
of
the
following
is
water
soluble,
half
life
6-‐8hrs,
E
(“and
something
else”)?
Esmolol
half
life
8mins
A
Esmolol
Metoprolol
halflife
3-‐4hrs
B
Metoprolol
Propranolol
halflife
2-‐3hrs
C
Propranolol
Atenolol
halflife
6-‐8hrs
&
has
renal
removal
(water
soluble)
D?
E
Atenolol
CD24c
Which
one
of
the
following
selective
BB
has
a
low
extraction
C
ration
&
is
predominantly
...
Hepatic
extraction
ratio:
A
Propranolol
Propranolol
75%,
esmolol
-‐,
atenolol
10%,
metoprolol
60%
B
Esmolol
C
Atenolol
D
Metoprolol
CD24d
A
beta1
selective
antagonist,
predominantly
excreted
in
urine
&
C
halflife
6-‐8
hrs
A
Sotalol
B
Esmolol
C
Atenolol
D
Propranolol
E
Metoprolol
CD26
Sotalol:
A,
B,
E,
G
(asked
multiple
years)
A
Non-‐selective
beta-‐blocker
Sotalol
is
used
for
sustained
VT,
VF,
atrial
arrhythmia.
Non-‐selective
B
B
Contraindicated
in
long
QT
antagonist
at
low
dose.
Class
II
&
III
activity.
At
higher
dose
prolongs
C
Increases
K+
conductance
cardiac
action
potential.
Not
recommended
in
asthma,
LVdysfn
&
D
Used
in
the
tx
of
torsades
conduction
abnormalities
(eg
long
QT,
can
cause
torsades).
Renal
E
Class
II
antiarrhythmic
drug
excretion,
no
protein
binding,
not
metabolised,
doesn’t
x
BBB
F
Is
a
selective
B1
antagonist
G
Blocks
K+
channels.
CD27
Trimetaphan
B
A
Crosses
the
blood-‐brain
barrier
Trimethaphan
is
a
peripheral
vasodilator
&
ganglionic
blocker
previously
B
Incompatible
with
thiopentone
used
for
controlled
HTN
(now
replaced
by
SNP
&
GTN).
C
?
Quaternary
ammonium
-‐
doesn’t
x
BBB
Is
incompatible
with
thio
16
CD28
Diazoxide
B
A
Has
diuretic
activity
Benzothiadiazine
derivative,
related
chemically
to
thiazide
diuretics.
Used
B
Opens
ATP-‐dependent
K
channels
for
acute
BP
mx.
Causes
Na
&
H2O
retention
(unlike
thiazides).
Has
been
C
Not
absorbed
orally
given
orally
to
tx
hypoglycaemia
(drug-‐induced
alpha
agonist-‐like
D
?
inhibition
of
insulin
release)
It
causes
fluid
retention
despite
structural
similarity
to
thiazides,
and
it
is
use
orally
–
50mg
tablets,
bioavailability
of
80%
(PHW)
CD29
Phenylephrine:
B
(most
correct),
A
Metabolised
by
COMT
C
(correct
with
topical
adminstration),
D
also
correct
(depending
on
B
Causes
mydriasis
wording
of
actual
options
–
effects
last
longer
than
NAd)
C
Metabolised
by
MAO
Synthetic
noncatecholamine,
stimulates
principally
alpha1
by
direct
D
Effects
last
(?same
time
as/?longer
than)
noradrenaline
effect
&
small
indirect
(norad
release)
E
Acts
by
indirect
method
only
No
catechol
so
not
metabolised
by
COMT.
Much
longer
duration
of
action
than
the
catecholamines
CD30
Regarding
hydrallazine:
A
A
Fast
acetylators
have
shorter
half
lives
than
slow
acetylators
B
Acts
via
SNS
mechanism
Phthalazine
derivative
that
activates
(by
uncertain
mechanism)
guanylate
C
Slow
acetylators
decrease
half-‐life
cyclase
to
produce
vascular
relaxation.
↓BP
by
relax
vasc
smooth
muscle.
D
Has
diuretic
action
Induces
reflex
increase
in
SNS.
Acetylation
is
major
route
of
metabolism.
E
Clearance
>50ml/kg/min
Rapid
acetylators
have
bioavail
30%,
slow
acetylators
have
bioavail
50%
CD31
Which
ONE
of
the
following
beta-‐blockers
is
selective
for
beta-‐1
&
gain
higher
conc
in
chronic
oral
dosing.
Causes
Na
&
H2O
retention.
receptors?
(No
other
details)
Duration
of
action
2-‐6hrs
Elimination
1/2life
avg
3hrs,
87%
protein-‐
bound,
Vd
4.2L/kg,
Cl
23ml/kg/min
(Sasada
&
Smith)
to
50ml/kg/min
CD32
Which
of
the
follow
statements
about
hydrallazine
is
A
False
-‐
mechanism
not
certain
but
probably
direct
activation
of
(?true/false):
guanylate
cyclase
and
increase
in
cGMP
-‐
leading
to
decreased
in
A
Acts
via
alpha
1
receptors
intracellular
Ca++
and
vasodilation.
B/C/D?
E
False
-‐
duration
of
effect
2-‐6hrs
E
Has
a
duration
of
action
of
1-‐2
hours
CD33
Concerning
dobutamine
B
A
Levo
has
alpha
1
antagonist
and
beta
agonist
effects
Dobutamine
is
a
synthetic
catecholamine
that
acts
as
a
selective
B1
B
Levo
has
partial
alpha
agonist
effects
and
beta
effects
agonist.
Both
isomers
of
dobutamine
are
B
agonists,
whereas
at
alpha1
C
is
a
pure
beta
agonist
receptors
these
isomers
exert
opposing
agonist
(levo)
and
antagonist
D
?
(dextro)
effects
CD34
Adenosine
A
&
E
A
Causes
AV
block
via
action
at
A1
receptors
B
Causes
bronchoconstriction
via
A2
receptors
Effects
of
adenosine
via
A1,
A2
&
A3
receptors
(A
=
adenosine
NOT
C
Causes
renal
vasodilation
alpha).
All
are
GPCR.
D
Causes
profound
depression
of
the
SA
node
A1:
block
AV
conduction,
bronchoconstriction,
inhibition
of
transmitter
E
Decreases
AV
transmission
release
at
many
CNS
&
PNS
synapses
A2:
vasodilation
except
kidney
(which
gets
vasoconstriction),
inhibits
platelet
aggregation,
stimulates
nociceptive
neurons,
A3:
release
mast
cells
mediators
SA
&
AV
node
by
A1
(adenosine1)
receptors
-‐
opening
of
K
channels
-‐
hyperpolarisation
&
decrease
in
diastolic
depolarization
&
negative
chronotropy.
CD35
Mechanism
of
action
of
hydralazine:
C
A
Selective
cerebral,
coronary,
renal
vasodilator
B
Alpha
agonist
Cerebral,
coronary,
renal
&
splanchnic
circulations
have
more
C
None
of
the
above
pronounced
vasodilatory
effects
but
does
cause
generalised
vasodilation
D
?
CD36
[Jul00]
[Jul04]
Clonidine:
B
[Stoelting
+
Peck/Hill/Williams]
A.
Causes
hypertension
and
tachycardia
Hypotension.
May
have
bradycardia
(suppression
of
endogenous
B.
Causes
bradycardia
catecholamine
release).
CO
initially
decreased
then
returns
to
normal.
C.
A
single
dose
given
orally
is
significantly
less
effective
then
an
Rapidly
&
almost
completely
absorbed
orally,
bioavailability
nearly
100%.
intravenous
dose
Decrease
the
plasma
concentration
of
catecholamines
in
normal
patients
D.
Counteracts
the
hypertensive
response
in
phaeochromocytoma
but
not
in
the
presence
of
phaechromocytoma.
E.
?
CD36b
[Jul04]
Clonidine
can
cause
these,
except
B
A.
Bradycardia
In
contrast
to
opioids,
doesn’t
cause
significant
respiratory
depression
B.
Apnoea
C.
Sedation
D.
?
17
CD37
[Jul00]
[Jul04]
The
first
sign
of
sodium
nitroprusside
toxicity
is:
B
A.
Cyanide
toxicity
Cyanide
toxicity
should
be
suspected
in
any
patient
who
is
resistant
to
B.
Tachyphylaxis
the
hypotensive
effects
of
the
drug
despite
maximum
infusion
rates,
or
a
C.
Hypotension
previously
responsive
patient
who
becomes
unresponseive
to
the
D.
?
systemic
blood
pressure-‐lowering
effects
(tachyphylaxis).
[Stoelting
p
(see
also
[[CD02,
[[CD06)
356]
Also
causes
increased
mixed
venous
PO2,
metabolic
acidosis,
CNS
dysfunction.
CD38
[Apr01]
Dexmedetomidine:
C
A.
Alpha-‐1
antagonist
Selective
alpha
2
agonists
(a2
1600:1
a1),
more
selective
than
clonidine
B.
?
(200:1).
Considered
to
be
a
full
agonist
at
a2
(clonidine
is
considered
a
C.
Decrease
in
intraocular
pressure
partial
agonist).
D.
Partial
alpha2
agonist
Has
been
demonstrated
to
decrease
intraocular
pressure
[BJA
article
E.
Less
selective
than
clonidine
1992,
68
(6):
570]
CD39
[Jul01]
[Jul04]
Amiloride:
B
A.
Potassium
sparing
antidiuretic
which
blocks
the
aldosterone
receptor
Amiloride
is
a
K+
sparing
diuretic
that
acts
directly
on
renal
tubular
B.
Blocks
luminal
sodium
channels
in
the
collecting
tubules
transport
mechanisms
in
DCT
&
CD
independent
of
aldosterone.
Diuresis
C.
Increases
potassium
excretion.
characterized
by
increase
in
urinary
excretion
of
Na+,
Cl-‐,
HCO3-‐
&
D.
Is
metabolised
by
the
liver.
increase
urinary
pH.
May
have
no
increase
or
decrease
in
K+
excretion
in
E.
Has
a
short
elimination
half
time.
urine.
Is
incompletely
absorbed,
is
not
metabolised,
elimination
half-‐time
18hrs.
[Stoelting
4th
ed
p492
+
Katzung
9th
ed
p250]
CD40
[Jul01]
With
regard
to
sodium
nitrite
in
cyanide
(CN)
toxicity:
A
A.
Causes
MetHb
Nitrites
(sodium
or
amyl
nitrite)
are
used
to
convert
oxyhaemglobin
to
B.
Used
to
create
more
hydrocobalamin
methaemoglobin
which
has
a
higher
affinity
for
CN.
C.
Used
to
displace
CN
from
Hb
Sodium
thiosulphate
provides
additional
sulphydryl
groups,
B12
is
D.
Creates
more
sulfhydryl
groups
sometimes
used
for
hydrocobalamin,
dicobalt
edetate
chelates
CN-‐
[Peck/Hill/Williams
3rd
ed,
p248]
CD41
[Jul01]
Methylxanthines:
C
most
correct
++
A.
(Something
about
Ca
currents)
E
correct
+
B.
(Something
about
K
currents)
?
A
correct
C.
Inhibit
adenosine
receptors
Methylxanthines
are
represented
by
caffeine,
theophylline
&
D.
Decrease
plasma
glucose
level
theobromine.
Effects:
CNS
stimulant,
diuresis,
increase
myocardial
E.
Cause
diuresis
by
acting
on
renal
tubules
contractility,
relax
smooth
muscle
(esp
airway).
MOA:
antagonism
of
F.
Physically
addictive
receptor-‐mediated
effects
of
adenosine.
[Stoelting
4th
ed,
p593]
Caffeine
inhibits
ADH
secretion
-‐
diuresis.
Soph’s
additional:
Methylxanthines:
uncertain
mechanism
of
action.
?via
PDE
inhibition.
CVS
effects
via
inhibition
of
presynaptic
adenosine
receptors
à
increased
catecholamine
release.
At
higher
concentrations
?Ca
influx
due
to
increase
in
cAMP
via
PDE
inhibition.
They
are
also
weak
diuretics
–
via
increased
GFR
and
reduced
tubular
Na
reabsorption
(Katzung).
I
think
that
C
is
most
correct,
although
?
A
correct,
?E
correct
?F
correct.
Fairly
sure
B
and
D
incorrect.
CD42
[Feb04]
[Jul04]
C
Which
is
the
initial
drug
to
use
in
the
treatment
of
ventricular
fibrillation?
Adrenaline
A.
Amiodarone
then
amiodarone
B.
Lignocaine
C.
Adrenaline
[Australian
resuscitation
council
website
www.resus.org.au]
D.
Magnesium
E.
Sotalol
CD43
[Feb04]
All
are
side
effects
of
Thiazides
except:
B
A.
Hypokalaemia
Thiazide
side
effects
include
hypokalaemic,
hypochloraemic
metabolic
B.
Hypernatraemia
alkalosis,
hypomagnesaemia,
hyponatraemia.
May
have
effects
from
C.
Impaired
carbohydrate
tolerance
these
(arrhythmias,
weakness,
ileus).
May
cause
hyperglycaemia
D.
Pancreatitis
(aggrevate
DM),
hyperuricaemia
(exacerbate
gout).
Bendrofluazide
may
precipitate
pancreatitis.
[Stoelting
4th
ed,
p487
+
Peck
3rd
ed,
p307]
CD44
[Feb04]
Why
do
you
give
adrenaline
for
VF?
B
A.
To
coarsen
fine
VF
Adrenaline
administered
in
cardiac
arrest
to
cause
peripheral
B.
To
improve
coronary
blood
flow
vasoconstriction
&
may
facilitate
defibrillation
by
improving
myocardial
C.
Increase
chronotropy
blood
flow
during
CPR.
[Australian
resuscitation
council
website
www.resus.org.au]
18
CD45
[Feb04]
Nitroprusside
toxicity:
Dicobalt
edetate:
chelates
CN-‐
ions
A.
Treat
with
???
B.
Sodium
thiosulfate:
provides
sulfhydryl
groups
to
facilitate
conversion
of
CN-‐
to
SCN
(which
is
100
times
less
toxic
than
CN-‐
but
still
toxic
esp
if
it
accumulates)
Nitrites
(sodium
nitrite/amyl
nitrite):
conversion
of
oxyHb
to
metHb,
which
has
a
higher
affinity
for
CN-‐
than
cytochrome
oxidase
Vitamin
B12
can
be
used
as
prophylaxis
(but
not
in
acute
setting),
complexes
CN-‐
to
cyanocobalamin
[Peck
3e
pp248-‐249]
• Treatment:
1. Sodium
bicarbonate
to
correct
acidosis
2. Sodium
thiosulfate
150mg/kg
to
act
as
sulphur
donor
3. Sodium
nitrite
which
converts
Hb
-‐
MetHb
4. Dicobalt
edetate
or
Vit
B12a
which
chelates
cyanide
CD46
[Jul04]
Which
of
the
following
is
a
sign
of
SNP
toxicity?
A
A.
Tachyphylaxis
see
question
37
B.
Decreased
mixed
venous
PO2
C.
Sudden
decrease
in
arterial
PO2
D.
?Hypotension
CD47
[Jul04]
Dihydropyridine
Ca
channel
blocker
causes
peripheral
A
oedema
due
to
Dihydropyrimidines
include
nifedipine,
nicardipine,
nimodipine,
A.
vasodilator
causing
redistribution
of
ECF
felodipine
&
amlodipine.
They
have
an
affinity
for
peripheral
arterioles.
B.
has
a
mild
antidiuretic
effect,
and
therefore
easily
treatable
with
Dihydropyridines
not
uncommonly
cause
ankle
swelling,
possibly
because
diuretic
arteriolar
dilatation
increases
capillary
pressure,
especially
in
the
feet
C.
salt
and
water
retention
due
to
hypotension
where
venous
pressure
is
greatest
when
standing.
[Rang
4th
ed,
p276]
D.
CD48
[Jul04]
Isoprenaline
C
A.
can
be
used
as
a
substitute
to
Metaraminol
for
treatment
of
Isoprenaline
=
Isoproterenol
(US
term)
hypotension
Is
the
most
potent
activator
at
B1
&
B2
receptors.
In
clinical
doses
is
B.
used
extensively
to
treat
ischaemic
heart
disease
devoid
of
alpha
action.
Metabolism
by
COMT
in
liver
rapid
-‐
requires
C.
cause
decrease
SVR
continuous
infusion.
D.
cause
bradycardia
Clinical
uses:
heart
block,
bradydisarrhythmias,
bronchodilator.
E.
?
Effects:
↑HR,
↑cardiac
contractility,
↑cardiac
automaticity,
↓SVR
→
net
effect
↑CO
that
is
usually
sufficient
to
increase
SBP
but
may
↓MAP
&
↓DBP
→
may
↓coronary
flow
(poor
perfusion
pressure)
&
compromise
pt
with
coronary
disease
(causes
increased
demand
at
same
time
due
to
tachycardia).
[Stoelting
4th
ed,
p301]
CD49
Which
one
of
the
following
is
NOT
an
adverse
effect
of
D
amiodarone?
Causes
bradycardia/heart
block/arrhythmias
but
is
not
known
to
cause
A.
Pulmonary
fibrosis
cardiomyopathy.
B.
Photosensitive
rash
C.
Corneal
microdeposits
Others
are
potential
side
effects.
D.
cardiomyopathy
[Stoelting
4th
ed,
p382]
E.
thyrotoxicosis
CD50
The
beta
blocker
with
the
greatest
oral
bioavailability
is:
C
A.
Atenolol
Bioavailability
%
B.
Metoprolol
Pindolol
90
C.
Sotalol
Sotalol
85
D.
Labetalol
Timolol/metoprolol
50
E.
Carvedilol
Atenolol
45
Others:
??Propranolol
??Esmolol
Oxprenolol/acebutolol
40
Propranolol/Carvedilol
30
Labetalol
25
Esmolol
0
[Peck
3rd
ed,
p222
+
Katzung
11th
ed
p157]
CD51
Dexmedetomidine
B
A.
MAC
sparing
for
isoflurane
by
maximal
30%
Highly
selective
a2
agonist
(1600:1)
B.
can
cause
bradycardia
&
sinus
arrest
In
humans,
Isoflurane
MAC
decreased
35-‐48%
by
dexmedetomidine
(0.3-‐
C.
increases
CBF
0.6ng/ml).
In
high
doses,
can
be
used
as
TIVA.
D.
?
Severe
bradycardia
may
follow
administration
&
cardiac
arrest
has
been
E.
?
reported.
[Stoelting
4th
ed,
p344]
19
CD52
[Jul08]
Acetazolamide:
C
A.
maximum
increase
in
urine
pH
8
hours
after
oral
dose
Acetazolamide
is
a
carbonic
anhydrase
inhibitor
-‐
binds
avidly
to
CA
B.
maximum
safe
dose
causes
complete
absence
of
HCO3
reabsorption
enzyme,
noncompetitive
inhibition
principally
in
PT.
Excretion
of
H+
ions
C.
maximum
safe
dose
decreases
HCO3
reabsorption
(?to)
45%
is
diminished
&
loss
of
bicarb
is
increased.
Cl-‐
is
retained
by
kidneys
to
D.
causes
hypochloraemic
acidosis
offset
bicarb
losses.
K+
excreted
in
exchange
for
Na+
in
DT
(as
H+
not
E.
is
a
potassium
sparing
diuretic
available).
Net
effect
is
hyperchloraemic
metabolic
acidosis.
Max
safe
dose
inhibits
85%
of
HCO3-‐
reabsorption
at
PCT,
but
45%
inhibition
for
whole
kidney
(continued
HCO3
reabsoprtion
by
CA
independent
mechanism)
[Stoelting,
4th
ed,
p494
+
Katzung
11th
ed,
p256]
CD53
[Mar09]
Acetazolamide
None
of
these
A.
Structurally
related
to
procainamide
and
may
have
anti-‐arrhythmic
Procainamide
has
similar
effects
to
quinidine
but
is
less
vagolytic.
activity
at
high
doses
Other
effects:
inhibit
formation
of
aqueous
humour
(for
glaucoma),
B.
Something
about
metabolism
inhibit
formation
of
CSF,
inhibits
seizure
activity,
helps
in
management
of
C.
?
familial
periodic
paralysis
[Stoelting,
4th
ed,
p494]
D.
?
CD54
[Mar09]
Pharmacokinetics
of
amiodarone:
E
if
is
increases
A.
Oral
bioavailability
is
reliable
Poorly
absorbed
from
the
GIT,
oral
bioavailability
50-‐70%.
B.
Doses
must
be
reduced
in
renal
and
hepatic
failure
Hepatic
metabolism
produces
desethylamiodarone
(some
anti-‐
C.
Omission
of
1
or
2
doses
can
lead
to
severe
consequences
arrhythmic
activity).
It
is
excreted
by
lachrymal
glands,
skin
&
biliary
tract.
D.
Metabolism
is
via
?hydroxylation/demethylation?
(Little
renal
excretion)
E.
?Increases/?decreases
refractory
period
Elimination
half
life
very
long
20-‐100days
(could
probably
miss
several
doses).
MOA:
Blocks
K+
channels,
slows
rate
of
repolarisation
-‐
increases
duration
of
action
potential.
The
refractory
period
is
also
increased.
[Peck
3rd
ed,
p239
CD55
Sympathomimetics:
A
A.
Phenylephrine
acts
only
on
alpha
receptors
Phenylephrine
is
only
an
alpha
agonist.
Metaraminol
has
alpha
and
beta.
B.
Metaraminol
acts
only
on
alpha
receptors
Methoxamine
is
only
alpha.
C.
Methoxamine
in
high
doses
acts
on
beta
receptors
[Stoelting,
4th
ed,
chapter
12]
D.
Pseudoephedrine
is
an
isomer
of
ephedrine
E.
?
CD56
Whice
ONE
of
the
following
is
True
about
vasopressin?
C
A.
Slowly
metabolized
by
renal
peptidase
Vasopressin
is
an
exogenous
preparation
of
ADH.
B.
Does
not
cause
coronary
vasoconstriction
Marked
splachnic
vasoconstriction
-‐
can
be
used
in
bleeding
oesophageal
C.
Causes
mesenteric
vasoconstriction
varicies
in
pt
with
liver
cirrhosis
&
portal
hypotension.
D.
Increases
plasma
level
of
factor
VIII
Even
in
small
doses
may
produce
selective
vasoconstriction
of
coronary
E.
Is
an
orally
active
derivative
of
ADH
arteries
-‐
manifests
as
angina.
Does
not
increase
plasma
concentrations
of
Factor
VIII,
von
Willebrand
factor
antigen
of
ristocetin
co-‐factor.
May
cause
platelet
aggregation
via
V1
receptors.
Rapid
renal
and
hepatic
metabolism
[Stoelting,
4th
ed,
p473]
CD57
Clonidine:
D
A.
Dry
mouth
and
agitation
are
very
common
side
effects
Dry
mouth
may
occur
with
neuroaxial
treatment
but
is
rare,
agitation
B.
Half
life
is
24-‐48
hours
only
in
super
high
doses.
C.
?
Elimination
half-‐time
9-‐12hrs
D.
Can
cause
severe
hypertension
if
withdrawn
abruptly
after
long
term
Abrupt
discontinuation
of
clonidine
may
result
in
rebound
hypertension.
therapy
with
large
doses
The
usual
adult
daily
dose
is
0.2-‐0.3mg
orally.
E.
Therapeutic
dose
is
2-‐5mg
per
day
[Stoelting,
4th
ed,
p340-‐344]
CD58
Beta
adrenergic
receptor
antagonists
B
A.
Seldom
causes
inhibition
of
lipolyisis
BBlockers
-‐
selective
competitive
inhibition,
reversible.
B.
Causes
inhibition
of
gluconeogenesis
caused
by
adrenergic
Non-‐selective
BBs
may
obtund
the
normal
blood
sugar
response
to
stimulation
following
hypoglycaemia
exercise
&
hypoglycaemia.
May
mask
normal
symptoms
of
C.
Does
not
mask
the
signs
of
hypoglycaemia
hypoglycaemia.
D
Sudden
cessation
is
not
associated
with
rebound
effects
Lipid
metabolism
may
be
altered
-‐
increased
triglycerides
&
reduced
high
E.
There
is
no
evidence
of
cardiac
protection
for
high
risk
patients
pre-‐ density
lipoproteins.
operatively
May
get
up-‐regulation
of
receptors
with
prolonged
use
(risk
of
rebound
HTN)
POISE
study
indicates
some
cardioprotection
in
high
risk
patients
(possibly
higher
risk
of
stroke,
controversial
methodology)
[Peck,
3rd
ed,
p223]
CD59
Labetalol:
B
A.
Beta
and
alpha
antagomisn
with
partial
agonist
activity
at
alpha
2
Combined
blockade:
specific
to
a1
receptors,
non
specific
at
b
receptors.
receptors
[Peck,
3rd
ed,
p
226]
B.
Beta
and
alpha
1
antagonist
C.
Alpha
agonist
and
beta
1
antagonist
D.
?
E.
?
20
CD60
GTN
is
helpful
myocardial
infarction
by:
A
A.
Decreasing
left
ventricular
pressure
and
mean
arteriolar
pressure
Organic
nitrates
act
principally
on
venous
capacitance
vessels
and
large
B.
Producing
methaemoglobinaemia
coronary
arteries
to
produce
peripheral
pooling
of
blood
and
decreased
C.
improving
coronary
blood
flow
by
dilating
the
small
arterioles
cardiac
ventricular
wall
tension.
D.
?
E.
?
Methaemoglobinaemia
is
via
nitrites
but
is
used
in
cyanide
toxicity,
not
AMI.
[Stoelting,
4th
ed,
p361]
I
think
the
problem
with
C
is
that
it
is
the
option
is
small
arterioles
but
the
major
target
of
GTN
is
the
LARGE
arteries/arterioles
CD61
Which
of
the
following
could
cause
significant
adverse
reactions
E
with
the
MAO-‐i
selegiline?
Selegiline
is
a
2nd
gen
MAOI.
It
is
highly
selective
&
irreversible
inhibitor
A.
Dopamine
of
MAO-‐B,
used
for
antiparkinson
effect
(weak
alone,
moderate
when
B.
Phenylephrine
adjunct
to
carbidopa-‐levodopa).
C.
Ephedrine
MAO-‐B
enzyme
activity
is
one
of
the
principle
catabolic
pathways
for
D.
Metaraminol
dopamine
in
CNS.
In
contrast
to
nonspecific
MAOIs,
does
not
result
in
E.
None
of
the
above
life-‐threatening
potentiation
of
the
efects
of
catecholamines
when
administered
concurrently
with
centrally
active
amine.
Metabolism
of
noradrenaline
in
peripheral
nerve
endings
is
not
altered
by
selegiline.
[Stoelting,
4th
ed,
p584]
A
consequence
of
MAOB
in
the
brain
is
reduction
in
overall
catabolism
of
DA,
which
may
reduced
the
formation
of
potentially
toxic
free
radicals:
?
neuroprotective
effect.
Potential
interactions
with
pethidine
&
serotonergic
drugs
(esp
TCA)
[Goodman
&
Gilman,
chapter
22]
Soph’s
addit:
I
agree
with
you
Bron.
The
selective
MAOI
have
the
other
MAO
(either
B
or
A)
to
metabolise
these
drugs.
Their
administration
with
selegiline
should
not
cause
hypertensive
crisis.
Maybe
we
should
check
this
one
with
an
anaesthetist??
CD62
Mannitol:
A
A.
Causes
loss
of
medullary
tonicity
Osmotic
diuretic.
Completely
filtered
at
the
glomeruli
&
none
B.
Urine
hyperosmolar
compared
to
plasma
reabsorbed.
C.
Site
of
action
is
PCT
and
DCT
Increase
in
renal
medullary
blood
flow
removes
NaCl
and
urea
from
renal
D.
Tubular
fluid
is
isotonic
in
descending
loop
of
Henle
medulla,
thus
reducing
medullary
tonicity.
Under
some
circumstances,
prostaglandins
may
contribute
to
renal
vasodilation
&
medullary
washout
induced
by
osmotic
diuretics.
Act
both
in
PT
and
LOH,
the
latter
being
the
primary
site
of
action.
[Goodman
&
Gilman,
chapter
25]
CD63
Clonidine
side
effects
A
best
of
causes
A.
Sedation
B
best
if
“all
except”
B.
Nausea
and
vomiting
Could
argue
anxiogenic
&
delerium
in
high
doses.
C.
?
Unlike
opioids,
does
not
produce
depression
of
ventilation,
pruritus,
D.
?
nausea,
vomiting
or
delayed
gastric
emptying.
Urinary
retention
is
E.
delirium
uncommon.
Clonidine
effects
(good
and
bad):
-‐ Antihypertensive
-‐ sedation
-‐ decrease
MAC
-‐ analgesic
-‐ treatment
of
withdrawal
-‐ xerostomia
-‐ protection
against
perioperative
MI
-‐ Attenuate
response
to
surgical
stimuli
-‐ inhibits
thermoregulatory
control
-‐ retention
of
water
and
sodium
-‐ skin
rashes
-‐ impotence
-‐ rebound
hypertension
[Stoelting,
4th
ed,
p340-‐344]
21
Endocrine
pharm
EN01
[Mar96]
[Jul97]
Chlorpropamide:
A.
Inhibits
ADH
secretion
B.
Has
a
short
duration
of
action
(?
Half-‐life
<
12]]
hrs)
ANSWER:
D
best,
C
possible
C.
Increases
glucose
entry
into
cells
A
Yes
as
per
PHW,
No
as
per
Goodman
D.
Is
prolonged
in
renal
failure
B
NO
–
long
t½
C
Yes
–
sulphonylureas
increase
insulin
release
from
pancreas
à
increases
glucose
entry
into
cells
D
–
Yes
(see
below
and
as
per
Goodman)
PHW:
Chlorpropamide
is
a
sulphonylurea
with
duration
of
action
27-‐
72hrs.
It
is
partially
reliant
on
renal
elimination
.
This
combined
with
long
t½
put
elderly
at
high
risk
hypoglycaemia.
It
can
cause
facial
flushing/vomiting
following
alcohol
and
may
rarely
enhance
ADH
secretion
à
hyponatraemia.
22
General
pharm
GP01.
A
drug
is
given
at
a
dose
of
50
mg/kg
to
a
70
kg
C
man.
The
plasma
concentration
after
giving
it
is
10
mg/ml.
The
elimination
half-‐life
is
8
hours.
Clearance
would
be:
Vd
=
dose/conc
A.
1.3
l/h
Cl
=
0.69x3
x
Vd
/
t1/2
B.
3
l/hr
C.
0.03
l/hr
Vd
D.
125
l/hr
=
dose
/
concentraion
=
3500
mg/10
mg/ml
=
350
ml
Clearance
=
0.693
x
Vd
/
t1/2
=
0.693
x
350
ml
/
8
hrs
=
30
ml
/
hr
=
0.03
L
/
hr
Therefore
answer
C
is
correct
GP03
Histamine
release
Histamine
is
low
MW,
natural
hydrophilic
amine.
Acts
via
GPCR
+
is
important
mediator
of
inflammation
in
allergy
(released
in
antigen-‐ab
reactions/drugs).
Mast
cells
&
(no
other
details)
basophils
contain
histamine.
Does
not
easily
cross
blood-‐brain
(minimal
CNS
effect).
H1
receptor
-‐
smooth
muscle
contraction/pruritis/sneeze.
H2-‐
gastric
acid
secretion/incr
HR.
H3
in
heart
GP04. Rectal administration of drugs: B -‐ true because of different drainages of anus.
-‐ Gives predictable blood levels Variable absorption & metabolism depending on where it was administered to.
-‐ From
lower
1/3rd
avoids
first
pass
&
upper
2/3rds
doesn’t
-‐ None
undergoes
first
pass
metabolism
-‐ All
of
it
undergoes
first
pass
metabolism
-‐ Determined
in
phase
I
clinical
trial
Testing
in
phase
0.
(Phase
1
is
normal
human
volunteers).
-‐ Determined
from
log-‐dose
response
curve
Determined
from
quantal
dose-‐response
curves.
-‐ Dose
causing
death
in
50%
of
animals
within
?1/?4
hours
F
is
the
therapeutic
index.
-‐ Half
the
mean
lethal
dose
-‐ Best
expressed
as
a
ratio
of
lethal
dose
in
50%
of
23
animals
to
effective
dose
in
50%
A. A competitive antagonist has no intrinsic activity Affinity is how avidly binds the receptor, not the response produced.
B. A
partial
agonist
has
less
receptor
affinity
than
a
full
KD
is
the
equilibrium
dissociation
constant.
The
affinity
constant
is
the
reciprocal
of
KD.
agonist
C. KD
is
maximal
intrinsic
efficacy
A. Always antagonises a full agonist May antagonise a full agonist (depends on how may receptors are occupied by each)
-‐ Increases
late
because
of
decreased
albumin
A
The
placenta
is
more
permeable
in
early
pregnancy
-‐ Do
not
cross
if
MW
>600
daltons
B
No
-‐ Lipid
soluble
drugs
diffuse
through
placenta
depending
on
concentration
gradient
C
False
-‐
drugs
100-‐500
cross
easily,
500-‐1000
cross
with
difficulty,
>1000
will
not
cross
-‐ Increased
diffusion
if
greater
plasma
protein
binding
in
fetus
D
–
No.
Rate
of
diffusion
is
more
dependent
on
conc
gradient
E
-‐
true
-‐
high
protein
binding
in
fetus
↑
drug
transfer
across
placenta
(lower
conc
difference
–
Fick’s
law!)
A. ?
B. Half-‐life
is
inversely
proportional
to
clearance
B
correct
-‐
Cl
=
0.693
x
Vd
/
Cl
C. ?
D
True
in
zero
order
kinetics.
Steady
state
maintenance
dose
=
clearance
x
plasma
conc
D. Half
life
is
proportional
to
steady
state
E. B&D
(and
therefore
E)
C. ? B wrong: an ether bond is a link between 2 carbon-‐containing groups R-‐O-‐R’.
24
GP11
The
NMDA
receptor
C
-‐ Should be given with sorbitol Sorbitol causes vomiting & diarrhoea -‐ may not be desired (same as ipecac)
-‐ Is
not
effective
against
theophylline
Not
effective
against
corrosive
agents,
alcohols,
misc
(boric
acid,
iron,
lithium),
and
-‐ Should
be
given
with
ipecac
petroleum
products.
(Avoid
CAMP
BAIL
-‐
where
BAIL
covers
misc
ones)
-‐ Should
be
given
in
a
drug:charcoal
ratio
of
1:10
A Easy to determine in humans Not determined in humans -‐ done in animals
B ?
C ?
D ?
A ?
GP15 Oxygen toxicity B -‐ can cause toxicity if this is not superacute exposure
B Causes lipid peroxidation at less than 100kPa Need kPa >200 for CNS toxicity
GP16 With regard to log/dose response curves: A – that’s why they’re created! For easier comparison
D & E ?
B Inversely proportional to thickness Diffusion = (Area x pressure gradient x solubility) / (thickness x MW)
25
D
Inversely
proportional
to
concentration
difference
E ?
B Phenylephrine
C Morphine
D Vecuronium
E Salbutamol
A & B ?
C
Drug
elimination
at
a
constant
rate
regardless
of
C
is
zero
order,
D
is
first
order
dose
E ?
A
Thiopentone
Lignocaine
is
achiral
and
does
not
have
enantiomeric
forms,
others
all
chiral
compounds.
B
Lignocaine
C
Bupivucaine
D Isoflurane
E Enflurane
GP22
Clearance
of
a
drug
with
a
high
hepatic
Both
are
true!
extraction
will
be
Possibly
A
is
“more
true”
-‐
shock
always
decreases
hepatic
flow,
high
output
usually
A
Decreased
in
shock
increases
hepatic
flow.
B
Increased
in
high
output
states
If
HER
is
high,
clearance
of
drug
depends
on
blood
flow,
whereas
changes
in
enzyme
activity
will
have
little
effect
A Contains 5HT3 and D2 receptors Chemoreceptor trigger zone receptors for 5HT3, histamine, muscarinic, D2, opioids.
B
Not
involved
in
inner
ear
mediated
nausea
Motion
can
stimulate
equilibrium
receptors
in
inner
ear
which
may
also
stimulate
chemoreceptor
trigger
zone
C
?
GP24 Glutamate A
A
Dissociates
slowly
from
the
NMDA
receptor
Excitatory
transmitter,
binds
NMDA
&
AMPA
&
kainate,
does
dissociate
slowly
from
NMDA
receptor
B
does
not
act
at
AMPA
and
kainite
receptors
26
C
Inhibitory
neurotransmitter
in
CNS
D ?
A
Paracetamol
uptake
increased
Uptake/absorption
fairly
unchanged,
decreased
protein
binding
increases
hepatic
clearance.
B
Increased
sensitivity
and
faster
onset
with
thiopentone
GP26
Which
is
an
antagonist
at
the
NMDA
receptor?
D
-‐
marketed
primarily
as
an
antitussive,
is
an
antagonist
of
the
glutamatergic
NMDA
receptor.
A
Dexamethasone
B
Dextropropoxyphene
A
synthetic
glucocorticosteroid
C
Dexmedetomidine
B
centrally
acting
synthetic
opioid
D
Dextromethorphan
C
full
alpha
2
agonist
E
Dexmethamphetamine
D
sympathomimetic
B Dexamethasone has 8x potency of hydrocortisone Dexa -‐ synthetic, 25x potency of hydrocort, very little mineralocorticoid
C Both have mineralocorticoid activity Hydrocort needs additives to make H2O soluble
GP28
A
drug
has
a
hepatic
extraction
ratio
of
0.7
and
is
D
30%
absorbed,
what
is
the
bioavailability?
A
0.3
Oral
bioavailability
=
fraction
of
drug
reaching
systemic
circulation
compared
with
same
B
0.7
iv
dose
D 0.09 F = fx(1-‐ER)
E 0.03 Or
27
C
Metaclopramide
Metaclop
acts
on
central
5HT3,
droperidol
acts
via
central
D2
blockade.
E Domperidone
B
Something
about
probit’s
relation
to
standard
Given
increasing
doses
of
14
days
or
until
50%
of
the
animals
die
deviation
C
Animals
are
given
increasing
doses
of
a
drug
until
they
die
A
is
wrong
as
it
is
the
median
lethal
dose
D ?
A
Probit
score
of
5
means
it
is
5
SD
away
from
the
median
D
quantal
dose
response
curve
sound
right
as
we
re
looking
at
population
%
effect
to
B
Mean
lethal
dose
drug
(ED50or
LD50
in
this
case)
as
opposed
to
graded
dose
response
curves
which
look
at
an
individual
response
eg
muscle
relaxants
and
95%
reduction
in
twitch
height
C
Calculated
from
graded
dose-‐response
curves
(EC50).
[goodman]
GP31
Which
is
not
a
ligand
gated
channel?
A
-‐
it
is
GPCR
-‐>
note
this
question
probably
asking
which
is
not
linked
to
ion
channel
directly
(ionotropic)?
Since
a
receptor
is
something
that
binds
a
ligand
by
definition
A
Alpha2
receptor
B
5HT3
receptor
Ion
channels:
gated
/
ungated
C
Nicotinic
cholinergic
receptor
§ Gated:
ligand
/
voltage
/
2nd
messenger
/
mechano
D
GABA
receptor
Receptors:
ionotropic,
metabotropic,
nuclear
E
NMDA
receptor
§ Ionotropic
receptors
are
directly
linked
to
ion
channels
§ Metabotropic
receptors
act
via
second
messengers
G-‐proteins
(assoc
with
GPCR)
GP32 G proteins: B
28
A.
Always
have
3
subunits
B. Alpha subunit has intrinsic GTPase activity A – small G proteins have only alpha subunit
GP33
[Aug11]
When
is
the
safest
time
to
give
a
drug
to
E
a
lactating
mother?
A.
3
-‐
4
hours
before
breastfeeding
B. Immediately before breastfeeding "If the nursing mother must take medications and the drug is a relatively safe one, she
C.
Immediately
after
breastfeeding
should
optimally
take
it
30-‐60
minutes
after
nursing
and
3-‐4
hours
before
the
next
feeding."
D.
30
-‐
60
minutes
after
breastfeeding
-‐from
Katzung
11th
ed,
Ch59
E.
Either
A
or
D
GP34
[Aug11]
Which
of
the
following
drugs
has
low
E
–
Aspirin
first
pass
metabolism
A.
Lignocaine
st
Notable
drugs
that
experience
a
significant
1
pass
effect
are
imipramine,
morphine,
B.
Morphine
propranolol,
buprenorphine,
diazepam,
midazolam,
metoclopramide,
demerol,
cimetidine
and
lignocaine
C.
Metoclopramide
D.
Midazolam
Aspirin
has
oral
bioavailability
of
70%
E.
Aspirin
GP35
[Aug11]
All
are
secreted
by
the
proximal
tubule
§ A
-‐
Diazepam
is
not.
in
the
kidney
except:
§ B
-‐
Morphine
is
§ C
-‐
Probenicid
is
A.
Diazepam
§ D
-‐
Penicillin
-‐
main
mechanism
of
clearance
B.
Morphine
§ E
-‐
Frusemide
-‐
is
part
of
it's
mechanism
of
action
C. Probenicid
D. Penicillin
E. Frusemide
A. ?
B. mcg/ml
C. mg/ml
D. ?
E. ?
29
GP36b
[Feb12]
The
units
of
rate
constant
k
are?
D
A. mg/min
-‐1
B.
mcg/kg/min
Assuming
first
order
kinetics
though.
Answer
is
always
time
C.
min
-‐1
D
min
-‐1
E.
ml
C.
[[heparin]
§ Heparin
does
not
affect
platelet
function-‐
is
involved
in
clotting
cascade
§ Warfarin
does
not
affect
platelet
function
-‐
is
involved
in
clotting
cascade
D.
diclofenac
E. aspirin
C.
warfarin
§ Heparin
does
not
affect
platelet
function-‐
is
involved
in
clotting
cascade
§ Warfarin
does
not
affect
platelet
function
-‐
is
involved
in
clotting
cascade
D.
diclofenac
E. clopidogrel
A. Aspirin
B. diclofenac
C. clopidogrel
D. heparin
E. warfarin
30
Haem
pharm
MD03
[Mar96]
[Jul97]
[Jul98]
Regarding
the
plasma
Answer
half-‐life
of
heparin:
Part
1:
D
7A.
Clearance
affected
by
warfarin
Part
2:
A
B.
Depends
on
site
of
injection
C.
Less
for
low
MW
heparins
-‐ LWMH
have
longer
t
½
elimination
D.
Depends
on
dose
given
-‐ Heaprins
t
½
elim
depends
on
dose
given
(increasing
dose
à
increases
t
½
elim)
MD03b
[Jul97]
Heparin:
-‐ Acts
via
enhancing
activity
of
anti-‐thrombin
III
thereby
inhibiting
thrombin
A.
Has
a
half
life
dependent
on
dose
and
ACTIVATED
factors
X,
XII,
XI,
IX
(answer
suggest
inactivated
factors)
B.
Inactivates
factors
XII,
XI,
X,
IX
-‐ Also
inhibits
platelet
function
C.
?
D.
?
(see
also
[[MD49)
MD05
[Mar96]
Aspirin:
Answer:
C
+
D
A.
At
low
doses
inhibits
prostacyclin
Aspirin:
B.
Reversibly
inhibits
lipoxygenase
At
low
doses
it
inhibits
the
synthesis
of
PGI
(not
PGI
itself).
C.
Irreversibly
inhibits
cycloxygenase
It
irreversibly
binds
to
and
inhibits
COX
via
acetylation
(ipoxygenase
pathway
intact).
D.
Can
cause
asthmatic
reactions
Can
trigger
asthma:
incraesed
production
of
leukotrienes
à
bronchospasm
+/-‐
hypotension.
Answer:
D
MD10
[Mar97]
[Jul02]
Thrombocytopaenia
is
a
side-‐
effect
of
which
ONE
of
the
following:
All
are
cytotoxic
drugs
and
therefore
effect
cells
with
rapid
turnover
(platelets).
A.
Busulphan
Busulfan:
prolonged
thrombocytopenia
B.
Cis-‐platin
Cisplatin:
transient
thrombocytopenia
C.
Methotrexate
Methotrexate:
occurs
at
5-‐7/7
post
administration,
then
rapid
recovery.
D.
All
of
the
above
E.
?
MD21
[Jul98]
[Jul99]
[Mar02]
Streptokinase:
ANSWER:
D
(also
C)
A.
Acts
on
circulating
plasmin
Wrong:
A,B,E
B.
When
administered
IV
causes
increased
blood
Streptokinase
is
a
protein
produced
by
B-‐haemolytic
streptococci.
It
is
not
an
enzyme
pressure?
and
does
not
convert
plasminogen
to
plasmin
by
proteolytic
cleavage.
Instead
it
binds
C.
Is
significantly
more
efficacious
in
preventing
non-‐covalently
to
plasminogen,
converting
it
to
a
plasminogen-‐activator
complex
that
mortality
if
given
within
1
hour
of
onset
of
chest
acts
on
other
plasminogen
molecules
to
generate
plasmin.
T
½
elim
23
minutes.
Infusion
pain,
compared
with
being
given
within
3-‐6
hours?
can
decrease
SVR
and
cause
hypotension.
It
is
not
fibrin
specific
and
can
produce
D.
Is
significantly
more
effective
in
preventing
death
systemic
thrombolytic
state.
Can
also
stimulate
antibody
production
and
subsequent
from
MI
when
used
in
combination
with
aspirin?
allergic
reactions/fever.
Anti-‐streptococcal
antibodies
induce
amnestic
response
that
E.
Is
not
useful
in
treatment
of
lower
limb
DVT?
makes
repeated
treatment
difficult
or
impossible
for
months
to
years
after
initial
treatment.
Only
marker
of
efficacy
is
thrombin
time
(if
not
prolonged
in
few
hours
of
starting
treatment
not
going
to
work
due
to
high
titre
of
antistrep
antibodies).
GISSI
Study:
47%
reduction
mortality
if
given
within
1hr
onset
chest
pain
(17%
if
at
6hrs).
ISIS:
53%
reduction
mortality
if
streptokinase
+
aspirin
within
4
hours
(35%
streptokinase
alone).
MD25
[Mar99]
Phenylbutazone:
ANSWER:
A.
Interferes
with
heparin
metabolism
Part
1:
B
B.
Increases
warfarin
plasma
concentration
Part
2:
A
(?better
than
C)
C.
Decreases
warfarin
plasma
concentration
D.
Reduces
the
elimination
of
warfarin
Phenylbutazone
is
an
anti-‐inflammatory
drug
used
in
acute
gout
+
rheumatoid
arthritis.
Toxicity
so
do
not
use
for
>7days.
Absorbed
rapidly
+
completely
from
GIT.
Protein
July
2000
version:
Phenylbutazone's
effect
on
the
binding
98%.
Metabolism
in
liver
extensive
glucuronidation,
hydroxylation
to
active
coagulation
system
are
due
to:
metabolites
(oxyphenbutazone).
Excreted
in
urine.
T
½
elim
=
50-‐100hrs.
SE
are
not
A.
Binding
to
albumen,
displacing
warfarin
uncommon:
anaemia,
agranulocytosis,
N/V,
epigastric
discomfort,
rahses.
Na
retention
B.
Inhibiting
warfarin
metabolism
due
to
its
direct
action
on
renal
tubules.
Displaces
other
highly
protein
bound
drugs
such
C.
?
some
interaction
with
aspirin
as
warfarin,
OHG,
sulfonamides.
Displaces
thyroid
hormone
from
protein
binding
sites
D.
?
effect
on
platelets
complicates
TFT
interpretation.
It
also
decreases
uptake
of
iodine
by
thyroid
gland.
Increased
bleeding
if
phenylbutazone
is
co-‐administed
with
warfarin
or
aspirin.
MD27
[Jul98]
[Jul99]
[Jul00]
Aspirin:
ANSWER
A.
Greatest
absorption
is
from
the
stomach
Part
1:
C
B.
Peak
plasma
level
is
achieved
in
30]]
minutes
Part
2:
F
C.
Has
cross-‐reactivity
with
all
NSAIDs
D.
Half-‐life
4
hours
Aspirin
(acetylsalicylic
acid):
irreversibly
acetylates
COX
à
decreased
synthesis
and
release
of
prostaglandins.
Relatively
weak
inhibitor
of
renal
prostaglandin
synthesis.
July
2000
version:
Aspirin:
Does
not
interact
with
opioid
receptors
and
has
little
effect
on
histamin/5HT
release.
A.
Plasma
half-‐life
4
hrs
Rapidly
hydrolysed
to
salicylic
acid
which
inhibits
PG
synthesis
in
a
non-‐acetylation
way.
B.
Peak
plasma
concentration
within
10mins
of
oral
Rapidly
absorbed
mainly
from
small
intestines,
lesser
extent
in
stomach.
Rate
of
31
administration
absorption
depends
on
dissolution
rates
of
the
administered
tablet
and
gastric
emptying
C.
Requires
conversion
to
salicylic
acid
for
activity
time.
If
gastric
pH
increased
à
more
drug
is
ionised
à
decreased
rate
of
absorption.
D.
?
is
more
??
than
salicylic
acid
Food
slows
absorption.
Peak
plasma
levels
occur
in
1
hour.
Aspirin
in
effervescent
E.
Better
absorption
if
food
in
stomach
preparations
have
more
rapid
absorption
high
plasma
concs,
less
GI
irritation.
Has
cross-‐
F.
Cross
reactive
sensitivity
with
all
NSAIDs
reactivity
with
all
NSAIDs.
Metabolism:
rapidly
hydrolysed
in
liver
to
salicylic
acid
(active).
Salicylic
acid
is
also
metabolism
in
liver
via
glycine
conjugation
à
renal
excretion
(renal
excretion
increased
in
alkaline
urine).
T
½
elim
=
15-‐20mins
aspirin,
2-‐3hrs
salicylic
acid.
Peak
plasma
concentration
of
aspirin
must
be
shorter
than
its
t
½
elim
(ie
<15-‐20
mins).
Peak
plasma
salicylic
acid
conc
1-‐2hrs.
MD29
[Mar99]
[Feb00]
Warfarin
affects:
ANSWER:
B
A.
Factor
XIII
Warfarin
acts
by
inhibiting
the
enzymes
vitamin
K
epoxide
reductase
and
vitamin
K
B.
Protein
S
(?
or
Protein
C)
reductase.
This
prevents
the
formation
of
the
reduced
formed
of
vitamin
K
which
acts
as
C.
?
a
cofactor
in
the
gamma-‐carboxylation
of
glutamic
acid
residues
in
clotting
factors
2,7,9,10
as
well
as
anticoagulant
protein
C
and
S.
Gamma-‐carboxylation
is
necessary
for
biological
activity
of
these
factors
as
it
confers
the
calcium
binding
properties
that
are
essential
for
their
catalytic
action.
Inhibition
by
warfarin
is
COMPETITIVE.
MD46
[Apr01]
Aspirin
overdose
ANSWER:
D
A.Causes
metabolic
&
respiratory
acidosis
B.
Causes
metabolic
&
respiratory
alkalosis
Stoelting:
C.
Causes
metabolic
alkalosis
&
respiratory
acidosis
Aspirin
causes
metabolic
acidosis
likely
due
to
uncoupling
of
oxidative
phosphorylation
D.
Causes
metabolic
acidosis
&
respiratory
alkalosis
and
tendency
towards
anaerobic
metabolism
à
lactic
acidaemia
and
reduced
renal
elimination
of
strong
acids.
Also
has
direct
effect
on
respiratory
centre
à
respiratory
alkalosis.
MD49
[Apr01]
[Jul01]
[Jul02]
[Jul04]
Low
molecular
ANSWER:
A
weight
heparin
Stoelting:
A.Has
better
bioavailability
Unfractionated
heaprin
is
a
mizure
of
low
and
high
molecular
weight
acid
B.
Molecular
weight
1/10
that
of
normal
heparin
mucopolysaccharides
3,000-‐60,000
Da.
LMWH
are
dervied
from
UFH
by
chemical
C.
More
protein
bound
than
heparin
depolymerisation
to
fragments
approximately
1/3
the
size
of
heparin.
D.
?
LMWH
has
better
bioavailability
than
UFH.
E.
?
LMWH
is
less
protein
bound
than
UFH.
MD50
[Apr01]
[Jul01]
[Mar03]
[Jul04]
Desmopressin
ANSWER:
D
+
E
A
Increases
factor
X
Stoelting:
B
Increases
factor
V
Desmopressin
(dDAVP)
is
a
synthetic
analogue
of
AVP
with
intense
antidiuretic
(V2)
C
Causes
sustained
severe
hypertension
effect
and
decreased
pressor
(V1)
effect.
D
Can
be
used
to
improve
haemostasis
in
Via
V2
effects
it
also
causes
endothelial
cells
to
release
vWF,
tissue
type
plasminogen
haemophilia
activator
and
PGs.
E
Increases
factor
VIII
activity
F.
?v2B
receptors?
Used
in
diabetes
insipidus
to
decrease
UO
and
to
promote
release
of
vWF
and
FVIII
in
patients
with
Type
1
VW
disease,
mild-‐moderate
haemophilia
A
and
thrombocytopenia.
SE:
hypertension,
nausea,
and
hypotension
(decreased
SVR
with
IV
administration).
DDAVP
t
½
elim
=
2.5-‐4.4
hrs
is
MIMS:
‘high
doses
of
desmopressin
acetate
produce
marked
and
sustained
increases
of
factor
VIII
coagulant
activity
(VIII:C)
as
well
as
of
von
Willebrand
Factor
(vWF).
At
the
same
time
plasminogen
factor
is
released."
E
MD63
Regarding
warfarin?
A
Affects
platelet
function
-‐
false
A.
Affects
platelet
function
B
Increases
the
action
of
vitamin
K
epoxide
reductase
-‐
false
-‐
it
inhibits
it
B.
Increases
the
action
of
vitamin
K
preventing
formation
of
Vit
K
and
therefore
factors
II,
VII,
XI
&
X>
epoxide
reductase
C
?More
effective
when
given
as
an
intravenous
dose
-‐
false
'
oral
bioavailability
of
100%
(Sassada
and
Smith
4th
ed)
C.
?More
effective
when
given
as
an
D
Doesn't
cross
the
placenta.
-‐
false
-‐
it
is
teratogenic
so
must
cross
the
intravenous
dose
placenta.
"Extensive
protein
binding
prevents
diffusion
into
erythrocytes,
D.
Doesn't
cross
the
placenta
cerebrospinal
fluid
and
breast
milk.
Warfarin
however
does
cross
the
placenta
E.
Peak
effect
36-‐72
hours
following
dose
and
produces
exaggeratedeffects
in
the
fetus,
who
has
limited
avility
to
synthesize
clotting
factors."
(steolting
4th
ed
page
513)
E
Peak
effect
36-‐72
hours
following
dose
-‐
true
(see
stoelting
4th
ed
page
512
32
table
27.1)
33
Inhalational
agents
IN01
[Mar96]
Which
compound(s)
is/are
broken
down
in
soda-‐ Probably
C
best
as
it
has
breakdown
A-‐E
more
readily
than
the
lime?
others
can
form
CO
etc
(Halothane
stable
up
to
40
degrees,
A.
Nitrous
oxide
Desflurane
stable
to
80
degrees)
B.
Halothane
C.
Sevoflurane
B
D.
Desflurane
C
E.
All
of
the
above
D
-‐
Agents
with
the
CHF2
moiety
(desflurane
>
enflurane
>
isoflurane
>>
halothane
=
sevoflurane)
produce
carbon
monoxide
-‐
Halothane:
difluorovinyl
compound
(BCDFE)
=
nephrotoxic
in
rats,
less
reactive
than
compound
A
-‐
Sevolfurane:
compounds
A-‐E,
can
form
carbon
monoxide
if
temperature
>70°C
in
dry
Baralyme,
also
produces
formaldehyde
gas
and
heat
IN02
[Mar96]
C
Regarding
nitrous
oxide
at
70%:
A.
Synthetised
from
?
&
N2
at
273C
Peck,
Hill
and
Williams:
B.
Decreases
muscle
blood
flow
by
30%
-‐
Nitrous
oxide
is
manufactured
by
heating
ammonium
nitrate
to
C.
Decreases
cerebral
autoregulation
24%
250
°C
D.
?
-‐
Unless
the
temperature
is
carefully
controlled,
N2O
may
contain
contaminants
-‐
These
are
actively
removed
by
passage
through
scrubbers,
water
and
caustic
soda
Stoelting:
-‐
Nitrous
oxide
does
not
change
SVR
-‐
Nitrous
oxide
increases
CBF
IN02b
[Jul97]
A
(Increases)
Nitrous
Oxide:
B
A.
?Increases/decreases
CBF
B.
Is
an
effective
oxidant
D
correct
if
nitric
oxide
C.
Is
made
by
heating
nitrogen
and
oxygen
in
an
iron
retort
D.
Decreases
pulmonary
artery
pressure
in
neonates
Stoelting:
-‐
Nitrous
oxide
will
support
combustion,
also
oxidises
the
cobalt
ion
of
B12
-‐
Sympathetic
stimulation
→
↑
PVR:
exaggerated
in
pulmonary
HT
and
neonates
and
may
↑
R→
L
shunt
in
congenital
heart
disease
IN03
[Mar96]
[Jul96]
[Jul97]
[Jul98]
[Jul99]
E
The
following
drugs
are
(potent)
triggers
for
malignant
G
hyperthermia
EXCEPT:
H
A.
Decamethonium
B.
Suxamethonium
Miller’s:
C.
Isoflurane
-‐
MH
is
elicited
by
the
administration
of
triggering
anaesthetic
D.
Halothane
agents,
such
as
a
volatile
anaesthetic
or
a
depolarizing
E.
Calcium
neuromuscular
blocking
agent
F.
Sevoflurane
-‐
Decamethonium
=
depolarising
G.
Tubocurarine
-‐
Tubocurarine
=
non-‐depolarising
H.
Nitrous
oxide
(Different
options
on
different
papers)
Stoelting:
When
compared
with
volatile
anaesthetics,
nitrous
oxide
is
a
weak
trigger
for
malignant
hyperthermia
IN04
[Mar96]
[Mar03]
IPPV
with
isoflurane
at
1
MAC
results
in:
C
A.
Depresses
cardiovascular
reflexes
more
than
halothane
F
B.
Causes
decreased
conduction
velocity
C.
Maintains
cerebral
autoregulation
Stoelting:
D.
Equal
respiratory
depression
to
enflurane
-‐
HR
↔
with
halothane
(depression
of
baroreceptor
reflex
and
↓
SA
E.
Reduction
in
cardiac
output
by
25%
node
dpeolarisation)
but
↑
with
the
others
F.
Increased
vasodilatation
-‐
Autoregulation
is
maintained
at
1
MAC
isoflurane
but
not
halothane
34
-‐
Both
halothane
and
isoflurane
slow
the
rate
of
SA
node
discharge
and
prolong
His-‐Puerkinje
and
ventricular
conduction
times,
also
prolongs
QTC
-‐
Isoflurane
produces
a
dose
dependent
↑
RR
up
to
1
MAC
only
(unlike
the
other
volatiles),
does
not
alter
cardiac
output,
and
↓s
SVR
IN05
[Mar96]
[Mar98]
The
effect
of
increased
cardiac
output
on
Pa
B
versus
time
for
volatile
agents
is:
A.
No
effect
Peck,
Hill
and
Williams:
B.
Decrease
slope
A
high
cardiac
output
will
maintain
a
concentration
between
the
C.
Decrease
then
increase
slope
alveolus
and
the
pulmonary
blood
so
that
PA
rises
slowly
D.
Increase
then
decrease
slope
IN06
[Mar96]
[Jul97]
[Apr01]
A
Nitrous
oxide
(N2O):
I
A.
Supports
combustion
C
(only
if
you’re
in
a
hyperbaric
chamber)
B.
Is
flammable
C.
Causes
muscle
rigidity
Stoelting:
D.
In
tissues
is
slower
to
reabsorb
than
oxygen
-‐
Although
nitrous
oxide
is
non-‐flammable,
it
will
support
E.
Has
a
partition
coefficient
of
0.76
combustion
F.
All
of
the
above
-‐
Does
not
relax
skeletal
muscles,
and
in
doses
of
>1
MAC
(delivered
G.
Is
formed
by
heating
oxygen
&
nitrogen
in
a
hyperbaric
chamber),
it
may
produce
skeletal
muscle
rigidity
H.
Induces
methionine
synthetase
-‐
Does
not
potentiate
the
effects
of
neuromuscular
blocking
drugs
I.
Oxidises
the
cobalt
in
vitamin
B12
-‐
Low
blood
solubility
(B:G
0.46),
lowest
fat
solubility
(O:G
1.4)
→
quicker
reabsorption
from
tissues
-‐
Oxidises
the
cobalt
atom
in
B12
such
that
the
activity
of
B12
enzymes
(methionine
and
thymidylate
synthetise)
is
↓
IN06b
[Mar98]
[Jul98]
Nitrous
oxide:
?
C
or
H
(probably
H?)
A.
Has
MW
of
42
B.
Critical
temperature
32
C
Barash:
C.
Formed
by
using
iron
as
a
catalyst
It
was
made
by
heating
ammonium
nitrate
in
the
presence
of
iron
D.
Does
not
support
combustion
filings
E.
??
has
saturated
vapour
pressure
of
24]]
kPa
F.
Produced
using
ammonium
sulphate
in
an
iron
retort
Stoelting:
G.
Boiling
point
32C
MW
=
44
H.
??.
.
.
ammonium
nitrate
.
.
.
copper
vessel
??
(Multiple
options
as
this
represents
2
separate
N2O
questions
on
Davis
and
Kenny:
Mar98
paper)
-‐
Critical
temperature
=
temperature
above
which
a
substance
cannot
be
liquefied
no
matter
how
much
pressure
is
applied
-‐
Critical
temperature
of
nitrous
oxide
is
36.5°C
(compared
with
oxygen,
-‐119°C:
this
is
why
at
20°C,
nitrous
oxide
in
a
cylinder
is
liquid
but
oxygen
is
a
gas)
Miller’s:
-‐
When
a
volatile
liquid
is
in
a
closed
container,
molecules
escape
from
the
liquid
phase
to
the
vapour
phase
until
the
number
of
molecules
in
the
vapour
phase
is
constant:
these
molecules
in
the
vapour
phase
bombard
the
wall
of
the
container
and
create
a
pressure
known
as
the
saturated
vapour
pressure
(↑
with
temperature)
-‐
Boiling
point
=
temperature
at
which
vapour
pressure
equals
atmospheric
pressure
Cross:
-‐
SVP
of
nitrous
oxide
at
20°C
is
5200
kPa
IN07
[Mar97]
[Mar03]
Desflurane
None
correct
technically
although
B
correct
if
not
comparing
A.
Takes
5
minutes
to
reach
equilibrium
against
N2O
or
Xenon
B.
Is
fastest
to
approach
equilibrium
of
any
inhaled
anaesthetic
agent
Miller:
C.
Is
a
fluorinated
diethyl
ether
-‐
Possible
to
achieve
equilibration
within
15
minutes
of
exposure
to
D.
?
a
constant
end-‐tidal
anaesthetic
concentration
-‐
Desflurane
is
a
fluorinated
methyl
ethyl
ether
-‐
Nitrous
(second
gas
effect)
and
xenon
(B:G
0.115)
are
faster
to
reach
equilibrium
but
desflurane
is
the
fastest
volatile
(lowest
B:G
0.42)
35
IN08
[Mar97]
[Jul97]
Regarding
sevoflurane:
A
A.
The
vapour
pressure
is
less
than
enflurane
E
B.
The
vapour
pressure
is
greater
than
isoflurane
C.
Cardiovascular
side
effects
are
similar
to
isoflurane
Stoelting:
D.
Molecular
weight
less
then
isoflurane
-‐
Vapour
pressure
=
170
mmHg
(lowest)
versus
172
for
enflurane
E.
Boiling
point
greater
than
enflurane
and
240
for
isoflurane
-‐
Molecular
weight
=
200
(highest)
versus
184
for
isoflurane
-‐
Boiling
point
=
58.5°C
(highest)
versus
48.5°C
for
enflurane
-‐
Re:
CV
effects,
desflurane
most
closely
resembles
isoflurane,
whereas
sevoflurane
has
characteristics
of
both
isoflurane
and
halothane
Isoflurane
Sevoflurane
HR
↑
Only
↑
if
>1.5
MAC
Cardiac
↔
↓
at
1-‐1.5
MAC
then
output
↔
at
2
MAC
RAP
↑
↔
IN08b
[Jul97]
[Feb00]
Sevoflurane:
D
A.
Is
a
methylethyl
ether
B.
Is
odourless
Stoelting:
C.
Is
stable
in
soda
lime
at
37
degrees
-‐
Sevoflurane
is
a
fluorinated
methyl
isopropyl
ether
D.
Has
a
boiling
point
higher
than
enflurane
-‐
Non-‐pungent,
minimal
odour
E.
Has
a
molecular
weight
lower
than
desflurane
-‐
Breaks
down
in
the
presence
of
the
strong
bases
present
in
carbon
dioxide
absorbents
to
form
compounds
that
are
toxic
in
animals
(compound
A:
nephrotoxin
in
rats)
-‐
Highest
boiling
point
(58.5
°C)
-‐
Highest
molecular
weight
(200)
IN08c
[Jul98]
[Jul99]
Sevoflurane:
A
A.
Molecular
weight
greater
then
enflurane
B.
MAC
less
than
enflurane
Stoelting:
C.
Contains
Cl
&
F
-‐
MAC
of
sevoflurane
is
1.8%,
MAC
of
enflurane
is
1.63%
D.
SVP
>
enflurane
-‐
Lowest
SVP
(170
mmHg;
20°C)
IN09
[Mar97]
[Jul98]
[Jul00]
Uptake
of
N2O
when
breathing
70%:
A
A.
More
than
one
litre
absorbed
in
the
first
minute
B
also
true
if
90%
(FA/FI
reaches
90%
at
3
min)
B.
Equilibrium
(?90%)
is
achieved
in
3mins
C.
Absorb
10
litres
?at
time
of
?90%
equilibration
/
?in
first
3
mins
Miller:
D.
At
steady
state,
uptake
is
200mls/min
-‐
Uptake
=
product
of
blood
solubility,
cardiac
output,
and
alveolar-‐
E.
Produces
surgical
anaesthesia
to-‐venous
anaesthetic
partial
pressure
difference
-‐
For
N2O
uptake:
𝑈𝑝𝑡𝑎𝑘𝑒 = 0.46×5×.7 = 1.6𝐿
Stoelting:
Absorb
up
to
10
L
during
the
first
10-‐15
minutes,
reflecting
its
administration
at
inhaled
concentrations
of
60-‐70%
IN10
[Mar97]
[Jul98]
[Mar99]
[Jul01]
[Jul04]
N2O
causes
the
D
second
gas
effect
because:
A.
It
is
relatively
insoluble
A.
N2O
is
relatively
insoluble
when
compared
with
other
potent
B.
Reaches
equilibrium
faster
than
the
more
soluble
second
gas
inhaled
anaesthetics
with
a
blood:gas
partition
coefficient
of
0.47.
It
C.
Larger
volume
should
be
noted
however
that
desflurane
has
an
even
lower
D.
Its
high
concentration
blood:gas
coefficient
of
0.42
and
hence
is
more
insoluble.
Desflurane
does
not
cause
the
second
gas
effect
and
so
it
is
not
the
low
solubility
that
is
responsible
for
the
second
gas
effect.
A
low
blood
gas
coefficient
is
important
solely
in
determining
a
rapid
achievement
of
an
alveolar
and
brain
partial
pressure
of
the
drug.
B.
The
lower
the
blood:gas
partition
coefficient
then
the
faster
a
gas
will
reach
equilibrium
as
already
stated
in
(A)
above.
This
does
not
36
contribute
to
the
second
gas
effect.
C.
The
large
volume
uptake
of
N2O
is
an
important
contributing
factor
in
creation
of
the
2nd
gas
effect
(see
(D)
below).
The
reason
that
large
volumes
of
N2O
are
absorbed
from
the
alveoli
is
due
to
the
high
concentration
of
nitrous
oxide
that
is
inspired
and
the
initial
steep
concentration
gradient
that
is
generated,
during
or
soon
after
induction.
Due
to
this
sequence
of
events,
option
D
appears
to
be
technically
"more
correct"
as
the
high
inhaled
concentration
precedes
the
uptake
of
large
volumes
of
N2O
from
the
alveoli.
D.
The
relatively
low
potency
of
N2O
ensures
that
effective
administration
requires
concentrations
of
40-‐70%.
The
high
concentrations
that
are
administered
result
in
the
uptake
of
a
large
volume
of
gas
(in
the
initial
phases).
This
initial
large
uptake
(as
much
as
1-‐2L/min)
has
2
effects:
1. The
gases
remaining
in
the
alveoli
are
concentrated
(including
the
remaining
N2O)
2. Negative
pressure
is
created
which
draws
bronchial
and
tracheal
gas
into
the
alveolar
space
to
replace
it.
It
is
these
2
effects
which
together
accelerate
the
rate
of
rise
in
alveolar
partial
pressure
of
the
2nd
gas.
Nitrous
oxide
is
distinguished
by
the
fact
that
it
is
the
only
inhaled
anaesthetic
to
be
administered
in
such
high
concentrations
hence
D
appears
to
be
the
correct
answer.
IN11
[Jul97]
Desflurane:
B:
Less
potent
A.
Is
non-‐irritant
to
the
airways
B.
Is
more/less
potent
than
sevoflurane
Stoelting:
C.
Has
a
higher
molecular
weight
than
?isoflurane/?enflurane
-‐
Desflurane
has
a
pungent
odour
D.
Is
a
chlorinated
methyl
ethyl
ether
-‐
It
is
less
potent
than
sevoflurane
(desflurane
MAC
6.6%
versus
sevoflurane
MAC
1.8%)
-‐
It
has
the
lowest
MW
of
all
the
volatiles
(desflurane
MW
168
versus
isoflurane/enflurane
184)
-‐
It
is
a
fluorinated
methyl
ethyl
ester
IN12
[Jul97]
[Apr01]
Effects
of
volatile
agents
include:
None
correct
A.
Halothane
increases
hepatic
artery
and
portal
blood
flow
B.
Isoflurane
causes
hypotension
by
reducing
cardiac
output
Stoelting:
C.
?
-‐
In
contrast
to
isoflurane,
halothane
acts
as
a
vasoconstrictor
on
D.
?
the
hepatic
circulation
-‐
Halothane,
isoflurane,
desflurane,
and
sevoflurane
produce
similar
and
dose-‐dependent
decreases
in
MAP
-‐
With
halothane,
this
is
due
to
a
decrease
in
myocardial
contractility
and
cardiac
output
-‐
With
isoflurane,
desflurane,
and
sevoflurane,
this
is
due
to
a
decrease
in
SVR
IN12b
[Feb04]
Volatile
agents:
B
37
A.
Halothane
causes
less
cerebral
vasodilation
than
enflurane
B.
Isoflurance
causes
less
cerebral
vasodilation
than
halothane
Stoelting:
-‐
Volatile
anaesthetics
produce
dose-‐dependent
increases
in
CBF
-‐
Magnitude
is
dependent
on
the
balance
between
intrinsic
vasodilatory
actions
and
vasoconstriction
secondary
to
flow-‐
metabolism
uncoupling
Miller:
-‐
Halothane
produces
the
greatest
cerebral
vasodilation
-‐
Sevoflurane
produces
the
least
IN13
[Jul97]
[Jul98]
[Jul99]
[Apr01]
Problems
with
MAC:
B
A.
Large
interspecies
variability
B.
Affected
by
temperature
and
other
factors
Stoelting:
C.
Affected
by
obesity
-‐
MAC
=
alveolar
concentration
of
an
inhaled
anaesthetic
at
1
D.
?
atmosphere
that
prevents
movement
in
50%
of
patients
in
response
to
a
standardised
stimulus
(e.g.
surgical
incision)
-‐
MAC
is
an
anaesthetic
50%
effective
dose
(ED50)
-‐
A
unique
feature
is
its
consistency
varying
only
10-‐15%
among
individuals
IN13b
[Mar96]
[Jul98]
[Feb00]
[Jul01]
MAC:
A
A.
Is
decreased
in
the
elderly
B.
Is
unchanged
throughout
pregnancy
↑
MAC
↓
MAC
C.
Increases
in
hypothermia
↓
age:
peaks
at
6
months
-‐
↑
age:
6%
per
decade
D.
?Decreased/?increased
with
hyper/hypo-‐kalaemia
-‐
Pregnancy
E.
?
-‐
Postpartum
↑
temperature
↓
temperature:
4-‐5%
per
degree
↑
Na
↓
Na
-‐
↑
catecholamines
-‐
↓
catecholamines
-‐
Acute
amphetamine
use
-‐
Chronic
amphetamine
use
-‐
Sympathomimetic
use
-‐
α2
agonists
-‐
Cyclosporine
-‐
Preoperative
medication
(opioids,
benzodiazepines)
-‐
Lignocaine
-‐
Lithium
-‐
Chronic
ETOH
use
-‐
Acute
ETOH
use
↑
pheomelanin
(red
hair)
-‐
PaO2
<
40
mmHg
-‐
BP
<
40
mmHg
-‐
Cardiopulmonary
bypass
No
change
in
MAC
• Gender
• Duration
of
anaesthesia
• ↕
PaCO2
• ↕
thyroid
(controversial)
• Anaesthetic
metabolism
• ↕
K
• ↕
pH
Alt
version
(Jul
01)
All
the
factors
decrease
MAC
except:
B
A.
Pregnancy
B.
Hyperthermia
C.
Hypothermia
D.
Hypoxia
E.
?
IN13c
[Mar99]
[Apr01]
[Jul01]
MAC:
?D
(correct
number
0.29
–
0.2
in
ballpark?)
A.
Highest
between
ages
2
to
5
yrs
B.
Increases
with
pregnancy
MAC
BAR
=
blocks
an
adrenergic
response
to
skin
incision
C.
MAC
BAR
is
concentration
at
which
95%
do
not
move
D.
Is
0.2%
halothane
in
70%
N2O
Sasada
E.
?
MAC
of
halothane
is
0.75
(0.29
in
the
presence
of
70%
N2O)
Derivation
(MAC
is
additive):
-‐
MAC
of
N2O
is
104%,
so
70%
N2O
=
0.67
(or
2/3)
MAC
-‐
MAC
of
halothane
is
0.75,
so
1/3
MAC
=
0.25
Jul
01
version:
With
regards
to
MAC:
A
A.
The
MAC
of
Halothane
with
70%N2O
is
0.29
B.
Concentration
at
which
95%
of
patients
don’t
move
after
a
surgical
stimulus
C.
MAC-‐
BAR
??
D.
Decreased
by
increased
CO2
E.
?
IN14
[Mar98]
[Mar99]
Systemic
vascular
resistance
is
LEAST
E
changed
with:
38
A.
Isoflurane
Stoelting:
B.
Sevoflurane
-‐
Isoflurane,
desflurane,
and
sevoflurane,
but
not
halothane,
C.
Desflurane
decreases
SVR
D.
Enflurane
-‐
Thus,
although
these
four
volatile
anaesthetics
decrease
systemic
E.
Halothane
blood
pressure
comparably,
only
halothane
does
so
principally
by
decreasing
cardiac
output
-‐
Nitrous
oxide
does
not
change
SVR
IN15
[Mar98]
[Jul98]
[Mar99]
MAC
awake
during
emergence
when
C
patient
will
respond
to
command:
A.
0.1
Miller:
B.
0.2
MAC-‐awake
=
1/3
to
1/4
MAC
(significantly
higher
for
nitrous
C.
0.3
oxide)
D.
0.5
E.
?0.7
?0.8
IN16
[Jul98]
[Jul99]
Isoflurane
&
enflurane
are:
A
A.
Structural
isomers
B.
Enantiomers
-‐
Structural
isomers
=
same
chemical
formulae
but
different
atomic
C.
Diastereomers
bond
structure
D.
Optical
isomers
-‐
Stereoisomers
=
same
chemical
formulae
and
atomic
bond
E.
Configurational
isomers
structure,
but
different
3D
configuration
-‐
Enantiomers
=
optical
isomers
=
stereoisomers
that
have
1
chiral
centre
-‐
Diastereoisomers
=
stereoisomers
that
have
>1
chiral
centre
or
which
are
subject
to
geometric
isomerism
-‐
Geometric
=
cis-‐trans
isomers
=
stereoisomers
that
differ
in
their
groups
attached
to
two
atoms
linked
by
a
double
bond
or
ring
IN17
[Mar96]
[Jul96]
Sevoflurane:
F
A.
Is
broken
down
in
the
body
to
Compound
A
which
has
been
shown
to
be
toxic
to
rats
Stoelting:
B.
Has
a
blood:
gas
partition
coefficient
of
2.3
-‐
Trifluoromethyl
vinyl
ether
(compound
A)
is
produced
in
CO2
C.
Is
a
irritant
causing
coughing
on
induction
absorbents
D.
Has
a
boiling
point
of
24]]
degrees
centigrade
-‐
Blood:
gas
partition
coefficient
of
sevoflurane
=
0.69,
resembling
E.
Has
Cl
&
F
atoms
in
its
structure
that
of
desflurane,
ensuring
prompt
induction
of
anaesthesia
and
F.
None
of
the
above
recovery
after
discontinuation
of
the
anaesthetic
-‐
Nonpungent,
minimal
odour,
bronchodilation
similar
in
degree
to
isoflurane,
and
the
least
degree
of
airway
irritation,
making
it
acceptable
for
inhalation
induction
-‐
3-‐5%
metabolised
to
inorganic
fluoride
and
hexafluoroisopropanol
-‐
Boiling
point
58.5
(highest)
IN18
[Mar99]
[Feb00]
With
isoflurane
anaesthesia,
MAC
awake
is:
B
A.
0.1%
vol
B.
0.3%
vol
1.17 1.17
𝑀𝐴𝐶 𝑎𝑤𝑎𝑘𝑒 ≈ 𝑡𝑜 = 0.29 𝑡𝑜 0.4
C.
0.5%
vol
4 3
D.
0.5%
vol
E.
1%
vol
IN19
[Mar99]
[Jul04]
Isoflurane:
A
A.
Is
a
halogenated
methyl
ethyl
ether
B.
Higher
boiling
point
than
sevoflurane
Stoelting:
C.
No
odour
-‐
Halogenated
methyl
ethyl
ether
D.
Enantiomer
of
enflurane
-‐
Pungent,
ethereal
odour
-‐
Boiling
point
lower
than
sevoflurane
(48.5
versus
58.5,
sevoflurane
is
the
highest!)
-‐
Structural
isomer
of
enflurane
IN20
[Mar99]
MAC
of
halothane
with
70%
N2O
is:
A
A.
0.25%
B.
0.5%
Derivation
(MAC
is
additive):
C.
0.75%
-‐
MAC
of
N2O
is
104%,
so
70%
N2O
=
0.67
(or
2/3)
MAC
D.
1.0%
-‐
MAC
of
halothane
is
0.75,
so
1/3
MAC
=
0.25
Sasada
MAC
of
halothane
is
0.75
(0.29
in
the
presence
of
70%
N2O)
IN21
[Mar99]
All
reduce
MAC
except:
A
A.
Aminopyridine
39
B.
hypothermia
Goodman
and
Gilman:
C.
pregnancy
4-‐aminopyridine
is
a
widely
used
in
vitro
blocker
of
K+
channels
D.
hypoxia
IN22
[Jul98]
N2O
is
NOT
relatively
contra-‐indicated
with:
D
A.
Pneumothorax
B.
Ear
surgery
Stoelting:
C.
Postop
nausea
&
vomiting
B:G
of
N2O
is
34
times
greater
than
that
of
N2
(0.46
versus
0.014),
D.
Renal
failure
therefore
it
leaves
the
blood
to
enter
an
air-‐filled
cavity
34
times
more
rapidly
than
N2
can
leave
the
cavity
to
enter
blood,
increasing
the
volume
or
pressure
of
an
air-‐filled
cavity
IN23
[Jul99]
[Jul02]
[Mar03]
[Jul04]
Which
of
the
following
does
E
NOT
affect
the
speed
of
induction
with
a
volatile
agent?
F
A.
FRC
B.
Obesity
-‐
↓
FRC
=
small
volume
with
which
to
dilute
the
inspired
gas
→
↑
rise
C.
pCO2
in
the
alveolar
to
inspired
concentration
ratio
D.
Cardiac
output
-‐
Obesity
→
↓
FRC
E.
Body
mass
-‐
↓
PaCO2
→
↓
CBF
→
↓
anaesthetic
delivery
to
the
brain
F.
MAC
-‐
↓
cardiac
output,
as
with
shock
,
→
↓
uptake
to
oppose
input
→
↑
rise
in
the
alveolar
to
inspired
concentration
ratio
-‐
↑
cardiac
output
→
↑
uptake
→
↓
rise
in
the
alveolar
to
inspired
concentration
ratio
(occurs
faster
than
expected
because
of
preferential
perfusion
to
VRG)
Alt
version:
Regarding
the
time
constant
for
volatile
anaesthetic
D
uptake
in
the
lungs
A.
Affected
by
agent
concentration
Time
constant
for
lung
=
FRC/VA
B.
Affected
by
obesity
Time
constant
for
circuit
=
Circuit
capacity/FGF
C.
Not
affected
by
FRC
D.
Affected
by
restrictive
lung
disease
Input
(delivery)
is
affected
by:
-‐
Inspired
partial
pressure
(concentration
and
second
gas
effects)
-‐
Alveolar
ventilation
(spontaneous
versus
controlled
breathing)
-‐
Anaesthetic
apparatus
(solubility
in
the
rubber
or
plastic)
-‐
FRC
(alveolar
ventilation
to
FRC
ratio
=
5:1
in
neonates
compared
with
1.5:1
in
adults)
Uptake
(loss)
is
affected
by:
-‐
Blood:
gas
partition
coefficient
(anaesthetic
agent,
haematocrit,
lipid
content,
age)
-‐
Cardiac
output
(age,
R
→
L
shunt)
-‐
Alveolar-‐to-‐venous
anaesthetic
partial
pressure
gradient
(tissue
uptake:
determined
by
tissue
solubility,
blood
flow,
and
arterial-‐to-‐
tissue
anaesthetic
partial
pressure
difference)
-‐
Metabolism
and
non-‐pulmonary
excretion
(percutaneous
loss)
IN24
[Feb00]
22g
of
Nitrous
oxide
at
STP
occupies
a
volume
of:
B
A.
3.6
L
B.
11.2
L
Davis
and
Kenny:
C.
22]]
L
(?
or
22.4
L)
-‐
Avogadro’s
hypothesis
=
equal
volumes
of
gases
at
the
same
D.
44.1
L
temperature
and
pressure
contain
equal
numbers
of
molecules
-‐
Mole
=
quantity
of
a
substance
containing
the
same
number
of
particles
as
there
are
atoms
in
0.012
kg
of
carbon
12
= 6.022×10!"
-‐
One
mole
of
any
gas
at
STP
occupies
22.4
L,
so
44
g
of
N2O,
2
g
of
H2
or
32
g
of
O2
or
44
g
of
CO2
occupy
22.4
L
at
STP
IN25
[Jul00]
[Mar03]
[Jul04]
Wash
in
(?
washout)
of
volatile
B
and
D
anaesthetics
is
reduced
in
neonates
because:
A.
Reduced
FRC
-‐
Alveolar
ventilation
to
FRC
ratio
=
5:1
in
neonates
compared
with
B.
Increased
cardiac
index
1.5:1
in
adults
→
neonates
have
a
↑
rise
of
the
alveolar
to
inspired
C.
Decreased
plasma
protein
levels?
concentration
ratio
D.
(Something
about
blood:gas
partition
coefficients
being
different
-‐
↑
cardiac
output
per
kilogram
in
neonates
acts
to
↑
uptake,
but
in
neonate)
they
have
relatively
greater
perfusion
of
VRG
tissues
→
↑
rise
in
the
alveolar
to
inspired
concentration
ratio
-‐
Neonates
have
↓
solubility
of
halothane,
enflurane
and
isoflurane
→
↑
rise
in
the
alveolar
to
inspired
concentration
ratio
(sevoflurane
or
desflurane
↔)
Alt
version
which
probably
is
the
same
question
remembered
All
true
(although
be
careful
how
the
terms
are
defined
on
the
day)
differently:
The
washout
of
inhalational
anaesthetics
-‐
Metabolism
decreases
wash
out
(but
not
wash
in!)
but
applies
A..
Increases
with
elimination
by
the
liver
significantly
to
obsolete
anaesthetics
like
halothane
B..
Related
considerably
with
the
duration
of
anaesthesia
-‐
The
continued
passage
of
anaesthetic
from
blood
to
the
MG
and
FG
C.
Increases
in
the
neonates
compared
to
an
adult
speeds
the
rate
of
↓
in
the
PA:
depends
on
the
solubility
of
the
anaesthetic
and
the
duration
of
anaesthesia
40
If
a
60%
decrement
is
needed,
there
is
little
difference
between
isoflurane,
sevoflurane,
and
desflurane
If
90%
of
the
anaesthetic
must
be
eliminated,
awakening
from
both
sevoflurane
and
isoflurane
will
be
delayed
more
and
more
as
the
duration
of
anaesthesia
increases
(isoflurane
>
sevoflurane),
but
awakening
from
desflurane
will
be
minimally
affected
IN26
[Jul01]
With
regard
to
compound
A:
A
A.
Increased
production
in
Baralyme
compared
to
sodalime
B.
More
likely
in
children
Stoelting:
C.
Sevofluranes
metabolites
cause
hepatotoxicity
-‐
CO2
absorbents
containing
potassium
and
sodium
hydroxide
react
D.
Sevoflurane
is
METABOLISED
to
Compound
A
in
the
liver
with
sevoflurane
and
eliminate
hydrogen
fluoride
from
its
E.
?
isopropyl
moiety
to
form
breakdown
products
-‐
The
degradation
product
produced
in
greatest
amounts
is
trifluoromethyl
vinyl
ether
(compound
A)
-‐
Compound
A
is
a
dose-‐dependent
nephrotoxin
in
rats
and
can
be
fatal
-‐
Increased
production
with
Baralyme,
probably
as
a
result
of
higher
absorbent
temperatures
-‐
The
rationale
for
using
at
least
2L/min
FGF
with
sevoflurane
is
to
minimise
the
concentration
of
compound
A
IN27
[Jul01]
Concerning
the
effects
of
various
volatile
agents
on
A
cerebral
blood
flow
under
conditions
of
1
MAC
and
normocarbia:
A.
Halothane
produces
greater
increase
than
enflurane
Miller:
B.
Isoflurane
produces
greater
increase
than
enflurane
The
order
of
cerebral
vasodilating
potency
is
halothane
>>
C.
Any
change
produced
depends
upon
cerebral
metabolic
rate
enflurane
>
desflurane
=
isoflurane
>
sevoflurane
D.
Change
in
CBF
is
due
to
change
in
cardiac
output
E.
41
IN28
[Jul01]
Which
of
the
following
drugs
is
NOT
associated
with
A
EEG
epileptiform
activity
A.
Propofol
Stoelting:
B.
Enflurane
-‐
Enflurane
can
produce
seizure
activity
on
EEG
and
tonic-‐clonic
C.
?
twitching
D.
?
-‐
Desflurane,
sevoflurane
and
isoflurane,
do
not
produce
evidence
of
E.
?
convulsive
activity
on
the
EEG
-‐
There
are
reports
of
paediatric
patients
with
epilepsy
and
healthy
adults
who
developed
EEG
evidence
of
seizure
activity
with
sevoflurane
IN29
[Jul04]
Which
does
not
increase
risk
of
increased
E
carboxyhaemoglobin
in
blood
during
anaesthesia?
A.
Dry
absorbent
Stoelting:
B.
Baralyme
-‐
CO
formation
reflects
the
degredation
of
volatile
anaesthetics
that
C.
Low
flows
contain
a
CHF2
moiety
D.
Desflurane
-‐
Desflurane>enflurane>isoflurane
E.
Halothane
-‐
Halothane
and
sevoflurane
do
not
possess
a
vinyl
group,
so
carbon
monoxide
production
is
less
likely
-‐
Increased
production
with:
(a)
dryness
of
the
CO2
absorbent:
hydration
prevents
formation
(b)
high
temperatures
of
the
CO2
absorbent:
occurs
during
low
fresh
gas
flows
and
increased
metabolic
CO2
production
(c)
prolonged
high
fresh
gas
flows
that
cause
desiccation
(dryness)
of
the
CO2
absorbent
(d)
type
of
CO2
absorbent
-‐
CO
formation
may
still
occur
with
sevoflurane
in
the
presence
of
a
dessicated
Co2
absorbent
especially
when
an
exothermic
reaction
between
the
volatile
anaesthetic
and
desiccated
absorbent
occurs
IN30
[Jul04]
The
concentration
effect
for
N20
is
due
to
A
A.
Increased
conc
of
N20
B.
Faster
eqilibrium
of
N20
than
the
second
soluble
second
gas
Stoelting:
C.
?
-‐
Concentration
effect
=
the
higher
the
PI,
the
more
rapidly
the
PA
D.
?
approaches
the
PI
-‐
Is
the
impact
of
PI
on
the
rate
of
rise
of
the
PA
of
an
inhaled
anaesthetic
-‐
Results
from
a
concentrating
effect
and
an
augmentation
of
tracheal
inflow
42
Intravenous
agents
IV01
[Mar96]
[Mar97]
[Jul97]
Propofol:
D
A.
Has
a
pKa
of
7
pH
7
(6.5-‐8)
B.
Has
a
pH
of
11
pKa
11
C.
Causes
hypotension
due
to
myocardial
depression
Hypotension
due
to
reduced
SVR
-‐ Has
98%
protein
binding
Elimination
half
time
0.5-‐1.5
hrs,
CSHT
<40mins,
Vd
3.5-‐4.5L/kg,
Cl
30-‐
60ml/kg/min,
98%
protein
bound
E.
?
IV02
[Mar96]
[Jul97]
[Apr01]
Thiopentone
causes
a
decrease
in
BP
by:
B
&
C
A.
Direct
decrease
in
myocardial
contractility
B.
Fall
in
systemic
vascular
resistance
5mg/kg
thio
produces
no
myocardial
depression,
minimal
depression
C.
Decrease
in
venous
tone
with
higher
doses.
The
mild
and
transient
decrease
in
systemic
blood
D.
Does
not
usually
cause
an
increase
in
heart
rate.
pressure
that
accompanies
induction
of
anaesthesia
with
barbituates
is
principally
due
to
peripheral
vasodilation,
reflecting
depression
of
the
medullary
vasomotor
centre
and
decreased
sympathetic
outflow
from
the
CNS.
The
resulting
dilatation
of
peripheral
capacitence
vessels
leads
to
pooling
of
blood,
decreased
venous
return
and
the
potential
for
decreases
in
cardiac
output
and
blood
pressure.
pStoeling
p134
Carotid-‐sinus
baroreceptor-‐mediated
compensatory
tachycardia.
IV03
[Mar96]
[Jul96]
[Jul97]
[Mar99]
Ketamine:
B
A.
Is
a
direct
inotrope
Ketamine
produces
anticholinergic
symptoms
(emergence
delirium,
B.
Causes
bronchodilatation
bronchodilation,
sympathomimetic
action).
C.
Less
likely
to
see
emergence
delirium
(?psychotomimetic
effects)
Possibility
of
emergence
delirium
limits
the
clinical
usefulness.
in
?older/?younger
females
Emergence
more
likely
in
young
females,
previous
psych,
rapid/high
D.
Reduces
pharyngeal
secretions
dose.
E.
Leaves
airway
reflexes
reliably
intact
Has
direct
myocardial
depression
and
indirect
activation
by
central
(See
IV17
for
another
Ketamine
Q)
stimulation
of
sympathetics.
Doesn’t
produce
significant
depression
of
airway
reflexes.
Increases
salivary
&
tracheobronchial
mucous
gland
secretion
IV04
[Mar96]
[Apr01]
With
regards
the
action
of
midazolam:
A
A.
Ring
closure
occurs
immediately
on
injection
B.
?
In
vial,
has
a
pH
of
3.5
(pKa
6.15),
is
ionised
&
open
ring
structure.
At
pH
C.
?
>4,
ring
closes
IV05
[Jul97]
[Mar99]
[Jul99]
[Apr01]
Propofol
depresses
cardiac
output
B
predominantly
by:
A.
Direct
depression
of
myocardial
contractility
Propofol
decreases
systemic
BP...these
decreases
in
BP
are
often
B.
Decreased
SVR
accompanied
by
corresponding
changes
in
cardiac
output
and
systemic
C.
?
vascular
resistance.
D.
?
A
negative
inotropic
effect
may
result
from
↓
in
intracellular
calcium
availability
2°
to
inhibition
of
trans-‐sarcolemmal
Ca
influx
IV06
[Jul97]
[Apr01]
Methohexitone:
E
A.
Has
a
molecular
weight
of
285
MW
262
B.
Has
a
melting
point
of
158
degrees
B/C
?
C.
A
2.5%
solution
is
isotonic
White
powder
becomes
clear
&
colourless
liquid.
D.
Is
yellow
4
optically
active
isomers,
but
clinical
prepartion
usually
contained
only
E.
Has
4
isomers
2.
IV06b
[Mar02]
Methohexitone
None
of
these
A.
Is
a
oxythiobarbiturate
Methohexitone
is
a
methylated
oxybarbitone.
Shorter
duration
of
action
B.
Breakdown
is
principally
by
splitting
of
ring
than
thio
(higher
metabolism
&
rapid
distribution).
C.
“Longer
duration
than
thio/
or
maybe
greater
protein
binding
Metabolism
is
by
side-‐chain
oxidation
compared
to
thio??”
D.
?
E.
?
IV07
[Mar98]
Benzodiazepine
binding
site
on
GABA
receptor
is:
D
A.
Near
Cl-‐
channel
B.
Inside
the
channel
Benzo
site
ϒ/α
C.
Outside
the
channel
GABA
site
α/β
D.
On
the
alpha
subunit
GA
site
β
IV08
[Mar98]
[Jul01]
The
drug
with
the
largest
volume
of
distribution
at
A
steady
state
is:
A.
Propofol
Propofol
Vd
3.5-‐4.5
L/kg
B.
Midazolam
Midaz
Vd
1-‐1.5
L/kg
C.
Etomidate
Etomidate
3.0
L/kg
D.
Thiopentone
Thiopentone
2.5
L/kg
E.
Methohexitone
Methohexitone
2.0
L/kg
43
IV09
[Jul98]
[Jul04]
GABA:
B
A.
Is
the
principal
inhibitory
neurotransmitter
in
the
spinal
cord
B.
Barbiturates
decrease
the
dissociation
time
between
GABA
and
its
Decreases
the
dissociation
time
so
increases
the
association
time.
receptor
Glycine
is
the
principle
inhibitory
neurotransmitter
in
the
spine,
GABA
in
C.
??A
&
B
types??
the
brain.
D.
?
GABA
receptors
have
types
A,
B
and
nonA/nonB
(see
also
IV18
)
IV10
[Mar96]
Propofol
is
structurally
related
to:
E
A.
Althesin
B.
Etomidate
Propofol
is
a
2,6-‐diisopropylphenol
C.
Ketamine
Althesin
is
alphalaxone
&
alphadolone
in
cremophor
EL
D.
?
Etomidate
is
an
imidazole
derivative
&
an
ester
E.
None
of
the
above
Ketamine
is
a
phencyclidine
derivatibe
IV11
[Mar99]
[Feb00]
Midazolam:
C/D
most
true,
B
some
truth
A.
Water
soluble
at
physiological
pH
B.
Undergoes
oxidative
metabolism
Water
soluble
at
pH
<4
C.
More
lipophilic
than
lorazepam
Undergoes
hydroxylation
&
conjugation
-‐
a
form
of
oxidative
D.
Causes
hypotension
metabolism
E.
Has
a
pKa
of
7.4
(or
?
8.1)
Midaz
is
more
lipophilic
than
loraz
F.
Causes
retrograde
amnesia
Can
cause
hypotension
due
to
decrease
in
peripheral
vascular
resistance
pKa
6.15
Anterograde
amnesia
IV12
[Jul98]
Thiopentone:
B
A.
Is
the
sulphur
analogue
of
phenobarbitone
Thio
is
sulphur
analogue
of
PENTObarbitone.
B.
Has
higher
protein
binding
than
its
oxy
analogue
Protein
binding
of
barbiturates
parallels
lipid
solubility,
thios
bound
C.
?
6%
sodium
bicarbonate
greater
than
oxys.
D.
Isotonic
at
2.5%
concentration
6%
sodium
carbonate
(not
bicarbonate)
2.5
is
not
isotonic,
just
less
chance
of
necrosis/tissue
damage
IV13
[Jul98]
Propofol
clearance
is
significantly
increased
in:
C
A.
Elderly
Elderly
have
less
hepatic
blood
flow
and
less
enzyme
activity.
B.
Metabolic
acidosis
Pregnancy
has
higher
cardiac
output,
relatively
less
albumin
C.
Pregnancy
D.
?
(See
also
IN13b)
IV14
[Feb00]
[Jul04]
Thiopentone:
None
of
these
(but
A
best
choice)
A.
100%
reabsorbed
in
renal
tubule
Very
highly
reabsorbed
and
<1%
excreted
unchanged
in
urine
(but
not
B.
Does
not
cross
the
placenta
in
significant
amounts
due
to
high
plasma
100%
reabsorbed)
protein
binding
Barbiturates
used
for
IV
induction
of
anaesthesia
readily
cross
placenta
C.
??accumulate
in
the
foetus
but
concentrations
in
fetal
plasma
<
maternal
due
to
Cl
by
fetal
liver
IV15
[Jul00]
Thiopentone:
A
A.
?
Tachyphylaxis
if
multiple
administration
in
short
period
Acute
tolerance
to
barbiturates
occurs
earlier
than
does
barbiturate-‐
B.
??
induced
induction
of
microsomal
enzymes.
Barbiturates
induce
hepatic
enzymes
after
2-‐7
days
IV16
[Jul00]
Propofol:
D
A.
10%
eliminated
unchanged
B
true
too
-‐
hydroxypropofol
[stoelting
p156]
B.
Undergoes
oxidative
metabolism
C
some
truth
C.
Clearance
depends
on
hepatic
blood
flow
<0.3%
is
excreted
unchanged
in
urine.
Hepatic
metabolism
resulting
in
D.
No
effect
/
chronic
liver
disease
glucuronide
&
sulphate
metabolites,
may
also
undergo
ring
E.
?
hydroxylation
which
is
then
glucuronidated
or
sulfated.
There
is
no
evidence
of
impaired
elimination
in
patients
with
cirrhosis
of
the
liver.
Propofol
can
reduce
its
own
metabolism
by
reduced
hepatic
flow
but
some
extra
hepatic
metabolism
takes
place.
44
Reconstructed
IV17:
B
Ketamine:
Not
an
isotope
-‐
this
is
an
atom
of
particular
chemical
element
that
has
A.
Direct
acting
negative
isotope
different
numbers
of
neutrons
(eg
carbon
12,13&14).
B.
?Indirectly
acts
on
sympathetic
nervous
system
peripherally
Noncompetitive
antagonist
at
NMDA.
Direct
negative
cardiac
inotropy
C.
Directly
on
the
sympathetic
ganglia
(Ca
&
Na
voltage-‐gated
channels)
&
central
sympathetic
stimulation
-‐
D.
Is
a
competitive
antagonist
at
NMDA
receptors
overall
SNS
picture.
E.
Directly
stimulates
alpha
and
beta
receptors
Actually,
I
believe
the
answer
would
be
"Indirectly
acts
on
SNS
Alt
version
of
IV17:
Ketamine:
peripherally".
Goodman
and
Gilman
11th
ed.
-‐
"CVS
effects
are
indirect
A.
Is
a
negative
isotope
(“it
was
isotope
and
not
inotrope”)
and
are
most
likely
mediated
by
inhibition
of
both
central
and
peripheral
B.
?
catecholamine
reuptake.
Ketamine
has
direct
negative
inotropic
and
C.
Directly
stimulates
autonomic
ganglia
vasodilating
activiy,
but
these
effects
usually
are
overwhelmed
by
the
D.
Is
a
competitive
antagonist
at
NMDA
receptors
indirect
sympathomimetic
action."
E.
Directly
stimulates
alpha
and
beta
receptors?
It
is
likely
that
ketamine's
action
is
to
inhibit
norepinephrine
uptake
at
Comments:
the
neuroeffector
1.
junction
rather
than
to
augment
norepinephrine
release.
2. Both
independently
submitted
versions
of
this
MCQ
contained
a
-‐
Mechanism
of
the
positive
inotropic
effect
of
ketamine
in
isolated
comment
that
one
of
the
options
was
‘negative
isotope’
-‐
???
ferret
ventricular
papillary
muscle.
3.
Cook
et.
al.
Anesthesiology
[1991,
74(5):880-‐8]
4. Using
the
information
contained
in
these
2
submitted
versions,
we
can
attempt
to
reconstruct
the
whole
question
as
below.
However,
the
question
still
does
not
look
right:
for
example
3
options
say
‘directly’
and
only
one
says
‘indirect’
&
the
other
does
not
use
either
term,
so
by
‘frequency
analysis’,
this
suggests
that
one
of
A,
C
or
E
is
correct.
The
17a
=
A
problem
with
this
is
the
College
has
in
recent
times
been
going
through
their
whole
MCQ
Bank
trying
to
eliminate
this
type
of
“design
problem”
where
you
can
guess
or
narrow
in
towards
the
answer
by
looking
at
the
frequency
of
numbers
or
words
in
the
different
options.
Reconstructed
IV17:
Ketamine:
A.
Direct
acting
negative
isotope
B.
?Indirectly
acts
on
sympathetic
nervous
system
peripherally
C.
Directly
on
the
sympathetic
ganglia
D.
Is
a
competitive
antagonist
at
NMDA
receptors
E.
Directly
stimulates
alpha
and
beta
receptors
IV17a
[Jul04]
Ketamine:
A.
Is
a
NON-‐competitive
antagonist
at
NMDA
receptors
B.
?Direct
acting
negative
inotrope
C.
?Indirectly
acts
on
sympathetic
nervous
system
peripherally
D.
?Directly
on
the
sympathetic
ganglia
E.
?Directly
stimulates
alpha
and
beta
receptors
IV18
[Jul01]
With
regard
to
GABA
receptors:
(OR:
Which
of
the
following
F
true
is
INCORRECT
about
GABA
neurotransmission:)
D
true
but
care
Re:
wording
as
GABAc
also
exists
in
retina
A.
GABA-‐A
found
all
over
the
body
G
true
at
high
doses
only
B.
Is
an
excitatory
transmitter
in
20%
of
CNS
synapses
C.
GABA-‐B
is
predominately
post-‐synaptic
GABA
in
CNS,
only
trace
elsewhere,
inhibitory
transmitter.
D.
GABA
receptor
located
in
spinal
cord,
medulla
and
rest
in
Cortex.
GABAb
presynaptic
and
postsynaptic
but
preferentially
presynaptic.
E.
Is
metabolised
by
deamination
GABA
present
in
cerebral
cortex,
basal
ganglia,
cerebellum
and
spinal
F.
Is
metabolised
by
transamination
by
?GABA
transaminase
cord.
G.
Stimulated
by
benzodiazepines
GABA
is
formed
from
glutamate
by
action
of
glutamic
acid
H.
Opposes
action
of
glycine
decarboxylase
(GAD)
and
is
destroyed
by
a
transamination
reaction
(Above
is
a
composite
of
options
from
two
GABA
questions
which
were
catalysed
by
GABA-‐transaminase
(GAD-‐T).
on
the
Jul
01]]
paper.)
Benzos
modulate
-‐
they
increase
frequency
of
opening
in
presence
of
GABA
but
cannot
themselves
stimulate.
Glycine
is
another
inhibitory
neurotransmitter
(found
principally
in
spinal
cord)
45
IV19
[Jul01]
Propofol
D
most
true
A.
Causes
decreased
hepatic
blood
flow
to
influence
its
own
clearance
A?
B.
Relatively
low
clearance
in
Children
May
cause
decreased
hepatic
blood
flow
to
influence
its
own
Cl.
C.
Has
a
high
rate
of
transfer
from
the
peripheral
to
the
central
High
Cl
in
children.
compartment
on
ceasing
an
infusion
Short
CSHT
due
to
C.
D.
Has
clinically
significant
metabolites
Metabolites
active
–
4
hydroxypropofol
has
about
1/3
hypnotic
activity
E.
Elimination
halflife
of
5
minutes
of
propofol.
Elimination
half
time
0.5-‐1.5hrs
Straight
from
Miller:
“This
longer
elimination
half-‐life
indicates
a
deep
compartment
with
limited
perfusion,
which
results
in
a
slow
return
of
propofol
back
to
the
central
compartment.”
Suggests
that
C
is
false.
I
think
that
short
CSHT
is
due
to
rapid
metabolism
rather
than
transfer
between
compartments…
[[IV20
[Mar02]
Which
one
of
the
following
induction
agents
does
NOT
A
exert
its
main
effect
via
the
GABA
receptor?
Ketamine
has
only
weak
actions
at
GABAa
receptors.
A.
Ketamine
Rest
thought
to
have
main
actions
at
GABA
B.
Thiopentone
C.
Propofol
D.
Midazolam
E.
Methohexitone
IV21
[Feb04]
Sodium
carbonate
added
to
Thiopentone:
C
A.
As
a
bacteriostatic
agent
Thiopental
is
formulated
as
a
sodium
salt.
Contains
sodium
carbonate
B.
To
neutralise
Thiopentones
acidity
(Na2CO3,
6%
by
weight)
and
nitrogen
in
place
of
air.
These
2
measures
+ -‐
C.
To
increase
ionised
portion
are
designed
to
improve
solubility.
Na2CO3
+
H2O
=
NaHCO3
+
Na
+
OH
D.
Enhances
activity
a
strongly
alkaline
solution,
enol
form
favouring
water
solubility
IV22
[Jul04]
Which
agent
does
not
cause
increased
heart
rate
on
C
best
induction
of
anaesthesia?
(B
also
true)
A.
Thiopentone
Etomidate
causes
minimal
changes
in
heart
rate.
B.
Etomidate
Propofol
characteristically
causes
a
decrease
in
SBP
without
a
C.
Propofol
compensatory
increase
in
HR.
Propofol
can
cause
profound
D.
Ketamine
bradycardia/asystole.
E.
Methohexitone
IV23
[Jul04]
Benzodiazepine
receptor
has
None
of
these
A.
Two
glycine
binding
sites
Benzo
receptor
is
on
GABA
receptor
and
only
has
one
binding
site
for
B.
?
benzo
but
two
for
GABA.
IV24
[Jul04]
Midazolam
B
A.
Bioavailability
10%
Bioavailability
is
50%
B.
Bioavailability
50%
Elimination
half-‐life
1-‐4hrs.
C.
Elimination
t1/2
30]]
min
D.
Elimination
t1/2
30]]
hours
E.
?
IV25
Ketamine
is
not
usually
used
as
a
sole
TIVA
agent
because:
B
A.
It
causes
profound
analgesia
but
insuffient
hypnosis
for
procedure
B.
It
causes
emergence
phenomena
in
up
to
30%
of
patients
when
given
A
=
false,
used
in
field
anaesthesia
as
an
infusion
B
=
true,
but
not
necessarily
with
infusion.
Stoetling
lists
this
as
limiting
C.
It
is
too
water
soluble
(or
something
like
that)
compared
to
propofol
factor
D.
Half
life
is
80
mins
C
=
false,
more
water
soluble
and
therefore
doesn’t
require
a
lipid
E.
?
emulsion
carrier
(an
advantage
over
propofol)
D
=
false,
half
life
2.5hrs
46
IV26
The
amount
of
thiopentone
remaining
in
brain
30
mins
after
A
administration:
A.
10%
B.
20%
Stoelting:
"Thiopental,
thiamylal,
and
methohexital
undergo
maximal
C.
30%
brain
uptake
within
30
seconds
D.
(rapid
effect
site
equilibration),
accounting
for
the
prompt
onset
of
CNS
E.
40%
depression.
The
brain
receives
about
10%
of
the
total
dose
in
the
first
30
to
40
seconds.
This
maximal
brain
concentration
is
followed
by
a
decrease
over
the
next
5
minutes
to
one-‐
half
the
initial
peak
concentration,
due
to
redistribution
of
the
drug
from
the
brain
to
other
tissues.
Indeed
redistribution
is
the
principal
mechanism,
accounting
for
early
awakening
after
a
single
IV
dose
of
these
drugs.
After
about
30
minutes,
the
barbiturate
has
been
further
redistributed
and
as
little
as
10%
remains
in
the
brain."
47
IV31
[Feb13]
Five
minutes
after
giving
thiopentone,
the
amount
31
=
D
remaining
in
brain
is:
31b
=
E
A.
5%
B.
10%
See
also
IV26
which
is
the
same
question
but
says
amount
after
30
C.
30%
minutes.
Not
sure
which
is
the
correctly
remembered
time
but
there
is
a
D.
50%
exact
reference
for
the
30
min
MCQ.
E.
100%
Just
a
bit
above
the
part
referenced
in
IV26:
"The
brain
receives
about
10%
of
the
total
dose
of
thiopental
in
the
first
30
to
40
seconds.
This
V31b
[Alt
Version]
Percentage
of
thiopentone
dose
remaining
in
the
maximal
brain
concentration
is
followed
by
a
decrease
over
the
next
5
brain
FIVE
minutes
after
a
bolus
dose:
(definitely
5
not
30
mins
as
minutes
to
one-‐half
the
initial
peak
concentration,
due
to
redistribution
previously
recalled/asked)
of
the
drug..."
-‐Stoelting
a)
0.2%
b)
0.5%
c)
20%
d)
35%
e)
50%
IV32
Addition
of
sodium
carbonate
to
thiopentone:
None
are
true
(unless
B
actually
stated
increases
hydrophilicity?)
A
-‐
Confers
a
yellow
colour
B
-‐
Increases
lipophilicity??
Thiopental
is
formulated
as
a
sodium
salt.
Contains
sodium
carbonate
C
-‐
provides
CO2
(Na2CO3,
6%
by
weight)
and
nitrogen
in
place
of
air.
These
2
measures
+ -‐
D
-‐
are
designed
to
improve
solubility.
Na2CO3
+
H2O
=
NaHCO3
+
Na
+
OH
E
-‐
Bacteriostatic
a
strongly
alkaline
solution,
enol
form
favouring
water
solubility
The
yellow
color
is
due
to
the
presence
of
the
sulphur
molecule
IV33
With
regards
to
the
structure
of
barbiturate
drugs:
(Refer
to
C
Stoelting
4E
p127)
a)
Keto-‐enol
tautomerization
(enol
form
ionized
form
at
ph
11,
keto
form
b)
Oxygen
substitution
at
the
1-‐
position
increases
?half-‐life
unionized
at
ph
7.4)
c)
Phenol
substitution
at
the
5-‐
position
increases
anticonvulsant
activity
Sulphur
at
position
2
produces
more
lipid
solubility,
rapid
onset,
greater
hypnotic
potency
but
shorter
duration
of
action
(eg/
thiopentone)
Phenyl
group
at
position
5
produces
anticonvulsant
property
(eg/
phenobarbitone)
Hypnotic
activity
is
introduced
into
the
barbituric
acid
molecule
by
the
addition
of
side
chains,
especially
if
at
least
one
of
them
is
branched,
in
position
5
The
length
of
the
side
chains
in
the
5
position
influences
both
the
potency
and
the
duration
of
action
of
the
barbituric
acid
derivatives;
more
potent
with
longer
side
chains
in
position
5
(eg/
phenobarbital)
Addition
of
methyl
group
at
C1
produces
rapid
onset
of
action
and
short
duration
of
action,
but
excitatory
effects
(eg/
methohexital)
IV34
Propofol
clearance
(There
were
two
questions
on
it
-‐
can't
recall
C
both
so
I've
put
what
I
can
recall
from
them
together)
a)
Decreased
in
hepatic
failure
Propofol
has
a
high
Vd
and
Cl
in
children,
and
a
decreased
one
in
elderly
b)
Decreased
in
renal
failure
Clearance
of
propofol
is
higher
than
the
hepatic
blood
flow
which
c)
Increased
in
children
suggests
extrahepatic
sites
(lung
and
kidney)
and
so
decreased
clearance
d)
Decreased
in
cirrhosis
is
less
of
an
issue
in
hepatic
failure
and
the
drug
can
be
used
in
cirrhosis/liver/renal
disease
IV35
Ketamine:
?D
A
decreases
ICP
/
CBF
B
acts
via
opioid
receptors
A
–
incorrect;
60%
increase
in
CBF,
ICP
and
CMRO2
C
decreases
salivation
B
–
main
action
as
non
competitive
NMDA
antagonist,
also
has
minor
2+
D
airway
reflexes
actions
at
opioid,
monoaminergic,
muscarinic
and
Ca
channels
E
?
C
–
increases
salivary
and
bronchial
secretions
D
–
relative
sparing
of
upper
airway
reflexes
48
Local
anasthetics
LA01
[Mar96]
[Mar97]
[Jul97]
[Mar99]
[Jul01]
Lignocaine
has
a
pKa
of
D
7.9
At
pH
6.9,
the
percentage
ionised
is:
A.
1%
(or
5%)
pH
=
pKa
+
log([B]/[BH+])
(for
an
acid
pH
=
pKA
+
log
[A-‐]/[AH])
B.
10%
6.9
=
7.9
+
log
([B]/[BH+])
C.
50%
-‐1
=
log
([B]/[BH+])
D.
90%
0.1
=
[B]/[BH+]
E.
99%
so
base
unionized
=
10%
of
the
base
ionized.
(Also
remembered
as:
With
a
pKa
of
7.9,
what
percent
of
lignocaine
is
%
ionized
is
~91%
and
unionized
is
~9%
ionised
at
intracellular
pH?)
Rules
of
thumb:
If
pka
–
pH
=
0
=>
50%
ionized
If
pka
–
pH
=
0.5
=>
75%
ionized
If
pka
–
pH
>1
=>
>95%
ionized
Can
also
use
following
formula:
x(ph
–
pka)
%
ionized
=
100/(1+10 )
where
x
=-‐1
if
acid
and
1
if
base
ð 100/1.1
=
~90
LA02
[Mar96]
[Jul04]
Cocaine:
A
A.
Blocks
reuptake
of
dopamine
and
noradrenaline
Cocaine
blocks
uptake
1
and
MAO
and
also
stimulates
CNS
-‐
blocks
B.
Central
effects
are
due
to
noradrenaline
reuptake
of
noradrenaline
&
dopamine.
C.
Crosses
lipid
soluble
membranes
because
its
pKa
is
2.8
Euphoric
properties
are
due
primarily
to
inhibition
of
dopamine
D.
Is
not
metabolised
by
plasma
pseudocholinesterase
reuptake.
E.
Rapidly
absorbed
by
nasal
mucosa
pKa
8.6
Unlike
other
esters,
it
undergoes
hepatic
hydrolysis
as
well
as
plasma.
“Cocaine
inhibits
the
neuronal
membrane
transporters
for
catecholamines,
thereby
potentiating
the
effect
of
NA
at
alpha-‐
adrenergic
receptors
in
the
vasculature,
resulting
in
vasoconstriction
and
reduced
cocaine
absorption
in
vascular
beds
where
alpha
adrenergic
effects
predominate”
[Goodman
and
Gillman
online
chapter
20]
Stoelting
p187:
Cocaine
is
metabolised
by
plasma
and
liver
cholinesterases
to
water-‐soluble
metabolites
that
are
excreted
in
urine
LA03
[Mar96]
[Mar03]
Ropivacaine:
None
A.
Produces
greater
motor
block
than
bupivacaine
Lower
lipid
solubility
=
reduced
ability
to
penetrate
thicker
motor
nerves
B.
Is
prepared
as
the
R
enantiomer
=
less
motor
block.
C.
Is
less
lipid
soluble
than
lignocaine
S-‐enantomer
D.
Has
the
same
cardiotoxicity
as
lignocaine
More
lipid
soluble
than
lignocaine
More
cardiotoxic
than
lignocaine
(less
than
bupivacaine)
LA03b
[Mar97]
[Feb00]
Ropivacaine
E?
A.
Is
a
pure
R
isomer
Same
pKa
8.1,
similar
protein
binding
(B
95%,
R
94%),
same
slow
onset,
B.
Is
an
isomer
of
bupivacaine
same
duration
of
action
240-‐480mins,
same
relative
potency
of
4.
C.
Provides
more
motor
block
than
bupivacaine
Different
lipid
solubility
(B
>
R),
different
Vd
(B
73L,
R
59L),
Cl
slightly
D.
Has
more
toxicity
than
bupivacaine
different
(B
0.47L/min,
R
0.44L/min)
E.
Has
similar
physico-‐chemical
properties
to
bupivacaine
LA03c
[Mar98]
[Jul98]
Ropivacaine
differs
from
bupivacaine
mainly
by:
C
A.
More
motor
blockade
than
bupivacaine
B.
Mainly
affecting
A
beta
rather
than
A
delta
fibres
B.
Mainly
affecting
A
beta
rather
than
A
delta
fibres
–
No.
Both
types
of
C.
Lower
cardiac
toxicity
than
bupivacaine
pain
fibres
A-‐delta
and
nonmyelinated
C
fibers
are
blocked
by
similar
D.
?
concentrations
of
local
anaesthetics
despite
the
differences
in
diameters
E.
None
of
the
above
of
these
fibers.
Preganglionic
β
fibres
ar
more
readily
blocked
by
LAs
than
any
other
fibre,
even
though
they
are
myelinated.
Stoelting
p183
LA04
[Mar96]
[Mar99]
Bupivacaine:
B,
D
A.
Is
an
aminoester
local
anaesthetic
Amide
local
anaesthetic.
B.
Is
formed
by
substituting
butyl
for
methyl
on
amino
group
of
Formed
from
mepivacaine
by
subsitution
of
a
butyl
group
for
methyl
mepivacaine
group.
C.
?Less/more
toxic
than
tetracaine
Bupivacine
replacing
tetracaine
as
smaller
doses
can
be
used,
B
>
T
D.
Adrenaline
solution
contains
sodium
metabisulphite
faster
onset
and
LESS
toxicity.
[Goodman
&
Gillman
online]
but
website
E.
Equipotent
to
etidocaine
in
causing
motor
block
says
MORE
toxic
CNS
in
Evers
&
Maze
Sodium
bisulfite
(strong
acid)
may
be
added
to
local-‐adrenaline
solutions
to
prevent
oxidative
decomposition
of
adrenaline.
Etidocaine:
very
rapid
onset,
prolonged
duration
of
action
and
profound
sensory
and
motor
blockade
(only
useful
when
muscle
relaxation
required
for
surgery)
49
LA05
[Jul97]
With
regard
to
molecular
weight
of
local
anaesthetics,
A
which
is
the
correct
sequence?
A.
Cinchocaine
>
bupivacaine
>
lignocaine
>
prilocaine
Molecular
weights
for
the
above
local
anaesthetics
are
as
follows:
B.
Bupivacaine
>
lignocaine
>
cinchocaine
>
prilocaine
C.
Bupivacaine
>
lignocaine
>
prilocaine
>
cinchocaine
-‐ Cinochocaine:
MW
343
(C20.H3.0.Cl.N3.O2)
D.
Prilocaine
>
bupivacaine
>
cinchocaine
>
lignocaine
-‐ Bupivacaine:
MW
288.4
(C18.H28.N2.O)
E.
Lignocaine>bupivacaine>prilocaine>cinchocaine
-‐ Lignocaine:
MW
234.3
(C14.H22.N2.O)
(see
also
LA09,
LA10)
-‐ Prilocaine:
MW
220.3
(C13.H20.N2.O)
Also
found
as:
Prilocaine
=
220
Lignocaine = 234
Procaine = 236
Bupivacaine = 288
Cinchocaine = 343
LA06
[Jul97]
[Jul04]
Lignocaine
works
by:
A
+
A.
Altering
Na
permeability
B.
Altering
membrane
structure
++
C.
Reduced
Ca
permeability
+
D.
Increased
K
permeability
++
E.
Ca
binding
to
tropomyosin
LA07
[Jul97]
Lignocaine:
C?
A.
Has
?%
uptake
in
lung
The
lungs
are
capable
of
extracting
local
anaesthetics
such
as
lignocaine,
B.
Is
24%
ionised
at
physiological
pH
bupivacaine
and
prilocaine
from
the
circulation.
Not
sure
about
%.
MCQ
+
C.
Reduces
Na
conductance
(?)
website
answer
25%
D.
?
25%
UNionized
at
physiological
pH
7.4
LA08
[Jul97]
Lignocaine:
A
A.
Has
active
metabolites
Some
of
metabolic
products
have
antiarrhythmic
properties
while
other
B.
Metabolism
faster
in
females
because
of
progesterone
may
potentiate
lignocaine-‐induced
seizures.
C.
Metabolism
is
independent
of
liver
blood
flow
Clearance
is
reduced
in
the
presence
of
hepatic
or
cardiac
failure.
D.
?
LA09
[Mar98]
[Feb00]
Protein
binding
of
local
anaesthetics
(in
B
decreasing
order):
A.
Procaine
>
bupivacaine
>
lignocaine
>
prilocaine
Protein
binding:
B.
Bupivacaine
>
lignocaine
>
prilocaine
>
procaine
Cocaine
95
C.
Prilocaine
>
bupivacaine
>
lignocaine
>
prilocaine
Bupivaciane
95
D.
Lignocaine
>
bupivacaine
>
prilocaine
>
procaine
Ropivacaine
94
E.
Bupivacaine
>
lignocaine
>
procaine
>
prilocaine
Mepivacaine
77
F.
Bupivacaine>procaine>lignocaine>prilocaine
Amethocaine
75
Lignocaine
70
Prilocaine
55
Procaine
6
LA10
[Mar98]
Local
anaesthetics
are
metabolized
in
the
following
order:
Answer
=
A.
Bupivacaine>ropivacaine>lignocaine>prilocaine>procaine
Procaine
>
Prilocaine
>
Lignocaine
>
ropivacaine
>
bupivacaine
B
to
E.
(The
above
in
different
orders)
Ester
anaesthetics
quickest
Prilocaine
more
rapid
Lignocaine
&
mepivacaine
intermediate
Etidocaine,
bupivacain
and
ropivacaine
slowest
Ropivacaine
higher
clearance
and
shorter
half
life
than
bupivacaine
[Stoelting
p
185-‐6]
t1/2β
Bupivacaine
=
210
mins
Ropivacaine
=
108
mins
Lignocaine
=
96
mins
Prilocaine
=
96
mins
Procaine
=
6
mins
50
LA11
[Mar98]
Saxitoxin
site
on
sodium
channel
is:
B
A.
Inside
channel
Saxitoxin
is
a
toxin
produced
by
algae,
humans
usually
get
this
after
B.
Outside
channel
eating
contaminated
shellfish.
C.
On
membrane
outside
Both
saxitoxin
and
tetrodotoxin
specifically
block
the
outer
mouth
of
the
D.
?
pore
of
Na+
channels
in
the
membranes
of
excitable
cells
[Goodman
&
Gillman
online,
chapter
20]
LA12
[Jul98]
The
site
of
action
of
benzocaine
is:
E
A.
Same
site
as
saxitoxin
"Certain
local
anaesthetics
(eg
benzocaine)
are
only
present
in
the
body
B.
Inside
Na+
channel
/OR:
At
the
channel
mouth
as
uncharged,
tertiary
bases,
and
must
therefore
act
in
a
different
way.
+
C.
At
axoplasmic
end
of
Na
channel
They
are
believed
to
cause
conduction
blockade
by
"membrane
D.
At
Ca++
channel
expansion"
(ie
by
causing
swelling
of
the
lipoprotein
matrix
of
the
Na+
E.
In
the
cell
membrane
channel.
To
some
extent,
other
local
anaesthetics,
which
are
partly
present
in
the
neurilemma
as
the
uncharged
base
may
act
in
this
manner."
-‐
from
Calvey
&
Williams
"Principles
and
Practice
of
Pharmacology
for
Anaesthetists"
4th
ed
2001,
p152-‐3
LA13
[Jul98]
EMLA
cream
contains:
None
without
information
on
pHs
A.
Soluble
in
water
at
>16
degrees
C
B.
20%
ionised
at
pH
??
?
mostly
un-‐ionised
as
a
cream/oil
C.
80%
ionised
at
pH
??..
OR:
Base
contains
80%
local
anaesthetic
D.
??
amount
of
ionised
drug
EMLA
=
eutectic
mixture
of
local
anaesthetics
E.
All
of
the
above
2.5%
lignocaine,
2.5%
prilocaine.
Low
melting
point:
oil
at
room
temperature
while
the
individual
components
would
be
crystalline
solids.
[http://www.drugs.com/pro/emla.html]
LA14
[Mar99]
[Mar03]
What
factor
(?does
not)
influence
the
peak
D
plasma
levels
after
epidural
injection
of
local
anaesthetic?
Vasoconstrictors
definately
effect
plasma.
A.
Vasoconstrictor
Hepatic
clearance
very
important
in
amides
(esterases
in
plasma
for
B.
Natural
vasoconstrictor
activity
of
the
drug
esters)
[Stoelting
p1885]
C.
Hepatic
clearance
D.
Renal
clearance
?
renal
best
option
as
little
drug
is
excreted
unchanged
from
kidney
LA15
[Mar99]
[Mar03]
Which
ONE
of
the
following
is
an
amide?
A.
Tetracaine
D,
E,
B
B.
Procainamide
Procainamide
is
an
analogue
of
the
local
anaesthetic
procaine
C.
Procaine
[Stoeltingp376]
D.
Prilocaine
procainamide
is
the
AMIDE
analogue
of
procaine,
hence
the
name!
E.
Cinchocaine
LA15b
[Jul01]
The
following
are
all
amides
except:
D
A.
Bupivicaine
B.
Prilocaine
C.
Etidocaine
D.
Tetracaine
E.
Dibucaine
LA16
[Jul99]
Lignocaine:
A.
Anti-‐arrhythmic
effect
-‐
??Na
channel
/open
&
inactivated
state
?
A
–
reduces
phase
0
slope
and
peak
of
AP
B.
Prolongs
QRS
B
is
also
correct
(in
large
doses).
Stoelting
191:
Excessive
plasma
C.
?
concentrations
of
lidocaine
may
slow
conduction
of
cardiac
impulses
D.
?
through
the
heart,
manifesting
as
prolongation
of
the
PR
interval
and
QRS
complex
LA17
[Jul99]
[Feb00]
[Jul00]
[Jul01]
[Jul03]
C
A
solution
of
local
anaesthetic
contains
1:100,000
adrenaline.
How
much
10mcg/ml
=
0.001%
adrenaline
has
been
added?
A.
0.01%
B.
0.1%
C.
10
mcg/ml
D.
100
mcg/ml
E.
1000
mcg/ml
LA18
[Feb00]
Regarding
the
addition
of
adrenaline
to
a
local
anaesthetic
B
administered
epidurally,
which
of
the
following
is
NOT
true?
Careful
–
this
question
says
which
is
NOT
true!
A.
Significantly
prolongs
the
duration
of
action
of
bupivacaine
B
is
not
true
as
the
dose
is
only
5mcg/ml
which
is
unlikely
to
cause
B.
Causes
tissue
acidosis
at
the
site
of
injection
significant
tissue
ischaemia!
C.
Causes
vasoconstriction
D.
?
“The
duration
of
surgical
epidural
anaesthesia
is
not
greatly
prolonged
when
epinephrine
is
combined
with
prilocaine,
bupivacaine
or
etidocaine,
but
does
result
in
a
significant
increase
in
the
duration
of
epidural
blockade
produced
by
agents
such
as
lignocaine”
[Longnecker’s
online,
chapter
44]
51
LA19
[Jul00]
[Jul01]
Regarding
local
anaesthetic
plasma
protein
binding
A.
Is
predominantly
by
albumin
A,
?
B
B.
Is
predominantly
by
alpha-‐1
acid
glycoprotein
Alpha-‐1
acid
glycoprotein
binds
local
anaesthetic
with
high
affinity
C.
Is
greater
for
tetracaine
than
for
bupivacaine
although
albumin
binds
a
greater
quantity
due
to
its
relative
abundance.
D.
Neonates
have
a
greater
number
of
binding
sites
[Peck
p167]
E.
Plasma
binding
is
directly
proportional
to
local
anaesthetic
Bupivacaine
95%
bound,
tetracaine
76%
bound.
concentration.
Protein
binding
is
increased
by
pregnancy,
myocardial
infarction,
renal
(Comment:
wording
in
option
E
was
'plasma
binding'
&
not
'plasma
failure,
post-‐operatively
and
in
infancy
=
reduced
free
fraction
of
drug.
protein
binding')
[Peck
p168]
Percentage
bound
inversely
proportional
to
concentration.
Neonates
have
less
alpha1
acid
glycoprotein
Neonates
have
more
risk
of
toxicity
cos
of
decreased
protein
binding
from
decreased
alpha
1
glycoprotein.
They
also
have
decreased
hepatic
clearance.
So
D
incorrect.
LA20
[Jul01]
For
a
local
anaesthetic
agent
at
a
given
concentration:
B
A.
Effect
is
NOT
dependent
on
resting
membrane
potential
B.
Faster
onset
with
increasing
frequency
of
stimulation
of
nerve
C.
Unionised
form
blocks
the
surface
receptor
D.
Agent
blocks
the
channel
in
the
activated
state
E.
Faster
onset
with
more
negative
resting
membrane
potential.
LA21
[Feb04]
Lignocaine
?
B
A.
Over
50%
unionised
at
pH
7.4
??
pKa
7.9,
so
at
pH
7.4
it
has
75%
ionized.
B.
Decreased
metabolism
with
GA
??
If
hepatic
blood
flow
was
reduced
due
to
GA,
may
then
have
decreased
C.
?
metabolism.
D.
?
E.
?
LA22
[Mar09]
Levobupivacaine
is
different
from
bupivacaine
in:
None
of
these
A.
Increased
hydrophobicity
of
the
aromatic
ring
B.
Increased
hydrophilicity
of
amine
group
C.
Addition
of
a
methyl
group
to
the
hydrophilic
amine
ring
D.
?
E.
?
LA23[Mar09]
A
toxic
dose
of
bupivacaine
is
given
and
results
in
seizure
D
or
E
and
ventricular
fibrillation.
Which
is
most
correct
in
order
of
priority:
Tricky
seeing
as
the
guidelines
have
changed
to
CAB!
A.
Amiodarone,
diazepam,
ventilate
with
100%
O2,
defibrillation
I
think
should
be
compressions,
100%
O2,
DCR,
adrenaline
and
intralipid
B.
Ventilate
with
100%
O2,
external
cardiac
compressions,
diazepam,
but
open
to
suggestions!
defibrillation
C.
Diazepam,
defibrillation,
vetilate
with
100%
oxygen,
cardiac
Most
probably
D
compression
D.
Ventilate
with
100%
oxygen,
defibrillate,
external
cardiac
compressions,
adrenaline
E.
External
cardiac
compressions,
defibrillation,
amiodarone,
ventilate
with
100%
oxygen
LA24
[Mar09]
Cocaine
B
A.
Overdose
rarely
causes
convulsions
B.
Central
effects
are
due
to
high
dopamine
levels
C.
Metabolism
is
dependent
on
plasma
pseudocholinesterase
D.
?
E.
?
52
Miscellaneous
pharm
MD01
[Mar96]
[Jul97]
[Mar03]
Oxytocin:
Answer:
A.
Synthetised
in
posterior
pituitary
Part
1:
B
B.
Poorly
absorbed
orally
Part
2:
?B
(wording
dependent)
+
C
C.
Metabolised
by
oxytocinase
in
the
Part
3:
B
or
C
(partly
correct)
liver
D.
Bolus
dose
will
increase
central
OXYTOCIN:
venous
pressure
-‐ Nonapeptide,
synthesised
in
hypothalamus,
released
from
posterior
pituitary
E.
Bolus
dose
will
increase
systemic
-‐ USES:
induction
labour,
counteract
uterine
hypotonicity
vascular
resistance
-‐ polypeptide,
rapidly
digested
by
peptidases
in
GIT
à
poorly
oral
abosrption
F.
Metabolised
by
the
liver
and
kidney
-‐ metabolised
in
fat
+
muscle
+
placenta
tissue
by
oxytocinae/insulin-‐regulated
(see
also
EM15)
aminopeptidase
-‐ high
doses
cause
vascular
smooth
muscle
relaxation
à
lower
SVR
à
low
BP
à
reflexive
MD01b
[Mar99]
[Jul99]
Oxytocin:
tachycardia
+
increased
CO
A.
Has
diuretic
effect
-‐ in
the
past,
oxytocin
preparations
were
often
contaminated
by
ergot
alkaloids
à
B.
Partially
depolarises
uterine
muscle
exaggerated
hypertensive
response
in
those
previously
treated
with
sympathomimetic
/
?effect
on
membrane
threshold
-‐ modern
synthetic
preparations
are
PURE
oxytocin
(same
as
physiological
structure)
and
don’t
C.
Causes
emesis
have
this
risk
D.
Increases
threshold
of
receptors
for
-‐ MIMS:
nausea/vomiting
common
SE
depolarisation
-‐ it
has
an
ADH-‐like
effect
(anti-‐diuresis)
à
H2O
intoxication
E.
Hypertension
-‐ acts
on
preganant
uterus
by
lowering
the
threshold
for
depolarisation
in
uterine
smooth
muscle
(Stoelting)
MD01c
[Feb00]
Oxytocin:
-‐ Salbutamol
is
a
tocolytic
à
will
antagonsise
the
effects
oxytocin
A.
Ringed
octapeptide
B.
Effects
on
uterus
antagonized
by
beta
agonists
C.
ADH
like
effect
D.
?
MD02
[Mar96]
[Mar97]
[Jul97]
[Jul98]
Answer:
B;
C
(increases
LOS
tone)
[Jul99]
[Feb00]
Cisapride:
A.
Will
increase
gastric
motility
in
the
Cisapride:
presence
of
atropine
GI
prokinetic
drug,
stimulates
gastric
emptying,
increases
lower
oesophageal
sphincter
tone,
B.
Can
be
used
to
treat
opioid
induced
enchances
motility
of
small
+
large
intestine
via
enhance
release
of
Ach
from
nerve
endings
in
gastric
stasis
myenteric
plexus
+
GI
mucosa
(agonist
at
M2
and
5HT4
receptors).
Other
uses:
GORD,
mild
C.
Decreases/increases
lower
oesophagitis.
oesophageal
sphincter
tone
(?due
to
atropine)
Administration
of
cisparide
before
antagonism
of
NMB
with
atropine/neostigmine
will
not
prevent
D.
Decreases
gastric
pH
the
ability
of
atropine
to
decrease
lower
oesophageal
sphincter
tone.
Opioid
induced
gastric
stasis
E.
Increases
gastric
volume
can
be
reversed
by
cisapride
(Stoelting).
F.
Blocks
histamine
receptors
G.
Agonist
at
D2
receptors
MD04
[Mar96]
[Jul99]
[Apr01]
Answer
Paracetamol:
Part
1:
C,
E
A.
Has
an
active
metabolite
Part
2:
C
B.
Interferes
with
renal
blood
flow
Part
3:
C
&
D
C.
Does
NOT
cause
gastric
irritation
Part
4:
C
D.
Causes
methaemoglobinaemia
Part
5:
NIL
E.
Maximum
adult
dose
4g
Part
6:
?A
Apr
2001
version:
Paracetamol:
PARACETAMOL
(Stoelting)
A.
Frequently
causes
dyspepsia
(?gastric
-‐ Weak
COX1/2
inhibitor
in
peripheral
tissues
(anti-‐inflammatory
effects
are
weak-‐
irritation)
Stoelting)
B.
Acid-‐base
abnormalities
common
with
-‐ Adult
daily
dose
4g
overdose
-‐ NB
single
dose
15g
paracetamol
hepatotoxic
C.
Maximum
dose
4
grams
in
adult
-‐ pKa
9.5
D.
?
-‐ Unlike
salicylates,
paracteamol
does
not
produce
gastric
irritaion,
alter
platelet
E.
?
aggregation
or
antagonise
effects
of
uricosuric
drugs
(Stoelting)
-‐ Metabolism
in
liver
to
INACTIVE
metabolites
MD04b
[Jul98]
[Mar99]
[Feb00]
[Jul04]
-‐ 80%
metabolised
by
hepatic
micorsomal
enzymes
and
converted
to
glucuronide
>
sulfate
Paracetamol:
metabolites
A.
Is
a
powerful
anti-‐inflammatory
agent
-‐ 5%
excreted
unchange
B.
Should
never
be
given
in
a
dose
>
20
-‐ 15%
metabolised
to
N-‐acetyl-‐p-‐benzoquinone
(this
is
the
hepatotoxic
metabolite
causing
mg/kg
to
children
centrilobular
necrosis
–
normally
scavanged
by
glutathione
but
overdose
=
exhaustion
of
C.
Increased
risk
of
hepatic
necrosis
in
supplies)
chronic
alcoholics
-‐ metabolite
p-‐aminophenol
is
concentrated
in
renal
papillae
à
accumulate
à
?cause
of
D.
Sulphate
conjugation
is
major
papillary
necrosis
à
analgesic-‐induced
nephropathy
metabolic
pathway
-‐ long
term
renal
toxicity
of
NSAIDs
may
be
due
to
persisten
inhibition
of
PG
synthesis
à
E.
pKa
3.5
medullary
synthesis
F.
?Glutathione
conjugation
-‐ phenacetin:
old
analgesic,
contained
paracetamol
and
genetically
determined
differences
in
metabolism
à
other
metabolites
formed
which
can
result
in
methaemoglobinaemia
+
53
Alt
version
remembered
from
Feb
2000:
haemolysis
(eg
G6PD
deficiency)
-‐
NOT
with
current
paracetamol
preparations
Paracetamol:
A.
Has
analgesic,
antipyretic
and
anti-‐
inflammatory
effects
B.
Is
metabolised
to
BENZOQUINONIMINE
which
is
inactivated
by
conjugation
to
glutathione
C.
Dose
should
not
exceed
4000mg/day
in
an
adult
D.
Gastric
irritation
is
common
July
2004
Paracetamol:
A.
Has
analgesic,
antipyretic
and
anti-‐
inflammatory
effects
B.
Is
metabolised
to
N-‐methyl-‐p-‐
benzoisopuinonimine
conjugated
to
glutathione
C.
Toxic
dose
is
10
times
the
normal
?daily
dose?
D.
pKa
3.5
E.
?
MD04c
[Jul00]
Paracetamol:
A.
Minimum
toxic
dose
8-‐12G/day
in
an
adult
B.-‐E.
?
MD06
[Mar97]
[Jul97]
[Jul99]
[Feb00]
Answer:
B,
E
Serotonin
(5-‐HT)
is
most
common
in:
Stoelting:
A.
Platelets
5HT:
widely
distributed
autocoid
(vasoactive
substance)
–
has
impact
various
circulations
(),
B.
Enterochromaffin
cells
neutotransmitter
in
emesis
and
pain.
C.
Cerebral
cortex
(?neurones)
About
90%
of
the
body’s
stores
of
5HT
are
in
the
enterochromaffin
cells
of
the
GIT,
the
remainder
in
D.
Pineal
gland
the
CNS
and
platelets.
E.
GIT
F.
Mast
cells
MD07
[Mar97]
[Jul97]
[Jul98]
[Mar99]
Answer:
[Feb00]
Mannitol:
Part
1:
D,
H
best
answers
(Na+
where?)
(?E)
A.
Metabolised
in
the
liver
Part
2:
A
(B
increased
Na
delivery)
B.
Half-‐life
is
proportional
to
GFR
C.
Increases
Na+
Stoelting
D.
Excretion
is
dependent
on
GFR
Stucturally
it
is
a
6carbon
sugar
that
does
not
undergo
metabolism.
It
is
not
absorbed
by
GI
(hence
E.
Urine
will
be
hyperosmolar
compared
need
to
use
IV).
It
does
not
enter
cells
–
only
means
of
clearance
from
plasma
is
via
glomerular
to
plasma
filtration.
F.
Absorbed
orally
Mannitol
is
completely
filtered
at
glomeruli,
and
none
of
the
filitered
drug
is
subsequently
G.
Isotonic
reabsorbed
in
renal
tubules.
Hence
manniotl
increases
the
osmolarity
of
renal
tubular
fluid
and
H.
Clearance
dependent
on
GFR
prevents
reabsorption
of
water.
Sodium
is
diluted
in
the
retained
water
in
the
tutubles
causing
less
(see
also
[[CD17)
reabsorption
of
sodium.
As
such
there
is
an
osmotic
effect
of
diuresis
of
sodium,
cholirde
and
bicarbonate
ions.
Urinary
pH
does
not
change.
MD07b
[Feb04]
Mannitol:
T
½
is
inverseley
proportional
to
clearance.
A.
is
a
sugar
and
is
not
metabolised
B.
does
not
increase
delivery
of
sodium
to
distal
tubule
MD08
[Mar97]
[Jul97]
[Mar99]
[Mar03]
Answer:
D
[Jul04]
Gastric
drugs:
Which
is
true?
A.
Sucralfate
is
a
mixture
of
sulphated
Sucralfate:
mixture
of
sulphated
sucrose
and
aluminium
hydroxide.
Adheres
to
gastric
ulcer
to
fomr
sucrose
and
bismuth
that
sits
in
the
ulcer
cytoprotective
barrier
against
pepsin
penetration.
No
advangated
of
H2
blockers.
B.
Gastrin
&
acetylcholine
directly
&
Gastrin/ACh
directly
enhance
H+
secretion
indirectly
inhibit
H+
secretion
Misoprostol
decreases
gastric
acid
and
causes
diarrhoea.
C.
Misoprostil
decreases
gastric
acid
and
Pirenzipine
is
less
effective
than
H2
blockers
causes
marked
constipation
Omeprazole
irreversibly
blocks
proton
pump
D.
Pirenzipine
is
less
effective
than
H2
blockers
E.
Omeprazole
reversibly
inhibits
proton
pump
MD09
[Mar97]
[Feb00]
A
decrease
in
ANSWER:
E
renal
function
might
be
expected
with:
A.
Gentamicin
Gentamicin
nephrotoxicity:
5-‐25%
if
given
gent
for
>3-‐5days.
B.
Cis-‐platin
Cisplatin
nephrotoxicity
can
be
avoided
if
adequate
pre-‐hydration
and
diuresis.
C.
Busulphan
Busulfan:
main
effects
are
myelosuppresion,
N/V/D,
impotence/steriligy,
Addison-‐like
syndrome,
D.
Methotrexate
venoocclusive
disease.
On
Mims:
increase
Cr/Ur,
dysuria,
oliguria,
haematuria,
moderate
renal
E.
All
of
the
above
insufficiency.
54
MD11
[Jul97]
[Jul98]
[Jul99]
Theophylline
Answer:
C
levels
increased
with:
Theophylline:
A.
Smoking
-‐ T
½
decreased
in
smokers
(hence
theophylline
levels
decreased).
B.
Phenytoin
-‐ Increased
clearance
of
theophylline
with
concurrent
phenytoin.
C.
Cimetidine
-‐ Cimetidine:
inhibits
CYP450,
increase
levels
of
substrates
such
as
theophylline
(GG)
D.
?
MD13
[Jul97]
[Feb00]
When
a
ligand
Answer:
?B
binds
to
a
receptor
linked
to
a
G-‐protein:
The
alternative
wording
was
when
a
B
agonist
binds
to
a
g-‐protein.
A.
There
is
a
fall
in
cAMP
B.
The
signal
is
amplified
108
times
Things
pointed
out:
ligand
binds
to
receptor
coupled
with
g-‐protein,
not
g-‐protein
itself.
There
is
an
amplified
response
(the
degree
of
which
is
uncertain).
If
B-‐agonist,
all
B-‐receptors
are
G-‐s
which
stimulates
adenylyl
cyclase
à
increase
cAMP.
MD14
[Jul97]
[Apr01]
Dantrolene:
Answer:
A.
Is
a
benzyl-‐isoquinoline
derivative
First
part:
Incorrect
=
A,C,?D
(contractility
of
what?),E.
Correct:
B,F
(?F
best)
B.
Undergoes
oxidative
and
reductive
Alt
version:
Incorrect
=
A,B,C,D
??
metabolism
C.
Inhibits
sodium
channel
activation
D.
Causes
a
marked
reduction
in
contractility
E.
Not
effective
as
prophylaxis
because
of
poor
oral
bioavailability
F.
Acts
via
ryanodine
receptor
Dantrolene
(hydantoin
derivative)
produces
smooth
muscle
relaxation
by
inhibiting
calcium
release
from
sarcoplasmic
reticulum
into
cytosol
via
ryanodine
receptors
and
inositol
triophosphate
Alt
version:
Dantrolene:
channels.
It
may
also
stabilise
membranes.
A.
Benzylisoquinolonium
B.
Undergoes
hepatic
and
renal
Uses:
treatment
and
prevention
of
MH,
treatment
of
skeletal
muscle
spasticity.
Prophylaxis:
oral
metabolism
dose.
MH
=
2mg/kg
IV
repeated
up
to
10mg/kg
C.
Profound
myocardial
depression
D.
Poor
oral
bioavailability
Unlike
NMBD
dantrolene
cannot
decrease
contractile
activity
by
>80%.
Therapeutic
doses
has
little/no
effect
on
cardiac/smooth
muscle.
Diruesis
(mannitol
added
to
powder
to
make
it
isotonic).
Highly
lipophilic
à
low
H2O
solubility.
70%
of
oral
administered
dose
is
absorbed.
IV
preparation
is
alkaline
à
phlebitis.
Extravasation
à
tissue
necrosis.
Metabolised
in
liver
to
active
5-‐hydroxydantrolene
which
has
30-‐50%
activity.
<1%
unchanged
in
urine.
T
½
elim:
5-‐8hrs.
SE:
skeletal
muscle
weakness
(difficulty
spont
vent/risk
aspiration),
N/D/blurred
vision,
uterine
atony,
hperkalaemia,
hepatitis
(can
be
fatal),
pleural
effusion.
Krause
et
al.
(2004).
Dantrolene
–
A
review
of
its
pharmacology,
therapeutic
use
and
new
developments.
Anaesthesia.
Volume
59
Page
364,
April.
MD15
[Jul97]
Omeprazole:
Answer:
B
A.
Irreversibly
inhibits
the
parietal
cell
Stoelting/Mims:
B.
Acts
at
apical
membrane
of
parietal
Omperazole
is
a
substitute
benzimidazole
that
acts
as
a
prodrug
theat
becomes
a
PPI.
Weak
base,
side
concentrated
in
seceretory
canaliculi
of
gastric
parietal
cells.
Here
it
is
protonated
to
its
active
form
C.
Acts
at
the
basolateral
membrane
of
which
reversibly
inhibits
the
enzyme
pump
(H-‐K-‐ATPase)
–
not
the
parietal
cell.
Initial
dose
only
the
parietal
works
on
proton
pumps
present
at
luminal
surface
(as
new
pumps
made/inserted
into
membrane,
need
more
doses
of
omeprazole
to
block
them).
Inhibits
H+
secretion
more
than
H2-‐receptor
antagonists.
MD16
[Mar98]
Diclofenac:
Answer:
A
if
99%
A.
Plasma
protein
binding
is
....%
B.
Percent
absorption
.
.
%
Diclofenac
is
a
proprionic
acid
derivative
(along
with
ibuprofen,
naproxen).
Analgesia,
anti-‐pyretic,
C.
Mechanism
of
action
via
increase
in
antiinflammatory
effects.
Inhibits
COX
and
decreases
PG
production.
endorphins
st
D.
?
99%
Plasma
protein
bound.
Drug
producf
information
states
that
it
is
well
absorbed,
but
50%
1
pass
metabolism.
It
is
eliminated
by
metabolism
to
glucuronide,
hydroxy
and
sulfate
conjugates
followed
by
excretion
in
bile
and
urine.
Rapid
elimination
(90%
clearance
within
3-‐4rs).
<1%
excreted
unchanged
in
urine
MD17
[Mar98]
[Apr01]
[Jul04]
Regarding
Answer:
possibly
A
(Incorrect:
B,C)
phenytoin
A.
Acts
via
blockade
of
Na
channels
and
Phenytoin:
55
via
effect
on
K
channels
Protoypte
of
the
hydantoins
and
is
effective
for
treatment
of
partial/generalised
seizures.
High
B.
Weak
base
with
pKa
8.3
therapuetic
index.
Regualtes
Na
and
possibly
Ca
ion
transport
across
neuronal
cell
membranes.
nd
C.
Has
active
metabolites
Membrane
stabilising
effect
on
cerebral
cortex.
Also
acts
on
2
messengers
eg
calmodulin,
cyclic
D.
?
nucleotides.
(Stoelting).
E.
?
NB
Sassada/Smith:
“stabilising
activity
is
via
slowing
inward
Na
and
Ca
influx
during
depolarisation
in
excitable
tissue.
It
also
delays
outward
K
efflux.”
Weak
acid,
pKa
8.3.
Maintained
in
aqueous
solution
as
a
sodium
salt.
90%
protein
bound
(albumin).
Poor
water
solubility
à
slow
and
variable
GI
absorption
(30-‐70%).
Therapeutic
[plasma]
=
10-‐
20mcg/mL.
Hepatic
metabolism:
98%
to
inactive
metabolites
via
microsomal
enzymes
(glucuronide
à
urine).
Only
2%
excreted
unchanged
in
urine.
MD18
[Mar98]
[Mar99]
[Feb00]
[Apr01]
Answer:
NB
watch
pH
vs
acid
secretion
(opposite
directions)
[Jul02]
[Mar03]
Which
ONE
of
the
Part
1:
C
following
decrease
gastric
pH?
Part
2:
B
A.
Omeprazole
Part
3:
A
B.
Famotidine
C.
Calcium
salts
Omeprazole,
famotidine,
misoprostal
and
PGE2
all
increase
the
pH
of
gastric
acid.
D.
Misoprostil
E.
PGE2
Calcium
salts:
potentially
via
Ca-‐dependent
pathway
stimulating
H/K/ATPase.
July
2000,
2002
and
2003
version
:
Which
ONE
of
the
following
decreases
gastric
acid
secretion?:
A.
?
B.
Misoprostil
C.
Cisapride
D.
Na
citrate
E.
Metoclopramide
Apr
2001
version:
Decrease
gastric
pH:
A.
Calcium
salts
B.
H2
antagonists
(?ranitidine)
C.
Omeprazole
D.
Pirenzipine
E.
PGE2
MD19
[Jul98]
[Mar99]
[Feb00]
[Jul01]
ANSWER
[Jul04]
NSAIDs:
Part
1:
B,C
A.
Exhibit
no
selectivity
for
COX
1
&
2
Part
2:
C
B.
Exert
renal
effects
other
than
effect
on
afferent
arterioles
A:
No-‐
NSAIDs
do
exhibit
selectivity.
C.
Cause
renal
toxicity
separate
to
B:
Yes-‐
NSAIDs
usually
cause
nephrotoxicity
via
inhibition
of
PG
synthesis
in
medulla
à
ischaemia.
inhibition
of
prostaglandins
But
can
also
be
via
tubulointerstitial
nephritis.
D.
Aspirin
&
ketorolac
irreversibly
bind
C:
Yes
COX1
&
2
D:
No:
aspirin
irreversibly
binds
but
ketorolac
does
not
E.
Directly
cause
gastrointestinal
E:
GIT
effects
indirect
by
inhibition
of
PG
syntehsis
as
a
result
of
COX1
inhibition.
ulceration
A:
No
Alt
version:
NSAIDs:
B:
No
A.
All
inhibit
COX
1
C:
Yes
B.
Aspirin
and
ketoralac
inhibit
COX
irreversibly
C.
They
can
cause
renal
toxicity
by
mechanisms
other
than
alterations
in
renal
blood
flow
by
PG
mediators.
MD20
[Jul98]
[Mar99]
[Feb06]
ANSWER:
C
Irreversible
cardiomyopathy
can
be
due
Cardiomyopathy
is
a
unique
characteristic
of
anthracycline
antibiotics
(danorubicin,
doxorubicin,
to:
(OR:
Which
of
the
following
causes
idarubicin)
dose-‐dependent
cardiac
toxicity?)
A.
Vincristine
Vincristine
=
neurolgoical
toxicity
(ischaemic
cardiac
toxicity
rare)
B.
Bleomycin
Bleomycin
=
cutaneous
+
pulmonary
toxicity
(coronary
artery
disease
has
been
reported)
C.
Danorubicin
Asparaginase
=
toxicity
via
antigenicty
as
foregin
protein
D.
Asparaginase
Cyclophosphamide
=
N/V/ulceration/skin
pigmentation,
pulmonary
fibrosis
E.
Cyclophosphamide
F.
All
of
the
above
NB
5FU
and
its
prodrugs
are
associated
with
coronary
vasospasm.
MD22
[Mar99]
[Apr01]
[Mar03]
Gastric
Answer:
B
lavage:
A.
Not
useful
if
more
than
one
hour
has
Goodman
Gilman:
elapsed
Can
use
gastric
lavage
up
to
24hrs
after
ingestion.
Use
saline
instead
of
H2O
in
kids
due
to
risk
of
B.
In
children,
use
normal
saline
instead
water
intoxication.
Should
be
performed
in
left
lateral
position.
Can
be
performed
in
unconscious
of
water
person
if
airway
protected.
Do
not
use
if
corrosive
poision.
56
C.
Contraindicated
if
poison
corrosive
D.
Is
performed
in
the
right
lateral
position
(Comment:
The
restriction
in
unconscious
patients
is
they
should
be
intubated
for
airway
protection)
E.
Should
not
be
performed
in
the
unconscious
MD23
[Mar99]
[Apr01]
Long
term
ANSWER:
C
or
D
prednisolone
20mg/day
will
result
in:
A.
Increased
lymphocyte
count
An
analogue
of
cortisol.
5mg
equipotent
to
20mg
cortisol.
Has
dual
glucocorticoid
and
B.
Increased
capillary
permeability
mineralocorticoid
effects
hence
can
be
used
as
sole
agent
in
adrenocortical
insufficiency.
C.
Metabolic
alkalosis
D.
??glucose
All
corticosteroids
increase
WCC
but
increase
it
is
a
neutrophilia
and
relative
decrease
in
lymphocytes,
eosinophils
and
monocytes.
They
inhibit
the
use
of
glucose
in
peripheral
tissues
à
hyperglycaemia.
Can
cause
hypokalaemia
metabolic
alkalosis
with
mineralocorticoid
actions
on
distal
renal
tubules.
Drug
Equivalent
Dose
(mg)
Cortisol
20
Cortisone
25
Prednisolone
5
Prednisone
5
Methylprednisolone
4
Betamethasone
0.75
Dexamethasone
0.75
Fludrocortisone
2
MD24
[Mar99]
NSAIDs
cause
gastric
ANSWER:
B
side-‐effects
by:
A.
Direct
effects
on
mucosa
NSAIDS
inhibit
COX
à
decreased
prostaglandins
à
indirect
gastric
SE’s
via:
B.
Indirect
effects
1.
Decreased
mucosal
blood
flow
C.
?
2.
Decreased
protective
mucous/HCO3
layer
3.
Increased
gastric
acid
production
MD26
[Jul98]
[Jul99]
With
respect
to
ANSWER
prednisone:
Part
1:
?D
(rest
wrong)
A.
[[Prednisone]
is
converted
to
active
Part
2:
A
prednisolone
in
the
gut
B.
Prednisone
5mg
is
equivalent
to
Prednisone
is
an
analogue
of
cortisone,
rapidly
converted
to
prednisolone
after
abosprtion
from
100mg
cortisol
GIT.
Anti-‐inflammatory
effects.
C.
Betamethasone
has
equivalent
mineralocorticoid
activity
See
chart
from
before:
Prednisone
5mg
=
Cortisol
20mg.
Betamethasone
lacks
the
mineralocorticoid
D.
Methylprednisolone
?
activities
of
cotisol.
Alternative
version
of
options
A
&
E:
A.
Prednisone
is
converted
to
prednisolone
after
absorption
from
the
gut.
E.
Betamethasone
has
adrenocorticoid
and
mineralocorticoid
activity
MD27
[Jul98]
[Jul99]
[Jul00]
Aspirin:
ANSWER
A.
Greatest
absorption
is
from
the
Part
1:
C
stomach
Part
2:
F
B.
Peak
plasma
level
is
achieved
in
30]]
minutes
Aspirin
(acetylsalicylic
acid):
irreversibly
acetylates
COX
à
decreased
synthesis
and
release
of
C.
Has
cross-‐reactivity
with
all
NSAIDs
prostaglandins.
Relatively
weak
inhibitor
of
renal
prostaglandin
synthesis.
Does
not
interact
with
D.
Half-‐life
4
hours
opioid
receptors
and
has
little
effect
on
histamin/5HT
release.
Rapidly
hydrolysed
to
salicylic
acid
which
inhibits
PG
synthesis
in
a
non-‐acetylation
way.
Rapidly
absorbed
mainly
from
small
intestines,
July
2000
version:
Aspirin:
lesser
extent
in
stomach.
Rate
of
absorption
depends
on
dissolution
rates
of
the
administered
tablet
A.
Plasma
half-‐life
4
hrs
and
gastric
emptying
time.
If
gastric
pH
increased
à
more
drug
is
ionised
à
decreased
rate
of
B.
Peak
plasma
concentration
within
absorption.
Food
slows
absorption.
Aspirin
in
effervescent
preparations
have
more
rapid
absorption
10mins
of
oral
administration
high
plasma
concs,
less
GI
irritation.
Has
cross-‐reactivity
with
all
NSAIDs.
C.
Requires
conversion
to
salicylic
acid
for
activity
Metabolism:
rapidly
hydrolysed
in
liver
to
salicylic
acid
(active).
Salicylic
acid
is
also
metabolism
in
D.
?
is
more
??
than
salicylic
acid
liver
via
glycine
conjugation
à
renal
excretion
(renal
excretion
increased
in
alkaline
urine).
T
½
elim
=
E.
Better
absorption
if
food
in
stomach
15-‐20mins
aspirin,
2-‐3hrs
salicylic
acid.
Peak
plasma
concentration
of
aspirin
must
be
shorter
than
its
F.
Cross
reactive
sensitivity
with
all
t
½
elim
(ie
<15-‐20
mins).
Peak
plasma
salicylic
acid
conc
1-‐2hrs.
NSAIDs
57
MD28
[Jul98]
[Mar03]
ANSWER:
A
Organophosphates:
A.
Phosphorylate
the
esteratic
site
Organophosphates
phosphorylate
the
ESTERATIC
site
of
acetylcholinesterase.
B.
Phosphorylate
the
anionic
site
C.
?
D.
?
(See
also
MB11,
MB27)
MD29
[Mar99]
[Feb00]
Warfarin
affects:
ANSWER:
B
A.
Factor
XIII
Warfarin
acts
by
inhibiting
the
enzymes
vitamin
K
epoxide
reductase
and
vitamin
K
reductase.
This
B.
Protein
S
(?
or
Protein
C)
prevents
the
formation
of
the
reduced
formed
of
vitamin
K
which
acts
as
a
cofactor
in
the
gamma-‐
C.
?
carboxylation
of
glutamic
acid
residues
in
clotting
factors
2,7,9,10
as
well
as
anticoagulant
protein
C
and
S.
Gamma-‐carboxylation
is
necessary
for
biological
activity
of
these
factors
as
it
confers
the
calcium
binding
properties
that
are
essential
for
their
catalytic
action.
Inhibition
by
warfarin
is
COMPETITIVE.
MD30
[Jul99]
[Feb00]
Bleomycin
ANSWER:
E
A.
Related
to
nitrogen
mustard
B.
Can
cause
agranulocytosis
(or:
Bleomycin
is
a
mixture
of
cytotoxic
glycopeptide
antibiotics
silated
from
a
strain
of
Streptomyces
frequently
causes
myelosuppression)
verticillus.
It
causes
pulmonary
toxicity
in
about
4%
of
patients.
It
probably
induces
lung
toxicity
C.
Causes
pulmonary
toxicity
in
90%
of
through
the
induction
of
O2
radicals,
with
recruitment
of
WCC
+
fibroblasts
augmenting
the
early
patients
inflammatory
and
later
fibrotic
reactions.
It
is
not
an
alkylating
agent,
nor
is
it
related
to
nitrogen
D.
Is
an
alkylating
agent
mustard.
E.
Causes
pulmonary
oxygen
toxicity
due
Bleomycin
and
vincristine
differet
from
other
chemotherapeutic
agents
(do
NOT
cause
to
production
of
superoxide
radicals
myelosuppression.
MD31
[Jul99]
Which
drug
causes
the
ANSWER:
Probably
A
–
B
only
in
one
french
study
most
anaphylaxis?
Rocuronium
in
French
study
(but
less
potent
drug).
A.
Suxamethonium
B.
High
potency
non-‐depolarisers
FRCA
UK:
The
antigen
is
the
quaternary
ammonium
group
which
is
found
in
other
drugs,
food,
C.
?
cosmetics
and
hair
products.
Therefore
a
reaction
can
occur
without
previous
exposure
to
the
agent.
D.
?
Most
common
precipitants
in
decreasing
order
vecuronium,
atracurium,
suxamethonium,
pancuronium,
rocuronium,
mivacurium.
Vs
the
French:
“The
muscle
relaxants
most
often
involved
in
anaphylaxis
in
France
in
1997-‐1998
are,
in
decreasing
order
of
the
numb
r
of
cases
reported:
rocuronium,
suxamethonium,
atracurium,
vecoronium.
The
relation
between
the
number
of
patients
having
had
a
reaction
to
each
of
these
agents
and
the
number
of
patients
treated
with
them
is
the
highest
for
58
rocuronium
and
suxamethonium,
the
lowest
for
atracurium,
with
vecuronium
situated
inbetween.”
Reducing
the
risk
of
anaphylaxis
during
anaesthesia:
guidelines
for
clinical
practice.
P.M.
Mertes
et
al,
for
ENDA**
and
theEAACI
interest
group
on
drug
hypersensitivity.
J
Invest
Allergol
Clin
Immunol
2005;
Vol.
15(2):
91-‐101
MD32
[Jul99]
[Jul04]
Syrup
of
Ipecac:
ANSWER:
B
A.
Is
not
effective
in
phenothiazine
G+G
and
Wiki:
overdose
Ipecac:
derived
from
the
dried
rhizome
and
roots
of
ipecacuanha
plant.
It
induces
vomiting.
May
be
B.
Has
peripheral
irritant
and
direct
CTZ
effective
when
anti-‐emetic
drugs
such
as
phenothiazines
(chlorpromazine,
promethazine)
have
been
action
ingested.
It
is
a
local
irritation
on
GI
tract
and
has
effect
on
CTZ.
Fluid
is
14x
more
potent
than
syrup.
C.
The
syrup
is
more
potent
than
the
fluid
D.
?
MD33
[Feb00]
Regarding
antiemetics
ANSWER:
E
which
drug
has
anti-‐5HT3,
anti-‐H1
and
anti-‐D2
actions:
Ondansetron:
specific
to
5HT3
receptors
(nil
action
at
dopamine,
histamine,
adrenergic,
cholinergic)
A.
Ondansetron
Scopolamine:
antichlolinergic
–
sedation,
amnesia,
potent
antisialogogue
B.
Scopolamine
Domperidone:
specific
dopamine
antagonist
(peripheral
action
=
prokinetic)
C.
Domperidone
Droperidol:
butyrophenone
(like
haloperidol).
It
inhibits
D2
receptors
in
CTZ
in
medulla.
Does
no
help
D.
Droperidol
labrynthine-‐nausea.
E.
Prochlorperazine
Chlorpromazine:
phenothiazine,
block
D2
receptor
in
CTZ
F.
Chlorpromazne
Propchlorperazine:
phenothiazine,
antagonist
at
D2
receptor
in
CTZ,
muscarinic,
alpha
½,
H1,
5HT
receptors
Alternative
versions:
• Which
of
the
following
anti-‐
emetics
have
D2,
ACh,
5
HT-‐3
antagonist
effects?
• Which
drug
is
a
D2
antagonist,
H1
antagonist
and
5HT3
receptor
antagonist?
MD34
[Jul99]
[Feb00]
With
regard
to
ANSWER:
B
(why
we
use
it
in
ICU)
nitric
oxide
Debate
as
to
whether
question
should
be
about
nitrous
oxide
(in
that
case
A
+
C
correct)
A.
It
is
anaesthetic
at
high
concentration
B.
May
improve
V:Q
mismatch
NO
is
synthesised
from
L-‐argnine
by
family
of
enzymes
‘NO
synthestases.’
Diffused
from
producing
C.
Is
a
liquid
in
the
cylinder,
gas
at
room
cells
into
target
cells
where
activates
guanylate
cylcase
à
increase
cGMP
à
vasodilatation.
T
½
temperature
<5secs.
Avidly
bound
and
inactivated
by
haemoglobin.
D.
?
NO
actually
appears
to
be
involved
in
excitatory
neurotransmission
by
CNS
(NO
synthase
inhibition
seems
to
suppress
excitation
transmission
mediated
by
NMDA).
MD35
[Feb00]
[Jul01]
Ethanol
ANSWER:
E,
B
A.
About
35%
excreted
via
the
lungs
Ethanol:
B.
Concentration
falls
at
a
fixed
rate
with
90-‐98%
metabolised,
mainly
via
liver.
Zero
order
kinetics
(constant
amount
metabolised
per
time).
respect
to
time
C.
Only
60%
is
metabolised,
the
remainder
being
excreted
in
expired
air
D.
Is
excreted
at
a
rate
independent
of
the
plasma
concentration
E.
Constant
elimination
independent
of
plasma
concentration
F.
Elimination
is
not
dependant
upon
amount
absorbed
from
GIT
MD36
[Feb00]
Which
drugs
cause
ANSWER:
E
convulsant
activity?
All
of
them
do!
(G+G)
A.
Cocaine
B.
Lithium
C.
Norpethidine
D.
Enflurane
E.
All
of
the
above
MD37
[Feb00]
Metoclopramide
ANSWER:
B
A.
Increases
gastric
emptying
faster
with
Metoclopramide
is
a
dopmaine
receptor
ANTAGonist.
Onset
of
action
of
oral
30-‐60
mins
vs
1-‐3mins
an
oral
dose
than
an
IV
dose
for
IV.
Diarrhoea
is
a
known
side
effect
in
children.
B.
Causes
diarrhoea
in
children
C.
Is
a
dopamine
agonist
D.
?
MD38
[Feb00]
[Jul00]
Physostigmine
ANSWER:
C
?A
A.
Causes
(?
excitatory
activity
/
?alerting
Stoelting:
Phytostigmine
is
a
lipid
soluble
tertiary
amine
anticholinesterase
which
crosses
the
BBB
response)
on
the
EEG
and
hence
can
antagonise
the
CNS
SE’s
of
some
drugs.
It
works
by
increasing
concentrations
of
Ach
in
B.
Doesn’t
cross
the
blood
brain
barrier
brain,
making
more
neurotransmitters
available
to
interact
with
cholinergic
receptors.
Its
duration
of
C.
Doesn’t
cause
sedation
action
is
shorter
c/w
anticholinergic
drugs
so
may
need
repeat
doses.
Works
at
many
receptors
59
D.
Only
has
its
effects
at
nicotinic
(antagonises
the
effects
of
opioids).
receptors
E.
Causes
amnesia
G+G/Katzung:
‘in
low
concentrations
they
can
cause
diffuse
activation
on
the
EEG’
F.
Causes
excitatory
activity
on
the
EEG
G:
Is/isn’t
a
quaternary
ammonium
that
does/doesn’t
cross
BBB
MD39
[Jul00]
Drugs
filtered
and
secreted
ANSWER
in
the
PCT
include:
Part
1:
A,B
and
C
A.
Penicillin
Part
2:
A
–
rest
are
all
acids
B.
Probenecid
Stoelting:
C.
Chlorothiazide
Penicillin
(acidic
drug)
excreted
by
kidneys
(10%
glomerular
filtration,
90%
tubular
secretion).
D.
?
Probenecid
(acidic
drug)
is
filtered
at
glomerulus,
secreted
in
proximal
tubule
and
reabsorbed
in
distal
tubule).
Also
remembered
as:
Chlorothiazide
(acidic
drug)
thiazide
diuretic.
Main
action
is
at
cortical
portin
of
ascending
LOH
but
Which
basic
drug
is
secreted
by
the
also
has
minor
action
in
DCT
and
PCT.
kidney
for
excretion?
Procainamide:
analogue
of
LA
procaine
(also
basic).
Renal
excretion
40-‐60%,
rest
hepatic
A.
Procainamide
metabolism.
B.
Probenecid
Acetazolamide:
(?weak
acid)
non-‐competitive
inhibition
of
enzyme
activity
in
PCT.
Excreted
C.
Penicillin
unchanged
by
kidneys.
D.
Acetazolamide
MD40
[Jul00]
Which
of
the
following
is
ANSWER:
D
bacteriostatic
only?
A.
Penicillin
B.
Gentamicin
C.
Vancomycin
D.
Trimetophan
E.
?Cefoxitin
/?cefuroxime
(see
also
[[MD40)
Penicillin,
Gentamicin,
Vancomycin,
cephalosporins
are
bactericidal.
Trimethoprim
is
bacteriostatic.
Trimetophan:
WTF?
Trimethaphan
is
a
peripheral
vasodilator.
Antimicrobial
agents
are
classified
based
on
chemical
structure
and
proposed
mechanism
of
action,
as
follows:
(1)
agents
that
inhibit
synthesis
of
bacterial
cell
walls,
including
the
-‐lactam
class
(e.g.,
penicillins,
cephalosporins,
and
carbapenems)
and
dissimilar
agents
such
as
cycloserine,
vancomycin,
and
bacitracin;
BACTERIOCIDAL
(2)
agents
that
act
directly
on
the
cell
membrane
of
the
microorganism,
increasing
permeability
and
leading
to
leakage
of
intracellular
compounds,
including
detergents
such
as
polymyxin;
polyene
antifungal
agents
(e.g.,
nystatin
and
amphotericin
B)
which
bind
to
cell-‐wall
sterols;
and
the
lipopeptide
daptomycin
(Carpenter
and
Chambers,
2004);
BACTERIOCIDAL
(3)
agents
that
disrupt
function
of
30S
or
50S
ribosomal
subunits
to
reversibly
inhibit
protein
synthesis,
which
generally
are
bacteriostatic
(e.g.,
chloramphenicol,
the
tetracyclines,
erythromycin,
clindamycin,
streptogramins,
and
linezolid);
BACTERIOSTATIC
(4)
agents
that
bind
to
the
30S
ribosomal
subunit
and
alter
protein
synthesis,
which
generally
are
bactericidal
(e.g.,
the
aminoglycosides);
BACTERIOCIDAL
(5)
agents
that
affect
bacterial
nucleic
acid
metabolism,
such
as
the
rifamycins
(e.g.,
rifampin
and
rifabutin),
which
inhibit
RNA
polymerase,
and
the
quinolones,
which
inhibit
topoisomerases;
and
BACTERIOCIDAL
60
(6)
the
antimetabolites,
including
trimethoprim
and
the
sulfonamides,
which
block
essential
enzymes
of
folate
metabolism.
BACTERIOSTATIC
(1)
nucleic
acid
analogs,
such
as
acyclovir
or
ganciclovir,
which
selectively
inhibit
viral
DNA
polymerase,
and
zidovudine
or
lamivudine,
which
inhibit
HIV
reverse
transcriptase;
(2) non-‐nucleoside HIV reverse transcriptase inhibitors, such as nevirapine or efavirenz;
(3)
inhibitors
of
other
essential
viral
enzymes,
e.g.,
inhibitors
of
HIV
protease
or
influenza
neuraminidase;
and
(4)
fusion
inhibitors
such
as
enfuvirtide.
Additional
categories
likely
will
emerge
as
more
complex
mechanisms
are
elucidated.
The
precise
mechanism
of
action
of
some
antimicrobial
agents
still
is
unknown.
MD41
[Jul00]
With
respect
to
ANSWER:
C!
also
D
serotonergic
receptor
action,
which
ONE
G+G:
of
the
following
is
true?
Sumitriptan:
5HT1
agonist
A.
Sumiatriptan
is
a
5HT1
antagonist
Ondansetron:
5HT3
ANTagonist
B.
Ondansetron
is
a
5HT3
agonist
Metoclopramide:
5HT3
ANTagonist
and
partial
5HT4
agonist.
C.
?Serotonin
is
a
5HT3
agonist
Serotonin:
5HT
agonist
D.
Metoclopramide
is
a
5HT4
agonist
E.
?
61
MD42
[Jul00]
Acetazolamide:
ANSWER:
A,B,C
A.
?
secreted
by
the
renal
tubules
Carbonic
anhydrase
inhibitor,
weak
diuretic
effect,
rapid
development
of
tachyphylaxis,
is
secreted
B.
?
diuresis
by
renal
tubules.
C.
?
develop
tachyphylaxis
MD43
[Jul00]
Best
antiemetic
for
motion
ANSWER:
E
sickness:
A.
Metoclopramide
Think
about
it
in
terms
of
inputs
to
CTZ/vomiting
centre:
Want
to
block
H1
or
muscarinic
Ach
B.
Ondansetron
receptors
in
vestibular
nuclei,
which
then
feed
into
CTZ
(D2
and
5HT3
receptors).
C.
?
A:
Metoclopramide
antagonism
of
dopamine-‐agonist
effects
on
CTZ
theoretically
contributes
to
anti-‐
D.
?
emetic
effect.
E.
Hyoscine
B:
definitely
NOT
as
per
Stoelting
E:
Scopolamine
is
L-‐hyoscine.
Competitive
inhibition
at
muscarinic
Ach
receptors.
Used
in
motion
sickness.
NB:
other
drugs
used
for
motion
sickness:
1.
Cyclizine
(H1
antagonist,
muscarinic
(M1,2,3)
ACh
antagonist).
2.
Promethazine:
reversible
competitive
inhibition
of
H1
histaminergic
receptors,
plus
antidopaminergic,
anticholinergic,
antiserotonergic
effects
62
MD44
[Jul00]
Complications
of
ANSWER:
E
best
answer
salbutamol
used
in
asthma
treatment
re
B:
short
term
worsened
(increased)
V/Q
mismatch
but
longer
term/supplemental
O2:
improved
include
the
following
EXCEPT:
V/Q
mismatch
(decreased).
A.
Tachycardia
re:
D:
there
are
case
reports
about
B
agonists
causing
pulmonary
oedema
when
used
as
tocolytic.
B.
Decreased
V/Q
mismatch
C.
Tremors
Salbutamol
(aka
albuterol)
SE’s:
D.
Pulmonary
oedema
tachycardia
(B2
vasodilatation
+
reflex
tachycardia
plus
some
B1
effects),
tremor
(direct
B2
E.
Hyperkalaemia
stimulation
in
skeletal
muscle),
hypokalaemia.
Inhibition
of
hypoxic
pulmonary
vasoconstriction
can
cause
transient
drop
in
arterial
oxygenation
(can
be
avoided
with
supplemental
O2).
Also
get
hyperglycaemia,
hypomagnesaemia,
lactic
acidosis
(excessive
glycogenolysis
and
lipolysis
from
B2
receptor
activation).
MD45
[Apr01]
(Antibiotic
sensitivities
ANSWER:
unclear!
against
certain
bacteria)
A.
Penicillin
and
…?
PENICILLINS:
B.
Amoxycillin
and
…staph
+?
1.
Narrow
spectrum
penicillins
are
mainly
active
against
gram
+ve
organisms,
but
are
inavtivated
by
C.
Flucloxacillin
and
G
+ve?
beta-‐lactamases.
Include:
Benzylpenicillin,
procaine
penicillin
(IMI
preparation
and
provides
blood
D.
?cephalosporin
and
…?
evels
for
24hrs),
benzathine
penicillin
(IMI
and
provides
low
levels
of
benzylpen
for
4
weeks),
phenoxymethylpenicillin
(penV,
po
formulation)
2.
Narrow
spectrum
penicillins
with
antistaphylococcal
activity
-‐
stable
to
beta
lactamases
produced
by
Staphylococci.
Includes
diclox,
fluclox
and
methicillin.
3.
Moderate
spectrum
penicillins
also
called
the
aminopenicillins,
incl.
amoxycillin
and
ampicillin
-‐
have
greater
activity
than
benzylpenicillin
against
some
gram
negative
organisms
e.g.
E
Coli,
H
infl.
But
they
are
destroyed
by
beta
lactamase
producing
strains.
Drugs
of
choice
for
enterococcal
infections.
4.
Broad
spectrum
penicillins
(beta-‐lactamase
inhibitor
combinations).
Beta
lactamase
inhibitors
Incl
clavulanate,
sulbactam,
and
tazobactam
inhibit
the
enzymes
produced
by
staph
aureus,
bacteroides
fragilis,
e.
coli,
klebsiella,
neisseria
gonorrhoea
and
h.infl..
They
extend
the
spectre
of
activity
of
amoxycillin
and,
ticarcillin
and
piperacillin
when
in
combination.
5.
Broad
spectrum
penicillins
with
antipseudomonal
activity.
Ticarcillin
and
piperacillin
are
the
only
pen
with
activity
against
pseudomonas
aeruginosa
CEPHALOSPORINS:
A.
Moderate
spectrum
.
Cephalexin,
cephalothin
and
cephazolin.
Active
against
strep
and
staph
incl
beta
lactamase
prod
staph.
Inactive
against
enterococci
or
listeria
.
Gram
-‐ve
activity
against
ecoli,
and
kleb
sp.
Inactive
against
many
gram
-‐ve
aerobes.
B.
Moderate
spectrum
with
anti
haemophilus
activity
-‐
cefuroxime
and
cefaclor
C.
Moderate
spectrum
with
anti
anaerobic
activity
cefoxitin
treats
bacteroides
fragilis.
D.
Broad
spectrum
cefoxitime
and
ceftriaxone
covers
the
majority
of
commnity
acquired
g
-‐ve
rods.
E.
Broad
spectrum
cephalosporins
and
antipseudomonal
activity
-‐
ceftazidime
and
cefepime
covers
majority
of
enteric
gram
-‐ve
rod
organisms,
incl
pseud
aeruginosa
Therapeutic
Guidlines
MD46
[Apr01]
Aspirin
overdose
ANSWER:
D
A.Causes
metabolic
&
respiratory
acidosis
Stoelting:
B.
Causes
metabolic
&
respiratory
Aspirin
causes
metabolic
acidosis
likely
due
to
uncoupling
of
oxidative
phosphorylation
and
tendency
alkalosis
towards
anaerobic
metabolism
à
lactic
acidaemia
and
reduced
renal
elimination
of
strong
acids.
C.
Causes
metabolic
alkalosis
&
Also
has
direct
effect
on
respiratory
centre
à
respiratory
alkalosis.
63
respiratory
acidosis
D.
Causes
metabolic
acidosis
&
respiratory
alkalosis
MD47
[Apr01]
Atropine
overdose
in
ANSWER:
A
neonates
Katzung
A.
Causes
hyperpyrexia
Atropine
Overdose:
B.
??
1.
Hyperthermia
in
paediatric
population
(loss
of
sweating)
2.
Central
cholinergic
syndrome
in
elderly
3.
Tachycardia/tachyarrhythmias
4.
Blurred
vision,
loss
of
balance,
miosis
5.
Initial
bradycardia
at
low
doses
(?weak
partial
agonist
effect).
MD49
[Apr01]
[Jul01]
[Jul02]
[Jul04]
Low
ANSWER:
A
molecular
weight
heparin
Stoelting:
A.Has
better
bioavailability
Unfractionated
heaprin
is
a
mizure
of
low
and
high
molecular
weight
acid
mucopolysaccharides
B.
Molecular
weight
1/10
that
of
normal
3,000-‐60,000
Da.
LMWH
are
dervied
from
UFH
by
chemical
depolymerisation
to
fragments
heparin
approximately
1/3
the
size
of
heparin.
C.
More
protein
bound
than
heparin
LMWH
has
better
bioavailability
than
UFH.
D.
?
LMWH
is
less
protein
bound
than
UFH.
E.
?
MD51
[Jul01]
An
intravenous
infusion
of
ANSWER
8.4%
sodium
bicarbonate
to
a
healthy
Part
1:
B
adult
may
Part
2:
A
cause:
A.
Hypotonicity
Uses:
correction
metabolic
acidosis,
alkalinisation
urine,
antacid.
Dose
for
correction
metabolic
B.
Intracellular
Acidosis
acidosis:
C.
Ionized
Hypercalcaemia
Dose
(mmol)
=
(base
deficit
x
body
weight)/3
à
administer
½
this
dose
then
reassess
acid
base
D.
?Respiratory
Alkalosis
status.
E.
Rebound
Metabolic
Acidosis
8.4%
NaHCO3:
molecular
weight
is
84
(8.4g/100mL).
Hyperosmolar
(2000
mOsm/kg
=
7x
plasma
MD51b
[Feb04]
Bicarbonate
osmolality).
A.
Complications
include
intracellular
+ + 2+
acidosis
SE:
metabolic
alkalosis
if
overenthusiastic
administration,
hyperNa ,
hyperK ,
hypoCa .
B.
100ml
of
8.4%
NaCO3
has
200
milliosmoles
Paradoxical
intracellular
acidosis
occuring
following
bicarbonate
administration
due
to
CO2
C.
?
production,
and
this
seems
to
be
one
of
the
arguments
against
its
use.
It
also
causes
hypocalcaemia.
See
Current
Opinion
in
Critical
Care.
14(4):379-‐383,
August
2008.
MD52
[Jul01]
[Jul04]
Cyclo-‐oxygenase-‐1
ANSWER:
B
is
best
(COX-‐1)
isoenzyme:
A
technically
correct
A.
Is
increased
by
inflamation
C
can’t
find
anything,
D/E
wrong
B.
Is
?predominant
mode
of
action
of
Stoelting:
indomethacin
COX
1
consitutively
expressed,
only
slightly
up-‐regulated
in
response
to
inflammatory
hormones.
C.
Is
increased
by
lipopolysaccaride
COX-‐2
is
inducible
and
mediates
inflammation,
fever,
pain,
carcinogenesis.
D.
Is
NOT
involved
in
gastric
mucosal
COX
1
in
gastric
mucosa,
renal
parenchyma
and
platelets.
Provides
protective
role
in
gastric
mucosa.
protection
COX
2:
induced
by
cytokines,
growth
factors,
tumour
promoters.
E.
Is
increased
by
cytokines
Faunce:
Indomethacin
has
50x
greater
effect
on
COX
1
than
COX
2.
MD53
[Jul01]
Caffeine
ANSWER:
B
is
best
A.
Is
a
CNS
depressant
Possibly
E
(but
?
weak
diuretic)
64
B.
Causes
cerebral
vasoconstriction
Possibly
F
C.
Reduces
the
acidity
of
gastric
fluid
secretion
(or:
Not
a
gastric
irritant)
Caffeine
is
a
methylxanthine
derive
PDE
inhibitor.
CNS
stimulant.
CNS
vasoconstrictor.
Increases
BSLs.
D.
Reduces
plasma
glucose
level
Causes
secretion
of
acidic
gastric
acid.
E.
Is
a
potent
diuretic.
USES:
neonatal
apnoea
of
prematurity,
post-‐dural
puncture
headache.
F.
Has
been
shown
to
be
dependence
producing
G.
Does
not
show
an
improvement
in
psychomotor
function
MD54
[Jul02]
Which
of
the
following
ANSWER:
D
drug
interactions
is
mediated
by
serotonin?
Tranylcypromine
is
non-‐selective
irreversible
MAOI.
Pethidine
reduces
5HT
uptake
from
nerve
A.
?
endings
causing
excessive
central
5HT
activity
(Yentis,
Peck).
B.
?
C.
?
D:
Pethidine
&
Tranylcypromine
E.
?
MD55
[Feb04]
Metabolism
of
which
drug
ANSWER:
A,
C
is
decreased
in
pseudocholinesterase
Likely
question
meant
psuedocholinesterase
deficiency.
activity:
A.
Mivacurium
B.
Cocaine
C.
Procaine
D.
Remifentanil
E.
Esmolol
MD56
[Jul04]
What
drugs
affecting
ANSWER:
A
+
B
ganglia
?
Hexamethonium
is
an
autonomic
ganlion
blocker.
A.
Hexamethonium,
Carbachol
is
a
cholinergic
agonist
and
stimulates
PNS
(muscarinic>nicotinic).
Has
high
level
of
B.
?carbachol
nicotinic
activity,
particularly
on
autonomic
ganglia,
which
may
reflect
drug-‐induced
endogenous
Ach
C.
?
release
from
the
terminals
of
cholinergic
fibres.
MD57
[Jul04]
Which
of
these
agents
ANSWER:
E
does
not
reduce
uterine
contractions?
Nifidipine,
GTN
and
isoprenaline
are
all
tocolytics.
Indomethacin
is
a
tocolytic
used
in
pre-‐term
A.
Nifedipine
labour.
B.
Gycerol
trinitrate
Phenytoin
is
not
a
tocolytic
(Shah
and
Kelly)
C.
Indomethicin
D.
Isoprenaline
E.
Phenytoin
MD58
[Jul04]
Which
of
the
following
is
ANSWER:
A
the
MOST
COMMON
side
effect
of
Stoelting:
oxytocin?
Direct
relaxant
effec
on
smooth
muscle
à
hypotension.
Slight
AVP
effect
in
high
doses.
SVT
not
A.
Hypotension
common.
B.
ADH
effect
Histamine
release
not
mentioned
in
main
texts
(Yentis:
can
cause
nausea,
rash,
allergic
reactions).
C.
Supraventricular
tachycardia
D.
Histamine
release
MD59
[Jul04]
Cause
of
hypotension
ANSWER:
N/A
during
iv
Vancomycin
administration
Stoelting:
give
over
60
mins
in
order
to
minimise
the
occurrence
of
drug-‐induced
histamine
release
A.
?
and
hypotension.
B.
?
C.
?
ANSWER:
B
MD60
Which
of
the
following
is
a
non
particulate
antacid
Sodium
citrate
is
a
non-‐particulate
antacid.
A.
Aluminium
hydroxide
B.
Sodium
citrate
Compared
with
particulate
antacids,
non-‐particulate
antacids:
C.
Magnesium
hydroxide
D.
Cimetidine
§ Are
less
likely
to
cause
a
foreign
body
reaction
if
aspirated.
E.
?
§ Mix
with
gastric
fluid
more
completely.
ANSWER:
A
MD61
Mechanism
of
action
of
ondansetron?
A
-‐
blocks
ligand
gated
ion
channel
-‐
True,
blocks
non
selective
cation
channel
-‐
only
5HT3
subtype
are
ion
channels,
others
are
GPCR
65
B
peripheral
blockade
5HT3
-‐
false
-‐
central
and
peripheral
action
-‐
CTZ
and
vagal
afferents
/
myenteric
plexus
C
blockade
5HT4
-‐
false
-‐
low
affinity
D
increases
amount
of
serotonin
in
CTZ
-‐
false
I
think,
but
only
rough
lack
of
confirmatory
information
ANSWER:
D
MD62
Which
of
the
following
is
true
regarding
action
on
platelets?
A.
Non-‐selective
COX
inhibitors
act
irreversibly
-‐
false
B.
Clopidogrel
acts
reversibly
C.
?
D.
Abciximab
acts
reversibly
E.
?
ANSWER:
A
MD72
Vancomycin:
A.
Is
less
sensitive
than
A
-‐
true
"vancomycin
is
not
as
effective
as
an
antistaphylococcal
penicillin
for
treatment
of
penicillin
for
methicillin
serious
infections
such
as
endocarditis
caused
by
methicillin-‐susceptible
strains."
(Katzung
sensitive
Staphylococci
11th
ed
page
787)
B.
?
B
?
C.
Something
like
"equal
C
-‐
false
-‐
with
the
exception
of
flavobacterium
it
is
active
only
agains
gram-‐positivies
sensitivity
for
both
gram
particularly
staph
-‐
katzung
11th
ed
page
786
positive
and
negative
D
-‐
false
-‐
only
used
orally
for
GIT
infections
-‐
e.g.
pseudomembranous
colitis
etc...
not
bacteria"
conditions
amenable
to
outpatient
care
("no"
oral
bioavailability.)
D.
Can
be
used
orally
in
E
-‐
false
-‐
dr
wiki
lists
a
t½β
of
4-‐
11
hours
in
normal
adults
and
6-‐11
days
in
anephric
outpatient
patients.
Also:"roughly
50%
of
vancomycin
is
removed
during
a
standard
haemodialysis
E.
Half
life
of
?12
hours
and
run
when
using
a
modern
high
flux
membrane)
[1]
not
removed
by
haemodialysis
66
Muscle
pharmacology
MB01
[Mar96]
[Jul97]
With
A
regard
to
tetanic
stimulation
by
a
nerve
stimulator:
-‐ Tetanic stimulation consists of very rapid delivery of electrical stimuli
-‐ The most commonly used pattern in clinical practice is 50-‐Hz stimulation for 5 seconds
-‐
During
normal
neuromuscular
transmission
and
a
pure
depolarising
block,
the
muscle
response
to
50-‐Hz
tetanic
stimulation
for
5
seconds
is
sustained
-‐
Traditionally,
tetanic
stimulation
has
been
used
to
evaluate
residual
neuromuscular
blockade
but
is
too
painful
to
use
in
an
unanesthetised
patient
-‐ Except in connection with PTC, tetanic stimulation has very little place in everyday clinical anaesthesia
-‐
If
the
response
to
nerve
stimulation
is
recorded,
all
the
information
required
can
be
obtained
from
the
response
to
TOF
nerve
stimulation
Fade
-‐
During
a
nondepolarising
block
and
a
phase
II
block
after
succinylcholine,
the
response
will
not
be
sustained
(i.e.
fade
occurs)
-‐
At
the
start
of
tetanic
stimulation,
large
amounts
of
acetylcholine
are
released
from
immediately
available
stores
in
the
nerve
terminal
-‐
As
these
stores
become
depleted,
the
rate
of
acetylcholine
release
↓s
until
equilibrium
between
mobilisation
and
synthesis
of
acetylcholine
is
achieved
67
-‐
Despite
this
equilibrium,
the
muscle
response
caused
by
tetanic
stimulation
of
the
nerve
is
maintained
because
the
acetylcholine
released
is
many
times
greater
than
the
amount
necessary
to
evoke
a
response
-‐
When
the
“margin
of
safety”
at
the
postsynaptic
membrane
(i.e.
the
number
of
free
cholinergic
receptors)
is
reduced
by
nondepolarising
neuromuscular
blocking
drugs,
a
reduction
in
twitch
height
is
seen
with
a
fade
during
repetitive
stimulation
-‐
In
addition
to
this
postsynaptic
block,
nondepolarising
neuromuscular
blocking
drugs
may
also
block
presynaptic
neuronal-‐type
acetylcholine
receptors,
leading
to
impaired
mobilisation
of
acetylcholine
within
the
nerve
terminal
-‐ This substantially contributes to fade in the response to tetanic (and TOF) stimulation
-‐
Although
the
degree
of
fade
depends
primarily
on
the
degree
of
neuromuscular
blockade,
fade
also
depends
on
the
frequency
and
the
length
of
stimulation
and
on
how
often
tetanic
stimuli
are
applied
Nerve
stimulators
must
generate
a
supramaximal
stimulus
(60-‐80mA)
to
ensure
all
the
composite
nerve
fibres
are
depolarised.
The
duration
of
stimulus
is
0.1msec.
5
main
patterns:
1. Single
twitch
at
frequency
of
0.1
Hz
(or
1
every
10
seconds).
2. Tetanic
stimulation
-‐ Individual
stimulus
are
applied
at
a
frequency
of
50-‐100Hz
for
5
sec.
-‐ In
the
presence
of
partial
NDMR
the
tetanic
stimulation
fades
with
time
due
to
blockade
of
presynaptic
nicotinic
receptors
preventing
positive
feedback.
-‐ Partial
DMR
does
not
exhibit
fade.
3. Post
tetanic
potentiation
and
count
-‐ Stimuli
of
1
Hz
started
3
seconds
after
tetanic
stimulation.
-‐ Number
of
twitches
inversely
related
to
depth
of
block
-‐ Best
used
when
degree
of
blockade
is
>
95%
or
when
single
twitch
or
TOF
is
unable
to
evoke
muscle
twitches.
-‐ 1
=
intense
block;
3
=
less
intense;
8
=
surgical
block
-‐ Partial
DMR
does
not
exhibit
post
tetanic
stimulation.
4. Train
of
four
-‐ Four
stimuli
delivered
at
2Hz.
-‐ When
T4
has
decreased
by
25%,
T1
starts
to
decrease
and
corresponds
to
75-‐80%
receptor
occupancy.
-‐ T4
disappears
when
T1
is
approximately
25%
of
its
original
height.
-‐ Partial
DMR
produces
a
TOF
ratio
>
0.7.
5. Double
burst
stimulation
-‐ 2
burst
of
stimulation
consisting
of
three
50hz
stimuli
separated
by
0.75
sec.
When
the
magnitude
of
two
stimuli
are
equal
clinically,
significant
residual
NMJ
blockade
does
not
exist.
-‐
No
evidence
of
hyperkalaemia
in
Parkinson
disease,
cerebral
palsy,
myelomeningocoele,
or
in
those
undergoing
cerebral
aneurysm
surgery
-‐
Pretreatment
with
a
subparalysing
dose
of
non-‐depolarising
neuromuscular
blocking
drug
does
not
influence
the
magnitude
of
potassium
release
-‐ Preexisting hyperkalaemia (>5.5 mEq/L) as associated with renal failure and in the absence of skeletal
68
muscle
paralysis
is
not
associated
with
an
↑
risk
of
acute
potassium
release
following
intubating
doses
of
succinylcholine
-‐
A
small
percentage
of
the
male
paediatric
population
may
present
for
a
surgery
with
an
occult
myopathy:
some
clinicians
avoid
succinylcholine
in
this
population
when
an
equally
acceptable
response
can
be
achieved
with
a
nondepolarising
neuromuscular
blocking
drug
-‐
Proliferation
of
extrajunctional
cholinergic
receptors
providing
more
sites
for
potassium
to
leak
outward
from
cells
during
depolarisation
is
the
presumed
explanation
in
patients
with
denervation
injury
Miller’s:
-‐
Succinylcholine
in
a
healthy
patient
for
an
elective
operation
↑s
potassium
by
~0.5
mEq/L:
due
to
the
depolarising
action
of
the
relaxant
→
activation
of
acetylcholine
channels
→
movement
of
sodium
into
the
cells
with
movement
of
potassium
out
of
the
cells
-‐ This is well tolerated by most individuals and generally does not cause dysrhythmias
-‐
Severe
hyperkalemia
may
occur
in
patients
with
severe
metabolic
acidosis
and
hypovolaemia:
in
this
situation,
the
potassium
originates
from
the
gastrointestinal
tract,
not
from
muscle
-‐
After
immobilisation,
burn
injury
causes
upregulation
of
both
foetal
(α2βγδ)
and
mature
(α2βεδ),
nAChRs:
this
is
associated
with
resistance
to
nondepolarising
neuromuscular
blockers
and
↑
sensitivity
to
succinylcholine
-‐
Causes
of
nAChR
upregulation:
spinal
cord
injury,
stroke,
burns,
immobility,
prolonged
exposure
to
neuromuscular
blockers,
MS,
Guillain-‐Barré,
muscular
dystrophies
-‐
Causes
of
nAChR
downregulation:
myasthenia
gravis,
anticholinesterase
poisoning,
organophosphate
poisoning
-‐ General considerations for myotonic dystrophy are similar to those for other muscular dystrophies
A. Procaine Stoelting:
B.
Cocaine
-‐
Ester
local
anaesthetics
(procaine,
tetracaine,
chloroprocaine)
undergo
hydrolysis
by
plasma
cholinesterase
(AKA
pseudocholinesterase,
butyrylcholinesterase),
principally
in
the
plasma
and
to
a
lesser
C.
Dibucaine
extent
in
the
liver
D.
Suxamethonium
-‐
Exception
is
cocaine,
which
undergoes
significant
metabolism
in
the
liver
by
esterases
with
slight
plasma
metabolism
E.
Esmolol
-‐
Amide
local
anaesthetics
undergo
metabolism
by
microsomal
enzymes,
primarily
in
the
liver
F.
Mivacurium
-‐
Dibucaine
is
metabolised
in
the
liver
and
is
the
most
slowly
eliminated
of
all
the
amide
derivatives
-‐
Dibucaine
inhibits
the
activity
of
normal
plasma
cholinesterase
by
~80%,
compared
with
only
~20%
inhibition
of
the
activity
of
atypical
enzyme
-‐
The
brief
duration
of
succinylcholine
(3-‐5
minutes)
is
principally
due
to
its
hydrolysis
by
plasma
cholinesterase
-‐
Mivacurium
consists
of
three
stereoisomers:
hydrolysis
of
the
cis-‐trans
and
trans-‐trans
isomers
by
plasma
cholinesterase
is
responsible
for
the
short
duration
of
action,
whereas
the
cis-‐cis
isomer,
which
lacks
significant
neuromuscular
blocking
effects,
does
not
depend
on
this
and
is
cleared
at
a
rate
closer
to
that
of
the
intermediate-‐acting
neuromuscular
blocking
drugs
-‐ Duration to return to >25% control twitch height = 12-‐20 minutes
-‐ The duration of action of mivacurium is ↑ in patients with atypical plasma cholinesterase
69
Goodman
and
Gilman’s:
-‐ Esmolol contains an ester linkage, and is hydrolysed rapidly by RBC esterases
MB03b
[Mar98]
[Apr01]
B
–
Procaine
is
metabolised
by
plasma
cholinesterase
to
PABA
Which
of
the
following
is
metabolised
by
plasma
cholinesterase?
Stoelting:
A.
Remifentanil
-‐
Remifentanil
is
unique
among
the
opioids
in
undergoing
metabolism
by
nonspecific
plasma
and
tissue
B.
Procaine
esterases
to
inactive
metabolites
which
undergo
renal
excretion
C.
Esmolol
-‐
Does
not
appear
to
be
a
substrate
for
pseudocholinesterase,
and
thus
its
clearance
should
not
be
affected
by
cholinesterase
deficiency
or
anticholinergics
D.
?
A. Remifentanil
B. Dibucaine
C. Pyridostigmine
D. ?
C. Mivacurium
D. Rocuronium
E. Cocaine
C.
Increased
calcium
-‐
Both
metabolic
and
respiratory
acidosis
may
↑
blockade
from
a
nondepolarising
neuromuscular
blocker,
but
only
respiratory
acidosis
prevents
adequate
antagonism
D.
Increased
potassium
-‐
The
probability
of
achieving
adequate
antagonism
of
nondepolarising
neuromuscular
blockade
in
the
E.
Decreased
magnesium
presence
of
significant
respiratory
acidosis
(PaCO2
>50
mmHg)
is
low,
therefore,
attempts
to
antagonise
residual
blockade
may
fail
if
a
patient
hypoventilates
-‐
Administration
of
narcotics
to
relieve
pain
may,
by
producing
hypoventilation,
↑
the
likelihood
of
this
adverse
event
-‐
Calcium
triggers
the
release
of
acetylcholine
from
the
motor
nerve
terminal
and
enhances
excitation-‐
contraction
coupling
in
muscle;
↑ing
calcium
concentrations
↓s
sensitivity
to
blockade
-‐
Verapamil
will
potentiate
nondepolarising
neuromuscular
blocking
drugs
and
may
render
achieving
adequate
reversal
difficult
70
-‐
Magnesium
sulphate,
given
for
preeclampsia,
potentiates
the
neuromuscular
blockade
induced
by
nondepolarising
neuromuscular
blockers:
mechanisms
probably
involve
both
prejunctional
and
postjunctional
effects
C.
Lignocaine
-‐
Chronic
anticonvulsant
use
(phenytoin,
carbamazepine)
→
pharmacodynamic
resistance
in
adults
but
pharmacokinetic
changes
in
children
(↑
hepatic
clearance
of
vecuronium)
D.
Verapamil
-‐
Volatile
anaesthetics
most
likely
act
by
depression
of
the
CNS
→
↓
tone
of
skeletal
muscles
(may
↓
the
sensitivity
of
postjunctional
membranes
to
depolarisation;
↑
skeletal
muscle
blood
flow
delivering
more
drug
to
the
NMJ
is
important
only
for
isoflurane)
-‐
Local
anaesthetics
interfere
with
the
prejunctional
release
of
acetylcholine,
stabilise
postjunctional
membranes
and
directly
depress
skeletal
muscle
fibres;
in
addition,
esters
compete
with
other
drugs
for
plasma
cholinesterase
→
↑
effects
from
succinylcholine
-‐
Calcium
channel
blockers
↓
presynaptic
release
of
acetylcholine
because
calcium
ions
are
necessary
for
the
release
of
acetylcholine
at
the
neuromuscular
junction;
the
local
anaesthetic
effects
of
verapamil
and
diltiazem,
reflecting
inhibition
of
sodium
ion
flux
via
fast
sodium
channels,
may
also
contribute
to
the
potentiation
of
neuromuscular
blocking
drugs
A. Neostigmine Stoelting:
B.
Pyridostigmine
-‐
Anticholinesterase
drugs
as
represented
by
edrophonium,
neostigmine,
and
pyridostigmine
facilitate
the
speed
of
recovery
from
nondepolarising
neuromuscular
blocking
drugs
C.
Physostigmine
-‐
Another
anticholinesterase
drug,
phytostigmine,
may
be
administered
to
produce
nonspecific
antagonism
D.
Edrophonium
of
the
CNS
effects
of
certain
drugs
E. All of the above -‐ The treatment of patients with myasthenia gravis or glaucoma may include administration of these drugs
Katzung:
-‐ Tetrahydroaminoacridine (THA), a long-‐acting cholinesterase inhibitor and muscarinic modulator, was the
71
first
drug
shown
to
have
any
benefit
in
Alzheimer's
disease
H.
Dibucaine
number
of
20
-‐
↑
oestrogen
levels
e.g.
term
parturients
are
associated
with
↓
plasma
cholinesterase
activity,
but
the
duration
of
paralysis
from
succinylcholine
is
not
↑
(due
to
↑
volume
of
distribution
at
term)
-‐ In obese patients there is an ↑ in plasma cholinesterase activity so that succinylcholine requirements may ↑
-‐
In
myasthenia
gravis,
there
is
a
↓
in
functional
acetylcholine
end-‐plate
receptors
→
↓
response
to
acetylcholine
-‐ Resistance to succinylcholine has been observed in juvenile hyaline fibromatosis
-‐
~1
in
3,200
patients
is
homozygous
for
an
atypical
plasma
cholinesterase
enzyme
variant
and
has
a
dibucaine
number
of
20
Miller’s:
-‐
Factors
which
↓
butyrylcholinesterase
activity
include
liver
disease,
advanced
age,
malnutrition,
pregnancy,
burns,
oral
contraceptives,
monoamine
oxidase
inhibitors,
cytotoxic
drugs,
neoplastic
disease,
anticholinesterase
drugs
and
metoclopramide
-‐
The
histamine
type
2
receptor
antagonists
have
no
effect
on
butyrylcholinesterase
activity
or
the
duration
of
succinylcholine's
effect
D.
Is
more
lipid
soluble
than
-‐
Monoquaternary
structure
→
↑
lipid
solubility
compared
with
pancuronium
pancuronium
-‐
Unstable
in
solution
so
supplied
as
a
lyophilised
powder
that
must
be
dissolved
in
sterile
water
before
use
E.
Is
predominantly
renally
excreted
-‐
Mostly
hepatic
metabolism
(deacetylation
to
active
metabolites;
facilitated
by
its
↑
lipid
solubility)
but
also
renal
excretion
-‐
↑
elimination
half
time
of
3-‐desacetylvecuronium
in
renal
failure,
(reflecting
↓
clearance)
→
persistent
paralysis
after
prolonged
infusion
72
with
respect
to
time
of
onset?
Stoelting:
E.
Glycopyrrolate
and
edrophonium
Anticholinergic
drugs:
(Comment:
Option
B
is
an
unusual
distractor
for
this
-‐
Atropine:
1
minute
question
but
it
has
been
confirmed
by
a
couple
of
-‐
Glycopyrrolate:
2-‐3
minutes
people
that
this
is
the
way
it
is
on
the
paper)
B.
Metabolises
esmolol
-‐
Dibucaine
inhibits
the
activity
of
normal
plasma
cholinesterase
by
~80%,
compared
with
only
~20%
inhibition
of
the
activity
of
atypical
enzyme
C.
Hydrolyses
mivacurium
at
80%
the
rate
of
suxamethonium
Miller’s:
D.
Is
unaffected
by
neostigmine
-‐
Mivacurium
is
metabolised
by
butyrylcholinesterase
at
70%
to
88%
the
rate
of
succinylcholine
B.
Needs
to
occupy
80%
of
The
competitive
agents
(e.g.
tubocurarine,
benzylisoquinolines,
ammonio
steroids)
are
relatively
bulky,
nicotinic
receptors
to
get
rigid
molecules,
whereas
the
depolarising
agents
(e.g.,
decamethonium
and
succinylcholine)
have
more
effect
flexible
structures
that
enable
free
bond
rotations
73
Stoelting:
-‐
Succinylcholine
attaches
to
one
or
both
of
the
α
subunits
of
nicotinic
acetylcholine
receptors
and
mimics
the
action
of
acetylcholine
(partial
agonist),
depolarising
the
postjunctional
membrane
-‐
Neuromuscular
blockade
develops
because
a
depolarised
postjunctional
membrane
cannot
respond
to
subsequent
release
of
acetylcholine
-‐
The
brief
duration
of
succinylcholine
(3-‐5
minutes)
is
principally
due
to
its
hydrolysis
by
plasma
cholinesterase
-‐
Because
plasma
cholinesterase
is
not
present
in
large
amounts
at
the
NMJ,
termination
of
block
is
by
diffusion
into
ECF,
therefore
plasma
cholinesterase
influences
the
duration
of
succinylcholine
by
controlling
the
amount
hydrolysed
before
reaching
the
NMJ
-‐
↓ing
the
intubating
dose
from
1
mg/kg
to
0.6
mg/kg
IV
↓s
the
duration
of
twitch
depression
by
>90
seconds
and
is
still
associated
with
acceptable
intubating
conditions
-‐
A
single
large
dose
(>2
mg/kg),
repeated
dose
or
prolonged
infusion
may
→
postjunctional
membranes
that
do
not
respond
normally
to
acetylcholine
even
when
the
postjunctional
membranes
have
become
repolarised
(desensitisation
neuromuscular
blockade
=
phase
II
block);
mechanism
unknown
-‐
Neuromuscular
transmission
of
nondepolarising
neuromuscular
blocking
drugs
fails
when
>80%
of
receptors
are
blocked
-‐ In TOF nerve stimulation, four supramaximal stimuli are given every 0.5 second (2 Hz)
-‐ The TOF ratio must exceed 0.8 to exclude clinically important residual neuromuscular blockade
74
C.
?
-‐
This
carbamylated
acetylcholinesterase
cannot
hydrolyse
acetylcholine
until
the
carbamate-‐enzyme
bond
dissociates
(See
also
[[MB11b,
[[MD28)
-‐
Carbamylated
acetylcholinesterase
has
a
half
time
of
15-‐30
minutes
A. Ionic bonding at anionic site -‐ Carbamate esters e.g. neostigmine, physostigmine, pyridostigmine form covalent bonds
B.
Ionic
bonding
at
esteratic
-‐
Organophosphates
produce
a
covalent
phosphorus-‐enzyme
bond
that
is
extremely
stable
site
-‐
Quaternary
alcohols
e.g.
edrophonium
reversibly
bind
electrostatically
and
by
hydrogen
bonds
C.
Covalent
bonding
at
anionic
site
75
twitch
height
Stoelting:
C. Has an ED95 of 1.5 mg/kg -‐ Benzylisoquinolinium nondepolarising neuromuscular blocking drug
D.
Trigger
for
malignant
-‐
Consists
of
three
stereoisomers:
hydrolysis
of
the
cis-‐trans
and
trans-‐trans
isomers
by
plasma
hyperthermia
cholinesterase
is
responsible
for
the
short
duration
of
action,
whereas
the
cis-‐cis
isomer,
which
lacks
significant
neuromuscular
blocking
effects,
does
not
depend
on
this
and
is
cleared
at
a
rate
closer
to
that
of
E.
?
Duration
of
action
is
the
intermediate-‐acting
neuromuscular
blocking
drugs
increased
in
renal
failure
-‐
Duration
to
return
to
>25%
control
twitch
height
=
12-‐20
minutes
-‐
ED95
(measure
of
potency,
is
the
dose
needed
to
produce
95%
suppression
of
the
single-‐twitch
response
in
the
presence
of
nitrous
oxide-‐barbituate-‐opioid
anaesthesia)
=
80
μg/kg
Miller’s:
-‐ Mivacurium is metabolised by butyrylcholinesterase at 70% to 88% the rate of succinylcholine
-‐
MH
is
elicited
by
the
administration
of
triggering
anaesthetic
agents,
such
as
a
volatile
anaesthetic
or
a
depolarising
neuromuscular
blocking
agent
B.
is
metabolised
at
80
to
90%
-‐
2
x
ED95
(dose
of
nondepolarising
muscle
relaxant
recommended
to
facilitate
intubation)
=
0.15
mg/kg
the
rate
of
suxamethonium
-‐
The
greater
the
concentration
of
mivacurium,
the
more
rapid
is
its
breakdown,
and
unlike
the
response
C.
After
2
x
ED95
dose
95%
seen
with
other
neuromuscular-‐blocking
drugs,
↑ing
the
dose
has
only
a
small
impact
on
the
duration
return
of
twitch
height
after
15mins
D.
Duration
of
action
may
be
-‐
Spontaneous
recovery
from
mivacurium
is
rapid,
and
the
need
for
pharmacologic
antagonism
has
been
prolonged
by
anti-‐ questioned
cholinesterases
-‐
Neostigmine
↓s
plasma
cholinesterase
activity;
nevertheless,
moderate
levels
of
mivacurium-‐induced
neuromuscular
blockade
are
antagonised
readily
by
anticholinesterases
July 2006 B
Mivacurium
76
times
the
ED95
dose
produces
relaxation
for:
Stoelting:
A.
10
mins
-‐
Duration
to
return
to
>25%
control
twitch
height
=
12-‐20
minutes
B.
15
mins
C.
20
mins
Miller’s:
D.
25
mins
Classification
of
nondepolarising
neuromuscular
blockers
according
to
duration
of
action
(time
to
T1
=
25%
E.
None
of
the
above
of
control)
after
twice
the
ED95…
Steroidal compounds
Benzylisoquinolinium compounds
Also
recalled
as:
A
muscle
A
(poor
wording:
TOFR
is
normal
with
suxamethonium
unless
phase
II
block)
relaxant
is
administered
at
twice
ED95
for
a
short
dental
case.
Return
of
normal
TOF
ratio
occurred
at
7minutes.
Stoelting:
The
muscle
relaxant
used
was:
Duration
of
return
to
train
of
four
>0.9…
A.
Suxamethonium
-‐
Mivacurium:
~30
min
B.
Vecuronium
-‐
Atracurium,
vecuronium,
rocuronium:
~60
min
C.
Atracurium
-‐
Cisatracurium:
~90
min
D.
Rocuronium
-‐
Pancuronium:
>120
min
77
E.
Mivacurium
-‐
The
anaerobic
bacterium
Clostridium
botulinum
produces
an
exotoxin
which
inhibits
acetylcholine
release
from
cholinergic
nerves
→
GI
and
urinary
dysfunction,
blurred
vision,
and
paralysis
which
spares
limb
but
affects
respiratory
muscles
A.
Hemicholinium
directly
interferes
with
releae
Rang
and
Dale:
B.
Only
in
response
to
action
potential
-‐
The
rate-‐limiting
process
in
the
synthesis
of
ACh
in
the
presynaptic
nerve
terminals
is
the
transport
of
choline
into
the
nerve
terminal
C.
Decreased
by
aminoglycosides
/
??
78
prejunctional
effect
-‐
Hemicholinium
blocks
this
transport
and
thereby
inhibits
ACh
synthesis
D. Is Ca2+ dependent process -‐ It is useful as an experimental tool but has no clinical applications
E.
Always
causes
an
action
-‐
Its
blocking
effect
on
transmission
develops
slowly,
as
the
existing
stores
of
ACh
become
depleted
potential
Stoelting:
-‐
In
the
absence
of
action
potentials,
quanta
of
acetylcholine
are
released
randomly,
producing
miniature
endplate
potentials
of
<1
mV
that
are
insufficient
to
trigger
depolarisation
of
the
skeletal
muscle
membrane
-‐
Release
of
acetylcholine
is
a
calcium-‐dependent
process
and
is
triggered
by
↑s
in
the
concentration
of
free
calcium
ions
in
nerve
terminals
C.
?
-‐
Agents
that
inhibit
Ca2+
entry
include
Mg2+
and
aminoglycosides,
which
occasionally
produce
muscle
paralysis
as
an
unwanted
side
effect
when
used
clinically
B.
More
lipid
soluble
than
-‐
Monoquaternary
aminosteroid
nondepolarising
neuromuscular
drug
pancuronium
-‐
ED95
=
0.3
mg/kg
C.
30%
metabolised
(?deacetylated)
in
the
liver
-‐
Onset
=
1-‐2
minutes
D.
Rapid
onset
is
due
to
its
-‐
Duration
=
20-‐35
minutes
high
potency
-‐
Structurally
resembles
vecuronium
except
for
the
presence
of
a
hydroxyl
group
rather
than
an
acetyl
E.
Fastest
onset
is
with
2
times
group
on
the
A
ring
of
the
steroid
nucleus
ED95
dose
-‐
Largely
excreted
unchanged
in
the
bile
F.
Is
bisquaternary
-‐
Deacetylation
does
not
occur
-‐ May have ↑ duration in renal failure and liver disease
-‐
Lack
of
potency
compared
with
vecuronium
is
important
in
its
rapid
onset:
↑
number
of
molecules
→
↑
number
of
molecules
available
to
diffuse
into
the
NMJ
-‐
Onset
of
maximum
single-‐twitch
depression
after
3-‐4
x
ED95
resembles
onset
of
action
of
succinylcholine
1
mg/kg:
is
the
only
nondepolarising
drug
that
may
serve
as
an
alternative
to
succinylcholine
when
the
rapid
onset
of
neuromuscular
blockade
is
needed
to
facilitate
tracheal
intubation
and
succinylcholine
is
CI
B.
?
-‐
High
oestrogen
levels,
as
observed
in
parturients
at
term,
are
associated
with
up
to
40%
decreases
in
plasma
cholinesterase
activity
C.
?
-‐
Dibucaine,
a
local
anaesthetic
with
an
amide
linkage,
inhibits
the
activity
of
normal
plasma
cholinesterase
79
enzyme
by
80%,
compared
with
20%
inhibition
of
the
activity
of
atypical
enzyme
-‐ A dibucaine number of 80 confirms the presence of normal plasma cholinesterase enzyme
-‐
The
dibucaine
number
reflects
quality
of
cholinesterase
enzyme
(ability
to
hydrolyse
succinylcholine),
not
the
quantity
of
enzyme
e.g.
normal
in
liver
disease,
anticholinesterase
drugs
Miller’s:
-‐
Although
the
dibucaine
number
indicates
the
genetic
makeup
of
an
individual
with
respect
to
butyrylcholinesterase,
it
does
not
measure
the
concentration
of
the
enzyme
in
plasma,
nor
does
it
indicate
the
efficiency
of
the
enzyme
in
hydrolysing
a
substrate
such
as
succinylcholine
or
mivacurium
-‐
Both
of
the
latter
factors
are
determined
by
measuring
butyrylcholinesterase
activity,
which
may
be
influenced
by
genotype
C. Phenytoin Drugs:
D.
Beta-‐blockers
-‐
Volatile
anaesthetics
most
likely
act
by
depression
of
the
CNS
→
↓
tone
of
skeletal
muscles
(may
↓
the
sensitivity
of
postjunctional
membranes
to
depolarisation;
↑
skeletal
muscle
blood
flow
delivering
more
E.
Hyperthermia
drug
to
the
NMJ
is
important
only
for
isoflurane)
-‐
Local
anaesthetics
interfere
with
the
prejunctional
release
of
acetylcholine,
stabilise
postjunctional
membranes
and
directly
depress
skeletal
muscle
fibres;
in
addition,
esters
compete
with
other
drugs
for
plasma
cholinesterase
→
↑
effects
from
succinylcholine
-‐ Frusemide 1 mg/kg inhibits cAMP production → ↓ prejunctional output of acetylcholine
-‐ Cyclosporine
-‐
Calcium
channel
blockers
↓
presynaptic
release
of
acetylcholine
because
calcium
ions
are
necessary
for
the
release
of
acetylcholine
at
the
neuromuscular
junction;
the
local
anaesthetic
effects
of
verapamil
and
diltiazem,
reflecting
inhibition
of
sodium
ion
flux
via
fast
sodium
channels,
may
also
contribute
to
the
potentiation
of
neuromuscular
blocking
drugs
-‐
Corticosteroids:
↑
blockade
in
combination
with
vecuronium
may
reflect
pharmacologic
denervation
of
nicotinic
acetylcholine
receptors
and
contribute
to
critical
illness
polyneuropathy
-‐
Combinations
in
non-‐depolarising
neuromuscular
blocking
drugs
→
different
degree
of
block
from
the
degree
produced
by
either
drug
alone
Non-‐drugs:
-‐ Hypothermia → ↓ clearance, slowed effect site equilibration, ↑ sensitivity of NMJ
80
Drugs:
-‐
Chronic
anticonvulsant
use
(phenytoin,
carbamazepine)
→
pharmacodynamic
resistance
in
adults
but
pharmacokinetic
changes
in
children
(↑
hepatic
clearance
of
vecuronium)
-‐
Azathioprine
antagonises
non-‐depolarising
neuromuscular
blockade
(PDE
inhibition)
but
augments
depolarising
blockade
produced
by
succinylcholine
-‐
Frusemide
in
↑
doses
may
inhibit
phosphodiesterase
→
↑
cAMP
available
→
antagonism
of
nondepolarising
neuromuscular
blocking
drugs
Non-‐drugs:
-‐
Hyperkalaemia
→
↓
RMP
and
thus
partially
depolarises
cell
membranes
→
↑
effects
of
depolarising
neuromuscular
drugs
and
opposes
the
action
of
non-‐depolarising
neuromuscular
drugs
-‐
Burn
injury:
>30%
burns
→
altered
affinity
of
nicotinic
acetylcholine
receptors
→
resistance
to
nondepolarising
neuromuscular
drugs
-‐
Paresis
or
hemiplegia
→
proliferation
of
extrajunctional
nicotinic
acetylcholine
receptors
→
resistance
to
neuromuscular
blocking
drugs
-‐
Ephedrine
→
↑
cardiac
output
and
skeletal
muscle
blood
flow
→
more
rapid
delivery
to
neuromuscular
junction
→
↓
onset
time
-‐
Esmolol
→
↓
cardiac
output
and
skeletal
muscle
blood
flow
→
slower
delivery
to
neuromuscular
junction
→
↑
onset
time
-‐
Allergic
reactions:
drugs
with
single
quaternary
ammonium
groups
(pancuronium,
vecuronium,
rocuronium)
less
likely
to
cause
allergic
reactions
than
succinylcholine;
anaphylactic
reactions
after
first
exposure
may
reflect
sensitisation
from
prior
contact
with
cosmetics
or
soaps
with
quaternary
ammonium
groups;
females
>
males
-‐ ↑ end-‐tidal Pco2 with adequate ventilation (and in most cases unchanged ventilation)
81
C.
?Pyridostigmine
Stoelting:
D.
Binds
to
anionic
site
of
-‐
Quaternary
ammonium
anticholinesterase
that
lacks
a
carbamyl
group
cholinesterase
-‐
More
rapid
onset
of
action
than
neostigmine
and
pyridostigmine,
whereas
the
duration
of
action
of
these
E.
Relieves
symptoms
of
three
anticholinesterase
drugs
is
similar
myaesthenia
gravis
-‐
Mild
muscarinic
effects
compared
with
longer-‐acting
anticholinesterase
drugs
F.
?
Is
reliable
in
reversing
a
Phase
2
block
-‐
Uses:
antagonise
the
effects
of
non-‐depolarising
neuromuscular
blocking
drugs,
symptomatic
treatment
of
myasthenia
gravis
and
cholinergic
crisis,
and
evaluate
the
presence
of
dual
blockade
produced
by
succinylcholine
-‐ Electrostatic bond at anionic site and hydrogen bond at esteratic site
-‐
Because
a
true
chemical
(covalent)
bond
is
not
formed,
acetylcholine
can
easily
compete
with
edrophonium
for
access
to
acetylcholinesterase
-‐
Onset
times:
edrophonium
rapid
(1-‐2
minutes),
neostigmine
intermediate
(7-‐11
minutes),
pyridostigmine
delayed
(16
minutes)
-‐ Half lives: edrophonium and pyridogstigmine 110 minutes, neostigmine 80 minutes
-‐
Reversal
of
phase
II
block
with
succinylcholine
can
be
reversed
with
neostigmine
or
edrophonium;
reversal
of
phase
II
block
in
patients
with
atypical
plasma
cholinesterase
may
not
be
reliable
-‐ Anticholinesterase drugs are actively secreted into the lumens of the renal tubules
-‐
Renal
clearance
accounts
for
~50%
of
the
elimination
of
neostigmine
and
~75%
of
the
elimination
of
edrophonium
and
pyridostigmine
-‐
In
renal
failure,
elimination
half
times
↑
>
non-‐depolarising
neuromuscular
drugs,
making
recurarisation
unlikely
-‐
In
the
absence
of
renal
function,
hepatic
metabolism
accounts
for
50%
of
a
dose
of
neostigmine,
30%
of
a
dose
of
edrophonium,
and
25%
of
a
dose
of
pyridostigmine
D.
?
-‐
Nevertheless,
moderate
levels
of
mivacurium-‐induced
neuromuscular
blockade
are
antagonised
readily
by
anticholinesterases
such
as
neostigmine
E.
?Neostigmine
may
prolong
the
action
of
Mivacurium
82
Atracurium:
B.
Ester
metabolism
is
a
minor
-‐
Bisquaternary
benzylisoquinolinium
non-‐depolarising
neuromuscular
blocking
drug
pathway
of
elimination
-‐
ED95
=
0.2
mg/kg
C.
Metabolism
is
by
Hofmann
elimination
which
is
pH
-‐
Onset
=
3-‐5
minutes
dependent
(‘Did
not
include
temperature’)
-‐
Duration
=
20-‐35
minutes
D.
?
-‐
Site
of
action,
like
other
non-‐depolarising
neuromuscular
blocking
drugs,
is
on
presynaptic
and
postsynaptic
cholinergic
receptors
E.
?
-‐
May
also
directly
interfere
with
the
passage
of
ions
through
channels
of
nicotinic
cholinergic
receptors
-‐ Was designed specifically to undergo spontaneous degradation (Hofmann elimination)
-‐ A second and simultaneously occurring route of metabolism is hydrolysis by nonspecific plasma esterases
-‐
Laudanosine
=
major
metabolite
of
both
pathways,
is
not
active
at
the
NMJ
but
may,
in
high
concentrations,
cause
CNS
stimulation
in
animals
-‐
Ester
hydrolysis
accounts
for
~2/3
of
degraded
atracurium,
whereas
Hofmann
elimination
provides
a
“safety
net”,
especially
in
patients
with
impaired
hepatic
and/or
renal
function
-‐
Adjusting
the
pH
of
the
commercial
solution
to
3.25-‐3.65
↓s
in
vitro
degradation:
should
not
be
mixed
with
alkaline
drugs
(e.g.
barbituates)
or
exposed
to
solutions
with
more
alkaline
pHs
-‐
In
contrast,
cisatracurium
undergoes
degradation
principally
by
Hofmann
elimination;
nonspecific
plasma
esterases
do
not
seem
to
be
involved
A. Rocuronium Rocuronium
D.
Atracurium
or
-‐
Prolonged
duration
in
hepatic
and
renal
failure
Cisatracurium
E.
None
of
the
above
Vecuronium
F.
Mivacurium
-‐
Hepatic
metabolism
and
renal
excretion
-‐ The 3 desacetylvecuronium metabolite is half as potent as the parent compound
-‐
Accumulation
of
this
metabolite
may
contribute
to
prolonged
effects,
especially
with
repeated
does
administered
to
patients
with
renal
dysfunction
Pancuronium
-‐ 3-‐desacetylpancuronium = 50% potency, whereas the other metabolites have minimal activity
83
Mivaurium
-‐ Metabolites are presumed to be inactive at the NMJ
Miller’s:
-‐ 3-‐desacetylvecuronium has slower plasma clearance and a longer duration of action than vecuronium
-‐
The
3-‐OH
metabolite
of
pancuronium
is
the
most
potent
and
is
the
only
one
present
in
detectable
concentrations
in
plasma:
has
pharmacokinetics
and
a
duration
of
action
similar
to
those
of
pancuronium
C. Rocuronium
D. dTC
D.
?
-‐
In
contrast,
edrophonium
unchanged
in
infants
and
elderly,
supporting
the
concepts
that
these
drugs
antagonise
neuromuscular
blockade
by
different
mechanisms
-‐
Continued
administration
of
a
volatile
anaesthetic
may
delay
drug-‐assisted
antagonism
of
nondepolarising
muscle
relaxants
-‐
The
speed
and
extent
to
which
neuromuscular
blockade
is
reversed
is
influenced
by
the
intensity
of
the
block
at
the
time
of
reversal
and
the
drug
being
reversed
84
drugs:
-‐
The
calcium
current
can
be
prolonged
by
potassium
channel
blockers
(e.g.,
4-‐aminopyridine),
which
↓
the
efflux
of
potassium
out
of
the
nerve
A.
Volatile
anaesthetic
alkanes
-‐
An
effect
of
↑ing
calcium
in
the
nerve
ending
is
also
in
post-‐tetanic
potentiation:
calcium
enters
the
nerve
B.
Volatile
anaesthetic
ethers
with
every
stimulus,
but
because
it
cannot
be
excreted
as
quickly
as
the
nerve
is
stimulated,
it
accumulates
C.
Aminoglycoside
antibiotics
-‐
A
stimulus
applied
to
the
nerve
during
this
time
causes
the
release
of
↑
amounts
of
acetylcholine
→
antagonises
the
relaxant
→
↑
size
of
the
twitch
D.
Aminopyridine
derivatives
E.
Local
anaesthetic
esters
Stoelting:
(see
also
MB18)
-‐
Drugs
that
enhance
non-‐depolarising
blockade
include
volatile
anaesthetics,
aminoglycosides,
local
anaesthetics,
antiarrhythmics,
frusemide,
magnesium
and
lithium
-‐
Volatile
anaesthetics
most
likely
act
by
depression
of
the
CNS
→
↓
tone
of
skeletal
muscles
(may
↓
the
sensitivity
of
postjunctional
membranes
to
depolarisation;
↑
skeletal
muscle
blood
flow
delivering
more
drug
to
the
NMJ
is
important
only
for
isoflurane)
-‐
Local
anaesthetics
interfere
with
the
prejunctional
release
of
acetylcholine,
stabilise
postjunctional
membranes
and
directly
depress
skeletal
muscle
fibres;
in
addition,
esters
compete
with
other
drugs
for
plasma
cholinesterase
→
↑
effects
from
succinylcholine
B. Aminoglycosides
D. Aminopyridines
D. Hypothermia
E. ?
C. Binds to anionic site -‐ Quaternary alcohols e.g. edrophonium reversibly bind electrostatically and by hydrogen bonds
85
impossible
to
remember.”)
-‐
Organophosphates:
esteratic
site
(echothiophate
also
interacts
with
the
anionic
site)
-‐ Quaternary alcohols: electrostatic bond at anionic site and hydrogen bond at esteratic site
-‐
In
contrast,
acetylcholinesterase
is
responsible
for
the
rapid
hydrolysis
(<15
ms)
of
acetylcholine
to
acetic
acid
and
choline,
which
prevents
sustained
depolarisation
of
the
NMJ
C.
?
-‐
This
is
unexpected,
because
the
sequence
of
succinylcholine
following
a
non-‐depolarising
neuromuscular
blocking
drug
should
be
antagonistic
D.
?
-‐
Presumably,
postjunctional
membranes
remain
desensitised
by
succinylcholine
E:
Shows
post
tetanic
potentiation
-‐
Despite
the
initial
enhancement,
the
subsequent
duration
of
atracurium
or
vecuronium
is
not
prolonged
-‐ ↓ amplitude but sustained response to continuous response to continuous stimulation
-‐ Augmentation of neuromuscular blockade after administration of an anticholinesterase drug
-‐
Onset
accompanied
by
fasciculations
that
reflect
the
generalised
depolarisation
of
postjunctional
membranes
E.
(“some
other
combination.”)
-‐
Structurally
resembles
vecuronium
except
for
the
presence
of
a
hydroxyl
group
rather
than
an
acetyl
group
on
the
A
ring
of
the
steroid
nucleus
-‐
Lack
of
potency
compared
with
vecuronium
is
important
in
its
rapid
onset:
↑
number
of
molecules
→
↑
number
of
molecules
available
to
diffuse
into
the
NMJ
86
-‐
Large
doses,
as
needed
to
mimic
the
onset
of
action
of
succinylcholine
(3-‐4
x
ED95),
produce
a
duration
of
action
that
resembles
the
long-‐acting
non-‐depolarising
neuromuscular
blocking
drug
pancuronium
Miller’s:
Classification
of
nondepolarising
neuromuscular
blockers
according
to
duration
of
action
(time
to
T1
=
25%
of
control)
after
twice
the
ED95…
Steroidal compounds
Benzylisoquinolinium compounds
MB30
[Apr01]
C
Anticholinesterase
drugs
A.
?
Stoelting:
B.
?
Uses
of
anticholinesterase
drugs…
C.
Used
in
treatment
of
Glaucoma
-‐
Antagonist-‐assisted
reversal
of
neuromuscular
blockade
produced
by
non-‐depolarising
neuromuscular
blocking
drugs
D.
?
-‐
Treatment
of
the
CNS
effects
produced
by
certain
drugs
(physostigmine
for
central
anticholinergic
syndrome,
but
shorter
duration
than
anticholinergic
drugs:
might
need
to
repeat)
-‐
Treatment
of
glaucoma
(topical
administration
↓s
resistance
to
outflow
of
aqueous
humour
but
↑s
risk
of
cataracts
so
short-‐acting
miotic
drugs
used
initially,
with
introduction
of
long
acting
drugs
if
short
acting
drugs
are
ineffective)
-‐ Treatment of paralytic ileus and atony of the urinary bladder
-‐ Mild to moderate Alzheimers disease (donepezil = Aricept, rivastigmine = Exelon, galantamine = Reminyl)
A.
Tertiary
ammonium
compound
Stoelting:
B.
?
no,
quaternary
-‐
Anticholinesterase
drugs
containing
a
quaternary
ammonium
group
(edrophonium,
neostigmine,
C.
?
pyridostigmine)
are
poorly
lipid
soluble
and
thus
do
not
easily
penetrate
lipid
cell
membrane
barriers
such
as
the
GIT
or
BBB
-‐
Lipid
soluble
drugs,
such
as
tertiary
amines
(physostigmine)
and
organophosphates,
are
readily
absorbed
from
the
GIT
or
across
mucous
membranes
and
have
predictable
effects
on
the
CNS
87
MB32
[Jul01]
[Jul04]
The
D
dibucaine
number
for
a
normal
person
is:
A. 20 Stoelting:
B.
40
-‐
Dibucaine
inhibits
the
activity
of
normal
plasma
cholinesterase
by
~80%,
compared
with
only
~20%
inhibition
of
the
activity
of
atypical
enzyme
C.
60
D. 80
E. 100
B.
Suxamethonium
is
the
most
-‐
Drugs
with
single
quaternary
ammonium
groups
(pancuronium,
vecuronium,
rocuronium)
less
likely
to
common
cause
cause
allergic
reactions
than
succinylcholine
C.
H1
and
H2
blockers
prevent
-‐
Anaphylactic
reactions
after
first
exposure
may
reflect
sensitisation
from
prior
contact
with
cosmetics
or
anaphylaxis
soaps
with
quaternary
ammonium
groups
E.
?
-‐
Regarding
atracurium
and
histamine
release:
slow
administration
or
pretreatment
with
H1
and
H2
receptor
antagonists
does
not
evoke
circulatory
changes
(↑
HR,
↓
BP)
despite
similar
↑s
in
plasma
concentrations
of
histamine
Miller’s:
-‐
Steroidal
compounds
(e.g.
rocuronium,
vecuronium,
pancuronium)
result
in
no
significant
histamine
release
-‐
Anaphylactic
reactions
are
mediated
through
immune
responses
involving
immunoglobulin
E
antibodies
fixed
to
mast
cells
-‐
Anaphylactoid
reactions
are
not
immune
mediated
and
represent
exaggerated
pharmacologic
responses
in
very
rare
and
very
sensitive
individuals
A. ? -‐ Major metabolite of atracurium and cisatracurium metabolism (less with cisatracurium)
B. ? -‐ Depends primarily on the liver for clearance; some excreted in the urine
D. ? -‐ Animal studies: CNS stimulant, ↑s MAC, causes peripheral vasodilation
-‐
Unlikely
that
atracurium
administration
will
result
in
plasma
concentrations
of
laudanosine
capable
of
producing
CNS
or
CV
effects
Stoelting:
88
-‐
The
prior
administration
of
succinylcholine
1
mg/kg
↑s
the
magnitude
of
twitch
response
suppression
produced
by
the
subsequently
administered
non-‐depolarising
neuromuscular
blocking
drug,
even
when
evidence
of
neuromuscular
blockade
produced
by
succinylcholine
has
waned
-‐
This
is
unexpected,
because
the
sequence
of
succinylcholine
following
a
non-‐depolarising
neuromuscular
blocking
drug
should
be
antagonistic
-‐ Despite the initial enhancement, the subsequent duration of atracurium or vecuronium is not prolonged
B. More common in the elderly -‐ Particularly prominent in the skeletal muscles of the neck, back, and abdomen
C.
Can
be
prevented
by
pre-‐ -‐
Especially
in
young
adults
undergoing
minor
surgical
procedures
that
permit
early
ambulation
treatment
with
0.04
mg/kg
of
D-‐tubocurarine
"pre-‐ -‐
Myalgia
localised
to
neck
muscles
may
be
perceived
as
a
pharyngitis
by
the
patient
and
attributed
to
curarisation"
intubation
by
the
anaesthetist
D.
Is
invariably
associated
-‐
Speculated
to
be
due
to
unsynchronised
contractions
of
skeletal
muscle
fibres
associated
with
generalised
with
increased
intra-‐ocular
depolarisation
produced
by
succinylcholine
pressure
-‐
Prevention
of
clinically
visible
succinylcholine-‐induced
skeletal
muscle
contractions
with
prior
E.
Is
associated
with
administration
of
a
nonparalysing
dose
of
dTc
↓s
the
incidence
of
myalgia
hypokalaemia
-‐
Surprisingly,
use
of
vecuronium
in
place
of
succinylcholine
does
not
↓
the
occurrence
of
myalgia
in
patients
undergoing
laparoscopy
-‐
Myoglobinuria
rarely
occurs
in
adults
but
may
occur
in
children
(reflects
skeletal
muscle
damage
associated
with
fasciculations)
-‐
Sustained
opening
of
receptor
ion
channels
and
resulting
depolarisation
of
postjunctional
membranes
is
associated
with
leakage
of
potassium
ions
from
the
interior
of
cells
sufficient
to
produce
a
0.5
mEq/L
↑
in
serum
potassium
-‐
↑s
intraocular
pressure,
not
due
to
contraction
of
extraocular
muscles;
cytoplegic
actions
and
↑
choroidal
blood
volume
and
↑
CVP
are
likely
to
contribute
B.
Quaternary
ammonium
-‐
Anticholinesterase
drugs
containing
a
quaternary
ammonium
group
(edrophonium,
neostigmine,
anticholinesterases
have
a
pyridostigmine)
are
poorly
lipid
soluble
and
thus
do
not
easily
penetrate
lipid
cell
membrane
barriers
such
larger
volume
of
distribution
as
the
GIT
or
BBB
than
non-‐depolarising
muscle
-‐
Lipid
soluble
drugs,
such
as
tertiary
amines
(physostigmine)
and
organophosphates,
are
readily
absorbed
relaxants
from
the
GIT
or
across
mucous
membranes
and
have
predictable
effects
on
the
CNS
C.
Edrophonium
has
a
slower
-‐
The
large
volume
of
distribution
of
quaternary
ammonium
anticholinesterase
drugs
(edrophonium
and
onset
of
action
than
pyridostigmine
1
L/kg,
neostigmine
0.7
L/kg)
compared
with
non-‐depolarising
neuromuscular
drugs
is
neostigmine
surprising
because
these
drugs
would
not
be
expected
to
cross
lipid
membranes
easily:
presumably,
this
reflects
tissue
storage
in
organs
such
as
the
liver
and
kidneys
D.
Neostigmine
has
a
longer
duration
of
action
than
-‐
Onset
times:
edrophonium
rapid
(1-‐2
minutes),
neostigmine
intermediate
(7-‐11
minutes),
pyridostigmine
pyridostigmine
delayed
(16
minutes)
E.
Edrophonium
binds
-‐
Duration
of
action
of
edrophonium,
neostigmine
and
pyridostigmine
is
similar
covalently
to
the
esteratic
site
of
acetylcholine
-‐
Edrophonium
produces
reversible
inhibition
of
acetylcholinesterase
by
an
electrostatic
bond
at
the
anionic
site
and
hydrogen
bond
at
the
esteratic
site
-‐
Because
a
true
chemical
(covalent)
bond
is
not
formed,
acetylcholine
can
easily
compete
with
edrophonium
for
access
to
acetylcholinesterase
89
B.
Edrophonium
is
a
long
-‐
Topical
administration
↓s
resistance
to
outflow
of
aqueous
humour
but
↑s
risk
of
cataracts
so
short-‐acting
acting
AChE
inhibitor
miotic
drugs
used
initially,
with
introduction
of
long
acting
drugs
if
short
acting
drugs
are
ineffective
C.
Physostigmine
is
-‐
Duration
of
action
of
edrophonium,
neostigmine
and
pyridostigmine
is
similar
quarternary
ammonium
-‐
Anticholinesterase
drugs
containing
a
quaternary
ammonium
group
(edrophonium,
neostigmine,
D.
?
pyridostigmine)
are
poorly
lipid
soluble
and
thus
do
not
easily
penetrate
lipid
cell
membrane
barriers
such
as
the
GIT
or
BBB
-‐
Lipid
soluble
drugs,
such
as
tertiary
amines
(physostigmine)
and
organophosphates,
are
readily
absorbed
from
the
GIT
or
across
mucous
membranes
and
have
predictable
effects
on
the
CNS
B.
No
fade
on
DBS
-‐
It
is
difficult
and
often
impossible
to
exclude
with
certainty
clinically
significant
residual
curarisation
by
clinical
evaluation
of
recovery
of
neuromuscular
function
C.
No
fade
to
200
Hz
tetanus
-‐
Unreliable
clinical
tests
of
postoperative
neuromuscular
recovery:
sustained
eye
opening,
tongue
D.
Head
lift??
protrusion,
arm
lift
to
the
opposite
shoulder,
normal
tidal
volume,
normal
vital
capacity,
maximum
inspiratory
pressure
<
40
cmH2O
E.
Evidence
of
post-‐tetanic
facilitation
-‐
Most
reliable:
sustained
head
lift
for
5
seconds,
sustained
leg
lift
for
5
seconds,
sustained
handgrip
for
5
seconds,
sustained
“tongue
depressor
test”,
maximum
inspiratory
pressure
>=40
cmH2O
-‐
In
non-‐paralysed
muscle,
the
response
to
double
burst
stimulation
is
two
short
muscle
contractions
of
equal
strength
-‐ In a partly paralysed muscle, the second response is weaker than the first (i.e., the response fades)
-‐
Tactile
evaluation
of
the
response
to
DBS
is
superior
to
tactile
evaluation
of
the
response
to
TOF
stimulation
-‐
However,
absence
of
fade
in
the
manually
evaluated
response
to
DBS
(and
TOF)
does
not
exclude
residual
neuromuscular
blockade
90
-‐
It
is
possible
to
quantify
intense
neuromuscular
blockade
by
applying
tetanic
stimulation
(50
Hz
for
5
seconds)
and
observing
the
post-‐tetanic
response
to
single-‐twitch
stimulation
given
at
1
Hz
starting
3
seconds
after
the
end
of
tetanic
stimulation
E. ?
91
D.
Atracurium
-‐
Their
3D
structure
resembles
a
doughnut
E.
Cisatracurium
-‐
The
structure
has
a
hydrophobic
cavity
and
a
hydrophilic
exterior
because
of
the
presence
of
polar
hydroxyl
groups
-‐
Exerts
its
effect
by
forming
very
tight
complexes
in
a
1:1
ratio
with
steroidal
neuromuscular
blocking
agents
(rocuronium
>
vecuronium
≫
pancuronium)
-‐
Hydrophobic
interactions
trap
the
drug
in
the
cyclodextrin
cavity
(the
“doughnut
hole”),
resulting
in
the
formation
of
a
water-‐soluble
guest-‐host
complex
-‐
The
stability
of
the
rocuronium-‐sugammadex
complex
is
the
end
result
of
an
interplay
of
intermolecular
forces
(van
der
Waals
forces),
including
thermodynamic
(hydrogen
bonds)
and
hydrophobic
interactions
-‐
Has
no
effect
on
acetylcholinesterase
or
any
receptor
system
in
the
body,
eliminating
the
need
for
anticholinergic
drugs
and
their
undesirable
side
effects
-‐
Because
of
the
soluble
nature
of
the
rocuronium-‐cyclodextrin
complex,
urinary
excretion
of
the
complex
is
the
major
route
of
elimination
of
rocuronium
-‐ Efficacy does not rely on renal excretion of the cyclodextrin-‐relaxant complex
-‐
Ineffective
against
succinylcholine
and
benzylisoquinolinium
neuromuscular
blockers
such
as
mivacurium,
atracurium,
and
cisatracurium
because
it
cannot
form
inclusion
complexes
with
these
drugs
-‐
Therefore,
if
neuromuscular
blockade
must
be
reestablished
after
using
sugammadex,
one
of
the
benzylisoquinolinium
neuromuscular
blockers
should
be
considered
92
Psychotherapeutics
PS01 [Mar96] [Jul98] [Jul01] [Jul02] F
Benzodiazepines: A is possible depending on wording
A. Are all lipid soluble (OR: None are water-soluble) Lipid solubility depends on pKa and pH - most are water
B. Are all renally excreted unchanged soluble at very low pH.
C. Causes retrograde amnesia Many undergo hepatic metabolism.
D. Lorazepam is more lipophilic than midazolam Cause anterograde amnesia
E. Block GABA receptors Lorazepam is less lipophilic than midazolam, accounting for
F. Have high therapeutic index its slower onset of action (~5 mins)
Bind to the GABAa receptor at the gamma/alpha site.
Are relatively safe in OD
93
PS03 [Jul97] [Jul98] [Jul00] [Jul01] Neuroleptic C and E
malignant syndrome: A - Can occur with acute use.
A. Occurs only with chronic use B - NMS has a mortality to 20% - most commonly from
B. 80% (60%) mortality ventilatory failure, cardiac failure/arrhythmia, renal failure,
C. ?Treated /? not treated with dantrolene thromboembolism. The syndrome typically develops over 24-
D. Can be caused by acute withdrawal of L-Dopa 72hrs, characterized by hyperthermia, generalised
therapy hypertonicity, instability of ANS, fluctuating consciousness.
E. Is treated with bromocriptine
Neuroleptic
malignant
syndrome
occurs
in
0.5-‐1%
of
all
patients
treated
with
antipsychotic
drugs.
Mortality
is
about
10%.
Risk
factors
are:
1. Fever
2. Encephalopathy
3. Vitals
–
unstable
manifesting
as
alterations
in
systemic
blood
pressure,
tachycardia,
and
cardiac
dysrhythmias.
4. Elevated
enzymes
–
Creatine
Kinase
(from
muscle
damage)
5. Rigidity
of
muscles
Treatment is:
1.
Stopping
the
neuroleptic
agent
2.
Immediate
supportive
care.
3.
Extrapyramidal
symptoms
can
be
treated
with
antiparkinsonian
medications
(bromocriptine
–
dopamine
agonist)
4. Muscle
relaxation
achieved
with
diazepam
or
dantrolene
Differential
is:
1. Malignant
hyperthermia
2. Central
anticholinergic
syndrome
94
PS04 [Jul97] Inhibitors of monoamine oxidase A A
A. Allow tyramine to enter the circulation from the gut MAOI act by forming a stable, irreversible complex with
B. ? MAO enzyme and thereby preventing breakdown of
C. ? neurotransmitters. MAO-A is found in the GIT & liver where
D. ? it acts to metabolize bioactive amines such as tyramine.
Dietary tyramine & other monoamines can enter the systemic
circulation and be taken up by SNS nerve endings - this can
result in elicit of massive release of endogenous
catecholamines & hyperadrenergic crisis, resembling pheo.
MAO-B inhibitors (selegiline) do not require tyramine-free
diet. [Stoelting, 4th ed, p406]
PS05 [Jul97] [Feb00] Benzodiazepines: A
A. Have no analgesic effect
B. Have an antanalgesic effect Miller’s
says
that
benzodiazepines
lack
analgesic
C. Have an analgesic effect properties
and
must
be
used
with
other
anaesthetic
drugs
D. Have dose-related analgesic and antanalgesic to
provide
sufficient
analgesia.
effects
95
PS07 [Jul98] Fluoxetine: B
A. Inhibits noradrenaline & adrenaline uptake
B. Inhibits serotonin uptake Fluoxetine in an SSRI - inhibits reuptake of 5HT
C. ?
D.
B – only inverse agonist in clinical use (Kam lecture)
PS08 [Mar99] [Jul00] Flumazenil: Option D alternates are both correct too
A. Formulated In propylene glycol in commercial Flumazenil is a 1,4-imidazobenzodiazepine derivative. It is
preparation specifically and exclusive benzodiazepine antagonists with a
B. Inverse agonist high affinity for BZD receptors, where it exerts minimal
C: Is slowly metabolised making resedation unlikely agonist activity.
D. Does not reliably reverse sedation and resp Metabolism is by hepatic microsomal enzymes to inactive
depression (in large agonist dose ?) metabolites. Duration of action is 30-60mins and supplemental
E. Is a partial agonist at mu opioid receptors doses may be required.
Generally, total doses of 0.3-0.6mg IV have been adequate to
Option D has also been remembered as: decrease the degree of sedation to the required extent where as
D. May significantly reverse evidence of sedation total doses of 0.4-1.0mg IV are usually sufficient to
whilst hypoxia or hypercapnia persist completely abolish the effect of a therapeutic dose of
D. Reliably reverses the sedating effects of benzodiazepine. [Stoelting, 4th, p152]
benzodiazepines but marked respiratory depression Mims states: Active. Flumazenil. Inactive. Disodium edetate,
still can occur acetic acid, sodium chloride, sodium hydroxide in water for
injections adjusted to pH 4.0.
PS09 [Mar99] Diazepam: B
A. Half-life of 5 to 10 hours Elimination 1/2 time 21-37hrs.
B. Metabolised to oxazepam & temazepam Vd 1-1.5L/kg (lipid soluble & extensive uptake)
/?desmethyldiazepam Protein binding 96-98%
C. ? Cl 0.2-0.5ml/kg/min
D. ? Diazepam metabolism: hepatic, oxidative pathway of N-
demethylation. The 2 principle metabolites are
desmethyldiazepam & oxazepam, with a lesser amount
metabolised to temazepam [Stoelting, p147]
PS10 [Mar99] [Jul99] Droperidol:
A. Substituted phenothiazine E
B. Reliably produces mental tranquility Droperidol is a butyrophenones. Structurally resembles &
C. Does not act (directly) on CTZ evokes pharmacologic effects similar to phenothiazines &
D. Alpha-blockade with hypotension is not a problem thioxanthenes.
with 2mg dose CNS - outwardly calming but pts sometimes describe intensly
E. Slows alpha rhythm on EEG dysphoric experience when drug has worn off, akathisia,
(Note: Mar 99 paper had 2 questions on droperidol) extrapyramidal reactions in 1% (dopamine antagonist) and
rarely involving laryngospasm, cerebral vasoconstrictor and
reduced cerebral blood flow, but CMRO2 not greatly altered
(may be undesirable), reticular activating system not
depressed, alpha rhythm persists on EEG. No
amnesia/anticonvulsant activity.
CVS - can decrease BP due to CNS effects & anti-alpha
actions - usually this is minimal. SVR & PVR only modestly
& transient decrease. Myocardial contractility not altered.
Anti-dysrhythmic & protects against adrenaline-induced
dysrhythmias (? mechanism), but may cause prolonged QT &
torsades due to delayed ventricular repolarization.
RESP - augments response to hypoxaemia (useful premed in
resp disease)
GIT - powerful antiemetic agent as a result of inhibition of
dopamine2 receptors in chemoreceptor trigger zone of the
medulla
96
PS11 [Mar99] Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI):
A. Moclobemide is a reversible inhibitor A
B. Interacts with tyramine to cause hypertension
C. Interacts with pethidine to cause hypothermia B not true as doesn’t interact with tyramine so much as stop its
D. ? metabolism.
Moclobemide is a new generation MAOI that selectively and
reversibly inhibits only MAOA. Causes less potentiation of
tyramine than older generation (phenelzine, isocarboxazid,
tranylcypromine).
Pethidine & MAOI may cause type 1 (agitation, headache,
rigidity, hyperpyrexia) or type 2 (hypotension, ventilatory
depression, coma) response [Peck/Hill/Williams p277,
Stoelting p407]
97
PS15 [Jul00] [Mar03] [Jul04] Tricyclic B
antidepressants: Do cause sedation - may be desirable for management of
A. Do not cause sedation agitated patients.
B. Formed from modification of the phenothiazine The structure of TCAs resembles that of local anaesthetics and
ring phenothiazines. Imipramine, which is the prototype TCA,
C. Avoid anti-cholinergic effects compared to other differs from phenothizine only in the replacement of the sulfur
anti-depressants atom with an ethylene linkage to produce a 7-membered
D. Does not decrease reuptake of 5HT ?at 5HT3 R central ring.
E. Decrease CNS amine levels Anticholinergic effects of TCAs are prominent, especially at
high doses.
TCAs act at several transporters and receptors, but their
antidepressant effect is likely produced by blocking reuptake
of serotonin &/or norad at presynaptic terminals. [Stoelting
p402]
PS16 [Jul00] Diazepam 0.1 mg/kg given orally, the A
percent absorption is: Bioavailability is 86-100% [Sasada & Smith p101]
A. 100% Oral bioavailability 90% [Faunce, p231]
B. 94%
C. ? Katzung says that all benzos are absorbed completely.
D. ? Bioavailability refers also not only absorption, but also to what
goes on in the liver. E.g. midazolam is 100% absorbed but
only 50% bioavailability cos of liver metabolism.
PS17 [Feb04] Clinical uses of Diazepam include: E
A. Anticonvulsant
B. Skeletal muscle relaxation
C. Treatment of Delerium Tremens
D. Induction of anaesthesia
E. All of the above
PS18 Midazolam: B
A. open ring structure above pH 4.
A – open and ionized at ph > 4
B. poor oral bioavailability so less than C = false – has 2x affinity
50% reaches systemic circulation
D. ?
E. ?
98
PS19 You are about to anaesthetise someone D
taking a MAOI (tranylcypramine I think) Which
drug is least likely to be problematic? A - false - Ephedrine has indirect and direct
A. Ephedrine sympathomimetic actions - potential to cause
hypertensive crisis
B. Tramadol
B - false - Tramadol has serotenergic actions -
C. Etomidate potential to cause serotonin syndrome
A. ?
B. ?
C. Predictably reverses the
respiratory depression caused by
benzodiazepine overdose
D. ?
E. ?
99