Shri Chinai College of Commerce and Economics

Andheri East, Mumbai 400072

Operations Research

Module 1: Introduction to Operations Research and Linear Programming

Unit 1 : Introduction to Operations Research (MCQ = 26)

1. Operations Research, which is a very powerful tool for _____

a. Research
b. Decision-Making
c. Operations
d. Scientific approach
2. Who coined the term Operations Research?
a. J.F. McCloskey
b. F.N. Trefethen
c. P.F. Adams
d. J.F. McCloskey and F.N. Trefethen
3. The Term Operations Research was coined in the year _____
a. 1950
b. 1940
c. 1978
d. 1960
4. This Innovative science of Operations Research was discovered
during________
a. Civil War
b. World War I
c. World War II
d. Industrial Revolution
5. Operations Research was known as an ability to win a war without really going into
a________
a. Battle Field
b. Fighting
c. War
d. Battle Field and Fighting
6. The objective of Operations Research is:
a. To find new methods of solving Problems
b. To derive formulas
c. Optimal utilization of existing resources
d. To utilize the services of scientists
7. Who defined Operations Research as scientific approach to problem solving for executive
management?
a. E.L. Arnoff
b. P.M.S. Blackett
c. H.M. Wagner
d. N.K. Arnalo
8. A wide class of allocation models can be solved by a mathematical technique know as:
a. Classical model
b. Mathematical Model
c. Descriptive model
d. Linear Programming model
9. Operations Research has the characteristics that it is done by a team of _____
a. Scientists
b. Mathematicians
c. Academics
d. Techniques
10. The first step in solving Operations Research problem is
a. Model building
 b. Obtain alternate solutions
c. Obtain basic feasible solutions
d. Formulation of the problem
11. Operations Research emphasizes on the overall approach to the system. This characteristic of
Operations Research is often referred as
a. System Orientation
b. System Approach
c. Interdisciplinary
d. Team Approach
12. Operations Research involves various _______ to solve the problems
a. Decisions
b. Study
c. Technique
d. Applications
13. Operations Research cannot give perfect _____ to problems
a. Answers
b. Solutions
c. Decisions
d. Answers and Solutions
14. OR techniques provide a solution only when all the elements related to a problem can be
____
a. Quantified
b. Qualified
c. Measure
d. Understand
15. Operations Research techniques helps to find an ________ by taking into account all the
factors
a. Ultimate solution
b. Alternate solution
c. Optimum solution
d. Maximize solution
16. Operations Research simply helps in improving the ______ of the solution but does not result in a
perfect solution
a. Quality
b. Clarity
c. Look
d. Systematic
17. Operations Research involves _________ attacks of complex problems to arrive at the optimum
solution
a. Scientific
b. Systematic
c. Statistical
d. Scientific and Systematic
18. OR can evaluate only the effects of ---------------------------------------------
a. Personnel factors.
b. Financial factors
c. Numeric and quantifiable factors
d. Systematic factors

19 .Operations management can be defined as the application of ----------------------------------- -------to a

problem within a system to yield the optimal solution.
a. Suitable manpower
b. Mathematical techniques, models, and tools
c. Financial operations
d. Systematics operation

20. Operations research is the application of ____________methods to arrive at the optimal

Solutions to the problems.
a. Economical
 b. Scientific
c. Artistic
d. Economical and Scientific
21. In operations research, the ------------------------------are prepared for situations.
a. Mathematical models
b. Physical models diagrammatic
c. Diagrammatic models
d. Scientific Models
22. The problem, which is used to disburse the available limited resources to activities, is known
as
a. O.R. Model
b. Resources Model
c. Allocation Model
d. Activities model.
23. Which of the following is not the phase of OR methodology?
a. Formulating a problem
b. Constructing a model
c. Establishing controls
d. Controlling the environment
24. Operations Research models in which values of all variables and all possible outcomes are
known with certainty are called _____
a. Physical
b. Symbolic
c. Deterministic
d. Probabilistic
25. Operations Research models in which some or all values of variables are random in nature are called
_____________
a. Physical
b. Symbolic
c. Deterministic
d. Probabilistic
26. Operations Research is a _________
a. Science
b. Art
c. Mathematics
d. Science and Art
 Module 1: Introduction to Operations Research and Linear Programming
Unit 2 : Linear Programming Problems: Introduction and Formulation (MCQ = 21)

27. The mathematical model of an LP problem is important because

a. It helps in converting the verbal description & numerical data into mathematical
expression
b. Decision-makers prefer to work with formal models
c. It captures the relevant relationship among decision factors
d. It enables the use of algebraic technique
28. Linear programming is a
a. Constrained optimization technique
b. Technique for economic allocation of limited resources
c. Mathematical technique
d. Constrained optimization technique, Technique for economic allocation of limited resources
and Mathematical technique
29. A constraint in an LP model restricts
a. Value of objective function
b. Value of a decision variable
c. Use of the available resources
d. Value of objective function, Value of a decision variable and Use of the available resources
30. The distinguishing feature of an LP model is
a. Relationship among all variables is linear
b. It has single objective function & constraints
c. Value of decision variables is non-negative
d. Value of decision variable negative
31. Constraints in an LP model represent
a. Limitations
b. Requirements
c. Balancing limitations & requirements
d. Limitations, Requirements and Balancing limitations & requirements
32. Non-Negativity condition is an important component of L P model because
a. Variables value should remain under the control of the decision-
maker
b. Value of variables make sense & correspond to real-world problems
c. Variables are interrelated in terms of limited resources
d. Unlimited resources
33. Before formulating a formal L P model it is better to
a. Express each constrain in words
b. Express the objective function in words
c. Verbally identify decision variables
d. Express each constrain in words, Express the objective function in words and Verbally identify
decision variables
34. Maximization of objective function in an L P model means
a. Value occurs at allowable set of decisions
b. Highest value is chosen among allowable decisions
c. Lowest value is chosen among allowable decisions
d. Values are not allowable decisions
35. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the L P model
a. Alternative courses of actions
b. An objective function of maximization type
c. Limited amount of resources
d. Non-negativity condition on the value of decision variable
36. The best use of linear programming technique is to find an optimal use of
a. Money
b. Manpower
c. Machine
d. Money, Manpower and Machine
37. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the LP
a. Resources must be limited
b. Only one objective function
c. Parameters value remains constant during the planning period
d. The problem must be of minimization type
38. Non-negativity condition in an LP model implies
a. A positive coefficient of variables in objective function
b. A positive coefficient of variables in any constraint
c. Non-negative value of resources
d. Non-negative value of coefficient
39. Which of the following is an assumption of an LP model
a. Divisibility
b. Proportionality
c. Additivity
d. Divisibility, Proportionality and Additivity
40. The intermediate solutions of constraints must be checked by substituting them back into
a. Objective function
b. Constraint equations
c. Not required
d. Non negative condition
41. Who developed Linear Programming for the purpose of scheduling the complicated procurement
activities of the United States Air Force?
a. George B. Dantzig
b. James B. Dantzig
c. George B. Dante
d. George V. Dantzig
42. _____ assumption means the prior knowledge of all the coefficients in the objective function
the coefficients of the constraints and the resource values
a. Proportionality
b. Certainty
c. Finite choices
d. Continuity
43. The word “Linear” means that the relationships are represented by _____
a. Diagonal lines
b. Curved lines
c. Straight lines
d. Slanting lines
44. The word “Programming” means taking decisions ______
a. Systematically
b. Rapidly
c. Slowly
d. Instantly
45. LP is a major innovations since _______ in the field of business decision-making, particularly
under conditions of certainty
a. Industrial Revolution
b. World War I
c. World War II
d. French Revolution
46. Linear programming has been successfully applied in __________
a. Agricultural
b. Industrial applications
c. Manufacturing
d. Agricultural and Industrial applications
47. The method of formal calculations often termed as Linear Programming was developed later in
which year?
a. 1947
b. 1988
c. 1957
d. 1944
 Module 1: Introduction to Operations Research and Linear Programming
Unit 3 : Linear Programming Problems: Graphical Method (MCQ = 17)

48. The graphical method of LP problem uses

a. Objective function equation
b. Constraint equations
c. Linear equations
d. Objective function equation, Objective function equation and Linear equations
49. A feasible solution to an LP problem
a. Must satisfy all of the problem’s constraints simultaneously
b. Need not satisfy all of the constraints, only some of them
c. Must be a corner point of the feasible solution
d. Must optimize the value of the objective function
50. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the optimal solution of an LP
problem?
a. Every LP problem has an optimal solution
b. Optimal solution of an LP problem always occurs at an extreme point
c. At optimum solution all resources are completely used
d. If an optimal solution exists, there will always be at least one at a corner
51. An iso-profit line represents
a. An infinite number of solutions all of which yield the same profit
b. An infinite number of solutions all of which incurs the same cost
c. An infinite number of optimal solutions
d. A boundary of the feasible region
52 The feasible solution of a L.P.P. belongs to
a. First and second quadrant
b. First and third quadrant
c. Second quadrant
d. Only in the first quadrant
53. While plotting constraints on a graph paper, terminal points on both the axes are connected by
straight line because
a. The resources are limited in supply
b. The objective function as a linear function
c. The constraints are linear equations or inequalities
d. A boundary of the feasible region
54. If the constraints in a linear programming problem are changed
a. The problem is to be re-evaluated
b. Solution is not defined
c. The objective function has to be modified
d. The change in constraints is ignored.
55. If two constraints do not intersect in the positive quadrant of the graph, then
a. The problem is infeasible
b. The solution is unbounded
c. One of the constraints is redundant
d. The Problem is feasible
56. Constraints in LP problem are called active if they
a. Represent optimal solutions
b. At optimality do not consume all the available resources
c. Constraints
d. Convex
57. The region which satisfies all the constrains of the L.P.P. is called as----
a. Phisible region
b. Feasible region
c. convex region
d. Concave region
58. While solving a LP model graphically, the area bounded by the constraints is
called
a. Feasible region
b. Infeasible region
c. Unbounded solution
d. Concave region
59. Alternative solutions exist of an LP model when
a. One of the constraints is redundant
b. Objective function equation is parallel to one of the constraints
c. Two constraints are parallel
d. One constraint is negative
60. While solving a LP problem, infeasibility may be removed by
a. Adding another constraint
b. Adding another variable
c. Removing a constraint
d. Removing a variable
61. If a non-redundant constraints is removed from an LP problem
then
a. Feasible region will become larger
b. Feasible region will become smaller
c. Solution will become infeasible
d .Unbounded solution
62. If one of the constraint of an equation in an LP problem has an unbounded solution,
then
a. Solution to such LP problem must be degenerate
b. Feasible region should have a line segment
c. Alternative solutions exists
d. Solution Unbounded
63. Graphic method can be applied to solve a LPP when there are only ____
variable
a. Four
b. More than one
c. Two
d. Three
64. If the feasible region of a LPP is empty, the solution is _______
a. Infeasible
b. Unbounded
c. Alternative
d. Feasible
 Module 1: Introduction to Operations Research and Linear Programming
Unit 3 : Linear Programming Problems: Simplex Method (MCQ = 24)

65. Any feasible solution which optimizes (minimizes or maximizes) the objective function of the LPP is
called as _______
a. Optimal solution
b. Non-basic variables
c. Solution
d. Basic Feasible solution
66. Which method is an iterative procedure for solving LPP in a finite number of
steps? a. Simplex algorithm
b. Slack variable
c. Big M method
d. Simplex method
67. In simplex algorithm, which method is used to deal with the situation where an infeasible starting
basic solution is given?
a. Slack variable
b. Simplex method
c. Big M Method
d. Surplus variable
68. When the elements of net evaluation row of simplex table are equal, the situation is known as
a. Tie
b. Degeneracy
c. Break
d. Shadow price
69. The number at the intersection of key row and key column is known as
a. Column number
b. Row number
c. Key elements
d. Cross number
70. Which variables are fictitious and cannot have any physical meaning?
a. Optimal variable
b. Decision variable
c. Artificial variable
d. Surplus variable
71. An objective function which states the determinants of the quantity to be either maximized or
minimized is called_______
a. Feasible function
b. Optimal function
c. Criterion function
d. Objective function
72. To transfer the key row in simplex table we have to
a. Add the elements of key row to key number
b. Subtract the elements of key row from topmost no key row
c. Divide the elements of key row by key number
d. Multiply the elements of key row by key number
73. A set of values X1,X2……..Xn which satisfies the constraints of the LPP is
called_______
a. Solution
b. Variable
c. Linearity
d. Decision
74. A basic solution which also satisfies the condition in which all basic variables are non-negative is
called ___
a. Basic feasible solution
b. Feasible solution
c. Optimal solution
 d. Unbounded solution
75. The cost coefficient of slack variable is
a .Zero
b. One
c. > than one
d. < than one,
76. An objective function is maximized when it is a _______ function
a. Passive
b. Profit
c. Cost
d. Non-profit
77. To convert ≤ type of inequality into equations, we have to
a. Assume them to be equations
b. Add surplus variables
c. Subtract slack variables
d. Add slack variables
78. Currently, LPP is used in solving a wide rangrae of practical ___________
a. Business problems
b. Agricultural problems
c. Manufacturing problems
d. Processing problem
79. _____ refers to the combination of one or more inputs to produce a particular
output
a. Solution
b. Variable
c. Process
d. Decision
80. An optimum solution is considered the _____ among feasible solutions
a. Worst
b. Best
c. Ineffective
d. Desirable
81. The key row indicates
a. Incoming variable
b. Outgoing variable
c. Slack variable
d. Surplus variable
82. ________ which is a subclass of a linear programming problem (LPP)
a. Programming problem
b. Transportation problem
c. Computer problem
d. Technical problem
83. The key column indicates
a. Outgoing variable
b. Incoming variable
c. Independent variable
d. Dependent variable
84. In simplex method, we add _______ variables in the case of “=”
a. Slack variable
b. Surplus variable
c. Artificial variable
d. Optimal variable
85. In simplex method, if there is tie between a decision variable and a slack (or surplus) variable, ______
should be selected
a. Slack variable
b. Surplus variable
c. Decision variable
d. Artificial variable
86. A BFS of a LPP is said to be ______ if at least one of the basic variable is zero
a. Degenerate
b. Non-degenerate
c. Infeasible
d. unbounded
87. Every LPP is associated with another LPP is called_____
a. Primal
b. Dual
c. Non-linear programming
d. Alternative
88. Dual of the dual is _______
a. Primal
b. Dual
c. Alternative
d. Non-linear programming
 Module 2: Assignment and Transportation Models
Unit 1 : Assignment Problem: Hungarian Method (MCQ = 26)

89. If the number of jobs is equal to the number of resources, then the problem is term as _____
assignment problem
a. Balanced
b. Unbalanced
c. Equal
d. Unequal
90. If the number of jobs is not equal to the number of resources, then the problem is term as _____
assignment problem
a. Balanced
b. Unbalanced
c. Equal
d. Unequal
91. Hungarian Method is used to solve
a. A transportation problem
b. A travelling salesman problem
c. A LP problem
d. A transportation problem and A LP problem

92. If cost, time, etc is given, then it is ________

a. Balanced problem
b. Unbalanced problem
c. Maximization problem
d. Minimization problem
93. If profit, sales, production, etc is given then it is _________
a. Balanced problem
b. Unbalanced problem
c. Maximization problem
d. Minimization problem
94. For __________ minimization, we take least value from each row and subtract it from all values of
that row.
a. Column
b. Row
c. Profit
d. Cost
95. For __________ minimization, we take least value from each column and subtract it from all values
of that column.
a. Column
b. Row
c. Profit
d. Cost
96. The method of solution of assignment problems is called
a. NWCR
b. VAM
c. LCM
d. Hungarian
97. The extra row or column which is added to balance an assignment problem is called
_____
a. Regret
b. Epsilon
c. Dummy
d. Extra
98. When a particular assignment in the given problem is not possible or restricted as a condition, it is
called a __ problem
a. Infeasible
 b. Degenerate
c. Unbalanced
d. Prohibited
99. If in an assignment problem, number of rows is not equal to number of columns
then
a. Maximization problem
b. Problem is unbalanced
c. Problem is degenerate
d. Optimum solution is not possible
100. Assignment Problem is basically a
a. Maximisation Problem
b. Minimisation Problem
c. Transportation Problem
d. Primal problem.
101. An optimal assignment requires that the maximum number of lines that can be drawn through
squares with zero opportunity cost be equal to the number of
a. Rows or columns
b. Rows & columns
c. Rows + columns -1
d. Number of rows equal to number of column
102. While solving an assignment problem, an activity is assigned to a resource through a square with
zero opportunity cost because the objective is to
a. Minimize total cost of assignment
b. Reduce the cost of assignment to zero
c. Reduce the cost of that particular assignment to zero
d. Reduce the cost of assignment to one
103. The method used for solving an assignment problem is called
a. Reduced matrix method
b. MODI method
c. Hungarian method
d. Least cost method
104. The purpose of a dummy row or column in an assignment problem is to
a. Obtain balance between total activities and total resources
b. Prevent a solution from becoming degenerate
c. Provide a means of representing a dummy problem
d. Prevent a solution from becoming non-degenerate
105. Maximization assignment problem is transformed into a minimization problem by
a. Adding each entry in a column from the maximization value in that column
b. Subtracting each entry in a column from the maximum value in that column
c. Subtracting each entry in a column from the maximum value in that table
d. Adding each entry in a column from the minimization value in that column
106. If there were n workers & n jobs there would be
a. N! solutions
b. (n-1)! Solutions
c. (n!)n solutions
d. N Solutions
107. To balance the assignment matrix we have to:
a. Open a Dummy row
b. Open a Dummy column
c. Open either a dummy row or column depending on the situation
d. You cannot balance the assignment matrix
108. The assignment problem will have alternate solutions
a. when total opportunity cost matrix has at least one zero in each row and column
b. When all rows have two zeros
c. When there is a tie between zero opportunity cost cells
d. If two diagonal elements are zeros
109. In Hungarian method of solving assignment problem, the row opportunity cost matrix is
Obtained by
 a. Dividing each row by the elements of the row above it
b. Subtracting the elements of the row from the elements of the row above it
c. Subtracting the smallest element from all other elements of the row
d. Subtracting all the elements of the row from the highest element in the matrix
110. For maximization in assignment problem, the objective is to maximize the
a. Profit
b. Optimization
c. Cost
d. Differ
111. For solving an assignment problem, which method is used?
a. British
b. American
c. German
d. Hungarian method
112. ___ is one of the fundamental combinatorial optimization problems
a. Assignment problem
b. Transportation problem
c. Optimization problem
d. Primal problem
113. If no. of rows are equal to number of columns and the matrix elements are Time elements then the
problem is:
a. Balanced and Minimization Transportation problem
b. Unbalanced and Minimization Transportation problem
c. Balanced and Minimization Assignment problem
d. Unbalanced and Minimization Assignment problem
114. If no. of rows are not equal to number of columns and the matrix elements are profit elements then
the problem is:
a. Balanced and Maximization Transportation problem
b. Unbalanced and Maximization Transportation problem
c. Balanced and Maximization Assignment problem
d. Unbalanced and Maximization Assignment problem
 Module 2: Assignment and Transportation Models
Unit 2 :Transportation Problems (MCQ = 34)

115. To find initial feasible solution of a transportation problem the method which starts allocation from
the lowest cost is called ________
a. North west corner method
b. Least cost method
c. South east corner method
d. Vogel’s approximation method
116. In a transportation problem, the method of penalties is called
a. North west corner method
b. Least cost method
c. South east corner method
d. Vogel’s approximation method
117. Which of the following considers difference between two least costs for each row and column while
finding initial basic feasible solution
a. North west corner method
b. Least cost method
c. South east corner method
d. Vogel’s approximation method
118. When the total of allocations of a transportation problem match with supply and demand values, the
solution is called _________ solution
a. Non-degenerate
b. Degenerate
c. Feasible
d. Infeasible
119. When the allocations of a transportation problem satisfy the rim condition (m+n-1) the solution is
called as ___ solution
a. Degenerate
b. Infeasible
c. Unbounded
d. Non-degenerate
120. When there is a degeneracy in the transportation problem, we add an imaginary allocation called
______ in the solution
a. Dummy
b. Penalty
c. Epsilon
d. Regret
121. If m+n-1 = number of allocations in transportation, it means ______
a. There is no degeneracy
b. Problem is unbalanced
c. Problem is degenerate
d. Solution is optimal
122. There are ______ types of techniques available to find the Initial basic feasible solution
a. Two
b. Three
c. Four
d. One
123. When demand is not equal to supply, we need to add _____
a. Variable
b. Resources
c. Dummy
d. Events
124. When demand is equal to supply it is ____ problems
 a. Maximization
b. Minimization
c. Unbalance
d. Balance
125. When demand is not equal to supply it is ______ problems
a. Maximization
b. Minimization
c. Unbalance
d. Balance
126. A dummy variable is simply a _______ variable
a. Slack
b. Indicator
c. Compress
d. Fictional
127. If the number of occupied cells is equal to m+n-1 i.e. number of independent constraint equations,
then it is
a. Basic feasible solution
b. Degenerate
c. Non-degenerate
d. Initial Basic feasible solution
128. If the number of occupied cells is less than m+n-1 then the solution is known as ______ solution
a. Basic feasible solution
b. Degenerate
c. Non-degenerate
d. Initial Basic feasible solution
129. MODI stands for
a. Modern distribution,
b. Mendel's distribution method
c. Modified distribution method
d. Model index method
130. The dummy source or destination in a transportation problem is added to
a. Satisfy rim conditions
b. Prevent solution from becoming degenerate
c. Ensure that total cost does not exceed a limit
d. None of the above
131. The occurrence of degeneracy while solving a transportation problem means that
a. Total supply equals total demand
b. The solution so obtained is not feasible
c. The few allocations become negative
d. All are negative
132. To convert the transportation problem into a maximization model we have to
a. write the inverse of the matrix,
b. Multiply the rim requirements by –1,
c. To multiply the matrix by –1,
d. We cannot convert the transportation problem into a maximization problem, as it is
basically a minimization problem.
133. One disadvantage of using North-West Corner rule to find initial solution to the transportation
problem is that
a. It is complicated to use
b. It does not take into account cost of transportation
c. It leads to a degenerate initial solution
d. it cannot find proper initial basic feasible solutions
134. The solution to a transportation problem with ‘m’ rows(supplies) & ‘n’ columns(destination) is
feasible if number of positive allocations are
a. M+n
b. M*n
c. M+n-1
 d. M+n+1
135. If an opportunity cost value is used for an unused cell to test optimality, it should be
a. Equal to zero
b. Most negative number
c. Most positive number
d. Any value
136. During an iteration while moving from one solution to the next, degeneracy may occurs
when
a. The closed path indicates a diagonal move
b. Two or more occupied cells are on the closed path but neither of them represents a corner of
the path
c. Two or more occupied cells on the closed path with minus sign are tied for lowest circled
value
d. The closed path indicates a cross move
137. The large negative opportunity cost value in an unused cell in a transportation table is chosen to
improve the current solution because
a. It represents per unit cost reduction
b. It represents per unit cost improvement
c. It ensures no rim requirement violation
d. It ensures rim requirement violation
138. If ui and vj are row and column numbers respectively, then the implied cost is given by:
a. ui + vj
b. ui – vj
c. ui × vj
d. ui / vj Program Evaluation and Review Technique
139. When total supply is equal to total demand in a transportation problem, the problem is said to
be
a. Balanced
b. Unbalanced
c. Degenerate
d. None of the above
140. Which of the following methods is used to verify the optimality of the current solution of the
transportation problem
a. Least cost method
b. Vogel’s approximation method
c. Modified distribution method
d. Hungarian method
141. If total supply is equal to total demand and the matrix elements are time elements then the
problem is
a. Balanced and Minimization Transportation problem
b. Unbalanced and Minimization Transportation problem
c. Balanced and Minimization Assignment problem
d. Unbalanced and Minimization Assignment problem
142. The solution of any transportation problem is obtained in how many stages?
a. Five
b. Four
c. Three
d. Two
143. An optimal solution is the ______ stage of a solution obtained by improving the initial
solution a. Third
b. First
c. Second
d. Final
144. MODI method is used to obtain____
a. Optimal solutions
b. Optimality test
c. Optimization
 d. Optimal solutions and Optimality test
145. Any feasible solution to a transportation problem containing m origins and n destinations is said to
be
a. Independent
b. Degenerate
c. Non-degenerate
d. Feasible
146. A path formed by allowing horizontal and vertical lines and the entire corner cells of which are
occupied is called as _______
a. Occupied path
b. Open path
c. Closed path
d. Semi-closed path
147. Transportation algorithm can be used for minimizing the transportation cost of _____ from O origins
and D destinations
a. Goods
b. Products
c. Items
d. Resources
148. If demand is lesser than supply then dummy demand node is added to make it a
____
a. Simple problem
b. Balanced problem
c. Transportation problem
d. Unbalanced Problem
 Module 3: Network Analysis
CPM, Project Crashing, PERT (MCQ = 55)

149. What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor and control large and
complex projects by using only one time factor per activity
a. Forecasting
b. Program evaluation review technique
c. Critical path method
d. Simulation
150. What network model enables engineer managers to schedule, monitor and control large and
complex projects by employing three time estimates per activity
a. Forecasting
b. Program evaluation review technique
c. Critical path method
d. Simulation
151. For a project manager to have an effective means of identifying and communicating the planned
activities and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the network techniques
is commonly known as CPM, what does CPM stands for?
a. Critical plan method
b. Coordinated plan method
c. Critical project method
d. Critical path method
152. For a project manager to have an effective means of identifying and communicating the planned
activities and their interrelationships, he must use a network technique. One of the network techniques
is commonly known as PERT, what does PERT stands for?
a. Project evaluation review technique
b. Program evaluation review technique
c. Path evaluation review technique
d. Project execution review technique
153. What is the benefit of using PERT/CPM network as integral component of project management
a. They furnish a consistent framework for planning, scheduling, monitoring and controlling
project
b. They illustrate the interdependencies of all tasks
c. They can be used to estimate the expected project completion dates as well as the probability
that the project will be completed by a specific date
d. All of the above
154. The CPM was developed by Rand and Walker in which year?
a. 1957
b. 1958
c. 1959
d. 1960
155. In what year was PERT developed?
a. 1957
b. 1959
c. 1960
d. 1958
156. PERT stands for
a. Program Evaluation and Review Technique
b. Project Evaluation and Review Technique
c. Program Execution and Review Technique
d. Path Evaluation and Review Technique
157. At the completion of the forward and backward passes, the slack for an activity is given by
the
a. Difference between early start and early finish
b. Difference between early start and latest finish
c. Difference between latest start and early finish
 d. Difference between latest start and latest finish
158. The basic difference between PERT and CPM is that
a. PERT deals with events and CPM with activities
b. Critical Path is determined in PERT only
c. Costs are considered on CPM only
d. Guessed times are used in PERT and evaluated times in CPM.
159. In a PERT network, the earliest (activity) start time is the
a. Earliest time that an activity can be finished without delaying the entire project
b. Latest time that an activity can be started without delaying the entire project
c. Earliest time that an activity can be started without violation of precedence
requirements
d. Latest time that an activity can be finished without delaying the entire project
160. The time by which activity completion time can be delayed without affecting the start of
succeeding activities, is known as
a. Interfering float
b. Total float
c. Duration
d. Free float
161. Completion of an activity on CPM network diagram, is generally known
a. Event
b. Node
c. Connector
d. Event, Event and Connector
162. The performance of a specific task in CPM is known
a. Dummy
b. Event
c. Activity
d. Contract.
163. Forward pass calculations are done to find _____ occurrence times of
events
a. Exact
b. Earliest
c. Latest
d. Approximate
164. Backward pass calculations are done to find ________ occurrence times of
events
a. Tentative
b. Definite
c. Latest
d. Earliest
165. An activity whose start or end cannot be delay without affecting total project completion time is
called ______ activity
a. Dummy
b. Non-critical
c. Critical
d. Important
166. Floats for critical activities will be always _____
a. One
b. Zero
c. Highest
d. Same as duration of the activity
167. The artificial activity which indicates that an activity following it, cannot be started unless the
preceding activity is complete, is known as
a. Free float
b. Event
c. Dummy
d. Constant
168. An important assumption in PERT calculations is
 a. Activity times are normally distributed
b. Activity times are independent
c. Activity times are net calculation
d. Activity times are dependent
169. In PERT, slack time equals
a. EST + t
b. LST-EST
c. Zero
d. EFT-EST
170. A dummy activity is required when
a. Two or more activities have the same starting events
b. Two or more activities have different ending events
c. Two or more activities have the same ending events
d. The network contains Two or more activities have the identical starting and ending
events
171. PERT analysis computes the variance of the total project completion time as
a. The sum of the variances of all activities in the project
b. The sum of the variances of all activities not on the critical path of the project
c. The variance of the final activity of the project
d. The sum of the variances of all activities on the critical path
172. _________ an activity that must be completed prior to the start of another
activity
a. Sequential activity
b. Preceding activity
c. Succeeding activity
d. Concurrent activity
173. Two or more activities are _________ in nature if the end of one activity is the start of
another
a. Sequential activity
b. Preceding activity
c. Succeeding activity
d. Concurrent activity
174. _______ is an activity that cannot be started till one or more preceding activities are
complete
a. Sequential activity
b. Preceding activity
c. Succeeding activity
d. Concurrent activity
175. Activities that can be performed simultaneously are called ____
a. Sequential activity
b. Preceding activity
c. Succeeding activity
d. Concurrent activity
176. If an activity has zero activity slack it
a. Means that the project is expected to be delayed
b. Must be a dummy activity
c. Is on the critical path
d. Must be artificial activity
177. Pick the wrong relationship
a. Interfering float = total float – free float
b. Total float = free float + independent float
c. Total float > free float > independent float
d. Free float = total float – head event slack
178. Chose the correct condition of the following
a. Crash Direct Cost > Normal Direct Cost, Crash time > Normal time
b. Crash Direct Cost < Normal Direct Cost, Crash time > Normal time
c. Crash Direct Cost < Normal Direct Cost, Crash time < Normal time
 d. Crash Direct Cost > Normal Direct Cost, Crash time < Normal time
179. The project cost in general involves _________ types of costs
a. Three
b. One
c. Two
d. Four
180. The rate at which the cost increases is called as the _______
a. Crash slope
b. Crash time
c. Crash cost
d. Total crash
181. It is assumed that less is the project duration more is the _______ associated
with
a. Profit
b. Cost
c. Sales
d. Revenue
182. The total completion time is referred as the
a. Crash slope
b. Crash time
c. Crashing cost
d. Total crash
183. The two types of costs involved in project crashing are
a. Direct and indirect
b. Total and partial
c. Visible and invisible
d. Measurable and non-measurable
184. In project crashing, rent and overheads are treated as
a. Significant
b. Insignificant
c. Direct
d. Indirect
185. In project crashing, the costs associated with actual activities (e.g. material, machinery,etc) are called
___ costs
a. Visible
b. Measurable
c. Direct
d. Indirect
186. In project crashing, as we systematically, crash the project, direct cost of project
______
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remain same
d. None of the above
187. In project crashing, as we systematically, crash the project, indirect cost of
project________
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remain same
d. None of the above
188. In project crashing, as we systematically, crash the project, total project cost before reaching optimal
point
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remain same
d. None of the above
189. In project crashing, as we systematically, crash the project, total project cost after reaching optimal
 point
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remain same
d. None of the above
190. When the normal period is reduced to some extent to the period called
_______
a. Crash slope
b. Crash time
c. Crash cost
d. Total crash
191. Indirect cost ______ when the project is crashed
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Becomes zero
d. Becomes one
192. The longest of all paths through the network is the ______
a. Crucial path
b. Time taking path
c. Dummy path
d. Critical path
193. Activity to be crashed is selected based on
a. Critical activity with minimum crash cost
b. Non- Critical activity with minimum crash cost
c. Critical activity with maximum crash cost
d. Non-Critical activity with maximum crash cost
194. In PERT, the time estimate calculated by using formula (a+4m+b)/6 is called _____
time
a. Optimistic
b. Pessimistic
c. Most likely
d. Expected
195. In PERT, the expected project completion time is also called as ______ project completion
time
a. Average
b. Normal
c. Mean
d. Critical
196. The maximum time in which an activity will be completed assuming all possible delays and
postponements is termed as
a. Optimistic time
b. Most likely time
c. Pessimistic time
d. Expected time
197. The probability of normal curve is ______
a. 60%
b. 50%
c. 45%
d. 55%
198. Optimistic time is the ________ possible time required for the completion of the
activity
a. Longest
b. Shortest
c. Unequal
d. Normal
199. Pessimistic time is the ___________ time period expected to complete the
activity
 a. Longest
b. Shortest
c. Unequal
d. Normal
200. _________ is the time estimate within which the activity is completed more
often
a. Optimal time
b. Optimistic time
c. Pessimistic time
d. Most likely time
201. When we combine the value of optimistic time, most likely time and pessimistic time in a statistical
manner, we can arrive at the _________ time of an activity
a. Optimal
b. Expected
c. Normal
d. Equal
202. The ________ analysis completion time of the activity is a random variable characterized by some
probability distribution
a. CPM
b. Graphical
c. LPP
d. PERT
203. Which of the following is not a concept associated with CPM
a. Normal time
b. Probability
c. Normal cost
d. Crash cost
 Module 4: Job Sequencing and Theory of Games
Unit1 : Job Sequencing Problem (MCQ = 24)

204. S.M. Johnson’s algorithm derives the minimum completion times for all “no passing” cases. “no
passing” means
a. The order of processing jobs through the first facility must preserved at the last facility
b. The order of processing jobs through the first facility must preserved for next facility
c. The order of processing jobs through the first facility must preserved for all subsequent
facility
d. The order of processing jobs through the first facility must preserved only first facility
205. An approach that minimizes the total time for sequencing a group of jobs through two week centres
while minimizing total idle time in the work Centre
a. Gross materials requirement plan
b. Load report
c. Lot-for-lot
d. Johnson’s rule
206. When a set of jobs must pass through two workstations whose sequence is fixed, _______ is the rule
most commonly applied
a. Johnson’s rule
b. Earliest due date rule
c. First come, first serve rule
d. Slack time remaining
207. __________ is the process of determining which job to start first and in what order other jobs should
be processed on the machine or in work Centre
a. Job sequencing
b. Priority rules
c. Batch production
d. None of these
208. The technological order of machine to be operated is fixed in a problem having
a.1 machine and ‘n’ jobs
b.2 machines and ‘n’ jobs
c. 3 machine and ‘n’ jobs
d.‘n’ machines and 2 jobs
209. In sequencing if smallest time for a job belongs to machine-1 then the job has to placed
a. In the middle
b. In the starting
c. At end
d. At bottom
210. In sequencing the time involved in moving jobs from one machine to another
is
a. Negligible
b. Positive number
c. Significant
d. None of them
211. ____ operation is carried out on a machine at a time
a. Two
b. At least one
c. Only one
d. None of them
212. Processing time Mij’s are _______ of order of processing the jobs
a. Dependent
b. Negligible
c. Independent
d. None of them
213. If there are n jobs to be performed, one at a time, on each of m machines, the possible sequences
 would be
a. (n!)m
b. (n)m
c. (m!)n
d. (m)n
214. In a 2 job and ‘n’ machine sequencing problem we find that
a. Sum of processing time of both the jobs is same,
b. Sum of idle time of both the jobs is same,
c. Sum of processing time and idle time of both the jobs is same
d. Sum of processing time and idle time of both the jobs is different
215. The fundamental assumption of Johnson‘s method of sequencing is
a. No Passing rule
b. Passing rule
c. Same type of machines are to be used
d. Non zero process time
216. ____________ to be used are of different types
a. Variable
b. Resources
c. Machine
d. Articles
217. Each _______ started on a machine is to be performed up to the completion on that
machine
a. Time
b. Job
c. Sequence
d. Slot
218. The time taken by the jobs in moving from one machine to another is very negligible and is taken as
equal to
a. One
b. Three
c. Two
d. Zero
219. ______ on machine refers to the time a machine remain idle during the total elapsed
time
a. Optimal time
b. Minimum time
c. Idle time
d. Maximum time
220. _______ time is the time interval between starting the first job and completing the last job
a. Total elapsed
b. Total slack
c. Total time
d. Total cost
221. The time required by each job on each machine is called _____
a. Elapsed
b. Idle
c. Processing
d. Average
222. The order in which machines are required for completing jobs is called _____
a. Machines order
b. Working order
c. Processing order
d. Job order
223. The time between the starting of the first job and completion of the last job in sequencing problems is
called
a. Total time
b. Assignment time
 c. Elapsed time
d. Idle time
224. The time during which a machine remains waiting or vacant in sequencing problem is called _____
time
a. Processing
b. Waiting
c. Idle
d. Free
225. In sequencing problem, the order of completion of jobs is called ______
a. Completion sequence
b. Job sequence
c. Processing order
d. Job order
226. The total time required to complete all the jobs in a job sequencing problems is known as
_____
a. Idle time
b. Processing time
c. Elapsed time
d. Processing order
227. In sequencing if smallest time for a job belongs to machine-2 then the job has to
placed
a. In the middle
b. In the starting
c. At end
d. At the bottom
 Module 4: Job Sequencing and Theory of Games
Unit2 : Theory of Games (MCQ = 23)

228. Who developed the Game Theory

a. J.R. Hicks
b. William J. Baumol
c. Neumann Morgenstern
d. Samuelson P.T.
229. What is a saddle point?
a. Equilibrium point
b. Balanced growth point
c. Imbalanced growth point
d. Unstable equilibrium point
230. In a constant sum game, what is true?
a. Both players get equal gains
b. Both players adopt the same strategy
c. Mixed strategies are adopted by players
d. What one player gains, the other loses
231. When the minimax and maximin in a pay-off matrix are equal
a. It is a indeterminate solution
b. It is a strictly determined game
c. It can not be solved by a two-person constant sum game
d. It cannot be solved by a zero-sum game
232. In game theory, a choice that is optimal for a firm no matter what its competitors do is referred to
as
a. The dominant strategy
b. The game-winning choice
c. Super optimal
d. A gonzo selection
233. Which of the following circumstances in an industry will result in a Nash equilibrium?
a. All firms have a dominant strategy and each firm chooses its dominant
strategy
b. All firms have a dominant strategy but only some choose to follow it
c. All firms have a dominant strategy and none choose it
d. None of the above is correct.
234. Which of the following describes a Nash equilibrium?
a. A firm chooses its dominant strategy, if one exists
b. Every competing firm in an industry chooses a strategy that is optimal given the choices of
every firm
c. Market price results in neither a surplus nor a shortage
d. All firms in an industry are earning zero economic profits
235. Game theory is concerned with
a. Predicting the results of bets placed on games like roulette
b. The choice of an optimal strategy in conflict situations
c. Utility maximization by firms in perfectly competitive markets
d. The migration patterns of caribou in Alaska
236. In game theory, the outcome or consequence of a strategy is referred to as the
a. Payoff
b. Penalty
c. Reward
d. End-game strategy
237. A strategy that is best regardless of what rival players do is called
a. First-mover advantage
b. A Nash equilibrium strategy
c. Tit-for-tat
d. A dominant strategy
238. A common assumption about the players in a game is that
a. Neither player knows the payoff matrix
b. The players have different information about the payoff matrix
c. Only one of the players pursues a rational strategy
d. The specific identify of the players is irrelevant to the play of the game
239. In a zero-sum game,
a. What one player minus, the other loses
b. The sum of each player’s winnings if the game is played many times must be zero
c. The game is fair-each person has an equal chance of winning
d. Long-run profits must be zero
240. The participants in a game are called ______
a. Clients
b. Members
c. Customers
d. Players
241. A game having more than two players is called ______ game
a. Multi-person
b. Many person
c. N-person
d. Unknown person
242. The outcome of the interaction of selected strategies of opponents in a games is called
______-
a. Income
b. Profit
c. Payoff
d. gains
243. In a game, the alternatives or courses of action available to each player are called
_____
a. Options
b. Choices
c. Actions
d. strategies
244. A situation in a game where, in the payoff matrix, maximin of row is equal to minimax of column is
called___
a. Centre point
b. Main point
c. Saddle point
d. Equal point
245. The various alternatives or courses of actions available to each player in a game are called as
____
a. Saddle points
b. Strategies
c. Pay-off
d. Gains
246. A _______ provides a complete definition of how a player will play a game
a. Mixed strategy
b. Pure strategy
c. Complete strategy
d. Impure strategy
247. A ______ is the one in which the player selects more than one strategy with fixed probabilities before
playing the game.
a. Mixed strategy
b. Pure strategy
c. Complete strategy
d. Impure strategy
248. A ______ occurs when each player selects one of his strategies
a. Profit
 b. Decision
c. Play
d. Game
249. The choice of the strategy is made by both the _________ simultaneously
a. Decision maker
b. Manager
c. Competitor
d. Player
250. Every combination of strategies determines an outcome known as _____
a. Regret
b. Payoff
c. Saddle point
d. Profit matrix