04/07/2021 CODE-A

MM : 720 FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2021 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Test - 7

Topics covered :
Physics : pqEcdRo rFkk nzO;] fo|qrpqEcdh; izsj.k] izR;korhZ /kkjk] fo|qrpqEcdh; rjaxsa
Chemistry : i`"Bh; jlk;u] rRoksa ds i`FkDdj.k ds lkekU; fl)kar o izØe p-CykWd rRo (oxZ 15-18), d rFkk f-CykWd
rRo
Botany : oa'kkxfr dk vk.kfod vk/kkj
Zoology : fodkl
funsZ'k :
(i) mi;qDr xksys dks Hkjus ds fy, dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy isu dk ç;ksx djsAa
(ii) fpUg xgjs gksus pkfg, rFkk xksys dks iw.kZr% Hkjk tkuk pkfg,A
(iii) çR;sd çfof"V ds fy, dsoy ,d xksyk HkjsaA
(iv) xksys dks dsoy fn, x, LFkku esa gh HkjsaA
(v) mÙkj iqfLrdk ij jQ dk;Z fcYdqy ugha djuk pkfg, rFkk mÙkj iqfLrdk ij 'osr&nzo ;k vU; fdlh feVkus okys
inkFkZ dk ç;ksx u djsaA
(vi) çR;sd ç'u ds 4 vad gSaA çR;sd xyr mÙkj ds fy, dqy çkIrkadksa esa ls ,d vad ?kVk fn;k tk,xkA

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer: lgh mÙkj dk p;u dhft;s%

1. The magnetic susceptibility of a substance at 1. dejs ds rki ij ,d inkFkZ dh pqEcdh; izo`fÙk
room temperature is –0.0002. The susceptibility –0.0002 gSA tc rki dks 2°C rd c<+k;k tkrk gS]
when the temperature is increased by 2°C, will be rc pqEcdh; izo`fÙk gksxh
(1) –0.0001 (2) 0.0002 (1) –0.0001 (2) 0.0002
(3) –0.0002 (4) 0.0005
(3) –0.0002 (4) 0.0005
2. ,d ufrekih bl izdkj vfHkfoU;kflr gS fd bldk
2. A dip circle is oriented with its plane at an angle of ry fdlh LFkku ij pqEcdh; ;kE;ksÙkj ds lkFk 30°
30° with the magnetic meridian at a place. The
apparent angle of dip shown by the dip circle is
ds dks.k ij gSA ufrekih }kjk n'kkZ;h ufr dk
45°. The true angle of dip at the place will be vkHkklh dks.k 45° gSA bl LFkku ij okLrfod ufr
dks.k gksxk
 3
(1) tan1   (2) tan–1(2)  3
 2  (1) tan1   (2) tan–1(2)
 2 
(4) tan1  
1
(3) tan–1(4) (4) tan1  
1
(3) tan–1(4)
2 2

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Test-7 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

3. A magnet of magnetic moment M oscillating freely 3. pqEcdh; vk?kw.kZ M dh ,d pqEcd i`Foh ds {kSfrt
in earth’s horizontal magnetic field makes n pqEcdh; {ks= esa Lora= :i ls nksyu dj jgh gS] ;g
oscillations per minute. If the magnetic moment is
izfr feuV n nksyu djrh gSA ;fn pqEcdh; vk?kw.kZ
doubled and the earth’s horizontal field is also
doubled, then number of oscillations made per
dks nksxquk fd;k tkrk gS rFkk i`Foh ds {kSfrt {ks=
minute would be dks Hkh nksxquk fd;k tkrk gS] rc izfr feuV fd, x,
n
nksyuksa dh la[;k gksxh
(1) 2n (2)
2 n
(1) 2n (2)
2
(3) 4 2n (4) 2 2n
(3) 4 2n (4) 2 2n
4. A magnetic needle of magnetic moment 0.2 A-m2
4. pqEcdh; vk?kw.kZ 0.2 A-m2 dh ,d pqEcdh; lqbZ dks
is placed in a region with uniform magnetic field
4 T. The maximum torque experienced by the
,dleku pqEcdh; {ks= 4 T okys fdlh {ks= esa j[kk
needle will be tkrk gSA lqbZ }kjk vuqHko fd;k x;k vf/kdre cy
(1) 1 N-m (2) 4.6 N-m
vk?kw.kZ gksxk
(1) 1 N-m (2) 4.6 N-m
(3) 0.05 N-m (4) 0.8 N-m
(3) 0.05 N-m (4) 0.8 N-m
5. If L be the geometric length of a bar magnet then
5. ;fn L, ,d NM+ pqEcd dh T;kferh; yECkkbZ gS] rc
separation between the two poles is nearly
nks èkzqoksa ds eè; nwjh yxHkx gS
8 6
(1) L (2) L 8 6
10 7 (1) L (2) L
10 7
9 1 9 1
(3) L (4) L (3) L (4) L
3 2 3 2
6. A thin bar magnet of length 2L and magnetic 6. yEckbZ 2L rFkk pqEcdh; vk?kw.kZ M dh ,d iryh NM+
moment M, is bent at the mid-point so that the pqEcd dks eè;&fcanq ij bl izdkj eksM+k tkrk gS fd
angle between the two halves is 60°. The new nksuksa vk/ks Hkkxksa ds eè; dks.k 60° gSA NM+ pqEcd dk
magnetic moment of the bar magnet will be
uohu pqEcdh; vk?kw.kZ gksxk
M
(1) (2) 2M M
2 (1) (2) 2M
2
(3) 8M (4) 4M (3) 8M (4) 4M
7. The ultimate individual unit of magnetism in any 7. fdlh pqEcd esa pqEcdRo ds eq[; i`Fkd bdkbZ dks
magnet is called dgk tkrk gS
(1) North pole (2) South pole (1) mÙkjh /kzqo (2) nf{k.kh /kzqo
(3) Magnetic dipole (4) Quadrupole (3) pqEcdh; f}/kzqo (4) prq/kzqZoh
8. In a bar magnet, angle between the magnetic axis 8. ,d NM+ pqEcd es]a pqEcdh; v{k rFkk pqEcdh;
and magnetic moment is (choose the best vk?kw.kZ ds eè; dks.k gS ¼lcls lgh lEHkkfor mÙkj
possible answer) dk p;u dhft,½
(1) 0° (2) 60° (1) 0° (2) 60°
(3) 90° (4) 120° (3) 90° (4) 120°
9. A cylindrical bar magnet is cut parallel to magnetic 9. ,d csyukdkj NM+ pqEcd dks pqEcdh; v{k ds
axis such that it is divided in two equal parts, then lekUrj bl izdkj dkVk tkrk gS fd ;g nks cjkcj
the magnetic pole strength of a single piece of bar Hkkxksa esa foHkkftr gks tkrh gS] rc NM+ pqEcd ds
magnet will become ,dy Hkkx dk pqEcdh; /kzqo lkeF;Z
(1) Half (2) Two times (1) vk/kk gks tk,xk (2) nksxquk gks tk,xk
(3) Four times (4) Eight times (3) pkj xquk gks tk,xk (4) vkB xquk gks tk,xk

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-7 (Code-A)

10. The magnetic field due to a small bar magnet in 10. fuj{kh; fLFkfr esa ,d y?kq NM+ pqEcd ds dkj.k
equatorial position is B, the magnitude of pqEcdh; {ks= B gS] v{kh; fLFkfr ij leku nwjh ij
magnetic field at the same distance at axial
pqEcdh; {ks= dk ifjek.k gksxk
position will be
B
B (1) 2B (2)
(1) 2B (2) 2
2
(3) B (4) 4B
(3) B (4) 4B 11. fuEu esa ls pqEcdh; {ks= js[kkvksa ds xq.kksa ds lanHkZ esa
11. Among the following, choose the incorrect option xyr fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
regarding properties of magnetic field lines
(1) ,d pqEcd ¼;k ,d ifjukfydk½ dh pqEcdh; {ks=
(1) The magnetic field lines of a magnet (or a js[kk,sa lrr can ywi fufeZr djrh gSa
solenoid) form continuous closed loops
(2) {ks=] tgk¡ pqEcdh; {ks= rhozrk de gksrh gS]
(2) The region where magnetic field intensity is pqEcdh; {ks= js[kk,sa vf/kd l?ku gksrh gSa
less, the magnetic field lines are more
(3) pqEcd ds vanj {ks= js[kkvksa dh fn'kk nf{k.kh /kqzo
crowded
ls mÙkjh /kzqo dh vksj gksrh gS
(3) The direction of field lines inside the magnet is
from the South Pole to the North Pole (4) pqEcdh; {ks= js[kk,sa ,d nwljs ds lkFk izfrPNsfnr
ugha gksrh gSa
(4) Magnetic field lines do not intersect with each
other 12. pqEcdh; vk?kw.kZ 4 A-m2 dh ,d NM+ pqEcd dks x-z
12. A bar magnet of magnetic moment 4 A-m2 is
ry esa ,d oxZ ds fod.kZ ds vuqfn'k j[kk tkrk gS
placed along diagonal of a square in x-z plane rFkk bldk dsUnz ewy fcanq ij gSA y-v{k ij 1 m dh
with its center at origin. The magnetic field at a nwjh ij pqEcdh; {ks= (Vslyk es)a gS
distance 1 m on y-axis (in tesla) is (1) 10 (2) 4 × 10–7
(1) 10 (2) 4 × 10–7 (3) 4 × 10–2 (4) 8
(3) 4 × 10–2 (4) 8 13. fuEu nks dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft, rFkk lgh dFku
13. Consider the following two statements and choose
dk p;u dhft,A
the correct one dFku-A : ,d y?kq NM+ pqEcd ds fy,] fuj{kh;
Statement-A : For a short bar magnet, the fLFkfr ij pqEcdh; {ks=] nwjh dh r`rh; ?kkr ds
magnetic field at equatorial position varies O;qRØekuqikr esa ifjofrZr gksrk gSA
inversely proportional to third power of distance. dFku-B : ,d pqEcd dh fuj{kh; fLFkfr ij pqEcdh;
Statement-B : The direction of magnetic field at {ks= dh fn'kk] pqEcd ds pqEcdh; vk?kw.kZ ds
equatorial position of a magnet is antiparallel to izfrlekUrj gSA
the magnetic moment of magnet.
(1) dsoy dFku A lgh gS
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) dsoy dFku B lgh gS
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) nksuksa dFku lgh gSa
(3) Both statements are correct (4) u rks dFku A u gh dFku B lgh gS
(4) Neither statement A nor statement B is correct 14. ,d iw.kZ pØ ds fy, lehdj.k
14. The rms value of current given by equation I = (2 + 4sint) A }kjk O;Dr dh xbZ /kkjk dk rms
I = (2 + 4sint) A for a complete cycle is given by eku gS
(1) 2 A (2) 4 A (1) 2 A (2) 4 A

(3) 2 3 A (4) 4 3 A (3) 2 3 A (4) 4 3 A

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Test-7 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

15. The desirable properties for making permanent
magnets are
(1) High retentivity and high coercive force
(2) High retentivity and low coercive force
(3) Low retentivity and high coercive force
(4) Low retentivity and low coercive force
16. The coercivity for a certain permanent magnet is
4.0 × 104 A/m. This magnet is placed inside a long
solenoid of 40 turns/cm and a current is passed in
the solenoid to demagnetize it completely. Find
the current
(1) 10 A (2) 20 A
(3) 30 A (4) 5 A
15. LFkk;h pqEcdsa cukus ds fy, okafNr xq.k gS
(1) mPp /kkj.k'khyrk rFkk mPp fuxzgh cy
(2) mPp /kkj.k'khyrk rFkk fuEu fuxzgh cy
(3) fuEu /kkj.k'khyrk rFkk mPp fuxzgh cy
(4) fuEu /kkj.k'khyrk rFkk fuEu fuxzgh cy
16. fdlh fuf'pr LFkk;h pqEcd ds fy, fuxzkfgrk 4.0 ×
104 A/m gSA bl pqEcd dks 40 ?ksjs/cm dh ,d yEch
ifjukfydk ds vanj j[kk tkrk gS rFkk bls iw.kZr%
fopqEcfdr djus ds fy, ifjukfydk esa /kkjk xqtkjh
tkrh gSA /kkjk Kkr dhft,A
(1) 10 A (2) 20 A
(3) 30 A (4) 5 A

17. In an LCR series circuit, R = 10 , XL = 20  and 17. fdlh LCR Js.kh ifjiFk esa] R = 10 , XL = 20  rFkk
XC = 10 . The average value of current for a XC = 10  gSaA lzkr
s oksYVrk V = 20sin(30t) ds fy,
complete cycle, for source voltage V = 20sin(30t) ,d iw.kZ pØ ds fy, /kkjk dk vkSlr eku gS
is (1) 2 A (2) 0.5 A
(1) 2 A (2) 0.5 A (3) 3 A (4)'kwU;
(3) 3 A (4) Zero 18. fuEu esa ls dkSuls dFku lgh gS\
18. Which of the following statements are true? a. xfreku fo|qr vkos'k }kjk pqEcdh; {ks= mRiUu
a. Magnetic field is produced by moving electric gksrk gSA
charge.
b. pqEcdh; /kzqo dsoy xf.krh; vo/kkj.kk,sa gSa] budk
b. Magnetic poles are only mathematical
dksbZ okLrfod vfLrRo ugha gksrk gS
assumptions having no real existence.
c. ,d mÙkjh /kzqo fdlh nf{k.kkorZ /kkjk ds lerqY;
c. A north pole is equivalent to a clockwise
current and a south pole is equivalent to an
gksrk gS rFkk ,d nf{k.kh /kzqo fdlh okekorZ /kkjk
anticlockwise current. ds lerqY; gksrk gSA
d. A bar magnet is equivalent to a long, straight d. ,d NM+ pqEcd ,d yEcs] lh/ks /kkjkokgh rkj ds
current carrying wire. lerqY; gksrh gS
(1) a, b and c are correct (1) a, b rFkk c lgh gSa
(2) a and b are correct (2) a rFkk b lgh gSa
(3) b and d are correct (3) b rFkk d lgh gSa
(4) a and c are correct (4) a rFkk c lgh gSa
19. There are two circular coils of equal areas and 19. nks o`Ùkh; dq.Mfy;ksa dk {ks=Qy leku gS rFkk buls
equal magnetic flux through them. The
xqtjus okyk pqEcdh; ¶yDl leku gSA dq.Mfy;ksa ds
resistances of the coils are in the ratio 1:2. If the
magnetic flux through the coils is switched off,
izfrjks/kksa dk vuqikr 1:2 gSA ;fn dq.Mfy;ksa ls xqtjus
then the ratio of the charges flown through the okys pqEcdh; ¶yDl dks can fd;k tkrk gS] rc
coils will be dq.Mfy;ksa ls izokfgr vkos'kksa dk vuqikr gksxk
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 3 (1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 3
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 6 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 6

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-7 (Code-A)

20. Magnetic field B0 exists perpendicular inwards. 20. pqEcdh; {ks= B0 yEcor~ vanj dh vksj mifLFkr gSA
The resistance of the loop is R. When the switch ywi dk izfrjks/k R gSA tc fLop dks can fd;k tkrk
is made closed the current induced in the circuit is
gS rc ifjiFk esa izsfjr /kkjk gS

B0 v 3B0 v B0 v 3B0 v
(1) (2) (1) (2)
R R R R
2B0 v 2B0 v
(3)
R
(4) Zero (3) (4) 'kwU;
R
21. A solenoid has an inductance of 10 henry and a 21. ,d ifjukfydk dk izsjdRo 10 gsujh rFkk izfrjks/k 2 
resistance of 2 . It is connected to a 10 V gSA bls 10 V dh ,d cSVjh ls la;ksftr fd;k tkrk
battery. Time taken for the magnetic energy to
gSA pqEcdh; ÅtkZ ds vius vf/kdre eku ds (1/4)th
reach (1/4)th of its maximum value is
approximately
rd igq¡pus esa fy;k x;k le; yxHkx gS
(1) 2 s (2) 8 s
(1) 2 s (2) 8 s
(3) 3.5 s (4) 2.5 s
(3) 3.5 s (4) 2.5 s
22. 2 m yECkkbZ dh ,d /kkfRod NM+ (y-v{k ds vuqfn'k
22. A metallic rod of length 2 m (aligned along y-axis)
is moving with velocity 3 m/s directed along
lajsf[kr) /kukRed x-v{k ds vuqfn'k funsZf'kr 3 m/s ds
positive x-axis. If a uniform magnetic field osx ls xfreku gSA ;fn fdlh {ks= esa ,dleku
B   2i  3 j  T exists in the region. The induced pqEcdh; {ks= B   2i  3 j  T mifLFkr gSA NM+ esa
emf in the rod will be izsfjr fo- ok- c- gksxk
(1) 18 V (2) 10 V (1) 18 V (2) 10 V
(3) 5 V (4) Zero (3) 5 V (4) 'kwU;
23. A conductor ABOCD moves along its bisector with 23. ,d pkyd ABOCD fp= esa n'kkZ, vuqlkj 1 Wb/m2
a velocity 1 m/s through a perpendicular magnetic ds yEcor~ pqEcdh; {ks= esa 1 m/s ds osx ls blds
field of 1 Wb/m2, as shown in figure. If all the four lef}Hkktd ds vuqfn'k xfr djrk gSA ;fn lHkh
sides are 1 m length each, then the induced emf pkj Hkqtkvksa esa ls izR;sd dh yEckbZ 1 m gS] rc
between points A and D is fcanqvksa A rFkk D ds eè; izsfjr fo-ok-c- gS

(1) 0 (2) 1.41 volt (1) 0 (2) 1.41 oksYV

(3) 0.71 volt (4) None of these (3) 0.71 oksYV (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
24. The two coils of self-inductance 4 H and 4 H are 24. nks dq.Mfy;ksa dk Lo&izsjdRo 4 H rFkk 4 H gS] bUgsa
wound on the same iron core. The coefficient of leku ykSg ØksM ij yisVk tkrk gSA buds fy,
mutual inductance for them may be vU;ksU; izsjdRo xq.kkad gks ldrk gSA
(1) 4 H (2) 10 H (1) 4 H (2) 10 H
(3) 20 H (4) 64 H (3) 20 H (4) 64 H

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Test-7 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

25. The magnitude of emf induced in a 2 mH inductor 25. 2 mH ds ,d izsjd] ftlesa /kkjk 10–3 lsd.M esa 8 A ls
in which the current changes from 8 A to 6 A in 6 A rd ifjofrZr gksrh gS] esa izsfjr fo- ok- c- dk
10–3 second is
ifjek.k gS
(1) 2 × 10–6 V (2) 8 × 10–6 V
(1) 2 × 10–6 V (2) 8 × 10–6 V
(3) 4 V (4) 8 V
(3) 4 V (4) 8 V
26. A bar magnet and a wooden bar (identical in
dimension and mass) are released from same
26. ,d NM+ pqEcd rFkk ,d ydM+h dh NM+ (foek rFkk
height to fall under gravity passing through nzO;eku esa ,dleku) dks leku Å¡pkbZ ls pkyd
multiple rings of conducting material. Time taken inkFkZ dh dbZ oy;ksa ls xqtkjrs gq, xq#Ro ds izHkko
by bar magnet is T1 and by wooden bar is T2. esa fxjus ds fy, NksM+k tkrk gSA NM+ pqEcd }kjk
Then which is possible out of given options, fy;k x;k le; T1 gS rFkk ydM+h dh NM+ }kjk fy;k
(1) T1 = T2 (2) T1 > T2 x;k le; T2 gSA rc fn, x, fodYiksa esa ls dkSulk
(3) T1 < T2 (4) None of these laHko gS\
27. Among the following combinations of inductance (1) T1 = T2 (2) T1 > T2
(L) and resistance (R) in series, the largest value
of time constant is for
(3) T1 < T2 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
(1) L = 1 H, R = 2  (2) L = 1 H, R = 4 
27. Js.kh esa izsjdRo (L) rFkk izfrjks/k (R) ds fuEu la;kstuksa
(3) L = 4 H, R = 2  (4) L = 8 H, R = 2 
esa ls fdlds fy, dkykad dk vf/kdre eku gS\
28. Out of the following, choose the ray which does (1) L = 1 H, R = 2  (2) L = 1 H, R = 4 
not travel with the velocity of light in vacuum (3) L = 4 H, R = 2  (4) L = 8 H, R = 2 
(1) X-rays (2) Microwave 28. fuEu esa ls ml fdj.k dk p;u dhft,] tks fuokZr esa
(3) -rays (4) -rays izdk'k ds osx ls lapfjr ugha gksrh gS\
29. Which of the following has the largest (1) X-fdj.ksa (2) lw{e rjax
wavelength? (3) -fdj.ksa (4) -fdj.ksa
(1) Radio wave (2) x-ray 29. fuEu esa ls fdldh rjaxnSè;Z vf/kdre gksrh gS\
(3) Ultraviolet ray (4) Infra-red ray
(1) jsfM;ks rjax (2) x-fdj.k
30. An electromagnetic wave of intensity 30 W/m 2 is
(3) ijkcSaxuh fdj.k (4) vojDr fdj.k
incident on a surface of area 2 m 2. If the surface is
perfectly absorbing, then the amount of 30. 30 W/m2 rhozrk dh ,d fo|qr pqEcdh; rjax 2 m2
momentum transferred to the surface in 10 s will {ks=Qy ds fdlh i`"B ij vkifrr gksrh gSA ;fn i`"B
be iw.kZr% vo'kks"kd gS] rc 10 s esa i`"B dks LFkkukUrfjr
(1) 2 × 10–6 kg m/s (2) 2 × 106 kg m/s gksus okys laosx dh ek=k gksxh
(3) 4 × 10–9 kg m/s (4) 10–8 kg m/s (1) 2 × 10–6 kg m/s (2) 2 × 106 kg m/s
31. A parallel plate capacitor with circular plates of (3) 4 × 10–9 kg m/s (4) 10–8 kg m/s
radius R is being charged with a current I as
31. ,d lekUrj IysV la/kkfj=] ftldh o`Ùkh; IysVksa dh
shown in the figure. At the instant shown, the
f=T;k R gS] dks fp= esa n'kkZ, vuqlkj /kkjk I ls
displacement current between the places
R
R vkosf'kr fd;k tk jgk gSA n'kkZ, {k.k ij] rFkk R
enclosed between and R is given by 4
4 ds chp ifjc) LFkkuksa ds eè; foLFkkiu /kkjk gS

3i 15i 3i 15i
(1) (2) (1) (2)
4 16 4 16
i i
(3) i (4) (3) i (4)
4 4

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-7 (Code-A)

32. Consider the following electric circuit. At a given
instant, the current through the battery is 2 A and
increasing at a rate 1 A/s. The value of emf of the
cell is (assume the cell to be ideal)
32. fuEu fo|qqr ifjiFk ij fopkj dhft,A fn, x, {k.k
ij] cSVjh ls izokfgr /kkjk 2 A gS rFkk ;g 1 A/s dh
nj ls c<+ jgh gSA lsy ds fo- ok- c- dk eku gS
(ekuk lsy vkn'kZ gS)

(1) 4 V (2) 2 V
(1) 4 V (2) 2 V
(3) 6 V (4) 10 V
(3) 6 V (4) 10 V
33. The net impedance of the following circuit at very
low frequencies of the source will be 33. L=ksr dh cgqr de vko`fÙk;ksa ij fuEu ifjiFk dh
usV izfrck/kk gksxh

(1) 6  (2) 2 
(1) 6  (2) 2 
(3) 4  (4) 1 
(3) 4  (4) 1 
34. The power factor of a circuit consisting of a
resistor of resistance 3 ohm and an inductor of 34. 3 vkse izfrjks/k ds ,d izfrjks/kd rFkk 5 vkse izfr?kkr
reactance 5 ohm is ds ,d izsjd okys ,d ifjiFk dk 'kfDr xq.kkad gS
1 3 1 3
(1) (2) (1) (2)
34 34 34 34

1 2 1 2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
5 39 5 39

35. The ratio of inductive reactance of an inductor 35. tc ,d izsjd dks vko`fÙk Øe'k% 10 Hz rFkk 40 Hz
when connected with a source of frequency ds ,d lzkrs ds lkFk la;ksftr fd;k tkrk gS] rc
10 Hz and 40 Hz respectively is
bl izsjd ds izsjf.kd izfr?kkr dk vuqikr gS
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 5 : 4
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 5 : 4
36. In oscillating LC circuit, the total stored energy is
U and maximum charge upon capacitor is Q.
36. nksfyr LC ifjiFk es]a dqy laxzfgr ÅtkZ U gS rFkk
Q la/kkfj= ij vf/kdre vkos'k Q gSA tc la/kkfj= ij
When the charge upon the capacitor is , the
4 Q
vkos'k gS] rc iszjd esa laxzfgr ÅtkZ gS
energy stored in the inductor is 4

U U U U
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2 4 2 4

4 15U 4 15U
(3) U (4) (3) U (4)
3 16 3 16

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Test-7 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

37. Figure shows three oscillating LC circuit with 37. fp= esa ,dleku izsjdksa rFkk la/kkfj=ksa okys rhu
identical inductors and capacitors. If t1, t2, t3 are nksfyr LC ifjiFk n'kkZ, x, gSaA ;fn t1, t2, t3 ifjiFkksa
the time periods of the circuits I, II and III, then
I, II rFkk III ds vkorZdky gSa] rc

(1) t1 > t2 > t3 (2) t1 < t2 < t3 (1) t1 > t2 > t3 (2) t1 < t2 < t3
(3) t2 < t1 < t3 (4) t3  t1t2 (3) t2 < t1 < t3 (4) t3  t1t2

38. The charge on the capacitor in LC circuit is given d 2Q

38. LC ifjiFk esa la/kkfj= ij vkos'k dks lehdj.k
d 2Q dt 2
by equation + 16Q = 0. Find the frequency of
dt 2 + 16Q = 0 }kjk O;Dr fd;k tkrk gSA LC nksyu dh
LC oscillation vko`fÙk Kkr dhft,A
2 2
(1) Hz (2) 2Hz (1) Hz (2) 2Hz
 
4 4
(3) 4 Hz (4) Hz (3) 4 Hz (4) Hz
 
39. Switch is in position 1 for a long time. At time 39. fLop yEcs le; ds fy, fLFkfr 1 esa gSA le;
t = 0, it is shifted to position 2. Find the maximum t = 0 ij] bls fLFkfr 2 rd foLFkkfir fd;k tkrk gSA
charge which will accumulate on capacitor la/kkfj= ij laxzfgr gksus okyk vf/kdre vkos'k Kkr
dhft,A

 C E E
(1)   (2)
 L R  2C R   C E
(1)   (2)
E
 L R  2C R 
E LE
(3)  LC  (4) C  R LE
R    LC 
E
(3) (4) C  R
R  
40. In A.C generator increasing the number of turns in
the coil 40. A.C tfu= esa dq.Myh esa ?ksjksa dh la[;k c<+kus ij
(1) Decreases the Electromotive force (EMF) (1) fo|qr okgd cy (EMF) ?kVrk gS
(2) Electromotive force (EMF) remains same (2) fo|qr okgd cy (EMF) leku jgrk gS
(3) Increases the Electromotive force (EMF) (3) fo|qr okgd cy (EMF) c<+rk gS
(4) Electromotive force (EMF) becomes zero (4) fo|qr okgd cy (EMF) 'kwU; gks tkrk gS

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-7 (Code-A)

41. For a generator of armature coil resistance 20  41. yksM izfrjks/k 10  ds lkFk 20  izfrjks/k dh vkesZpj
with load resistance 10 , current flowing is dq.Myh ds tfu= ds fy,] izokfgr /kkjk
5 amp. The efficiency of this generator is 5 ,fEi;j gSA bl tfu= dh n{krk gS
(1) 33.33% (2) 66.66% (1) 33.33% (2) 66.66%
(3) 76.66% (4) 96.6% (3) 76.66% (4) 96.6%
42. If the peak emf produced by AC generator is 42. ;fn AC tfu= }kjk mRiUu f'k[kj fo- ok- c-
440 volt and coil of area 20 cm 2 is rotated at the 440 oksYV gS rFkk 20 cm2 {ks=Qy dh dq.Myh dks 0.1
speed 1000 radian/sec in 0.1 T magnetic field, T ds pqEcdh; {ks= esa 1000 jsfM;u@lsd.M dh pky
find the number of turns in coil. ls ?kqek;k tkrk gS] dq.Myh esa ?ksjksa dh la[;k Kkr
(1) 2200 (2) 1100 dhft,A
(3) 4400 (4) 8000 (1) 2200 (2) 1100
(3) 4400 (4) 8000
43. The r.m.s. value of current from t = 0 to t = 3 s for
43. /kkjk i = (3t) A ds fy, t = 0 ls t = 3 s rd /kkjk dk
the current i = (3t) A is
r.m.s. eku gS
(1) 2 A (2) 1.45 A
(1) 2 A (2) 1.45 A
(3) 4 A (4) 5.19 A (3) 4 A (4) 5.19 A
44. Consider the following two statements regarding 44. Vªkl
a QkWeZj ds lanHkZ esa fuEu nks dFkuksa ij fopkj
transformers and choose the correct one dhft, rFkk lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
Statement-A : For step up transformer, Vs > Vp so dFku-A : mPpk;h VªkalQkWeZj ds fy,] Vs > Vp blfy,
Ns > Np and Is < Ip Ns > Np rFkk Is < Ip
Statement-B : For step down transformer, Vs < Vp dFku-B : vipk;h VªkalQkeZj ds fy,] Vs < Vp blfy,
so Ns < Np and Is > Ip Ns < Np rFkk Is > Ip
(1) Only statement A is correct (1) dsoy dFku A lgh gS
(2) Only statement B is correct (2) dsoy dFku B lgh gS
(3) Both statements are correct (3) nksuksa dFku lgh gSa
(4) u rks dFku A u gh dFku B lgh gS
(4) Neither statement A nor statement B is correct
45. ,d vkn'kZ Vªkl a QkeZj 20 V izkFkfed fuos'kh oksYVrk
45. An ideal transformer converts a 20 V primary input
dks 100 V f}rh;d oksYVrk esa :ikUrfjr djrk gSA
voltage to 100 V in secondary. The current in
;fn izkFkfed dq.Myh esa /kkjk 20 A gS] rc f}rh;d
secondary if the current in primary is 20 A is
dq.Myh esa /kkjk gS
(1) 4 A (2) 20 A (1) 4 A (2) 20 A
(3) 0.3 A (4) 40 A (3) 0.3 A (4) 40 A

CHEMISTRY
46. Physical states of dispersed phase and dispersion 46. Qkse esa ifjf{kIr izkoLFkk rFkk ifj{ksi.k ekè;e dh
medium in foam respectively are HkkSfrd voLFkk,a Øe'k% gSa
(1) Gas and gas (2) Liquid and liquid (1) xSl rFkk xSl (2) nzo rFkk nzo
(3) Gas and solid (4) Gas and liquid (3) xSl rFkk Bksl (4) xSl rFkk nzo
47. Sulphur sol is an example of 47. lYQj lkWy fdldk mnkgj.k gS\
(1) Multimolecular colloids (1) cgqvk.kfod dksykWbM
(2) Associated colloids (2) laxqf.kr dksykWbM
(3) Macromolecular colloids (3) o`gnvk.kfod dksykWbM
(4) Emulsion colloids (4) ik;l dksykWbM
48. Bredig’s Arc method involves 48. czsfMx vkdZ fof/k esa gksrk gS
(1) Only dispersion (1) dsoy ifj{ksi.k
(2) Only oxidation (2) dsoy vkWDlhdj.k
(3) Only condensation (3) dsoy la?kuu
(4) Both condensation and dispersion (4) la?kuu o ifj{ksi.k nksuksa

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Test-7 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

49. Select the method which is used for purification of 49. dksykWbMksa ds 'kqf)dj.k ds fy, iz;qDr fof/k dk p;u
colloids? dhft,A
(1) Peptization (1) isIVhdj.k
(2) Electrodialysis
(2) fo|qrviksgu
(3) Electrical disintegration
(3) fo|qrh; fo?kVu
(4) Electrophoresis
(4) fo|qrd.k lapyu
50. In which of the following option, formed AgI sol is
positive? 50. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl fodYi esa izkIr AgI lkWy
(1) 100 ml 0.1 M AgNO3 and 50 ml 0.2 M KI /kukosf'kr gksrk gS\
(2) 50 ml 0.1 M AgNO3 and 100 ml 0.2 M KI (1) 100 ml 0.1 M AgNO3 rFkk 50 ml 0.2 M KI
(3) 150 ml 0.1 M AgNO3 and 150 ml 0.2 M KI (2) 50 ml 0.1 M AgNO3 rFkk 100 ml 0.2 M KI
(4) 150 ml 0.1 M AgNO3 and 100 ml 0.1 M KI (3) 150 ml 0.1 M AgNO3 rFkk 150 ml 0.2 M KI
51. Select the ion of highest coagulating value for (4) 150 ml 0.1 M AgNO3 rFkk 100 ml 0.1 M KI
coagulation of hydrated metallic oxide sol of 51. ,syqfefu;e ds ty;ksftr /kkfRod vkWDlkbM lkWy ds
aluminium
Ldanu ds fy, mPpre Ldanu eku okys vk;u dk
(1) Al3+ (2) Mg2+
p;u dhft,A
(3) S2– (4) [Fe (CN)6 ]4– (1) Al3+ (2) Mg2+
52. Select the correct statement among the following. (3) S2– (4) [Fe (CN)6 ]4–
(1) Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic 52. fuEufyf[kr esa ls lgh dFku dk p;u dhft,A
sols (1) nzoLusgh lkWy nzofojks/kh lkWy ls vf/kd LFkk;h
(2) Lyophilic colloids are weakly solvated than gksrs gSa
lyophobic colloids (2) nzoLusgh dksykWbM nzofojks/kh dksykWbM dh vis{kk
(3) Lyophobic sols are also called protective sols nqcZy :i ls foyk;d ladfjr gksrs gSa
for protection of lyophilic sols (3) nzofojks/kh lkWy dks nzoLusgh lkWy ds j{k.k ds
(4) Gold sol is lyophilic sol fy, j{k.k lkWy Hkh dgk tkrk gS
53. The principal emulsifying agent for o/w emulsion is (4) xksYM lkWy nzoLusgh lkWy gksrk gSa
(1) Proteins 53. o/w izdkj ds ik;l ds fy, eq[; ik;lhdkjd gS
(2) Long chain alcohols (1) izkV
s hu
(3) Lampblack (2) yEch J`a[kyk ds ,YdksgkWy
(4) Heavy metal salts of fatty acids (3) dkty
54. Incorrect characteristic of chemisorption is (4) olh; vEyksa ds Hkkjh /kkrq yo.k
(1) It is caused by chemical bond formation 54. jklk;fud vf/k'kks"k.k dk xyr vfHky{k.k gS
(2) It is highly specific in nature (1) ;g jklk;fud ca/k fuekZ.k ds dkj.k gksrk gS
(3) Enthalpy of adsorption is low (2) ;g vR;Ur fof'k"V izÑfr dk gksrk gS
(i.e. 20-40 kJ mol–1) (3) vf/k'kks"k.k ,UFkSYih de
(4) It is irreversible (vFkkZr 20-40 kJ mol–1) gksrh gS
55. Which among the following is an ore of iron? (4) ;g vuqRØe.kh; gS
(1) Siderite (2) Bauxite 55. fuEufyf[kr esa ls vk;ju dk v;Ld dkSulk gS
(3) Zincite (4) Calamine (1) flMsjkbV (2) ckWDlkbV
56. Select the reaction which is involved in calcination (3) ftadkbV (4) dSykekbu
of ore? 56. v;Ld ds fuLrkiu esa gksus okyh vfHkfØ;k dk p;u
dhft,
(1) 2 Cu2S + 3O2  2Cu2O + 2SO2
(1) 2 Cu2S + 3O2  2Cu2O + 2SO2
(2) FeO + SiO2  FeSiO3
(2) FeO + SiO2  FeSiO3
(3) 2PbS + O2  2PbO + SO2
(3) 2PbS + O2  2PbO + SO2
 
(4) Fe2O3. xH2O(s)  Fe2O3 (s) + xH2O(g) (4) Fe2O3. xH2O(s)  Fe2O3 (s) + xH2O(g)

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-7 (Code-A)

57. The element which shows only +3 oxidation state 57. dkSulk rRo dsoy +3 vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk n'kkZrk gS\
is (1) U (2) Ac
(1) U (2) Ac (3) Am (4) Np
(3) Am (4) Np 58. xSfy;e dks ifj"Ñr fd;k tkrk gS\
58. Gallium is refined by (1) ok"i izkoLFkk ifj"dj.k }kjk
(1) Vapour phase refining
(2) o.kZysf[kdh fof/k }kjk
(2) Chromatographic method
(3) e.My ifj"dj.k }kjk
(3) Zone refining
(4) nzko&xyu }kjk
(4) Liquation
59. xksYM ds fo{kkyu ds nkSjku izkIr ladqy vk;u gS
59. Complex ion formed during leaching of gold is
(1) [Au (CN)2 ]– (2) [Au (CN)]–
(1) [Au (CN)2 ]– (2) [Au (CN)]–
(3) [Au (CN)4 ]3– (4) [Au (CN)3 ]2–
(3) [Au (CN)4 ]3– (4) [Au (CN)3 ]2–
60. dPps yksgs ,oa <yosa yksgs esa mifLFkr dkcZu dk
60. Percentage of carbon present in pig iron and cast
iron respectively are
izfr'kr gS
(1) 4% and 40% (2) 40% and 4% (1) 4% rFkk 40% (2) 40% rFkk 4%

(3) 4% and 3% (4) 4% and 10% (3) 4% rFkk 3% (4) 4% rFkk 10%
61. During metallurgy of iron, which oxide is reduced 61. vk;ju ds /kkrqdeZ ds nkSjku okR;k HkV~Vh esa rki
by CO in blast furnace in temperature zone of 900 e.My 900 –1500 K esa dkSulk vkWDlkbM CO }kjk
–1500 K? vipf;r gks tkrk gS?
(1) SiO2 (2) FeO (1) SiO2 (2) FeO
(3) Fe2O3 (4) Fe3O4 (3) Fe2O3 (4) Fe3O4
62. Solvent used for extraction of copper from its low 62. fuEu Js.kh ds v;Ld ls dkWij ds fu"d"kZ.k ds fy,
grade ore, is iz;qDr foyk;d gS
(1) NaCl (2) NaOH (1) NaCl (2) NaOH
(3) Dil H2SO4 (4) KCl (3) ruq H2SO4 (4) KCl
63. Copper matte mainly contains
63. dkWij esV esa eq[;r% gksrk gS
(1) CuCO3 (2) Cu2O
(1) CuCO3 (2) Cu2O
(3) Cu2S (4) Cu(OH)2
(3) Cu2S (4) Cu(OH)2
64. Most basic hydride of group 15 elements is
64. oxZ 15 ds rRoksa dk lokZf/kd {kkjh; gkbMªkbM gS
(1) NH3 (2) PH3
(1) NH3 (2) PH3
(3) AsH3 (4) SbH3 (3) AsH3 (4) SbH3
65. In which of the following, ammonia gas is formed 65. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlesa ,d mRikn ds :i esa
as one of the product?
veksfu;k xSl izkIr gksrh gS\
(1) (NH4 )2 SO4  NaOH 
(1) (NH4 )2 SO4  NaOH 

(2) Ba (N3 )2  
(2) Ba (N3 )2  

(3) (NH4 )2 Cr2O7   
(3) (NH4 )2 Cr2O7  

(4) NH4Cl (aq) + NaNO2 (aq)  (4) NH4Cl (aq) + NaNO2 (aq) 
66. Acidic colourless oxide of nitrogen is 66. ukbVªkt
s u dk vEyh; jaxghu vkWDlkbM gS
(1) NO (2) N2O (1) NO (2) N2O
(3) N2O3 (4) N2O4 (3) N2O3 (4) N2O4

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Test-7 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

67. Incorrect match of name of Oxyacids is 67. vkWDlhvEyksa ds uke dk xyr feyku gS
(1) H2N2O2 : Hyponitrous acid (1) H2N2O2 : gkbiksukbVªl vEy
(2) HNO2 : Nitrous acid (2) HNO2 : ukbVªl vEy
(3) H2S2O7 : Pyrosulphurous acid (3) H2S2O7 : ik;jkslY¶;wjl vEy
(4) H2S2O8 : Peroxodisulphuric acid
(4) H2S2O8 : ijvkWDlksMkblY¶;wfjd vEy
68. gkbiksQkWLQksjl vEy tc AgNO3 dks vipf;r djrk
68. Which is not observed in the product when
gS] rks mRikn esa dkSulk izsf{kr ugha gksrk\
hypophosphorous acid reduces AgNO3?
(1) HNO2 (2) H3PO4
(1) HNO2 (2) H3PO4 (3) /kkfRodflYoj (4) HNO3
(3) Metallic silver (4) HNO3 69. fdl gkbMªkbM ds vipk;h xq.k/keZ gksus dh laHkkouk
69. Which hydride is least likely to possess reducing U;wure gS\
property? (1) H2O (2) H2S
(1) H2O (2) H2S (3) H2Se (4) H2Te

(3) H2Se (4) H2Te

70. lQsn QkWLQksjl dh Fkk;ksfuy DyksjkbM ds lkFk
vfHkfØ;k ij izkIr gksrs gSa
70. White phosphorous on reaction with thionyl
(1) PCl3 + SO2 + S2Cl2
chloride produces
(2) PCl5 + SO2
(1) PCl3 + SO2 + S2Cl2 (2) PCl5 + SO2 (3) PCl5 + SO2 + S2Cl2
(3) PCl5 + SO2 + S2Cl2 (4) PCl3 + SO2 (4) PCl3 + SO2
71. Number of P–OH bond(s) present in ortho- 71. vkWFkksZ&QkWLQksjl vEy esa mifLFkr P–OH ca/k@ca/kksa
phosphorous acid is dh la[;k gS
(1) Zero (2) 1 (1) 'kwU; (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3 (3) 2 (4) 3
72. Correct order of bond dissociation energy of 72. gkbMªkstu gSykbMksa dh ca/k fo;kstu ÅtkZ dk lgh
hydrogen halides is Øe gS
(1) HF > HCl > HBr > HI (1) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(2) HI > HBr > HCl > HF (2) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
(3) HI > HCl > HBr > HF
(3) HI > HCl > HBr > HF
(4) HF > Hl > HBr > HCl
(4) HF > Hl > HBr > HCl
73. fufnZ"V izØe esa iz;qDr mRizsjdksa dk xyr leqPp; gS
73. Incorrect set of catalysts used in the mentioned
(1) Mhdu izØe: CuCl2
process is
(2) lEidZ izØe: SO2 (g)
(1) Deacon’s process: CuCl2
(3) vksLVokYM izØe: Pt/Rh xst
(2) Contact process: SO2 (g)
(4) gScj izØe: vk;ju vkWDlkbM
(3) Ostwald’s process: Pt/Rh gauge
74. 'kq"d cq>s pwus dh Dyksjhu ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k ij izkIr
(4) Haber process: Iron oxide
gksrk gS
74. Dry slaked lime when reacted with chlorine gives
(1) fojatd pw.kZ (2) cq>k pwuk
(1) Bleaching powder (2) Slaked lime
(3) fcu cq>k pwuk (4) IykLVj vkWQ isfjl
(3) Quick lime (4) Plaster of Paris
75. czkes hu (g) v.kq ds tyvi?kVu ij izkIr gksrs gSa
75. Hydrolysis of bromine (g) molecule produces
(1) HBr rFkk HBrO4 (2) HBr rFkk HOBr
(1) HBr and HBrO4 (2) HBr and HOBr
(3) HBr rFkk HBrO3 (4) HOBr rFkk HBrO3
(3) HBr and HBrO3 (4) HOBr and HBrO3
76. fuEufyf[kr esa ls lgh dFku dk p;u dhft,
76. Select the correct statement among the following. (1) O2F2 Å"eh; :Ik ls OF2 dh vis{kk vf/kd LFkk;h gS
(1) O2F2 is thermally more stable than OF2 (2) I2O5 dk mi;ksx dkcZu MkbvkWDlkbM ds vkdyu
(2) I2O5 is used in the estimation of carbon dioxide esa fd;k tkrk gS
(3) Chemical formula of tear gas is CCl3NO2 (3) vJq xSl dk jklk;fud lw= CCl3NO2 gS
(4) Boiling point of HCl is more than HF (4) HCl dk DoFkukad HF ds DoFkukad ls vf/kd gksrk gS

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-7 (Code-A)

77. Hydrolysis of ICI5 gives 77. ICI5 ds tyvi?kVu ij izkIr gksrs gSa
(1) HI and HCl (2) HOCl and HIO3 (1) HI rFkk HCl (2) HOCl rFkk HIO3
(3) HIO3 and HCl (4) HIO3 and HClO3
(3) HIO3 rFkk HCl (4) HIO3 rFkk HClO3
78. Molecule of distorted octahedral structure is
(1) XeO3 (2) XeO2F2 78. fod`r v"VQydh; lajpuk okyk v.kq gS
(3) XeF6 (4) XeF2 (1) XeO3 (2) XeO2F2
79. Incorrect physical property of (noble gas) elements (3) XeF6 (4) XeF2
is 79. mRd`"V xSl rRoksa dk xyr HkkSfrd xq.k gS
(1) These are monoatomic in nature (1) ;s ,dyijek.kqd izd`fr ds gksrh gSa
(2) These are colourless, odourless and tasteless (2) ;s jaxghu] xa/kghu rFkk Loknghu gksrh gSa
(3) Due to presence of weak dispersion forces (3) nqcZy ifj{ksi.k cyksa dh mifLFkfr ds dkj.k buds
these have low melting and boiling points xyukad rFkk DoFkukad de gksrs gSa
(4) They do not have diffusing property through
(4) buesa jcj ;k dk¡p ;k IykfLVd esa ls folfjr
rubber or glass or plastic
80. Moles of permanganate ions required to react gksus dk xq.k ugha gksrk
completely with one mole of thiosulfate ions in 80. gYds {kkjh; ek/;e esa ,d eksy Fkk;kslYQsV vk;uksa ds
faintly alkaline medium is lkFk iw.kZr% vfHkfØ;k djus ds fy, fdrus eksy
5 ijeSaxusV vk;uksa dh vko';drk gksxh\
(1) (2) 5 5
2 (1) (2) 5
8 2
(3) (4) 2 8
3 (3) (4) 2
3
81. Which among the following element has highest
number of unpaired electrons in its ground state? 81. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl rRo dh mldh vk|koLFkk esa
(1) Co (2) Cr v;qfXer bysDVªkWuksa dh la[;k vf/kdre gS\
(1) Co (2) Cr
(3) Zn (4) Mn
(3) Zn (4) Mn
82. Select the pair of elements of almost similar atomic
size
82. yxHkx leku ijek.koh; vkdkj okys rRoksa ds ;qXe
dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Sc, Y (2) Zn, Mg
(1) Sc, Y (2) Zn, Mg
(3) Tc, Re (4) Y, Cd
(3) Tc, Re (4) Y, Cd
83. Element of least density among the following is
83. fuEufyf[kr esa ls U;wure ?kuRo okyk rRo gS
(1) Cu (2) Zn
(1) Cu (2) Zn
(3) Sc (4) Mn (3) Sc (4) Mn
o
84. Select the element of most positive E 3
/M2 84. fuEufyf[kr esa ls vR;f/kd /kukRed Eo 3 eku
M M /M2
among the following okys rRo dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Ti (2) V (1) Ti (2) V
(3) Fe (4) Co (3) Fe (4) Co
85. Which element does not liberate H2(g) on reaction 85. fdl rRo dh ruq vEyksa ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k ij H2(g)
with dil acids? eqDr ugha gksrh\
(1) Ti (2) Mn (1) Ti (2) Mn
(3) Zn (4) Cu (3) Zn (4) Cu
86. The stability of Cu2 (aq) is more than Cu (aq) 86. Cu2 (aq) dk LFkkf;Ro Cu (aq) dh vis{kk vf/kd
due to gksrk gS] bldk dkj.k gS
(1) Much more second ionization enthalpy of Cu (1) Cu dh f}rh; vk;uu ,UFkSYih cgqr vf/kd gksrh gS
(2) Much more negative hydration enthalpy of (2) Cu+(aq) dh vis{kk Cu2+(aq) dh _.kkRed
Cu2+(aq) than Cu+(aq) ty;kstu ,UFkSYih cgqr vf/kd gksrh gS
(3) Much more negative hydration enthalpy of (3) Cu2+(aq) dh vis{kk Cu+(aq) dh _.kkRed
Cu+(aq) than Cu2+(aq) ty;kstu ,UFkSYih cgqr vf/kd gksrh gS
(4) Much more first ionization enthalpy of Cu (4) Cu dh izFke vk;uu ,UFkSYih cgqr vf/kd gksrh gS

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Test-7 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

87. Which among the following is a froth stabiliser? 87. fuEufyf[kr esa ls >kx LFkk;hdkjd dkSulk gS\
(1) Pine oil (2) Fatty acids (1) phM+ dk rsy (2) olh; vEy
(3) Aniline (4) Sodium cyanide
(3) ,fuyhu (4) lksfM;e lk;ukbM
88. Magnetic moment (in BM) of Cr2+ ion is
88. Cr2+ vk;u dk pqEcdh; vk?kw.kZ (BM esa) gS
(1) 3 (2) 24
(1) 3 (2) 24
(3) 8 (4) 35
(3) 8 (4) 35
89. Lanthanoids ion of largest size among the
following is (Atomic numbers: Ce = 58, Nd = 60, 89. fuEufyf[kr esa ls o`gnre vkdkj okyk ySUFksukW;M
Sm = 62, Yb = 70) vk;u gS (ijek.kq Øekad: Ce = 58, Nd = 60,
Sm = 62, Yb = 70)
(1) Ce3+ (2) Nd3+
(1) Ce3+ (2) Nd3+
(3) Sm3+ (4) Yb3+
(3) Sm3+ (4) Yb3+
90. Select the correct statement among the following
90. fuEufyf[kr esa lgh dFku dk p;u dhft,
(1) Ce (IV) cannot oxidise water
(1) Ce (IV) ty dks vkWDlhd`r ugha dj ldrk
(2) Eu (II) is a strong reducing agent
(2) Eu (II) ,d izcy vipk;d gS
(3) Tb (IV) has fully-filled f-orbitals
(4) Mischmetal contains approximately 80% (3) Tb (IV) esa iw.kZ iwfjr f-d{kd gksrs gSa
lanthanoid metal (4) fe'kesVy esa yxHkx 80% ySUFksukW;M /kkrq gksrh gS

BOTANY
91. Select the incorrect statement from the following 91. fuEufyf[kr esa ls xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,A
(1) DNA acts as genetic material in eukaryotes, (1) DNA ;wdSfj;ksV~l] izksdSfj;ksV~l o fo"kk.kqvksa esa
prokaryotes and viruses vkuqoaf'kd inkFkZ dh rjg dk;Z djrk gS
(2) Nucleic acids do not function as structure (2) U;wfDyd vEy lajpuk v.kq dh rjg dk;Z ugha
molecules djrk gS
(3) RNA can also act as genetic material (3) RNA vkuqoaf'kd inkFkZ dh rjg Hkh dk;Z dj
(4) RNA mostly functions as a messenger ldrk gS
92. The molecule that can act as adapter, structural (4) RNA eq[;r% eSlsUtj dh rjg dk;Z djrk gS
and in some cases as catalytic is 92. dkSulk v.kq xzkgh] lajpukRed o dqN fLFkfr;ksa esa
(1) RNA (2) ATP mRizsjd dh rjg dk;Z dj ldrk gS\
(3) AMP (4) DNA (1) RNA (2) ATP
93. The term ‘Nuclein’ is referred to (3) AMP (4) DNA
(1) Semifluid matrix present in the nucleus 93. ^U;wfDyu* in ;g fufnZ"V djrk gS
(1) v/kZrjy vk|k=h dsanzd esa mifLFkr gksrk gS
(2) Fluid present in perinuclear space
(2) rjy ifjdsUnzdh; vodk'k esa mifLFkr gksrk gS
(3) Components of nucleolus
(3) dsfUnzd dk ?kVd gksrk gS
(4) An acidic substance present in nucleus
(4) vEyh; inkFkZ dsanzd esa mifLFkr gksrk gS
94. Genetic material in which of the following has least
number of nucleotides? 94. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlds vkuqoaf'kd inkFkZ esa
(1) Escheirchia coli
U;wfDy;ksVkbM~l dh la[;k fuEure gksrh gS\
(1) bLpsfjfp;k dksykbZ
(2)  × 174 bacteriophage
(2)  × 174 thok.kqHkksth
(3) Bacteriophage 
(3) thok.kqHkksth 
(4) Human WBC
(4) ekuo WBC
95. A bacterial cell has 2.42 × 106 bases in its circular
95. ,d thokf.od dksf'kdk ds o`Ùkkdkj DNA esa 2.42 ×
DNA. The number of phosphodiester bonds
106 {kkj gksrk gS] rks bl DNA esa mifLFkr
present in this DNA would be
QkWLQksMkb,LVj ca/k dh la[;k fdruh gksxh\
(1) 4.82 × 106 (2) 2.42 × 106 –2
(1) 4.82 × 106 (2) 2.42 × 106 –2
(3) 2.42 × 10 6 (4) 1.21 × 106 (3) 2.42 × 106 (4) 1.21 × 106

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-7 (Code-A)

96. Select the nitrogenous base(s) which is/are not 96. ml ukbVªkt s uh {kkj dk p;u dhft, tks DNA o
common between DNA and RNA RNA ds chp mHk;fu"B ugha gksrk gS@gksrs gSa
a. Thymine b. Guanine a. Fkkbehu b. Xokfuu
c. Adenine d. Uracil c. ,Msuhu d. ;wjkWfly
e. Cytosine e. lkbVkslhu
(1) d only (2) b, c and e (1) dsoy d (2) b, c rFkk e

(3) a and d (4) a only (3) a rFkk d (4) dsoy a

97. DNA esa QkWLQsV lewg fdlds lkFk lgyXu gksrk gS\
97. A phosphate group in DNA is linked with
(1) nks fHkUu fMvkWDlhjkbckst 'kdZjk ds 3 dkcZu o 5
(1) 3 carbon and 5 carbon of two different
deoxyribose sugar
dkcZu
(2) nks fHkUu fMvkWDlhjkbckst 'kdZjk ds 3 dkcZu
(2) 3 carbon of two different deoxyribose sugar
(3) fMvkWDlhjkbckst 'kdZjk ds 5 dkcZu o I;wfju {kkj
(3) 5 carbon of a deoxyribose sugar and
ds 7 dkcZu
7 carbon of a purine base
(4) fMvkWDlhjkbckst 'kdZjk dk 3 dkcZu o jkbckst
(4) 3 carbon of a deoxyribose sugar and
'kdZjk ds 5 dkcZu
5 carbon of ribose sugar
98. okWVlu o fØd us DNA ds lajpuk ds fy,
98. Watson and Crick proposed double helix model for f}&dqaMyh ekWMy dks izfrosfnr fd;k tks
the structure of DNA which was based on
_____}kjk mRikfnr fd, x, X-fdj.k foorZu ds
X-ray diffraction data produced by
vk¡dM+kas ij vk/kkfjr FkkA
(1) Erwin Chargaff
(1) bjfou pkjxkWQ
(2) Temin and Baltimore
(2) Vsfeu o ckYVheksjs
(3) Wilkins and Franklin
(3) fofYdal o ÝSadfyu
(4) Oswald Avery (4) vkslokYM ,osjh
99. Which of the following confer(s) stability to the 99. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu DNA ds dqaMyh lajpuk dks
helical structure of DNA? fLFkjrk iznku djrk gS\
a. Presence of 9-membered double ring structure a. I;wfju ds 9-lnL;h; f}&oy; lajpuk dh
of purines.
mifLFkfr
b. Stacking of planes of base pair one over the b. {kkj ;qXe ds ryksa dk ,d ds Åij ,d yxk;k
other.
x;k <+sj
c. Occurrence of hydrogen bonds between the c. izR;sd {kkj ;qXe ds {kkjksa ds chp gkbMªkt s u ca/k
bases of each base pair.
dh mifLFkfr
The correct one(s) is/are
lgh in gS@gSa
(1) c only (2) b only (1) dsoy c (2) dsoy b
(3) a and b (4) b and c (3) a rFkk b (4) b rFkk c
100. All of the following are true w.r.t. dsDNA, except 100. dsDNA ds lanHkZ esa fdlds vfrfjDr lHkh lgh gSa\
(1) Purines are generally more in number as (1) I;wfju] ik;fjfeMhu dh rqyuk esa lkekU;r% vf/kd
compared to pyrimidines gksrs gSa
(2) Adenine is equimolar with thymine (2) ,Msfuu Fkkbehu ds lkFk leeksyj gksrk gS
(3) Pentose sugar and phosphate residues occur (3) isUVkst 'kdZjk o QkWLQsV vo'ks"k leku la[;k esa
in equal number gksrk gS
(4) The ratio (adenine + guanine) : (thymine + (4) vuqikr (,Msuhu + Xokfuu) : (Fkkbehu + lkbVkslhu)
cytosine) is constant for all species lHkh tkfr;ksa ds fy, fu;r gksrk gS
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Test-7 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

101. Regarding central dogma of molecular biology 101. vk.kfod thofoKku ds eq[; fl)kar ds lanHkZ esa uhps
which statement given below is incorrect? fn;k x;k dkSulk dFku xyr gS\
(1) It explains unidirectional flow of information (1) ;g lwpuk ds ,dfn'kkRed izokg dh O;k[;k
(2) Information from DNA flows to RNA djrk gS
(3) Amino acid sequence in a polypeptide codes (2) lwpuk dk izokg DNA ls RNA esa gksrk gS
the information in mRNA (3) ikWyhisIVkbM esa vehuksa vEy vuqØe mRNA esa
(4) Information flows from RNA to trait expressing lwpuk dks dksM djrk gS
molecule (4) lwpuk dk izokg RNA ls y{k.k dks vfHkO;Dr
102. Histones are djus okys v.kq rd gksrk gS
(1) Responsible for DNA packaging in 102. fgLVksu
prokaryotes (1) izkds Sfj;ksV~l esa DNA lao"s Vu ds fy, mÙkjnk;h
(2) Rich in basic amino acids residues gksrs gSa
(2) {kkjh; vehuksa vEy vo'ks"k esa izpqj gksrs gSa
(3) Negatively charged proteins
(3) _.kkosf'kr izksVhu gSa
(4) Synthesized in nucleoid region
(4) U;wfDykW;M Hkkx esa la'ysf"kr gksrs gSa
103. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t.
103. gsVjksØkseSfVu ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku dk p;u
heterochromatin.
dhft,A
(1) This region synthesises non-histone
(1) ;g Hkkx ukWu&fgLVksu xq.klw=h; izksVhuksa dk
chromosomal proteins
la'ys"k.k djrk gS
(2) It is darkly stained region
(2) ;g xgjk vfHkjaftr Hkkx gS
(3) This is the region where chromatin is densely
(3) bl Hkkx esa ØkseSfVu l?ku :i ls laosf"Vr gksrk
packed
gS
(4) This region is transcriptionally inactive
(4) ;g Hkkx vuqys[kuh; :i ls fuf"Ø; gksrk gS
104. In the transformation experiment conducted by 104. fxzfQFk }kjk vk;ksftr fd, :ikarj.k iz;ksx esa tc
Griffith, when the mixture of heat killed S strain Å"ek e`r S izHksn okys U;weksdksdl o thfor R izHksn
Pneumococcus and live R strain Pneumococcus
okys U;wdksdksdl ds feJ.k dks pwgs esa var%f{kIr fd;k
was injected to mice, the mice died. What should
x;k rks pwgs dh e`R;q gks x;h] rks bldk mi;qDr
be the most appropriate reason behind this?
dkj.k D;k gks ldrk gS\
(1) R strain bacteria were transformed into S
(1) R izHksn okys thok.kq S izHksn esa :ikarfjr gks x,
strain
(2) S izHksn okys thok.kq thfor gks x,
(2) S strain bacteria became alive
(3) S izHksn okys thok.kq R izHksn esa :ikarfjr gks x,
(3) S strain bacteria were transformed in R strain
(4) e`r S izHksn okys thok.kq dk DNA fo"kkDr izkV s hu
(4) DNA of died S strain bacteria started to dk la'ys"k.k vkjaHk djrk gS
synthesize toxic proteins 105. vks- ,osjh] ,e- eSdkVhZ] lh- eSdfyvkWM ds dk;Z ls
105. Prior to work of O. Avery, M. McCarty and C. igys ;g ekuk tkrk Fkk fd vkuqoaf'kd inkFkZ
MacLeod, it was believed that genetic material is (1) QkWLQksfyfiM gS (2) U;wfDy;d vEy gS
(1) Phospholipid (2) Nucleic acid (3) RNA gS (4) izkV
s hu gS
(3) RNA (4) Protein 106. tc g"ksZ o pst }kjk fd, x, iz;ksx esa jsfM;kslfØ;
106. When the radioactive (32P) labelled (32P) ukekafdr thok.kqHkksth bZ-dksykbZ dks laØfer
bacteriophages infect E. coli in Hershey-Chase djrk gS rks fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ifj.kke ns[kk
experiment, which of the following results was x;k\
seen? (1) lqijusVsUV esa jsfM;kslfØ;rk gksrh gS
(1) Radioactivity in supernatant (2) bZ- dksykbZ dksf'kdk esa jsfM;kslfØ;rk gksrh gS
(2) Radioactivity in E. coli cell (3) thokf.od dksf'kdk esa jsfM;kslfØ;rk ugha gksrh
(3) No radioactivity in bacterial cell gS
(4) Radioactivity in the protein coat of infecting (4) laØfer thok.kqHkksth ds izkV s hu vkoj.k esa
bacteriophage jsfM;kslfØ;rk gksrh gS

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-7 (Code-A)

107. A molecule that acts as genetic material should 107. vkuqoaf'kd inkFkZ ds :i esa dk;Z djus okys v.kq dks
provide the scope for slow mutation. This is ean mRifjorZu ds iz;kstu iznku djus pkfg,] ;g
required for (1) vkuqoaf'kd inkFkZ ds 'kh?kz f}xq.ku ds fy,
(1) Quick duplication of genetic material vko';d gksrk gS
(2) thou :iksa ds mn~fodkl ds fy, vko';d gksrk
(2) Evolution of life forms
gS
(3) Genetic recombination during sexual (3) ySafxd tuu ds nkSjku vkuqoaf'kd iqu;ksZtu ds
reproduction
fy, vko';d gksrk gS
(4) Replication with highest degree of accuracy (4) ;FkkFkZrk ds mPp ijkl ds lkFk izfrÑrh;u ds
108. Ribozymes are fy, vko';d gksrk gS
108. jkbckstkbe
(1) Protein catalysts present in ribosomes
(1) jkbckslkse esa mifLFkr izkV
s hu mRizsjd gSa
(2) Enzymes that degrade RNA polymers
(2) RNA cgqydksa dks vi?kfVr djus okyk ,atkbe gS
(3) RNA molecules that act as catalyst (3) mRizsjd dh rjg dk;Z djus okyk RNA v.kq gS
(4) Enzymes that dissociate the sub-units of a (4) ,d&nwljs ls jkbckslkse ds mi&bdkbZ;ksa dks
ribosome from each other i`Fkd djus okyk ,atkbe gSa
109. An E. coli cell has hybrid DNA with one strand of 109. ,d bZ- dksykbZ dksf'kdk esa ,d jTtqd 14N o nwljk
14N and other of 15N. If this cell is allowed to grow jTtqd 15N okyk ,d ladj DNA gksrk gS] ;fn bl
in a medium containing 14NH4Cl as the only dksf'kdk dks dsoy ukbVªkstu L=ksr ds :i esa
nitrogen source, then what percent of cells in the 14NH Cl okys ekè;e esa o`f) djok;h tk, rks rhljh
4
third generation will have hybrid DNA?
ih<+h esa fdrus izfr'kr dksf'kdkvksa esa ladj DNA
(1) 25% (2) 50% gksxk\
(1) 25% (2) 50%
(3) 12.5% (4) 87.5%
(3) 12.5% (4) 87.5%
110. In which of the following organisms, replication 110. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdu thoksa esa muds DNA ds ,dy
begins only at a single particular region of its
fof'k"V Hkkx ls izfrÑrh;u vkjaHk gksrk gS\
DNA?
(1) ;qfXyuk fofjfMl (2) IykTeksfM;e
(1) Euglena viridis (2) Plasmodium (3) bLpsfjfp;k dksykbZ (4) jkbtksil LVksyksfuQj
(3) Escherichia coli (4) Rhizopus stolonifer 111. fuEufyf[kr esa ls xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,A
111. Select the incorrect statement from the following (1) DNA izfrÑrh;u ds fy, fdlh ÅtkZ dh
vko';drk ugha gksrh gS
(1) DNA replication does not require any energy
(2) fMvkWDlhjkbcksU;wfDy;kslkbM VªkbQkWLQsV DNA
(2) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates act as izfrÑrh;u esa lClVªsV dh rjg dk;Z djrk gS
substrate in DNA replication
(3) DNA izfrÑrh;u ds nkSjku pkj izdkj ds
(3) Four types of deoxyribonucleotides are fMvkWDlhjkbcksU;wfDy;kslkbM~l vko';d gksrs gSa
required during DNA replication (4) DNA dqaMyh ds [kqyus ds fy, ,atkbe dh
(4) Unwinding of DNA helix requires enzyme vko';drk gksrh gS
112. =qfVjfgr izfrÑrh;u dks vkjaHk djus ds fy, lcls
112. To start errorless replication, first of all a short
primer strand is synthesized which serves as a igys NksVs izkbej jTtqd dks la'ysf"kr fd;k tkrk gS
stepping stone. This synthesis is catalysed by tks LVsfiax LVksu dh rjg dk;Z djrk gS] ;g
(1) DNA polymerase (2) Topoisomerase
la'ys"k.k fdlds }kjk mRizsfjr gksrk gS\
(1) DNA ikWyhejst (2) Vksiksvkblksejst
(3) DNA gyrase (4) Primase
(3) DNA xkbjst (4) izkbest

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Test-7 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

113. For replication of long DNA molecules the two
strands cannot be separated in its entire length in
one go due to
(1) Very high requirement of energy
(2) Requirement of very high concentration of
enzymes
(3) Its helical structure
(4) Its very high molecular weight
113. yacs DNA v.kq ds izfrÑrh;u ds fy, fdlds dkj.k
nks jTtqdksa dks ,d ckj esa iwjh yackbZ esa vyx ugha
fd;k tk ldrk gS\
(1) ÅtkZ dh vR;fèkd vko';drk ds dkj.k
(2) ,atkbeksa ds vR;f/kd lkanzrk dh vko';drk ds
dkj.k
(3) bldh dqaMfyr lajpuk ds dkj.k
(4) blds vR;f/kd vk.kfod Hkkj ds dkj.k

114. Function of DNA ligase is to catalyze the 114. DNA ykbxst dk dk;Z
(1) ukbVªkstuh {kkj o isUVkst 'kdZjk ds chp
(1) Formation of glycosidic bond between
nitrogenous base and pentose sugar XykbdksflfMd ca/k ds fuekZ.k dks mRizsfjr djuk gS
(2) nks DNA [kaMksa ds chp QkWLQksMkb,LVj ca/k ds
(2) Formation of phosphodiester bond between
two DNA fragments
fuekZ.k dks mRizsfjr djuk gS
(3) nks jTtqdksa ds chp gkbMªkt s u ca/k ds [kaMu dks
(3) Breakage of hydrogen bonds between two
strands
mRizsfjr djuk gS
(4) 3  5 fn'kk esa DNA cgqydhdj.k dks mRizsfjr
(4) DNA polymerisation in 3  5 direction
djuk gS
115. Transcription and translation can be coupled in all, 115. vuqys[ku o vuqoknu fdlds vfrfjDr lHkh esa ;qfXer
except gks ldrs gSa\
(1) E. coli (2) Streptococcus (1) bZ- dksykbZ (2) LVªsIVksdksdl
(3) Drosophila (4) Bacteria (3) MªkslksfQyk (4) thok.kq
116. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. transcription. 116. vuqys[ku ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Both the strands of a DNA act as template (1) DNA dk nksuksa jTtqd VsEiysV dh rjg dk;Z
djrk gS
(2) It follows the principle of complementarity
(2) ;g laiwjdrk ds fl)karksa dk ikyu djrk gS
(3) RNA polymerisation occurs only in 5  3
(3) RNA dk cgqydhdj.k dsoy 5  3 fn'kk esa gksrk
direction
gS
(4) Promoter and terminator are the components
(4) mUuk;d o lekid vuqys[ku bdkbZ ds la?kVd
of the transcription unit
gksrs gSa
117. The DNA sequence that provides binding site for 117. RNA ikWyhejst ds fy, ca/ku LFky iznku djus okyk
RNA polymerase is present in
DNA vuqØe fdlesa mifLFkr gksrk gS\
(1) Structural gene (2) Terminator region (1) lajpukRed thu (2) lekid Hkkx
(3) Coding strand only (4) Promoter region (3) dsoy dksfMax jTtqd (4) mUuk;d Hkkx
118. Mostly in eukaryotes, the structural genes are said 118. vf/kdka'kr% ;wdSfj;ksV~l esa lajpukRed thu dks
to be monocistronic because, these genes eksuksflLVªkWfud dgk tkrk gS D;ksfa d
(1) Have only one intron (1) bu thuksa esa dsoy ,d bUVªkWu gksrk gS
(2) Have only one exon (2) bu thuksa esa dsoy ,d ,DlkWu gksrk gS
(3) Have codons that code for only one type of (3) bu thuksa esa dksMkWu gksrk gS tks dsoy ,d izdkj
amino acid ds vehuksa vEy ds fy, dksM djrk gS
(4) Synthesise their one specific polypeptide only (4) ;s thu dsoy vius ,d fof'k"V ikWyhisIVkbM dk
la'ys"k.k djrs gSa
119. Which of the following is/are not present in a
processed RNA? 119. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ,d lalkf/kr RNA esa
mifLFkr ugha gksrk gS?
(1) Exon (2) Uracil
(1) ,DlkWu (2) ;wjkWfly
(3) Intron (4) Glycosidic bonds
(3) bUVªkWu (4) XykbdksflfMd ca/k

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-7 (Code-A)

120. Match the following columns and select the 120. fuEufyf[kr dkWyeksa dk feyku dhft, rFkk lgh
correct option. fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
Column-I Column-II dkWye-I dkWye-II
a. tRNA (i) Forms ribosomes a. tRNA (i) jkbckslkse dk fuekZ.k
b. rRNA (ii) Provides templates djrk gS
for translation b. rRNA (ii) vuqoknu ds fy,
c. hnRNA (iii) Brings amino acids VsEiysV iznku djrk
during translation gS
d. mRNA (iv) A primary transcript c. hnRNA (iii) vuqoknu ds nkSjku
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) vehuksa vEy dks ykrk
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) gS
121. How many types of DNA-dependent RNA d. mRNA (iv) ,d izkFkfed vuqys[k
polymerase catalyse the transcription of mRNA, (1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
tRNA and rRNA in bacteria? (3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) Three (2) Single 121. fdrus izdkj ds DNA-vkfJr RNA ikWyhejst thok.kq
(3) Two (4) Five esa mRNA, tRNA o rRNA ds vuqys[ku dks mRizsfjr
djrs gSa\
122. The enzyme that facilitates the opening of DNA
(1) rhu (2) ,d
helix for transcription is
(3) nks (4) ik¡p
(1) RNA polymerase
122. dkSulk ,atkbe vuqys[ku ds fy, DNA dqqaMyh ds
(2) Topoisomerase
[kqyus esa lgk;d gksrk gS\
(3) DNA gyrase
(1) RNA ikWyhejst
(4) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(2) Vksiksvkblksejst
123. For transcription in bacteria, the initiation and (3) DNA xkbjst
termination of the process is associated with
(4) RNA vkfJr DNA ikWyhejst
(1)  and  factors respectively 123. thok.kq esa vuqys[ku ds fy, vkjaHku o lekiu dh
(2)  and  factors respectively izfØ;k fdlls tqM+h gksrh gS\
(3)  factors only (1) Øe'k%  o  dkjd
(4)  and  factors respectively (2) Øe'k%  o  dkjd
124. The process of transcription and translation take (3) dsoy  dkjd
place in the same compartment in all of the (4) Øe'k%  o  dkjd
following, except 124. fdlds vfrfjDr fuEufyf[kr lHkh esa vuqys[ku o
(1) Bacteria (2) Mitochondria vuqoknu dh izfØ;k leku d{k esa gksrh gS\
(3) Chloroplast (4) Nucleus (1) thok.kq (2) ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k
125. The newly synthesised mRNA does not require (3) gfjryod (4) dsn
a zd
any processing to become active i.e. there is no 125. u, la'ysf"kr mRNA dks lfØ; gksus ds fy, fdlh
post-transcriptional processing in izfØ;k dh vko';drk ugha gksrh gS vFkkZr ____esa
(1) Protozoans dksbZ fu"kspu i'p izfØ;k ugha gksrh gSA
(1) izkV
s kstksvu
(2) All unicellular organisms
(2) lHkh dksf'kdh; tho
(3) Bacteria
(3) thok.kq
(4) Anaerobes only
(4) dsoy vok;oh; tho
126. RNA polymerase III does not catalyse the
126. RNA ikWyhejst III fdlds la'ys"k.k dks mRizsfjr ugha
synthesis of
djrk gS\
(1) tRNA (2) hnRNA
(1) tRNA (2) hnRNA
(3) ScRNA (4) rRNA (3) ScRNA (4) rRNA

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Test-7 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

127. The synthesis of a catalyst that enhance the rate 127. ;wdSfj;ksV~l esa vuqoknu ds nkSjku isIVkbM ca/k ds
of peptide bond formation during translation in fuekZ.k dh nj dks c<+kus okys mRizsjd dk la'ys"k.k
eukaryotes is catalysed by fdlds }kjk mRizsfjr gksrk gS\
(1) Topoisomerase (2) Transaminase (1) Vksiksvkblksejst (2) Vªkl
a ,feust
(3) RNA polymerase I (4) RNA polymerase II (3) RNA ikWyhejst I (4) RNA ikWyhejst II
128. In post-transcriptional processing, splicing is 128. vuqys[kuh; i'p lalk/ku esa lac/a ku
(1) Removal of exons (1) ,DlkWu dk fu"dklu gksrk gS
(2) hnRNA dk [kaMu gksrk gS
(2) Fragmentation of hnRNA
(3) bUVªkWu dk fu"dklu o ,DlkWu dk la;kstu gksrk gS
(3) Removal of introns and joining of exons
(4) nks mRNAs dk la;kstu gksrk gS
(4) Joining of two mRNAs
129. loZizFke tkWtZ xSekm us rdZ fn;k fd
129. For the first time, George Gamow argued that
(1) izkV
s huksa esa vehuksa vEy vuqØe dk lwpuk DNA esa
(1) The information of the amino acid sequence in mifLFkr gksrk gS
proteins is present in DNA
(2) mRNA esa dksMkWu dkWekjfgr izk:i esa mifLFkr
(2) The codon in mRNA should be present in
gksus pkfg,
commaless fashion
(3) vkuqoaf'kd dksM dks {kkjksa ds ,d la;kstu dk
(3) The genetic code should constitute a
combination of bases
fuekZ.k djuk pkfg,
(4) ,d ,dy dksMkWu ,d ls vf/kd vehuksa vEy ds
(4) A single codon can code for more than one
amino acid
fy, dksM dj ldrk gS
130. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl dksMkWu ds nks dk;Z gksrs gSa\
130. Which of the following codons has two functions?
(1) UAA (2) AUG
(1) UAA (2) AUG
(3) UGG (4) UAG
(3) UGG (4) UAG 131. fcanq mRifjorZu dk ,d izk:fid mnkgj.k gS
131. A classical example of point mutation is (1) Øksfud ekbyksftul Y;wdsfe;k
(1) Chronic myelogenous leukemia (2) Mkmu fl.Mªkse
(2) Down’s syndrome (3) VuZj fl.Mªkse
(3) Turner’s syndrome (4) nk= dksf'kdk vjDrrk
(4) Sickle cell anemia 132. vuqoknu ds izFke izkoLFkk esa
132. In the first phase of translation (1) nks vehuksa vEyksa ds chp isIVkbM ca/k dk fuekZ.k
(1) Peptide bond is formed between two amino gksrk gS
acids
(2) isIVkbMy VªkalfQjst mRNA ij vehuksa vEy ds
(2) Peptidyl transferase catalyses the transfer of LFkkukarj.k dks mRizsfjr djrk gS
amino acid on mRNA
(3) vehuksa vEy lfØ;r gksrs gSa rFkk vius ltkrh;
(3) Amino acids are activated and linked to their tRNA ls lgyXu gksrs gSa
cognate tRNA
(4) mRNA ds lkFk jkbckslkse ;qXeksa dk rRNA
(4) rRNA of ribosome pairs with mRNA at the
le:ih LFkku ij gksrk gS
corresponding location
133. ySd vksisjkWu ds lanHkZ esa vlqesfyr dk p;u dhft,A
133. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. lac operon.
(1) lajpukRed – ikWyhisIVkbM la'ys"k.k ds
(1) Structural – Transcribe mRNA for thu fy, mRNA dks vuqysf[kr
genes polypeptide synthesis
djrk gS
(2) Regulatory – Functional in the (2) fu;ked – ySDVkst dh mifLFkfr esa
gene presence of lactose thu dk;kZRed gksrk gS
(3) Operator – Interacts with a (3) izpkyd – fu;ked v.kq ds lkFk
gene regulator molecule thu ijLij fØ;k djrk gS
(4) Promoter – Possess site for RNA (4) mUuk;d – RNA ikWyhejst la'ys"k.k
gene polymerase synthesis thu ds fy, LFky gksrk gS

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021
134. Which of the following statements is not true
about human genome?
(1) Less than 2 percent of the genome codes for
proteins
(2) The total number of genes estimated is 30000
(3) Chromosome-X has most genes
(4) Repeated sequences make up very large
portion of the human genome
135. The basis of DNA fingerprinting is
(1) Complementarity of DNA
(2) Variable number of tandem repeats
(3) Variability in size of genome
(4) The sequence of coding and non-coding
regions in the chromosomes
ZOOLOGY
136. Miller made the first successful simulation
experiment to assess the validity of the claim for
origin of organic molecules in the earlier earth
conditions. Which of the following is not related
with his experiment?
(1) He found, glycine, alanine and aspartic acid in
the mixture after 18 days experiment
(2) The control experiment comprised similar
arrangement except that it was devoid of
energy source
(3) He provided electric spark of 75,000 volt to the
mixture
(4) He used a mixture of H2O, CO2, H2, NH3 in his
experiment
137. For origin of life, which condition is not a pre-
requisite?
(1) Regular supply of replicators
(2) Error free replication
(3) A source of energy
(4) A partial isolation from general environment
138. The Big Bang theory put forth by Lemaitre talks of
singular huge explosion, unimaginable in physical
terms. This first led to the origin of
(1) Planets
(2) Solar system
(3) Universe
(4) Milky way
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Test-7 (Code-A)
134. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ekuo thukse ds lanHkZ esa
lgh ugha gS\
(1) nks izfr'kr ls de thukse izkV s huksa ds fy, dksM
djrk gS
(2) vkdfyr thuksa dh dqy la[;k 30000 gS
(3) xq.klw=-X esa vf/kdre thu gksrs gSa
(4) iqujko`r vuqØe ekuo thukse ds ,d cM+s Hkkx
dks cuk, j[krk gSA
135. DNA fQaxjfizfVax dk vk/kkj gS
(1) DNA dh laiwjdrk
(2) VsUMse iqujko`r dh fHkUu la[;k
(3) thukse ds vkdkj esa fHkUurk
(4) xq.klw=ksa esa dksfMax o ukWu&dksfMax Hkkxksa dk
vuqØe
136. feyj us izkjafHkd i`Foh ifjfLFkfr;ksa esa dkcZfud v.kqvksa
dh mRifÙk ds nkos dh oS/krk dk vkdyu djus gsrq
igyk lQy vuq:i iz;ksx fd;k FkkA fuEu esa ls
dkSulk buds iz;ksx ls lacaf/kr ugha gS\
(1) bUgksu
a s iz;ksx ds 18 fnuksa ckn feJ.k esa
Xykblhu] ,ykuhu rFkk ,LikfVZd vEy dh [kkst
dh Fkh
(2) fu;af=r iz;ksx esa leku O;oLFkk,a Fkh ctk,
blds dh blesa ÅtkZ L=ksr dh vuqifLFkfr Fkh
(3) bUgksu
a s feJ.k esa 75,000 oksYV dk fo|qr LikdZ
fn;k Fkk
(4) bUgksu
a s vius iz;ksx esa H2O, CO2, H2, NH3 ds
feJ.k dk mi;ksx fd;k Fkk
137. thou dh mRifÙk ds fy, dkSulh ifjfLFkfr dh igys
ls vko';drk ugha gksrh gS\
(1) jsfIydsVj dh yxkrkj vkiwfrZ
(2) =qfV eqDr izfrÑfr
(3) ÅtkZ dk L=ksr
(4) lkekU; okrkoj.k ls vkaf'kd i`FkDdj.k
138. yseS=s }kjk fn, x, fcx cSax fl)kar esa HkkSfrd vk/kkj
ij ,d fo'kky vdYiuh; foLQksV dh ckr dgh x;h
gSA blls lcls igys fdldh mRifÙk gqbZ FkhA
(1) xzg
(2) lkSj&e.My
(3) czãk.M
(4) vkdk'kxaxk
Test-7 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

139. The theory of special creation has three 139. fdlds vfrfjDr fo'ks"k l`f"V ds fl)kar esa rhu
connotations except vfHk/kku gSa\
(1) All living organisms that we see today were (1) lalkj esa vkt ftrus Hkh tho fo|eku gSa os ,sls
created as such gh lftZr gq, Fks
(2) The control experiment comprised similar (2) fu;af=r iz;ksx esa leku O;oLFkk,a Fkh ctk,
arrangement except that it was devoid of
blds dh blesa ÅtkZ L=ksr dh vuqifLFkfr Fkh
energy source
(3) i`Foh yxHkx 4000 o"kZ izkphu gS
(3) Earth is about 4000 years old
(4) mRifÙk ds le; ls gh tSo fofo/krk leku Fkh
(4) The diversity was always the same since
creation and will be same in the future also vkSj Hkfo"; esa Hkh ,slh gh jgsxh
140. Coacervates and microspheres are two important 140. dks,ljosV rFkk ekbØksLQs;j fdlds nks egRoiw.kZ
examples of mnkgj.k gSa\
(1) Protobiont (2) Eukaryotic cells (1) izkVs ksck;ksUV (2) ;wdSfj;ksfVd dksf'kdk
(3) Cyanobacteria (4) Prokaryotic cells (3) lk;ukscSDVhfj;k (4) izkd
s Sfj;ksfVd dksf'kdk
141. Who amongst the following scientists by 141. fuEu oSKkfudksa esa ls fdlus iz;ksx }kjk ;g iznf'kZr
experimentation demonstrated that life comes only
fd;k dh thou igys ls fo|eku tho ls vkrk gS\
from pre-existing life?
(1) MkfoZu (2) vksisfju
(1) Darwin (2) Oparin
(3) gkYMsu (4) ik'pj
(3) Haldane (4) Pasteur
142. Which of the following is a result of adaptive 142. fuEu esa ls dkSulk vuqdwyh fofdj.k dk ifj.kke gS\
radiation? a. MkfoZu fQap esa fofHkUu izdkj ds pksap
a. Different types of beaks in Darwin’s finches b. d'ks#dksa esa vxzikn dk :ikarj.k
b. Modification of forelimbs in vertebrates c. f'k'kq/kkuh ds fofo/k izdkj
c. Diverse varieties of Marsupials (1) dsoy a, b (2) dsoy b
(1) a, b only (2) b only (3) dsoy b, c (4) a, b, c
(3) b, c only (4) a, b, c 143. ,p- ,e- ,l- chxy fdlls lacfa /kr gS\
143. H.M.S Beagle is related with
(1) ysekdZ (2) okWysl
(1) Lamarck (2) Wallace
(3) pkYlZ MkfoZu (4) ,l-,y- feyj
(3) Charles Darwin (4) S. L. Miller
144. lsjksyksftdy izksVhu vo{ksi ijh{k.k ds vk/kkj ij
144. On the basis of serological protein precipitation
test, which one of the following can be considered fuEu esa ls fdl ,d dks tkfro`Ùk :i ls if{k;ksa ds
as phylogenetically more close relative of birds? vf/kd fudV ekuk tkrk gS\
(1) Turtles (2) Tuataras (1) VVZy (2) VqvkVkjl
(3) Crocodiles (4) Mammals (3) exjePN (4) Lru/kkjh
145. Sphenopsids (Horsetails) were directly evolved 145. LQsukW;M~l ¼?kksM+s dh iw¡N½ izR;{k :i ls fdlls
from fodflr gq, Fks\
(1) Tracheophytes (2) Rhynia (1) Vªsfd;ksQkbV~l (2) jkbfu;k
(3) Chlorophytes (4) Psilophytons
(3) DyksjksQkbV~l (4) flyksQkbVkWu~l
146. Which of the following supports the convergent
146. fuEu esa ls dkSu vfHklkjh fodkl dk leFkZu djrk gS \
evolution?
(a) HksfM+;k rFkk rLekfu;kbZ HksfM+;k
(a) Wolf and Tasmanian wolf
(b) Anteater and Numbat (b) phVh[kksj rFkk uEcSV
(c) Lemur and Spotted cuscus (c) ysej rFkk /kCcsnkj dLdl
(d) Koala and Bandicoot (d) dksvkyk rFkk cSfUMdwV
(1) a, d only (2) b, d only (1) dsoy a, d (2) dsoy b, d
(3) c, d only (4) a, b and c only (3) dsoy c, d (4) dsoy a, b rFkk c

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-7 (Code-A)

147. Select the example which is not related to
restricted distribution
(1) Pouched mammals in Australia
(2) Egg laying mammals in Australia
(3) Alligators in China and USA
(4) Sphenodon in New Zealand
148. Heart and brain of vertebrates show
a. Divergent evolution
b. Convergent evolution
147. ml mnkgj.k dk p;u dhft, tks izfrcaf/kr forj.k
ls lacaf/kr ugha gS\
(1) vkWLVªsfy;k esa FkSyhnkj Lru/kkjh
(2) vkWLVªsfy;k esa vaMk nsus okys Lru/kkjh
(3) phu rFkk USA ls ,fyxsVj
(4) U;wthyS.M esa LQsuksMkWu
148. d'ks#d dk ân; rFkk efLr"d D;k n'kkZrk gS\
a. vilkjh fodkl
b. vfHklkjh fodkl

c. Homology c. letkrrk
(1) dsoy a, b (2) dsoy b, c
(1) a, b only (2) b, c only
(3) a, b rFkk c (4) dsoy a, c
(3) a, b and c (4) a, c only
149. eNfy;ksa dk Lo.kZ ;qx gS
149. The golden age of fishes is
(1) flywfj;u vof/k (2) tqjkfld vof/k
(1) Silurian period (2) Jurassic period
(3) vksjMksfof'k;u vof/k (4) Msoksfu;u vof/k
(3) Ordovician period (4) Devonian period
150. fuEu esa ls dkSuls izk.kh esa mM+us ds fy, isVSft;e
150. Which of the following animal had patagium for Fks\
flying?
(1) VªkblsjksVksIl (2) bfDFk;kslksjl
(1) Triceratops (2) Ichthyosaurs
(3) fLVxkslksjl (4) VsjSuksMksu
(3) Stegosaurus (4) Pteranodon
151. Hkw&HkkSxksfyd le;kof/k dkyksa] vof/k;ksa vkSj ;qxksa esa
151. Geological time scale is divided into eras, periods foHkkftr gSA fuEu esa ls dkSuls dky ds varxZr
and epochs. Under which of the following era
Silurian period falls?
flywfj;u vof/k vkrh gS\
(1) ehlkstksbd (2) lhukstksbd
(1) Mesozoic (2) Coenozoic
(3) izkV s js kstksbd (4) iSfy;kstksbd
(3) Proterozoic (4) Palaeozoic
152. fuEu esa ls dkSulk fodYi “ck;ksftusfVd fu;e” ds
152. Which of the given option is known as “Biogenetic
uke ls tkuk tkrk gS?
law”?
(1) mikftZr vfHky{k.kksa dh oa'kkxfr
(1) Inheritance of acquired characters
(2) vksaVkstsuh] Qkbykstus h dh iqujko`fÙk djrk gS
(2) Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny
(3) izfrLi/kkZRed viotZu fl)kar
(3) Competitive exclusion principle
(4) fodkl ds yacs le; ds nkSjku vkdkj esa o`f)
(4) Tendency of animals to increase in size during djus dh izkf.k;ksa dh vknr
long course of evolution.
153. vkS|ksxhdj.k ds ckn 'osr jax ds 'kyHk dh thu
153. After industrialisation, the gene frequency of white
vko`fÙk ?kV xbZ FkhA ;g D;ksa gqvk Fkk\
winged moth decreased. This is because of
(1) /kq,a ds dkj.k 'kyHk ds vkuqoaf'kd xBu esa
(1) Change in genetic make up of moth due to
smoke
ifjorZu ds dkj.k
(2) /kq,a ds dkj.k ijHk{kh ds O;ogkj esa ifjorZu ds
(2) Change in behaviour of predator due to smoke
dkj.k
(3) Deforestation due to anthropogenic effect
(3) ekuoksn~Hkoh izHkko ds dkj.k ouksUewyu ds dkj.k
(4) Easy detection of moths by predators against
(4) vlkn`'; i`"BHkkx ij ijHk{kh }kjk 'kyHkksa dh
a contrasting background
vklkuh ls fn[kus ds dkj.k
154. Flowering plants appeared in which of the
following period? 154. fuEu esa ls dkSulh vof/k esa iq"ih; ikni izdV gq, Fks\
(1) ijfe;u (2) Vªkb,fld
(1) Permian (2) Triassic
(3) tqjkfld (4) ØsVfs 'k;l
(3) Jurassic (4) Cretaceous

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Test-7 (Code-A)
155. DDT when first introduced was most effective in
destroying mosquitoes and other insects. Within a
few years most insects developed resistance to it.
This does not support the concept of
(1) Natural selection
(2) Anthropogenic evolution
(3) Allopatric speciation
(4) Preadaptive nature of mutations
156. Which of the given factors cannot be considered
as the significant factor influencing speciation?
(1) Recombination (2) Mutation
(3) Genetic drift (4) Parthenogenesis
157. Read the following statements.
Statement A: Due to bottle neck effect, among the
survivors, certain alleles may be over represented,
some under represented and some alleles may be
totally eliminated.
Statement B: Due to bottle neck effect, path of
extinction of a species cannot be usually reversed.
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct
158. Which of these does not support Darwinism?
(1) Mimicry
(2) Symbiosis
(3) Parasite-host relationship
(4) Vestigial organs
159. Which of these is a postulate of theory given by
Hugo de Vries?
(1) Mutations are predictable
(2) Mutations occur in a fixed direction
(3) Mutations are continuous variations
(4) The same mutation can appear in more than
one individual at the same time or different
time.
160. Evolution occurs by ‘saltation’. This concept is
related to
(1) Lamarck (2) Hugo de Vries
(3) Darwin (4) Malthus
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Final Test Series for NEET-2021
155. DDT dks tc igyh ckj yk;k x;k Fkk rks ;g ePNjksa
vkSj vU; dhVksa dks u"V djus esa cgqr izHkkoh FkkA
dqN o"kks± esa vf/kdka'k dhVksa esa blds izfr izfrjks/k
fodflr gks x;kA ;g dkSuls fl)kar dk leFkZu ugha
djrk gS\
(1) izkÑfrd oj.k
(2) ekuoksn~Hkoh fodkl
(3) ,yksiSfVªd iztkfr dh mRifÙk
(4) mRifjorZuksa dh iwokZuqdwyh izÑfr
156. fuEu esa ls dkSuls dkjd dks iztkfr dh mRifÙk dks
izHkkfor djus okys egRoiw.kZ dkjd ds :i esa ugha
ekuk tk ldrk gS\
(1) iqu;ksZtu (2) mRifjorZu
(3) vkuqoaf'kd fMª¶V (4) vfu"ksdtuu
157. fuEu dFkuksa dks if<+,A
dFku A: ckWVy usd izHkko ds dkj.k mÙkjthfo;ksa esa
dqN ,yhy vf/kd iznf'kZr gksrs gSa] dqN de iznf'kZr
gksrs gSa rFkk dqN ,yhy iw.kZ :i ls fudy tkrs gSaA
dFku B: ckWVy usd izHkko ds dkj.k iztkfr;ksa ds
mUewyu ds iFk dks lkekU;r% fjolZ ugha fd;k tk
ldrk gSA
(1) nksuksa dFku A rFkk B lgh gSa
(2) nksuksa dFku A rFkk B xyr gSa
(3) dsoy dFku A lgh gS
(4) dsoy dFku B lgh gS
158. fuEu esa ls dkSulk ,d MkfoZuokn dk leFkZu ugha
djrk gS\
(1) vuqdj.k
(2) lgthfork
(3) ijthoh&ijiks"kh laca/k
(4) vof'k"V vax
159. buesa ls dkSulk â;wxks Mh osjht }kjk fn, x, fl)kar
dh ,d vfHk/kkj.kk gS\
(1) mRifjorZu iwokZuqes; gksrs gSa
(2) mRifjorZu ,d fu;r fn'kk esa gksrs gSa
(3) mRifjorZu lrr fofo/krk,a gSa
(4) leku mRifjorZu ,d gh le; ;k vyx le;
ij ,d ls vf/kd O;f"V esa gks ldrk gS
160. fodkl ^lkYVs'ku* }kjk gksrk gSA ;g vo/kkj.kk fdlls
lacfa /kr gS\
(1) ysekdZ (2) â;wxks Mh osjht
(3) MkfoZu (4) ekYFkl
Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-7 (Code-A)

161. According to the Hardy-Weinberg principle, allele 161. gkMhZ osucxZ fl)kar ds vuqlkj fdlds vfrfjDr
frequencies will remain constant if following
fuEu ifjfLFkfr;ksa esa ,yhy vko`fÙk;k¡ fu;r cuh jgrh
conditions are met except
gSa\
(1) There should be no gene or chromosomal
(1) dksbZ Hkh xq.klw=h; ;k thu mRifjorZu ugha gksuk
mutations
pkfg,
(2) All genes have an equal chance of being
passed on to next generation (2) lHkh thu dks vxyh ih<+h esas tkus dk cjkcj

(3) The population must be large

ekSdk gksrk gS
(3) lef"V cM+h gksuh pkfg,
(4) The population must reproduce sexually and
mating must be selective (4) lef"V ySafxd :i ls tuu djus okyh gksuh
162. The unit of natural selection is pkfg, rFkk oj.kkRed laxe gksuk pkfg,
(1) Population (2) Species 162. izkÑfrd oj.k dh bdkbZ gS

(3) Community (4) Individual (1) lef"V (2) iztkfr

163. Choose the most appropriate term when “Genes (3) leqnk; (4) O;f"V
are exchanged between two different populations 163. ml lgh in dk p;u dhft, tc “iztkfr;ksa ds nks
of a species.” fofHkUu lef"V;ksa ds chp thu dk fofue; gksrk gSA”
(1) Gene pool (2) Gene flow (1) thu iwy (2) thu izokg
(3) Genetic drift (4) Founder's effect (3) vkuqoaf'kd fMª¶V (4) laLFkkid izHkko
164. Which of the following example does not support 164. fuEu esa ls dkSulk mnkgj.k izxfrokn oj.k dk
progressive selection?
leFkZu ugha djrk gS\
(1) Evolution of giraffe
(1) thjkQ dk fodkl
(2) Birds at Rhode Island after sea storm
(2) leqnzh rwQku ds ckn jksM }hi ij i{kh
(3) Resistance of bacteria to chloramphenicol
(3) DyksjEs Qsfudksy ds izfr thok.kq dk izfrjks/k
(4) Industrial melanism
(4) vkS|ksfxd vfrÑ".krk
165. Which of the given hominid had true
165. fn, x, gksfefuM esa ls fdldk okLrfod vkWFkksZXuSFkl
orthognathous face?
psgjk Fkk\
(1) Neanderthal man (2) Heidelberg man
(1) fu,aMjFky ekuo (2) fgMsycxZ ekuo
(3) Cro-Magnon man (4) Java man
(3) Øks&eSXukWu ekuo (4) tkok ekuo
166. Arrange in the most accepted line of descent in
166. ekuo fodkl esa vojksg.k dh lcls LohÑr js[kk dks
human evolution and choose the correct option.
O;ofLFkr dhft, rFkk lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft,A
(a) Australopithecus (b) Homo erectus
(a) vksLVªsyksfiFksdl (b) gkseks bjSDVl
(c) Homo sapiens (d) Dryopithecus
(c) gkseks lSfi;Ul (d) Mªk;ksfiFksdl
(1) d – a – b – c (2) c – b – a – d
(1) d – a – b – c (2) c – b – a – d
(3) a – d – b – c (4) a – b – c – d
(3) a – d – b – c (4) a – b – c – d
167. Hominids with brain capacity close to 650-800cc, 167. yxHkx 650-800cc okys efLr"d {kerk okys gksfefuM
that probably did not eat meat were
tks laHkor% ekal [kkrs Fks
(1) Australopithecus
(1) vksLVªsyksfiFksdl
(2) Homo habilis
(2) gkseks gSfcfyl
(3) Homo erectus
(3) gkseks bjSDVl
(4) Homo neanderthalensis
(4) gkseks fu,UMjFkysfUll

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Test-7 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2021

168. Select the incorrect statement 168. xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Greater number of different mitochondrial DNA (1) vÝhfd;ksa dh rqyuk esa vk/kqfud ,f'k;kbZ yksxksa esa
sequences occur among modern Asians as fofHkUu ekbVksdk¡fMª;y DNA vuqØe dh cM+h
compared to Africans la[;k gksrh gS
(2) The banding pattern of chromosome 3 and 6 (2) ekuo rFkk fpEiSath esa xq.klw= 3 vkSj 6 dk cSfUMax
is similar in human and chimpanzee
iSVuZ leku gksrk gS
(3) There is 99% homology in haemoglobin of (3) ekuo rFkk xksfjyk ds gheksXyksfcu esa 99%
man and gorilla
letkrrk gksrh gS
(4) During ice age between 75,000-10,000 years
(4) 75,000-10,000 o"kZ iwoZ fge;qx ds nkSjku
ago, modern Homo sapiens arose
vk/kqfud gkseks lSfi;al mRiUu gq, Fks
169. Nearest ancestor of mammals from which they
169. Lru/kkfj;ksa ds lcls fudV iwoZt dk p;u dhft,
arose are
ftuls budh mRifÙk gqbZ gSA
(1) Sauropsids (2) Synapsids
(1) lkSjksfIlM~l (2) flusfIlM~l
(3) Thecodont (4) Therapsids
(3) xrZnarh (4) FksjsfIlM~l
170. Identify the mammals that existed as relatively
170. mu Lru/kkfj;ksa dh igpku dhft, tks NksVs pwgs tSls
inconspicuous group of small rat like creatures and
were dominated by large number of gigantic izk.kh ds vizR;{k lewg ds :i esa fo|eku Fks rFkk bu
reptiles of Mesozoic era? ij ehlkstksbd dky ds vf/kd la[;k esa fo'kky
(1) Prosimians (2) Tree shrews ljhl`i izHkkoh FksA
(1) izkls hfe;u (2) o`{k Jw
(3) Bats (4) Moles
(3) pexknM+ (4) eksy~l
171. All of the following indicates common ancestory
between chimpanzee and man except 171. fdlds vfrfjDr fuEu lHkh ekuo rFkk fpEiSUth ds
chp leku iwoZtrk n'kkZrs gSa\
(1) Resemblance in skull of adult chimpanzee and
adult human (1) o;Ld ekuo o o;Ld fpEiSath ds diky dh

(2) Similarity in proteins

lkn`';rk
(2) izkVs hu esa lekurk
(3) Similarity in genes
(3) thu esa lekurk
(4) Total amount of DNA in diploid cells is not
dissimilar (4) f}xqf.kr dksf'kdkvksa esa DNA dh dqy ek=k

172. Who amongst the following left behind very

vleku ugha gksrh gSa
elaborate cave paintings that reveal a culture like 172. fuEu esa ls fdlus cgqr foLrkjiwoZd xqQk fp= cuk,
our own and had the largest cranial capacity? Fks tks gekjs laLÑfr ds leku laLÑfr dks izdV djrs
(1) Neanderthal man (2) Cro-Magnon man gSa rFkk budh dikyh; {kerk lcls vf/kd Fkh\
(3) Heidelberg man (4) Peking man (1) fu,aMjFky ekuo (2) Øks&eSXukWu ekuo

173. Which of the given human ancestor perhaps first (3) ghMsycxZ ekuo (4) isfdax ekuo
started use of fire? 173. fn, x, ekuo iwoZt esa ls fdlus laHkor% lcls igys
(1) Homo habilis (2) Homo erectus vkx dk mi;ksx djuk izkjaHk fd;k Fkk\
(3) Australopithecus (4) Ramapithecus (1) gkseks gSfcfyl (2) gkseks bjSDVl
174. Complete the analogy (3) vksLVªsyksfiFksdl (4) jkekfiFksdl
Charles Darwin : Galapagos Islands
174. vuq:irk dks iwjk dhft,A
pkYlZ MkfoZu : xSykisxks }hi
Alfred Wallace: _______
vYÝsM okWysl : _______
(1) Carrabean islands (2) Galapagos islands
(1) dSjkfc;u }hi (2) xSykisxks }hi
(3) Malay Archipelago (4) Equador islands
(3) ekys vkfdZiys sxks (4) bD;w,Mj }hi

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Final Test Series for NEET-2021 Test-7 (Code-A)

175. Select the incorrect statement 175. xyr dFku dk p;u dhft,A
(1) Tracheophytes originate from chlorophytes (1) Vªsfd;ksQkbV~l dh mRifÙk DyksjksQkbV~l ls gqbZ
(2) Psilophytons are ancestors of Gnetales and Fkh
conifers (2) lkbyksQkbVkWu~l] usVy s ~l rFkk dkWfuQlZ ds iwoZt
(3) Bryophytes appeared earlier than gSa
pteridophytes (3) czk;ksQkbV~l] VsjhMksQkbV~l ls igys izdV gq, Fks
(4) Zosterophyllum arise from Rhynia type plants (4) tksLVsjksfQye] jkbfu;k izdkj ds ikni ls mRiUu
176. Presence of gill clefts and notochord in the gq, gSa
embryonic development of all vertebrates from 176. eNfy;ksa ls Lru/kkfj;ksa rd lHkh d'ks#dksa ds Hkzw.kh;
fishes to mammals supports the ifjo/kZu esa Dykse [kaM rFkk i`"BjTtq dh mifLFkfr
(1) Connecting links leFkZu djrh gSA
(2) Metamorphosis (1) lac/a k lw= dk
(3) Recapitulation theory (2) esVkekWQksZfll dk
(4) Anthropogenic evolution (3) iqujko`fÙk fl)kar dk
177. Match the following (4) ekuksn~Hkoh fodkl dk
Column-I Column-II 177. fuEu dk feyku dhft,A
I. Age of fishes a. Carboniferous period dkWye-I dkWye -II
II. Age of amphibians b. Devonian period I. eNfy;ksa dk ;qx a. dkcksZfuQsjl vof/k
III. Age of dinosaurs c. Quaternary period II. mHk;pjksa dk ;qx b. Msoksfu;u vof/k
IV. Age of humans d. Jurassic period III. Mk;uklksj dk ;qx c. DokVjusjh vof/k
I II III IV IV. euq";ksa dk ;qx d. tqjkfld vof/k
(1) a b d c I II III IV
(2) b a d c (1) a b d c
(2) b a d c
(3) b a c d (3) b a c d
(4) c d a b (4) c d a b
178. Select the organism/variety which is not the result 178. ml tho@fdLe dk p;u dhft, tks p;ukRed
of selective breeding iztuu dk ifj.kke ugha gS\
(1) Great dane dog (2) Pouter fantail (1) xzsV Msu dqÙkk (2) ikmVj QSuVsy
(3) Broccoli (4) Darwin’s finches (3) czkds ksyh (4) MkfoZu fQap
179. Sugar glider, koala, wombat show similarity in/as 179. 'kdZjk XykbMj] dksvkyk] oksEcSV fdl ,d esa lekurk
(1) Habitat n'kkZrs gSa\
(2) Feeding habit (1) vkokl
(3) Nocturnal habit (2) [kkus dh vknr
(4) Being part of marsupial radiations (3) fu'kkpj vknr
180. Fill in the blanks with correct option. (4) f'k'kq/kkjh fofdj.k dk Hkkx gksuk
180. lgh fodYi ls fjDr LFkku dh iwfrZ dhft,A
“Evolution is a A process in the sense of
“fodkl ,d A izfØ;k gSA ;g ,d izlaHkkO;
determinism. It is a stochastic process based on
izØe gS] tks izÑfr esa la;ksx volj/kkjh ?kVuk vkSj
chance events in nature and chance B in
thoksa esa la;ksx tU; B ij vk/kkfjr gSA” ;gk¡
the organism”. Here A and B are A rFkk B gSa
A B A B
(1) Directive Adaptation (1) izR;{k vuqdwyu
(2) Directive Selection (2) izR;{k oj.k
(3) Non-directive Mutations (3) vizzR;{k mRifjorZu
(4) Non-directive Adaptation (4) vizzR;{k vuqdwyu


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