One of the following processes does not involve a chemical

Q-(m3).
reaction, that is:

(a) Melting of candle wax when heated

(b) Burning of candle wax when heated
(c) Digestion of food in your stomach
(d) Ripening of banana
 One of the following processes does not involve a chemical
Q-(m3).
reaction, that is:

(a) Melting of candle wax when heated

(b) Burning of candle wax when heated
(c) Digestion of food in your stomach
(d) Ripening of banana

Answer : A
Q-(m4). Which of the following shows an oxidation reaction?

(a) Gain of oxygen

(b) Loss of oxygen
(c) Gain of hydrogen
(d) None of the above
Q-(m4). Which of the following shows an oxidation reaction?

(a) Gain of oxygen

(b) Loss of oxygen
(c) Gain of hydrogen
(d) None of the above

Answer : A
Q-(m5). Which Acid is present in Tomato?

(A) Citric Acid

(B) Oxalic Acid
(C) Lactic Acid
(D) HCl
Q-(m5). Which Acid is present in Tomato?

(A) Citric Acid

(B) Oxalic Acid
(C) Lactic Acid
(D) HCl

Answer : B
Q-(m6). Na2CO3.10H2O is known as –

(A) Baking soda

(B) Baking powder
(C) Washing soda
(D) Bleaching powder
Q-(m6).
Na2CO3.10H2O is known as –

(A) Baking soda

(B) Baking powder
(C) Washing soda
(D) Bleaching powder

Answer : C
Q-(m7). Lactic Acid is present in –

(A) Orange
(B) Tea
(C) Curd
(D) Vinegar
Q-(m7). Lactic Acid is present in –

(A) Orange
(B) Tea
(C) Curd
(D) Vinegar

Answer : C
Q-(m8). CuSO4.5H2O: In this Compound, the water molecule is called

(A) Pure water

(B) Water of crystallisation
(C) Soda water
(D) None of these
Q-(m8). CuSO4.5H2O: In this Compound, the water molecule is called

(A) Pure water

(B) Water of crystallisation
(C) Soda water
(D) None of these

Answer : B
Q-(m9). The arrangement for Copper, Tin, Lead and Mercury,
according to the reactivity series, is:

a) Tin> Lead> Copper> Mercury

b) Lead> Copper> Mercury> Tin
c) Copper> Mercury> Tin> Lead
d) Mercury> Tin> Lead> Copper
Q-(m9). The arrangement for Copper, Tin, Lead and Mercury,
according to the reactivity series, is:

a) Tin> Lead> Copper> Mercury

b) Lead> Copper> Mercury> Tin
c) Copper> Mercury> Tin> Lead
d) Mercury> Tin> Lead> Copper

Answer : A
Q-(m10). What happens when a pellet of sodium is dropped in water?

(a) It catches fire and forms oxide

(b) It absorbs heat and forms oxide
(c) It catches fire and forms hydroxide
(d) It absorbs heat and forms hydroxide
Q-(m10). What happens when a pellet of sodium is dropped in water?

(a) It catches fire and forms oxide

(b) It absorbs heat and forms oxide
(c) It catches fire and forms hydroxide
(d) It absorbs heat and forms hydroxide

Answer : C
Q-(m11). What happens when a pellet of sodium is dropped in water?

(a) It catches fire and forms oxide

(b) It absorbs heat and forms oxide
(c) It catches fire and forms hydroxide
(d) It absorbs heat and forms hydroxide
Q-(m11). What happens when a pellet of sodium is dropped in water?

(a) It catches fire and forms oxide

(b) It absorbs heat and forms oxide
(c) It catches fire and forms hydroxide
(d) It absorbs heat and forms hydroxide

Answer : C
Q-(m12). Which of the following options gives the process of
extraction of mercury from its ore cinnabar?

(a) Cooling cinnabar in the presence of excess air

(b) Cooling cinnabar to convert it into mercuric oxide and
then heating it
(c) Cinnabar to convert it into mercuric oxide and then
heating it again
(d) Cinnabar in the presence of limited air, and then adding a
small amount of water
Q-(m12). Which of the following options gives the process of
extraction of mercury from its ore cinnabar?

(a) Cooling cinnabar in the presence of excess air

(b) Cooling cinnabar to convert it into mercuric oxide and
then heating it
(c) Cinnabar to convert it into mercuric oxide and then
heating it again
(d) Cinnabar in the presence of limited air, and then adding a
small amount of water

Answer : C
Q-(m13). Which of these functional groups can combine with carbon
to produce alcohol?
Q-(m13). Which of these functional groups can combine with carbon
to produce alcohol?

Answer : B
Q-(m14). How many single bonds are present in methane?

(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Three
Q-(m14). How many single bonds are present in methane?

(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Three

Answer : A
Q-(m15). Methane, ethane and propane are said to form a
homologous series because all are:

(a) Hydrocarbons
(b) Saturated compounds
(c) Aliphatic compounds
(d) Differ from each other by a CH2 group
Q-(m15). Methane, ethane and propane are said to form a
homologous series because all are:

(a) Hydrocarbons
(b) Saturated compounds
(c) Aliphatic compounds
(d) Differ from each other by a CH2 group

Answer : D
CHEMICAL REACTIONS
AND EQUATIONS
Q-(1). The pair(s) which will show displacement reaction is/are

(i) NaCl solution and copper metal.

(ii) AgNO3 solution and copper metal.
(iii)Al2(SO4)3 solution and magnesium metal.
(iv)ZnSO4 solution and iron metal.

(A) (ii) only (B) (ii) and (iii)

(C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (i) and (ii)
Q-(1). The pair(s) which will show displacement reaction is/are

(i) NaCl solution and copper metal.

(ii) AgNO3 solution and copper metal.
(iii)Al2(SO4)3 solution and magnesium metal.
(iv)ZnSO4 solution and iron metal.

(A) (ii) only (B) (ii) and (iii)

(C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (i) and (ii)

Answer : B
 (a) Solution of a substance ‘X’ is used for testing carbon dioxide. Write the
Q-(2). equation of the reaction of ‘X’ with carbon dioxide.
(b) How is ‘X’ obtained? Write chemical equation

Answer :
 (a) Solution of a substance ‘X’ is used for testing carbon dioxide. Write the
Q-(2).
equation of the reaction of ‘X’ with carbon dioxide.
(b) How is ‘X’ obtained? Write chemical equation

Answer :
(a) Substance X-Calcium hydroxide.
Ca(OH)2(aq) + CO2(g) →
CaCO3(s) + H2O(l)
(White ppt.)

(b) Calcium hydroxide is obtained by reaction of

calcium oxide and water. It is an exothermic reaction.
CaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(aq) + Heat
Q-(3). List the changes that are observed when dil. HCl is added to a small amount of
copper oxide in a beaker. Write balanced chemical equation for the reaction

Answer :
 List the changes that are observed when dil. HCl is added to a small amount of
Q-(3).
copper oxide in a beaker. Write balanced chemical equation for the reaction

Answer :
When dil HCl is added to a small amount of CuO in a
beaker, a blue green colour is observed due to
formation of copper chloride.

CuO + 2HCl → CuCl2 + H2O

Q-(4). List any two observations when ferrous sulphate is heated in a dry test tube.

Answer :
Q-(4). List any two observations when ferrous sulphate is heated in a dry test tube.

Answer :

(i) Initial light green colour

changes to reddish brown colour.
(ii) Colourless gas is evolved.
(iii) Gas with choking smell is
evolved
Q-(5). Write the chemical equations involved in the following chemical reactions:
(a) White washing.
(b) Black and white photography

Answer :
Q-(5). Write the chemical equations involved in the following chemical reactions:
(a) White washing.
(b) Black and white photography

Answer :
Q-(6). What is a redox reaction? When a magnesium ribbon burns in the air with a
dazzling flame and forms a white ash, is magnesium oxidized or reduced?
Why?

Answer :
Q-(6). What is a redox reaction? When a magnesium ribbon burns in the air with a
dazzling flame and forms a white ash, is magnesium oxidized or reduced?
Why?

Answer :
The reactions in which oxidation (loss of
electrons) and reduction (gain of electrons)
take place simultaneously are called redox
reactions. 2Mg(s) + O2(g) →2MgO(s)
Magnesium Oxygen Magnesium oxide
Magnesium is getting oxidised because it is
losing electrons to form Mg2+ and oxygen is
gaining electrons to form O2-, therefore it is
getting reduced.
 Identify the displacement and the double displacement reaction from the following
Q-(7). reactions.
→
(i) HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) NaCl(aq) + H2O (l)
→
(ii) Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)

Answer :
 Identify the displacement and the double displacement reaction from the following
Q-(7). reactions.
→
(i) HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) NaCl(aq) + H2O (l)
→
(ii) Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)

Answer :
(i) Double displacement reaction

(ii) Displacement reaction

 Mention with reason the colour changes observed when
Q-(8). (a) Silver chloride is exposed to sunlight.
(b) Copper powder is strongly heated in the presence of oxygen.

Answer :
 Mention with reason the colour changes observed when
Q-(8). (a) Silver chloride is exposed to sunlight.
(b) Copper powder is strongly heated in the presence of oxygen.

Answer :
(a) White to grey
Reason : Silver chloride decomposes to produce silver and chloride.

(b) Brown to black

Reason : Copper oxide is produced on heating
 (a) Write one example for each of decomposition reaction carried out with help of
Q-(9). (i) Electricity (ii) Heat (iii) Light
(b) Which of the following statements is correct and why? I. Copper can displace silver from
silver nitrate. II. Silver can displace copper from copper sulphate solution.

Answer :
 (a) Write one example for each of decomposition reaction carried out with help of
Q-(9). (i) Electricity (ii) Heat (iii) Light
(b) Which of the following statements is correct and why? I. Copper can displace silver from
silver nitrate. II. Silver can displace copper from copper sulphate solution.

Answer :
ACIDS, BASES AND
SALTS
Q-(10). Assertion (A): When zinc is added to dilute hydrochloric acid, hydrogen is given off.
Reason (R): Hydrogen chloride molecules contain Chlorine atom and hydrogen atoms.

Answer :
Q-(10). Assertion (A): When zinc is added to dilute hydrochloric acid, hydrogen is given off.
Reason (R): Hydrogen chloride molecules contain Chlorine atom and hydrogen atoms.

Answer :
Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true
but reason (R) is not the correct explanation
of assertion (A)

Explanation: The metal zinc readily reacts

with hydrochloric acid to produce hydrogen
gas (H2) and zinc chloride (ZnCl2).
Q-(11).
Answer :
Q-(12). What happens to pH when milk changes to curd? Why?

Answer :
Q-(12). What happens to pH when milk changes to curd? Why?

Answer :
When milk changes into curd, its pH will
decrease. Because curd contains lactic acid,
so H+ ion concentration increases and thus
pH will decrease.
Q-(13).

Answer :
Q-(13).

Answer :
 1 g of solid sodium chloride is taken in a clean and dry test tube and 2mL of conc. sulphuric acid is
Q-(14). added to it. If the gas evolved is tested first with dry and then with wet blue litmus paper, in which case
will the litmus paper change colour ? Give reason for your answer. What inference can be drawn about
the nature of the evolved gas ? Support your answer with chemical equation for the reaction.

Answer :
 1 g of solid sodium chloride is taken in a clean and dry test tube and 2mL of conc. sulphuric acid is
Q-(14). added to it. If the gas evolved is tested first with dry and then with wet blue litmus paper, in which
case will the litmus paper change colour ? Give reason for your answer. What inference can be
drawn about the nature of the evolved gas ? Support your answer with chemical equation for the
reaction.

Answer :
Wet blue litmus paper.
When the gas is tested with dry litmus
paper, it shows no change in colour .This is
because ions are not formed in the absence
of water. But with wet litmus paper hydrogen
ions are produced and thus change in colour
is observed. 1 It has acidic nature. Due to
presence of H3O+ ions

HCl + H2O → H3O+ + Cl–

Q-(15).

Answer :
Q-(15).

Answer :
Q-(16).
Answer :
Q-(17). Priyanka performed an experiment to understand that heat is produced
when a few drops of concentrated sulphuric acid is slowly added into a
beaker containing water. For this, she took 10 mL water in a beaker and
added a few drops of concentrated H2SO4 to it. Then she swirled the beaker
slowly. During the process, a vigourous reaction takes place. It is an
exothermic process.

Q. 1. Why is it recommended that the acid should be added to water and not
water to the acid?
Q. 2. How will the concentration of hydrogen ions be affected if an acid is
diluted?
Q. 3. What is this process called ? Define the process.
Q. 4. If we have hydrochloric acid and acetic acid of equal concentration,
which will be a stronger acid and why ?
Answer :

Ans. 1. Dilution of concentrated acid is an exothermic process. If water is

added to a concentrated acid, the heat generated may cause the mixture
to splash out and cause burns. When the acid is added to water slowly with
constant stirring, the mixture will not splash out.

2. Concentration of H+ decreases with increase in dilution.

3. Dilution of the acid. Dilution of an acid or base means mixing an acid or

base with water. This is done to decrease the concentration of ions
(H3O+/OH– ) per unit volume.

4. Hydrochloric acid will be a stronger acid, because it produces more H+

ions.
METALS AND
NON-METALS
 Given below are reactions involving metals P, Q, R and S and their salt
Q-(18).
solutions in water.

Metal P salt solution + Q → Metal Q salt solution + P

Metal Q salt solution + R → Metal R salt solution + Q
Metal S salt solution + Q → Metal Q salt solution + S
Metal P salt solution + S → No reaction Which metal is
the MOST reactive ?
(A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) S
 Given below are reactions involving metals P, Q, R and S and their salt
Q-(18).
solutions in water.

Metal P salt solution + Q → Metal Q salt solution + P

Metal Q salt solution + R → Metal R salt solution + Q
Metal S salt solution + Q → Metal Q salt solution + S
Metal P salt solution + S → No reaction Which metal is
the MOST reactive ?
(A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) S

Answer :C
 Give reasons:
Q-(19). (a) Carbonate and sulphide ores are usually converted into oxides during the process of
extraction.
(b) Aluminium is a highly reactive metal; still it is widely used in making cooking utensils.

Answer :
 Give reasons:
Q-(19). (a) Carbonate and sulphide ores are usually converted into oxides during the process of
extraction.
(b) Aluminium is a highly reactive metal; still it is widely used in making cooking utensils.

Answer :
(a) It is easier to obtain a metal from its oxide as
compared to sulphide and carbonate ore.

(b) Aluminium forms a thicker protective oxide layer.

 Give reasons for the following observations:
Q-(21). (i) Ionic compounds in general have high melting and boiling points.
(ii) Highly reactive metals cannot be obtained from their oxides by heating them with
carbon.

Answer :
 Give reasons for the following observations:
Q-(21). (i) Ionic compounds in general have high melting and boiling points.
(ii) Highly reactive metals cannot be obtained from their oxides by heating them with
carbon.

Answer :
(i) Ionic compounds have high melting and boiling
points due to strong force of attraction between
oppositely charged ions. 1

(ii) These metals have more affinity towards oxygen

than carbon and thus, carbon is unable to remove the
oxygen from the oxides of these metals and convert the
metals into free states.
 Given below are the steps for the extraction of copper from its ore. Write the
Q-(22). chemical equation of the reactions involved in each case. (a) Roasting of copper (I)
sulphide (b) Reduction of copper (I) oxide with copper (I) sulphide

Answer :
 Given below are the steps for the extraction of copper from its ore. Write the
Q-(22). chemical equation of the reactions involved in each case. (a) Roasting of copper (I)
sulphide (b) Reduction of copper (I) oxide with copper (I) sulphide

Answer :
Q-(23). What are amphoteric oxides? Give an example. Write balanced
chemical equations to justify your answer.

Answer :
Q-(23). What are amphoteric oxides? Give an example. Write balanced
chemical equations to justify your answer.

Answer :
Amphoteric oxides: Metal oxides showing both acidic and basic
nature.

Example:
Al2O3 / ZnO (or any other)

Al2O3 + 6HCl→ 2AlCl3 + 3H2O

Al2O3 + 2NaOH → 2NaAlO2 + H2O
 (a) Define the terms ‘alloy’ and ‘amalgam’. Name the alloy used for welding electric wires
Q-(24). together. What are its constituents ? (b) Name the constituents of the following alloys: (i)
Brass (ii) Stainless steel (iii) Bronze, State one property in each of these alloys, which is
different from its main constituents.

Answer :
 (a) Define the terms ‘alloy’ and ‘amalgam’. Name the alloy used for welding electric wires
Q-(24). together. What are its constituents ? (b) Name the constituents of the following alloys: (i)
Brass (ii) Stainless steel (iii) Bronze, State one property in each of these alloys, which is
different from its main constituents.

Answer :
(a) An alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more
metals or a metal and a non-metal, mixed in the molten
state. Amalgam is an alloy of a metal with mercury.
Solder is the alloy used for the welding of electric wires.
Tin and Lead are its constituents.

(b) (i) Brass – copper and zinc

(ii) Stainless steel – Iron, carbon, nickel, chromium
(iii) Bronze – copper and tin. Brass and bronze have
lower electrical conductivity than their constituents.
Stainless steel does not corrode easily as iron does.
 A metal ‘M’ is stored under kerosene. It vigorously catches fire, if a small
Q-(25).
piece of this metal is kept open in air. Dissolution of this metal in water
releases great amount of energy and the metal catches fire. The solution so
formed turns red litmus blue.

(a) Name the metal ‘M’.

(b) Write formula of the compound formed when this metal is exposed to air.
(c) Why is metal ‘M’ stored under kerosene ?
(d) If oxide of this metal is treated with hydrochloric acid, what would be the
products?
(e) Write balanced equations for:

(i) Reaction of ‘M’ with air.

(ii) Reaction of ’M’ with water.
(iii) Reaction of metal oxide with hydrochloric acid.
Answer :
CARBON COMPOUNDS
 Assertion (A): Following are the members of a homologous series : CH3OH, CH3CH2OH,
Q-(26). CH3CH2CH2OH
Reason (R): A series of compounds with same functional group but differing by ––CH2 – unit is
called a homologous series.

Answer :

a). Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct
explanation of Assertion.

b). Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the
correct explanation of Assertion.

c). Only Assertion is true but Reason is false.

d). Assertion is false but Reason is true.

 Assertion (A): Following are the members of a homologous series : CH3OH, CH3CH2OH,
Q-(26). CH3CH2CH2OH
Reason (R): A series of compounds with same functional group but differing by ––CH2 – unit is
called a homologous series.

Answer :
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation: Homologous series is a series of compounds in which

the members present have the same functional group and similar
chemical properties and any two successive members in a
particular series differ in their molecular formula by a – CH2 unit. For
example, the series like methanol, ethanol, propanol and so on is a
homologous series of alcohol.
Q-(27). List two chemical properties on the basis of which ethanol and
ethanoic acid may be differentiated and explain how.

Answer :
Q-(27). How can ethanol and ethanoic acid be differentiated on the basis
of their physical and chemical properties

Answer :
(a) Differences in physical properties :
(i) Ethanol has a pleasant smell whereas ethanoic acid has the smell of vinegar.
(ii) Ethanol has a burning taste whereas ethanoic acid has a sour taste.

(b) Differences in chemical properties :

(i) Ethanol has no action on any litmus paper but ethanoic acid turns blue litmus
to red.
(ii) Ethanol has no reaction with sodium hydrogencarbonate but ethanoic acid
gives brisk effervescence of carbon dioxide with sodium hydrogencarbonate.
Q-(28). (a) Draw the structures for (i) ethanol, (ii) ethanoic acid. (b) Why is
the conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid considered an oxidation
reaction? Write the oxidizing agent used in the reaction involved.

Answer :
Q-(28). (a) Draw the structures for (i) ethanol, (ii) ethanoic acid. (b) Why is
the conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid considered an oxidation
reaction? Write the oxidizing agent used in the reaction involved.

Answer :
 Write the chemical formula of two consecutive homologous of organic compounds
Q-(29). having functional group – OH. What happens to the (i) boiling point and (ii) solubility
of organic compounds of a homologous series as the molecular mass increases.

Answer :
 Write the chemical formula of two consecutive homologous of organic compounds
Q-(29).
having functional group – OH. What happens to the (i) boiling point and (ii) solubility
of organic compounds of a homologous series as the molecular mass increases.

Answer :
The general formula of the homologous series of the compound –OH
group is CnH2n + 1 OH. The two consecutive homologous are:
Methanol (CH3OH) and ethanol (C2H5OH).

(i) As the molecular mass increases in homologous series, the

boiling point also increases.

(ii) The solubility of an organic compound decreases with increase

in molecular mass.
Q-(30). (a) Draw the electron dot structure for ethyne. (b) List two
differences between the properties exhibited by covalent
compounds and ionic compounds.

Answer :
Q-(30). (a) Draw the electron dot structure for ethyne. (b) List two
differences between the properties exhibited by covalent
compounds and ionic compounds.

Answer :
Q-(32). Distinguish between esterification and saponification reactions
with the help of the chemical equations for each. State one use of
each (i) esters, and (ii) saponification process.

Answer :
Q-(32). Distinguish between esterification and saponification reactions
with the help of the chemical equations for each. State one use of
each (i) esters, and (ii) saponification process.

Answer :
Q-(33). Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow :
Q. 1. Name the characteristic property of carbon as depicted in the
fig.
(A) Catenation
(B) Polymerization
(C) Isomerisation
(D) None of the above

Q. 2. Carbon forms large number of compounds due to :

(A) Catenation only
(B) Tetravalency only
(C) Both catenation and tetravalency
(D) None of the above
Q. 1. Name the characteristic property of carbon as depicted in the
fig.
(A) Catenation
(B) Polymerization
(C) Isomerisation
(D) None of the above

Answer : A

Q. 2. Carbon forms large number of compounds due to :

(A) Catenation only
(B) Tetravalency only
(C) Both catenation and tetravalency
(D) None of the above

Answer : C
Q. 3. Carbon is :
(A) Divalent
(B) Monovalent
(C) Tetravalent
(D) Trivalent

Q. 4. Which of these is a saturated compound in which 6 carbon

atoms are arranged in a ring?
(A) Hexane
(B) Cyclohexane
(C) Pentane
(D) Cyclopentane
Q. 3. Carbon is :
(A) Divalent
(B) Monovalent
(C) Tetravalent
(D) Trivalent

Answer : C

Q. 4. Which of these is a saturated compound in which 6 carbon

atoms are arranged in a ring?
(A) Hexane
(B) Cyclohexane
(C) Pentane
(D) Cyclopentane
Answer : B
LIFE PROCESSES
Q-(34). Identify the two components of phloem tissue that help in
transportation of food in plants.

(A) Phloem parenchyma & sieve tubes

(B) Sieve tubes & companion cells
(C) Phloem parenchyma & companion cells
(D) Phloem fibres and sieve tubes
Q-(34). Identify the two components of phloem tissue that help in
transportation of food in plants.

(A) Phloem parenchyma & sieve tubes

(B) Sieve tubes & companion cells
(C) Phloem parenchyma & companion cells
(D) Phloem fibres and sieve tubes

Answer : B
 What is excretion? How do unicellular organisms remove their wastes?
Q-(35).

Answer :
 What is excretion? How do unicellular organisms remove their wastes?
Q-(35).

Answer :
The biological process which involves the removal of harmful
metabolic wastes from the body is called excretion.

Unicellular organisms remove their waste by simple diffusion.

Q-(36). Explain how water and minerals are transported in plants?

Answer :
Q-(36). Explain how water and minerals are transported in plants?

Answer :
Q-(37). Stomata of desert plants remain closed during day time. How do
they take up CO2 and perform photosynthesis?

Answer :
 Stomata of desert plants remain closed during day time. How do
Q-(37). they take up CO2 and perform photosynthesis?

Answer :
The desert plants are scotoactive i.e., their stomata
open during night. Therefore, they take up CO2 at
night and produce intermediate organic acid
which breaks up to release CO2. The CO2 so
produced internally is used in photosynthesis
during day when stomata are closed
 (a) Draw a diagram of human alimentary canal and label – gall bladder, pancreas, liver
Q-(38). and small intestine in it.
(b) Give two reasons to explain why absorption of digested food occurs mainly in the small
intestine.

Answer :
 (a) Draw a diagram of human alimentary canal and label – gall bladder, pancreas, liver
Q-(38). and small intestine in it.
(b) Give two reasons to explain why absorption of digested food occurs mainly in the small
intestine.

Answer :

b).
(a) The inner lining of the small intestine is provided
with villi which increase the surface area for
absorption of digested food.
(b) Wall of the intestine is richly supplied with blood
vessels which assimilate the absorbed food to the
other parts of the body.
Q-(39). The rate of breathing in aquatic organisms is much faster than that seen in terrestrial
organisms. Give reason.

Answer :
 The rate of breathing in aquatic organisms is much faster than that seen in terrestrial
Q-(39). organisms. Give reason.

Answer :
A terrestrial organism can obtain oxygen directly from the
air and have slow breathing rate but aquatic organisms
have to obtain oxygen for respiration which is dissolved in
water. Since, the amount of oxygen dissolved in water is
fairly low as compared to the amount of oxygen in air, the
rate of breathing in aquatic organisms is much faster.
 Human beings exhibit‚ ‘double circulation‘ during which blood is passed through the lungs and
Q-(40). heart (a) Name the blood vessels that: (i) carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart (ii)
carry deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs

Answer :
 Human beings exhibit‚ ‘double circulation‘ during which blood is passed through the lungs and
Q-(40). heart.(a) Name the blood vessels that: (i) carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart (ii)
carry deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs

Answer :

(a) (i) Pulmonary vein (ii) Pulmonary artery

 Read the given passage and answer the following questions:
Q-(41).
The figure shown below represents an activity to prove the requirements
of photosynthesis. During this activity, two healthy potted plants were
kept in the dark for 72 hours. After 72 hours, KOH is kept in the watch
glass in setup X and not in setup Y. Both these setups are air tight and
have been kept in light for 6 hours. Then, Iodine Test is performed with
one leaf from each of the two plants X and Y.
Q. 1. This experimental setup is used to prove essentiality of which of
the following requirements of photosynthesis?
(A) Chlorophyll
(B) Oxygen
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Sunlight

Q. 2. The function of KOH is to absorb

(A) Oxygen
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Moisture
(D) Sunlight
 Q. 1. This experimental setup is used to prove essentiality of which of
the following requirements of photosynthesis?
(A) Chlorophyll
(B) Oxygen
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Sunlight
Answer : C

Q. 2. The function of KOH is to absorb

(A) Oxygen
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Moisture
(D) Sunlight

Answer : B
Q. 3. Which of the following statements shows the correct results of
Iodine Test performed on the leaf from plant X and Y respectively?

(A) Blue-black colour would be obtained on the leaf of plant X and

no change in colour on leaf of plant Y.
(B) Blue-black colour would be obtained on the leaf of plant Y and
no change in colour on leaf of plant X.
(C) Red colour would be obtained on the leaf of plant X and brown
colour on the leaf of plant Y.
(D) Red colour would be obtained on the leaf of plant Y and brown
colour on the leaf of plant X.
Q. 3. Which of the following statements shows the correct results of
Iodine Test performed on the leaf from plant X and Y respectively?

(A) Blue-black colour would be obtained on the leaf of plant X and

no change in colour on leaf of plant Y.
(B) Blue-black colour would be obtained on the leaf of plant Y and
no change in colour on leaf of plant X.
(C) Red colour would be obtained on the leaf of plant X and brown
colour on the leaf of plant Y.
(D) Red colour would be obtained on the leaf of plant Y and brown
colour on the leaf of plant X.

Answer : B
 CONTROL AND
CO-ORDINATION
 Different parts of brain are associated with specific functions. Name the part of human
Q-(43). brain which performs the following functions: (a) Sensation of feeling full (b) Vomiting (c)
Picking up a pencil (d) Riding a bicycle

Answer :
 Different parts of brain are associated with specific functions. Name the part of human
Q-(43). brain which performs the following functions: (a) Sensation of feeling full (b) Vomiting (c)
Picking up a pencil (d) Riding a bicycle

Answer :
 (a) Which plant hormone is present in greater concentration in the
Q-(44). areas of rapid cell division?
(b) Give one example of a plant growth promoter and plant growth
inhibitor.

Answer :
 (a) Which plant hormone is present in greater concentration in the
Q-(44). areas of rapid cell division?
(b) Give one example of a plant growth promoter and plant growth
inhibitor.

Answer :
(a) Cytokinin.

(b) Plant Growth Promoter: Auxin/Gibberellin. Plant Growth Inhibitor:

Abscisic acid (ABA).
 (a) What is tropism?
Q-(45).
(b) How do auxins promote the growth of a tendril around a support?

Answer :
Q-(45). (a) What is tropism?

Answer :
(a) Tropism: It is the directional movement of a plant organ in
response to an extreme stimulus.
Q-(46).
Answer :
Q-(47). Explain the feedback mechanism to regulate the action of the hormones
with the help of one suitable example.

Answer :
 Explain the feedback mechanism to regulate the action of the hormones
Q-(47).
with the help of one suitable example.

Answer :
Feedback mechanism: Mechanism by which the amount of
any chemical increases or decreases resulting in secretion
of the related hormone.
Example: When sugar level rises, insulin secretion
increases.
When sugar level falls, insulin secretion reduces.
Q-(48). a) Draw the structure of a neuron and label the following on it:
(i) Dendrite
(ii) Cell body
(iii) Nucleus
(iv) Axon

(b) Name the parts of a neuron:

(i) Where information is acquired.
(ii) Through which information travels as an electrical impulse.
(iii) Where this impulse must be converted into a chemical signal for
onward transmission.
Answer :
Q-(49).

Answer :
Q-(49).

Answer :
REPRODUCTION
Q-(50). What is purpose of double fertilization in plants ?

(A) To produce the endosperm that provides nourishment

to the developing embryo.
(B) To protect the seeds.
(C) To ensure the survival of the diploid zygote.
(D) All of these
Q-(50). What is purpose of double fertilization in plants ?

(A) To produce the endosperm that provides nourishment

to the developing embryo.
(B) To protect the seeds.
(C) To ensure the survival of the diploid zygote.
(D) All of these

Answer : A
 (a) Trace the path a male gamete takes to fertilise a female gamete after
Q-(51).
being released from the penis. (b) State the number of sets of
chromosomes present in a zygote

Answer :
 (a) Trace the path a male gamete takes to fertilise a female gamete after
Q-(51).
being released from the penis. (b) State the number of sets of
chromosomes present in a zygote

Answer :
(a) Male gamete (sperm) travels in the female
reproductive tract after being released. The path which it
takes to fertilise the female gamete (egg) is vagina, uterus,
fallopian tube resulting in a zygote; (Alternatively accept
the labelled figure of human female reproductive system
indicating the passage of sperm from vagina to uterus and
then to fallopian tube for fertilization resulting in a zygote.)

(b) Zygote has 2 sets of chromosomes / alternatively

accepted answer : 2n.
Q-(52). Name the reproductive parts of an angiosperm. Where are these parts
located? Explain the structure of its male reproductive part.

Answer :
Q-(52). Name the reproductive parts of an angiosperm. Where are these parts
located? Explain the structure of its male reproductive part.

Answer :
The stamen and pistil are the reproductive parts of an
angiosperm.

They are located in the flower. ½ Stamen is the male

reproductive part of a flower. A stamen consists of anther
and filament.
(i) Anther: Anther is a sac-like structure that produces pollen
grains.
(ii) Filament: Filament is a thin stalk-like structure that
supports anther
 What happens when:
Q-(54). (a) Accidently, Planaria gets cut into many pieces?
(b) Bryophyllum leaf falls on the wet soil?
(c) On maturation, sporangia of Rhizopus bursts?

Answer :
 What happens when:
Q-(54). (a) Accidently, Planaria gets cut into many pieces?
(b) Bryophyllum leaf falls on the wet soil?
(c) On maturation, sporangia of Rhizopus bursts?

Answer :

(a) Each piece regenerates into new Planaria.

(b) Bryophyllum leaf have buds at its notches develop into
new plants.
(c) It releases spores which germinate into new rhizopus in
moist conditions.
 Name the parts A, B and C shown in the following diagram and state one
Q-(55).
function of each.

Answer :
 Name the parts A, B and C shown in the following diagram and state one
Q-(55).
function of each.

Answer :
A. Anther: It produces pollen grains.

B. Style: It provides the path through which the pollen tube

grows and reaches the ovary.

C. Ovary: It contains ovules and each ovule has an egg

cell/female gamete. It develops into fruit after fertilisation.
 (a) Describe the role of prostate gland, seminal vesicle and testes in the human male
Q-(56). reproductive system.
(b) How is the surgical removal of unwanted pregnancies misused?
(c) Explain the role of oral contraceptive pills in preventing conception.

Answer :
 (a) Describe the role of prostate gland, seminal vesicle and testes in the human male
Q-(56). reproductive system.
(b) How is the surgical removal of unwanted pregnancies misused?
(c) Explain the role of oral contraceptive pills in preventing conception.

Answer :
(a) Prostate glands and seminal vesicle add their
secretions so that the sperms are in a fluid. It makes their
transport easier and also provides nutrition. Testes secrete
testosterone which brings about changes in the
appearances in the boys at the time of puberty.
(b) Female foeticides/illegal sex selected abortion of
female foeticide.
(c) Interfere in release of egg and eggs are not released.
 The diagram shows the reproductive system of a human female. 1, 2, 3
Q-(57).
and 4 are four different parts of the system.

Q. 1. Fertilisation is the union of a sperm with a mature

egg. Name the part of the female reproductive
system where fertilisation take place?

Q. 2. Name the part which produces ovum.

Answer :
Ans. 1. The part labeled as 1 is oviduct or fallopian tube.
Oviduct or fallopian tube is the site of fertilisation in human
females.

2. The part labeled as 2 is ovary. Ovum is produced by

ovaries.
HEREDITY AND
EVOLUTION
 Assertion (A): A geneticist crossed a pea plant having violet flowers with a pea plant
Q-(58). having white flowers, he got all violet flowers in first generation.
Reason (R): White colour gene is not passed on to next generation.

Answer :
 Assertion (A): A geneticist crossed a pea plant having violet flowers with a pea plant
Q-(58). having white flowers, he got all violet flowers in first generation.
Reason (R): White colour gene is not passed on to next generation.

Answer :
(A) is true but (R) is false.

Explanation: The gene for violet flowers is dominant over

the gene for white flowers so that only the violet gene is
expressed as violet flowers in the first generation. White
colour flower shows its trait in the second generation, after
the selfing of two plants of the first generation
 In an asexually reproducing species, if a trait X exists in 5% of a
Q-(60).
population and trait Y exists in 70% of the same population, which of the
two trait is likely to have arisen earlier? Give reason

Answer :
 In an asexually reproducing species, if a trait X exists in 5% of a
Q-(60).
population and trait Y exists in 70% of the same population, which of the
two trait is likely to have arisen earlier? Give reason

Answer :
Trait Y which exists in 70% (larger fraction) of the
population is likely to have arisen earlier because in
asexual reproduction, identical copies of DNA are
produced and variations do not occur.

New traits come in the population due to sudden mutation

and then are inherited. 70% of the population with trait Y is
likely to have been replicating that trait for a longer period
than 5% of population with trait X
Q-(61). “The chromosome number of the sexually reproducing parents and their
offspring is the same.” Justify this statement.

Answer :
 “The chromosome number of the sexually reproducing parents and their
Q-(61).
offspring is the same.” Justify this statement.

Answer :
Male individual have 46 chromosomes but because the
gametes are always haploid i.e., they have half the number
of chromosomes; sperms will be haploid (23
chromosomes). Female individual also contains only 23
chromosomes in egg. It is the fusion of the sperm and egg
which leads to an offsprings with 46 chromosomes
Q-(62). What are chromosomes?

Answer :
Q-(62). What are chromosomes?

Answer :
Chromosomes are thread like structures which are made
up of proteins and DNA. DNA contains the information of
traits which are passed from parents to offspring from one
generation to another.
 Two pea plants one with round yellow seeds (RRYY) and another with wrinkled green (rryy) seeds
Q-(63). produce F1 progeny that have round, yellow (RrYy) seeds. When F1 plants are self-pollinated, which new
combination of characters is expected in F2 progeny? How many seeds with these new combinations of
characters will be produced when a total 160 seeds are produced in F2 generation? Explain with reason.

Answer :
 Two pea plants one with round yellow seeds (RRYY) and another with wrinkled green (rryy) seeds
Q-(63). produce F1 progeny that have round, yellow (RrYy) seeds. When F1 plants are self-pollinated, which new
combination of characters is expected in F2 progeny? How many seeds with these new combinations of
characters will be produced when a total 160 seeds are produced in F2 generation? Explain with reason.

Answer :
Round green: 30
Wrinkled yellow: 30
New combinations are produced because of the
independent inheritance of seed shape and seed
colour trait
 ‘Different species use different strategies to determine sex of a newborn
Q-(64).
individual. It can be environmental cues or genetically determined.’
Explain the statement by giving example for each strategy.

Answer :
 ‘Different species use different strategies to determine sex of a newborn
Q-(64).
individual. It can be environmental cues or genetically determined.’
Explain the statement by giving example for each strategy.

Answer :
Environmental Cue:
(i) In some animals, the temperature at which fertilised
eggs are kept determines whether the developing animal
in egg is male or female. Ex turtles, crocodiles
(ii) In some animals like snail, individual can change sex.

Genetical Cue: A child who inherits an X-chromosome from

her father will be a girl and one who inherits a Y-
chromosome from the father will be boy.
Q-(65). How do Mendel’s experiments show that (a) Traits may be dominant or
recessive? (b) Inheritance of two traits is independent of each other?

Answer :
 How do Mendel’s experiments show that (a) Traits may be dominant or
Q-(65).
recessive? (b) Inheritance of two traits is independent of each other?

Answer :
. (a) Mendel conducted a Monohybrid cross/ (crossed pure tall pea plants
with pure dwarf pea plants) he observed only tall pea plants in the F1
generation, but on self crossing of the F1 progeny, both tall and dwarf pea
plants were observed in F2 generation in the ratio 3: 1. Appearance of tall
character in F1 and F2 generations shows tallness to be a dominant
character. But absence of dwarf character in F1 and its reappearance in F2
confirms that dwarfness is recessive character.

(b) Mendel conducted a dihybrid cross and observed that though he

started with two types of parents, he obtained four types of individuals in F2
generation. The appearance of new recombination in F2 generations along
with parental type characters showed that traits are inherited
independently of each other.
OUR ENVIRONMENT
 A lot of waste is generated in neighbourhood. However, almost all of it is
Q-(67).
biodegradable. What impact will it have on the environment or human
health?

Answer :
 A lot of waste is generated in neighbourhood. However, almost all of it is
Q-(67).
biodegradable. What impact will it have on the environment or human
health?

Answer :
.Excess generation of biodegradable wastes can be harmful as :

(i) Its decomposition is a slow process leading to production of foul smell

and gases.
(ii) It can be the breeding ground for germs that create unhygienic
conditions.
 (a) What is meant by garbage? List two classes into which garbage is
Q-(68).
classified. (b) What do we actually mean when we say that the “enzymes
are specific in their action”?

Answer :
 (a) What is meant by garbage? List two classes into which garbage is
Q-(68).
classified. (b) What do we actually mean when we say that the “enzymes
are specific in their action”?

Answer :
(a) Garbage is a waste substance that is no longer useful for humans. It includes
household waste, kitchen waste, and animal waste, plant waste, etc. There are two types of
garbage:
(i) Biodegradable wastes: Substances which can be decomposed by the action of micro-
organisms are called biodegradable substances. e.g., : Fruit and vegetable peels, cotton,
jute, dung, paper, etc.
(ii) Non-biodegradable Wastes: Substances which cannot be decomposed by the action
of microorganisms are called non-biodegradable wastes. e.g.,: Plastic, polythene,
pesticides etc. Most of the non-biodegradable wastes results from human activities.

(b) Enzymes are proteins that enhance the rate of reaction. They are specific in nature as a
specific enzyme is required to perform a specific function. For e.g., salivary amylase is an
enzyme present in saliva and is required for the breakdown of starch into simple sugars.
 Define a food chain. Design a terrestrial food chain of four trophic levels. If a pollutant
Q-(70). enters at the producer level, the organisms of which trophic level will have the
maximum concentration of the pollutant in their bodies? What is this phenomenon
called?

Answer :
 Define a food chain. Design a terrestrial food chain of four trophic levels. If a pollutant
Q-(70). enters at the producer level, the organisms of which trophic level will have the
maximum concentration of the pollutant in their bodies? What is this phenomenon
called?

Answer :
 (a) Explain the role of UV radiation in producing ozone layer. (b) Mention
Q-(71).
the reaction involved. (c) Why is excessive use of CFCs a cause of
concern?

Answer :
 (a) Explain the role of UV radiation in producing ozone layer. (b) Mention
Q-(71).
the reaction involved. (c) Why is excessive use of CFCs a cause of
concern?

Answer :
(a) High energy UV radiations split apart some molecular oxygen into free
(O) atoms, these atoms combine with molecular oxygen to form ozone.
Q-(72). Why is damage to the ozone layer a cause for concern? What steps are
being taken to limit this damage?

Answer :
Q-(72). Why is damage to the ozone layer a cause for concern? What steps are
being taken to limit this damage?

Answer :
Ozone layer is a protective shield around the Earth. It prevents harmful
ultraviolet radiation of the Sun from reaching the Earth. Air pollutants, like
chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), are causing depletion of ozone layer. Depletion
of ozone layer is allowing greater amount of UV radiation to reach the Earth.
UV radiation can affect the ecosystem by affecting photosynthesis in
plants, destroying planktons and decomposers. In human beings, UV
radiation may cause skin cancer, cataract and damage to immune
system. Many developed as well as developing nations of the world have
agreed to sign and obey the directions of UNEP (United Nations
Environment Programme) to cease the production of CFCs or to limit their
production to some extent.
Q-(73). Give reason why a food chain cannot have more than four trophic levels.

Answer :
Q-(73). Give reason why a food chain cannot have more than four trophic levels.

Answer :
The loss of energy at each step
is so great that very little usable
energy remains after four
trophic levels.
LIGHT: REFLECTION AND
REFRACTION
 Assertion (A): The focal length of the convex mirror will increase, if the mirror is
Q-(74). placed in water.
Reason (R): The focal length of a convex mirror of radius R is equal to, f = R/2 .

Answer :
 Assertion (A): The focal length of the convex mirror will increase, if the mirror is
Q-(74). placed in water.
Reason (R): The focal length of a convex mirror of radius R is equal to, f = R/2 .

Answer :
Assertion (A) is false and reason (R) is true.

Explanation: Focal length of the spherical

mirror does not depend on the medium in
which it is placed.
Q-(75). Draw the path of a ray of light when it enters one of the faces of a glass
slab at an angle of nearly 45°. Label on it (i) angle of refraction, (ii) angle
of emergence and (iii) lateral displacement.

Answer :
Q-(75). Draw the path of a ray of light when it enters one of the faces of a glass
slab at an angle of nearly 45°. Label on it (i) angle of refraction, (ii) angle
of emergence and (iii) lateral displacement.

Answer :
Labelling
Angle or refraction (r1)
Angle of emergence (e)
Lateral displacement (ML)
 The power of a lens is +5 dioptre. What is the nature and focal length of
Q-(76). this lens? At what distance from this lens should an object be placed so
as to get its inverted image of the same size ?

Answer :
 The power of a lens is +5 dioptre. What is the nature and focal length of
Q-(76). this lens? At what distance from this lens should an object be placed so
as to get its inverted image of the same size ?

Answer :
Q-(77). How does the size of the image change as the object is brought closer
from infinity towards the convex lens ?

Answer :
Q-(77). How does the size of the image change as the object is brought closer
from infinity towards the convex lens ?

Answer :
When the object is brought from
infinity closer to a convex lens,
the image size increases, after a
certain position, the image size
is magnified when compared to
the size of the object.
Q-(78). A 5 cm tall object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a convex mirror of
focal length 15 cm. Find the position, size and nature of the image formed.

Answer :
Q-(78). A 5 cm tall object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from a convex mirror of
focal length 15 cm. Find the position, size and nature of the image formed.

Answer :
 The image of a candle flame placed at a distance of 30 cm from a mirror is formed on
Q-(79). a screen placed in front of the mirror at a distance of 60 cm from its pole. What is the
nature of the mirror ? Find its focal length. If the height of the flame is 2.4 cm, find the
height of its image. State whether the image formed is erect or inverted

Answer :
 The image of a candle flame placed at a distance of 30 cm from a mirror is formed on
Q-(79). a screen placed in front of the mirror at a distance of 60 cm from its pole. What is the
nature of the mirror ? Find its focal length. If the height of the flame is 2.4 cm, find the
height of its image. State whether the image formed is erect or inverted

Answer :
Q-(80). (a) A lens produces a magnification of –0.5. Is this a converging or
diverging lens? If the focal length of the lens is 6 cm, draw a ray diagram
showing the image formation in this case.
(b) A girl was playing with a thin beam of light from a laser torch by
directing it from different directions on a convex lens held vertically. She
was surprised to see that in a particular direction, the beam of light
continues to move along the same direction after passing through the
lens. State the reason for her observation. Draw a ray diagram to support
your answer.
Answer :
Answer :
 HUMAN EYE AND
COLOURFUL WORLD
 Assertion (A): A beam of white light gives a spectrum on passing through
Q-(82). a glass prism.
Reason (R): Speed of light outside the prism is different from the speed of
light inside the prism

Answer :
 Assertion (A): A beam of white light gives a spectrum on passing through
Q-(82).
a glass prism.
Reason (R): Speed of light outside the prism is different from the speed of
light inside the prism

Answer :
Both (A) and (R) are true but R is NOT the
correct explanation of (A).

Explanation: A beam of white light gives a

spectrum on passing through a glass
prism. The band of seven colors formed
due to dispersion of white light is called
spectrum. Dispersion takes place because
the refractive index of medium for different
color is different.
 A student traces the path of a ray of light through a glass prism as shown
Q-(83).
in the diagram, but leaves it incomplete and unlabelled. Redraw and
∠∠ ∠
complete the diagram. Also label on it i, e, r and D. ∠

Answer :
 A student traces the path of a ray of light through a glass prism as shown
Q-(83).
in the diagram, but leaves it incomplete and unlabelled. Redraw and
∠∠ ∠
complete the diagram. Also label on it i, e, r and D. ∠

Answer :
 State the phenomena observed in the given diagram. Explain with
Q-(84). reference to the diagram, which of the two lights mentioned above will
have the higher wavelength?

Answer :
 State the phenomena observed in the given diagram. Explain with
Q-(84). reference to the diagram, which of the two lights mentioned above will
have the higher wavelength?

Answer :
Dispersion- The splitting of white light
into seven colours on passing through
a prism. Velocity is directly
proportional to wavelength given
constant frequency. So yellow will have
greater wavelength than blue as the
velocity of yellow light is greater than
blue
Q-(85). Define the term power of accommodation. Write the modification in the
curvature of the eye lens which enables us to see the nearby objects
clearly ?

Answer :
Q-(85). Define the term power of accommodation. Write the modification in the
curvature of the eye lens which enables us to see the nearby objects
clearly ?

Answer :
Power of accommodation: Ability of eye lens to adjust its
focal length.
Curvature increases/lens becomes thick.
Q-(86). Write the structure of eye lens and state the role of ciliary muscles in the
human eye.

Answer :
Q-(86). Write the structure of eye lens and state the role of ciliary muscles in the
human eye.

Answer :

Structure: Fibrous, jelly like

structure.
Role: To change the curvature
of eye lens / to change the focal
length of eye lens.
 The near point of the eye of a person is 50 cm. Find the nature and power
Q-(87).
of the corrective lens required by the person to enable him to see clearly
the objects placed at 25 cm from the eye.

Answer :
 The near point of the eye of a person is 50 cm. Find the nature and power
Q-(87).
of the corrective lens required by the person to enable him to see clearly
the objects placed at 25 cm from the eye.

Answer :
 A student needs spectacles of power – 0.5 D for the correction of his vision. (i)
Q-(88). Name the defect in vision the student is suffering from. (ii) Find the nature and
focal length of the corrective lens. (iii) List two causes of this defect.

Answer :
 A student needs spectacles of power – 0.5 D for the correction of his vision. (i)
Q-(88). Name the defect in vision the student is suffering from. (ii) Find the nature and
focal length of the corrective lens. (iii) List two causes of this defect.

Answer :
 (a) What is dispersion of white light ? State its cause.
Q-(89). (b) “Rainbow is an example of dispersion of sunlight.” Justify this statement by
explaining, with the help of a labelled diagram, the formation of a rainbow in the
sky. List two essential conditions for observing a rainbow.

Answer :
 (a) What is dispersion of white light ? State its cause.
Q-(89). (b) “Rainbow is an example of dispersion of sunlight.” Justify this statement by
explaining, with the help of a labelled diagram.

Answer :
ELECTRICITY
Q-(90). When a 4V battery is connected across an unknown resistor there is a
current of 100 mA in the circuit. The value of the resistance of the resistor
is:

(A) 4 Ω
(B) 40 Ω
(C) 400 Ω
(D) 0.4 Ω
Q-(90). When a 4V battery is connected across an unknown resistor there is a
current of 100 mA in the circuit. The value of the resistance of the resistor
is:

(A) 4 Ω
(B) 40 Ω
(C) 400 Ω
(D) 0.4 Ω
Answer : B
Q-(91). Should the resistance of a voltmeter be low or high? Give reason.

Answer :
Q-(91). Should the resistance of a voltmeter be low or high? Give reason.

Answer :
High. In parallel connection, less
current passes through high
resistance. Hence, current
flowing in the circuit would not
be disturbed and it can
measure the correct value.
 (a) State Ohm’s Law. Represent it mathematically. (b) Define 1 ohm. (c)
Q-(92).
What is the resistance of a conductor through which a current of 0.5 A
flows when a potential difference of 2V is applied across its ends?

Answer :
 (a) State Ohm’s Law. Represent it mathematically. (b) Define 1 ohm. (c)
Q-(92). What is the resistance of a conductor through which a current of 0.5 A
flows when a potential difference of 2V is applied across its ends?

Answer :
Q-(93). Calculate the resistance of a 1 km long copper wire of area of cross
section 2 × 10–2 cm2 . The resistivity of copper is 1.623 × 10–8 ohm-meter.

Answer :
Q-(93). Calculate the resistance of a 1 km long copper wire of area of cross
section 2 × 10–2 cm2 . The resistivity of copper is 1.623 × 10–8 ohm-meter.

Answer :
 A student has two resistors- 2 Ω and 3 Ω. She has to put one of them in
Q-(94). place of R2 as shown in the circuit. The current that she needs in the
entire circuit is exactly 9A. Show by calculation which of the two resistors
she should choose.

Answer :
 A student has two resistors- 2 Ω and 3 Ω. She has to put one of them in
Q-(94). place of R2 as shown in the circuit. The current that she needs in the
entire circuit is exactly 9A. Show by calculation which of the two resistors
she should choose.

Answer :
Q-(95). (a) What is the meaning of electric power of an electrical device? Write
its SI unit.(b) An electric kettle of 2 kW is used for 2h. Calculate the energy
consumed in: (i) kilowatt hour and (ii) joules.

Answer :
Q-(95). (a) What is the meaning of electric power of an electrical device? Write
its SI unit.(b) An electric kettle of 2 kW is used for 2h. Calculate the energy
consumed in: (i) kilowatt hour and (ii) joules.

Answer :
 (a) What is meant by the statement. “The resistance of a conductor is
Q-(96). one ohm” ? (b) Define electric power. Write an expression relating
electric power, potential difference and resistance. (c) How many 132 Ω
resistors in parallel are required to carry 5 A on a 220 V line ?

Answer :
 (a) What is meant by the statement. “The resistance of a conductor is
Q-(96). one ohm” ? (b) Define electric power. Write an expression relating
electric power, potential difference and resistance. (c) How many 132 Ω
resistors in parallel are required to carry 5 A on a 220 V line ?

Answer :
Q-(97). Study the circuit shown in which three identical bulbs B1, B2 and B3 are
connected in parallel with a battery of 4.5 V and answer the following
questions

Q. 1. What will happen to the glow of other two bulbs if the

bulb B3 gets fused?
Q. 2. If the wattage of each bulb is 1.5 W, how much
readings will the ammeter A show when all the three
bulbs glow simultaneously.
Q. 3. Find the total resistance of the circuit.
Q. 4. How many resistors of 88 Ω are connected in
parallel to carry 10 A current on a 220 V line?
Answer :
MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF
ELECTRIC CURRENT
 Assertion (A): In Fleming’s Left Hand Rule, the direction of magnetic field,
Q-(98). force and current are mutually perpendicular.
Reason (R): Fleming’s Left hand Rule is applied to measure the induced
current.

Answer :
 Assertion (A): In Fleming’s Left Hand Rule, the direction of magnetic field,
Q-(98). force and current are mutually perpendicular.
Reason (R): Fleming’s Left hand Rule is applied to measure the induced
current.

Answer :
Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is
false.

Explanation: Fleming’s Left Hand Rule is

used to find the direction of force in a
current carrying conductor in the
presence of magnetic field.
Q-(99). When is the force experienced by a current – carrying straight conductor
placed in a uniform magnetic field: (i) Maximum (ii) Minimum

Answer :
Q-(99). When is the force experienced by a current – carrying straight conductor
placed in a uniform magnetic field: (i) Maximum (ii) Minimum

Answer :
(i) The force experienced by a current carrying
straight conductor placed in a uniform magnetic
field is maximum when the conductor carrying
current is perpendicular to the direction of a
uniform magnetic field.

(ii) The force experienced by a current carrying

straight conductor placed in a uniform magnetic
field is minimum when the conductor carrying
current is parallel or anti parallel to the direction of
a uniform magnetic field.
 . (a) Name the poles P, Q, R and S of the magnets in the following figures
Q-(100). ‘a’ and ‘b’:
(b) State the inference drawn about the direction of the magnetic field
lines on the basis of these diagrams.

Answer :
 . (a) Name the poles P, Q, R and S of the magnets in the following figures
Q-(100). ‘a’ and ‘b’:
(b) State the inference drawn about the direction of the magnetic field
lines on the basis of these diagrams.

Answer :
(a) In figure (a)- P is north pole and Q
is the south pole.
In figure (b)- R is the north pole and S
is the south pole.
(b) In the given diagrams, the
direction of magnetic field shows that
outside the magnet, the magnetic
field lines emerge from the North Pole
of a magnet and merge at the south
pole of the magnet.
Q-(101). State any one point of difference in direct current and alternating current.
Which current is most commonly produced at power stations in our
country?

Answer :
Q-(101). State any one point of difference in direct current and alternating current.
Which current is most commonly produced at power stations in our
country?

Answer :
Direct current does not change
its direction with time whereas
alternating current reverses its
direction periodically.

Most power stations produce

AC in power station of India.
Q-(103). Write the use of safety device used in electric circuit.

Answer :
Q-(103). Write the use of safety device used in electric circuit.

Answer :
Electric Fuse.

A fuse is a small conducting

wire of low melting point which
protects the household
electrical system from getting
damaged due to unusual high
current. The unusual high
current may be due to short
circuit, power fluctuation, etc.
Q-(104). What is solenoid? Draw the field lines of the magnetic field produced on
passing current through and around a current carrying solenoid.

Answer :
Q-(104). What is solenoid? Draw the field lines of the magnetic field produced on
passing current through and around a current carrying solenoid.

Answer :
Q-(105). A compass needle is placed near a current carrying wire. State your observations for the
following cases and give reasons for the same in each case- (a) Magnitude of electric
current in wire is increased. (b) The compass needle is displaced away from the wire.

Answer :
Q-(105). A compass needle is placed near a current carrying wire. State your observations for the
following cases and give reasons for the same in each case- (a) Magnitude of electric
current in wire is increased. (b) The compass needle is displaced away from the wire.

Answer :
(a) The deflection in the compass needle
increases as magnetic field of the current
carrying conductor is directly proportional to
current flowing through it.
(b) The deflection in the needle decreases as
the magnetic field is inversely proportional to
the perpendicular distance from the wire.