All of the following statements about efficacy are correct

1. Efficacy is usually a more important clinical consideration than potency. T

2. Efficacy is indicated by the height of the log dose response curve. T
3. The ED50 is a measure of drug efficacy. F
4. Drugs that produce similar pharmacological effect may differ in efficacy. T
5. On a log-dose response curve, two drugs with the same action but with different potencies
will usually have parallel curves. T
Which of this is/are not involved in drug development?

6. Phytochemical analysis. F
7. Mutagenicity. F
8. Post-marketing surveillance. F
9. Clinical trialsF
10. Toxicity test. F

Factors affecting drug absorption include;

11. Drug concentration. T

12. Molecular size. T
13. Degree of ionization. T
14. Surface area absorption.T
15. Plasma protein binding. F

The following is/are true about parasympathetic system;

16. The neurotransmitter is synthesize from choline and acetylcholine. F

17. Acetyl transferase is essential in termination of the activities. F
18 Its activation increases peristaltic movement. T
19 M2 receptor may provide a negative feedback mechanism. F
20 Pilocarpine stimulates parasympathetic activity. T
The following are indirectly acting cholinomimetic drugs

21 Acetylcholine. F
22 Carbachol. F
23 Methenachol. F
24 Acetyl cholinesterase. F
25 Carbamates. T
Which of these is/are true about autacoids?

26 They are endogenous substances. T

27 They produce biological activities. T

28 They have been implicated in certain pathophysiology. T

29 They are also called local hormones. T
30 Histamines and prostaglandins are good example. T

The following drugs could influence autacoids activities

31 Cyproheptadine. T
32 Piroxicam. T
33 Fluoxetine. T

34 Etomidate. F

35 Caffeine. F

Morphine is contraindicated or used with extreme caution in;

36 Addisons disease. T
37 Biliary tract surgery. T
38 Hypothyroidism. T
39 Late stages of labor. T
40 All of the above. T
Clinical uses of benzodiazepines include;

41 Anxiety. T
42 Convulsion. T
43 Insomnia. T

44 Skeletal muscle relaxation. T

45 Induction of anaesthesia. T

Increased serum level of which of these is associated with less risk of atherosclerosis.

46 Cholesterol. F
47 LDL. F
48 HDL. T

49 Triglycerides. F
50 VLDL. F
A patient who is taking verapamil for hypertension and and angina has become constipated. And
osmotic laxative that could be used to treat the patient constipation is;

51 Aluminium hydroxide. F
52 Diphenoxylate. F
53 Magnesium hydroxide. T
54 Metoclopramide. F
55 Ranitidine. F
The following drugs is are useful in the treatment of inflammatory bowel disease

56 Diphenhydramine. F
57 Diphenoxylate. F
58 Mesalamine. T

59 Ondansetron. F

60 Estradiol. F
A drug appropriate for the reatment of Zollinger –Ellison syndrome

61 Aprepitant. F
62 Metoclopramide. F
63 Omeprazole. T
64 Ondasetron. F

65 Ranitidine. T

The following drugs promote the release of endogenous insulin.

66 Acarbose. F
67 Glipizide. T

68 Metformin. F

69 Miglitol. F

70 Pioglitazone. F

The following drugs are likely to cause hypoglycaemia in the treatment of type 2 diabetes

71 Acarbose. F
72 Glyburide. T

73 Metformin. F

74 Miglitol. F

75 Rosiglitazone. F
The following are contraindications of respiratory stimulants

76 Severe hypertension. T
77 Thyrotoxicosis. T
78 Ischaemic heart disease. T
79 Status asthmaticus. F
80 Epilepsy. T
The following are selective beta2 adrenoceptors agonist

81 Salbutamol. T
82 Fenoterol. T
 83 Terbutaline. T
84 Isoprenaline. F

85 Adrenaline. F

All of the following measures can be used in the treatment of digoxin induces arrhymias;

86 Stop digoxin administration. T

87 Electrical conversion. T
88 Phenytoin administration. F
89 Lidocaine administration. T

90 Atropine administration. T

Digitalis glycosides are used in the following conditions

91 Atrial fibrillation. T
92 High-output cardiac failure. T
93 Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia. F
94 Cardiac tamponade. F
95 None of the above. F

Which of these is/are true about enalapril and captopril

96 Both enalapril and captopril inhibit peptidyl dipeptidase. F

97 Both agents are angiotensin 2 antagonists. F
98 Both agents reduce blood pressure in hypertensive patients with normal renin levels. T
99 Both agents reduce blood pressure in in normotensive individuals. T
100 All of the above. F

Furosemide is useful for the treatment of all the following conditions.

 101 Hypocalcaemia. F
102 Oedema resulting from hepatic. T
103 Hypercalcaemia. T
104 Oedema resulting from hepatic or renal disease. T
105 Hypertensive crisis. T

Polyene antibiotics

106 Do not act on cell membranes that contain sterol. F

107 Are active against fungi but inactive against bacteria. F
108 Cause leakage of intracellular materials in sterol- containing membranes. T
109 Include statins, pecilocin, amphotericin B and griseofulvin. F
110 Are used only for the treatment of superficial mycosis. F
The following are second generation cephalosporins

111 Cephalexin. F
112 Cefotetan. T

113 Cefoxitin. T

114 Ceftriaxone. F

115 Cefuroxime. T

The following statements are true

116 Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole cause synergistic inhibition of folic acid T

117 Sulfonamides inhibits dihydrofolate synthase. F
118 Trimethoprim inhibit dihydrofolate reductase. T

119 Ciprofloxacin inhibit dihydrofolate synthase. F

120 Levofloxacin binds to DNA gyrase. T

Identify true and false statements among the following

 121 Zidovudine may induce bone marrow toxicity. T
122 Combination of zidovudine and stavudine is usually contraindicated. T
123 Didanosine is effective against HIV1 and HIV2. T
124 Adverse effects of efavirenz include nightmares and hallucinations. T
125 Saquinavir reversibly inhibit HIV aspartyl protease. T

Which of the under-listed drugs is/are used in the treatment of hepatitis

126 Amantadine. F
127 Rimantadine. F

128 Idoxuridine. F

129 Oseltamvir. F

130 Lamivudine. T

About malarial chemotherapy treatment and prophylaxis in Nigeria

131 Complicated malaria may be treated with injected arthemeter. T

132 Sulphadoxine-pyrimethamine is used for prevention of malaria in pregnancy T
133 First line drug for uncomplicated malaria is chloroquine. F
134 Rectal artesunate maybe used in complicated malaria. F
135 Proguanil may be used for prophylaxis in sickle cell disease. T
About benzimidazole antihelmintics

136 Examples include albendazole and thiabendazole. T

137 Mebendazol is contraindicated in pregnancy. T
138 Albendazole is also effective against trematode. T
139 They may produce GIT discomfort. T
140 They inhibit microtubule polymerization in worms. T

The following statements about allopurinol are true.

141 It is a uricosuric drug. F

 142 It blocks or reduces the production of uric acid. T
143 It is a competitive inhibitor of uric acid synthesis. T
144 It activates the enzyme, xanthine oxidase, which converts xanthane and hypoxanthane to uric
acid. F
145 All of the above statements are true. F

All of the following statements about lead poisoning are true

146 Lead poisoning is the least common cause of heavy metal poisoning. F
147 Acute lead poisoning is more common than chronic exposure. F
148 The most common route of absorption is through the skin. F
149 Foot drop is the most common sign of lead poisoning. F
150 May present a black ‘lead line’ on the gum. T

All of the following statements statements about toxicology are true

151 Certain heavy metals can be considered harzadous poisons. T

152 Chronic exposure to a toxic substance is likely to produce the acute exposure. F
153 Antidotes of poisons can act by preventing absorptions of the poison. T
154 Antidotes of poisons can act by antagonizing the actions of the poison. T

155 Activated charcoal is a mngment alternative to syrup of ipecacuanha T

Which of these is/are not TCA antidepressants?

156 Paroxetine.T
157 Citalopram. T

158 Bupropion. T

159 Doxepin. F

160 Despiramine. F

Some of the proposed mechanism of action lithium include

 161 Inhibition of neurotransmitters reuptake. F
162 Distortion of neuronal membrane interfering with Na uptake. T
163 Inhibition of synthesis of 2nd messengers e.g inositol triphosphate. T
164 Inhibition of G-protein. T
165 All of the above. F

The extrapyramidal effects seen with some antipsychotics are due to inhibition of;

166 All dopamine pathways. F

167 Nigrostriatal dopaminergic pathway. T
168 Mesolimbic –mesocortical dopaminergic pathway. F
169 Tuberinfundibular dopaminergic pathway. F
170 Serotonin pathway. F
Following drugs are useful in Parkinson disease management

171 Levodopa. T
172 Benztropine. T

173 Bromocriptine. T

174 Methyldopa. F

175 Ethyldopa. F

Pharmacological effects of ethanol include the following

176 CNS stimulation at moderate dose. T

177 CNS depression . T
178 Diuresis. T
179 Body temperature regulations.T
180 Weakness of skeletal muscle. T

About nitrous oxide

 F
181 Is also called tear gas.

182 It has pleasant smell. T

183 Produces potent aneasthesia event at small doses of about 25-40%. T

184 Included in balanced anesthesia due to its potent analgesic effect. T

185 It has rapid onset of action. T

Lidocaine

F
186 Is an ester local aneasthetic agent like procaine.

187 May also be used to induce general anesthesia. F

188 Is sometime combined with adrenaline to increase the bioavailability. F

189 Is clinical application has declined remarkably. F
190 Also has antiarrhythmic effect. T
Examples of antimetabolite anticancer agents include

191 Hydroxyurea. T
192 Methotrexate. T

193 Busulphan. F

194 Cyclophosphamide. F
195 Vincristine. F
Concerning pharmacovigilance

196 Is partly to detect previously unknown adverse effect. T

197 Led to withdrawal of chloroquine from Nigeria market. T

198 Side effects of drug may be beneficial or harmful. T

199 Prolonged hospitalization is a serious adverse effect. T

200 ADRs of only prescribed drugs are to be reported. F

COURTESY: JM