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MP PCS(J) PRELIMS TEST SERIES 2023
LAW PAPER NO. 1

INSTRUCTIONS
 Total question: 150
 Each question carries 1 marks.
 Total marks: 150
 Duration: 2:00 hours

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1. When was Magna Carta granted in England? (a) Yes, since this will lead to multiplicity of proceedings
(a) 1832 (b) 1911 (b) Yes, since by filing a counter claim A has accepted
(c) 1949 (d) 1215 the jurisdiction of the courts of New York
2. In Maneka Gandhi's case, the Supreme Court held (c) No, because the pendency of a suit in a foreign
that the procedure established by law must be : court does not preclude courts in India from trying
a suit based on the same cause of action.
(a) fair and reasonable
(d) No, because it is the defendant in the first suit and
(b) fair, just and reasonable
the plaintiff in the second suit.
(c) fair, just and equitable
9. In a contractual dispute between two parties A and
(d) duly enacted by legislature B, A files a suit is New Delhi where the cause of
3. Who has the authority to call a joint sitting of the action arose. Two days later, B files a suit in the
two Houses of Parliament? same matter in Mumbai, where A is resident. The
(a) Prime Minister pendency of the first suit is not brought to the notice
of the court in Mumbai. The court pronounces
(b) President
judgement in second suit before the first suit is
(c) Members of Lok Sabha decided. Would such decision operate as a bar on
(d) Members of Rajya Sabha the court in New Delhi to try suit any further ?
4. Which committee is related to Panchayati Raj (a) Yes, the principle of res judicata will apply.
Institution? (b) No, the principle of res judicata only applies against
(a) Mudholkar Committee ‘former suits.’ In this case, the suit in Mumbai was
(b) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee filed subsequent to the suit in Delhi and is therefore
not a ‘former suit’.
(c) Malimath Committee
(c) No, because the parties did not disclose the pen-
(d) Khullar Committee
dency of the previous suit to the Court in Mumbai
5. The concept of single citizenship is adopted in India
(d) No, because the plaintiff in the first suit is not the
from the Constitution of which country?
plaintiff in the second suit
(a) U.S.A. (b) France
10. A suit for compensation for wrong done to the
(c) Canada (d) U.K. person or to movable property, where the wrong
6. Which of the following order is not decree as per was done within the local jurisdiction of one court
the definition of decree contained in the Code of and the defendant resides within the local limits of
Civil Procedure, 1908? another court—
(a) Order of abatement of suit (a) can be instituted in the court within whose local
(b) Order holding that there is no cause of action jurisdiction the wrong has been committed
(c) Order holding that appeal is not maintainable (b) can be instituted in the court within whose local
jurisdiction the defendant resides
(d) Order of remand
(c) either (a) or (b) at the option of the plaintiff
7. Section 3 of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908, deals
with (d) can be instituted anywhere in India
(a) Stay of suit 11. The principles governing execution of decree and
orders in CPC are dealt within:
(b) Pecuniary Jurisdiction
(a) Section 36 to 74 (substantive law) and Order 21
(c) Subordination of courts
(procedural provisions)
(d) Definitions
(b) Section 36 to 74 (procedural provisions) and Order
8. ‘A’, an Indian citizen, enters into a contract with ‘B’, 21 (substantive)
a US citizen based in the USA. Certain disputes
arise under the contract, and ‘B’ files a suit in the (c) Section 148A
matter in the civil court of New York. ‘A’ files a (d) Section 148 to 1538
counter claim in the said suit. Subsequently, ‘A’ files 12. A money decree may be executed by
a suit in the same matter in the jurisdiction Civil
(a) attachment and sale of any property of the judgment
Court in New Delhi. Is the latter court barred from
debtor.
trying the suit

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 (b) arrest and detention in prison of the judgment
debtor for indefinite period.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
13. “No appeal shall lie from a decree passed by the
court with the consent of parties”. It is provided—
(a) Section 96(1) C.P.C. (b) Section 96(2) C.P.C.
(c) Section 96(3) C.P.C. (d) Section 96(4) C.P.C.
14. In which of the following cases it was held that
“inherent power has not been conferred on a court,
it is a power inherent in the court”?
(a) Manoharlal v. Seth Hiralal
(b) Cotton Corporation India v. United Industrial Bank
(c) Satyabrat Biswas v. Kalyan Kumar Kishku
(d) Rajani Bai v. Kamla Devi
15. A defendant under Order V, Rule 1(1) of C.P.C is
required to appear, answer the claim and to file the
written statement.
(a) Within 90 days from the date of service of
summons
(b) Within 60 days from the date of service of
summons
(c) Within 30 days from the date of service of
summons
(d) Within 15 days from the date of service of
summons
16. Choose the true statement about propositions :
Propositions :
(i) Every suit presupposes the existence of cause of
action against the defendant.
(ii) If there is no cause of action, the plaint will have to
be rejected.
(iii) Failure in indicating the date of accurd of causes of
action is fatal to the filling of suit.
Assertions :
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct (iii) is incorrect
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct, (i) is incorrect
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct, (ii) is incorrect
(d) All are correct
17. When any party from whom a written statement is
required fails to produce the same within a fixed
time before the court,
(a) None of these
(b) The court may pronounce judgement
(c) The court may make any order regarding the suit.
(d) Both The court may pronounce judgement and The
court may make any order regarding the suit.
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18. Choose the true statement about propositions :
Propositions :
(I) Where on the fixed day it is found that summons
has not been served upon the defendant in conse-
quence of the failure of the plaintiff to pay the
court-fee the Court may dismiss the suit
(II) Where neither party appears when the suit is called
on for bearing, the court may make an order that
the suit be dismissed
(III) Where a suit is dismissed under any of the above
case, the plaintiff will be barred from bring a fresh
suit
Assertations :
(a) I and II are correct, III is incorrect
(b) II and III are incorrect, I is correct
(c) I and III are correct, II incorrect
(d) All are correct
19. Which of the proposition is incorrect with regard
to oral examination of a party by the Court under
Order 10 Rule 2 CPC?
(a) The examination need not be restricted to allegations
in the pleadings of the other party but can relate to
elucidating any matter in controvesy in the suit.
(b) The court can examine not only the parties but any
person accompanying either party to the suit.
(c) The statement made during the course of
examination is not on oath.
(d) The court can cross-examine any of the parties with
reference to a document.
20. Garnishee proceedings under the Code of Civil
Procedure can be instituted to enable :
(a) Attachment of debt, shares and other property not
in possession of the judgment debtor.
(b) Attachment of property of which the owner is not
known
(c) Only for attachment of property which cannot be
estimated in terms of money
(d) Only for attachment of a share in joint family
property
21. With regard to abatement of suit under Order XXII
of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 choose the
true statement about propositions.
Propositions :
(i) The death of a plaintiff or defendant shall not cause
the suit to abate if the right to sue survives.
(ii) Where sole surviving plaintiff dies and the right to
the sue survives, the Court on an application made
in that behalf, shall cause the legal representative of
the deceased plaintiff to be made a party and shall
proceed with the suit.
 (iii) Any person so made a party shall be governed by
pleadings already submitted and shall not be entitiled
to make any defence appropriate to his character as
legal representative of the party.
Assertions :
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct (iii) is incorrect
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct, (i) is incorrect
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct, (ii) is incorrect
(d) All are correct
22. Under Order XXXII of C.P.C., who can file suit on
behalf of minor?
(a) Representative of the next friend of minor.
(b) Next friend of the minor
(c) Receiver appointed by the court
(d) Guardian appointed by the court
23. The Court is entitled to give a summary judgment
on a claim in a commercial dispute
(a) only in favour of the plaintiff, if the defendant has
no real prospect of successfully defending the claim.
(b) only in favour of the defendant, if the plaintiff has
no real prospect of succeeding in the claim and there
is no other compelling reason why the claim should
not be disposed of before recording oral evidence.
(c) in favour of the plaintiff or defendant, as the case
may be, if the plaintiff has no real prospect of
succeeding on the claim or the defendant has no
real prospect of successfully defending the claim.
(d) against a plaintiff or defendant, if the plaintiff has
no real prospect of succeeding on the claim or the
defendant has no real prospect of successfully
defending the claim, as the case may be, and there is
no other compelling reason why the claim should
not be disposed of before recording of oral
evidence.
24. Which one of the following combination are not
correctly matched?
1. Res subjudice - Section 11
2. Res judicata - Section 10
3. Judgement and decree - Section 33
4. Summon to witness - Section 80
Select correct answer by using code given ahead—
Code:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
25. Consider the following statements:
1. Where the High Court calls for the record of any
case in its revisional jurisdiction, it operates as a stay
of such case before the subordinate court.
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2. No second appeal shall lie in money suits where the
value of the subject matter does not exceed Rs.
25,000.
3. A plaintiff cannot be allowed by the court to sue
afterwards for any relief omitted by him in the suit.
4. A plaintiff may relinquish any portion of his calim
in order to bring the suit within the jurisdiction of
any court.
Of the above statements:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are incorrect. (b) 2 and 3 are incorrect
(c) 1 and 3 are incorrect (d) 1 and 4 are incorrect
26. Assertion (A) : Subject to some exceptions the
provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure are not
applicable to tribal areas in undivided Assam.
Reason (R) :These areas enjoy special status like the
State of Jammu and Kashmir.
Code:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
27. Summons case means:—
(a) a case which is not a warrant case
(b) a case in which security is not required
(c) a case through which offence of theft is tried
(d) a case in which only summons can be served during
trial
28. The Court of Sessions shall ordinarily hold its
sitting as per Section 9 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure
(a) at such place or places as the High Court may, by
notification, specify, or if in any particular case, the
Court of Session is of opinion that it will tend to
the general convenience of the parties and the wit-
nesses to hold its sitings at any other place in the
Sessions Division.
(b) at such place or places as the High Court may, by
notification, specify, or if in any particular case, the
Court of Session is of opinion that it will tend to
the general convenience of the parties and the wit-
nesses to hold its sittings at any other place in the
Sessions Division, it may with the consent of the
prosecution and the accused sit at that place for the
disposal of the case.
(c) at such place or places as the State Government may,
by notification, specify, or if in any particular case,
the Court of Session is of opinion that it will tend
 to the general convenience of the parties and the
witnesses to hold its sitting at any other place in the
Sessions Division, it may with the consent of the
prosecution and the accused sit at that place for the
disposal of the case.
(d) if in any particular case, the court of Session is of
opinion that it will tend to the general convenience
of the parties and the witnesses to hold its sittings
33. Who is not competent to pass an order under Sec-
at any other place in the Session Division, it may
with the consent of the Public Prosecutor sit at that
place for the disposal of the case.
29. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer using the code given below the Lists:
(b) A warrant of arrest may be directed to more than
one police officer
(c) A warrant directed to any police officer cannot be
executed by any other police officer under Section
74 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973
(d) A warrant for arrest shall remain in force until it is
cancelled or until it is executed.
tion 106 Cr.P.C. to take security. For keeping the
peace on conviction.
(a) Judicial Magistrate first class
(b) Additional Session Judge

List-I List-II (c) Chief Judicial Magistrate

A. Special Metropolitan 1. Imprisonment up (d) Executive Magistrate

Magistrate to 7 years or/and fine 34. Under section 125 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure, a Magistrate:—
B. Chief Metropolitan 2. Imprisonment up
Magistrate to 10 years or/and (a) has the power to grant interim maintenance and
fine the expenses of the proceedings
C. Judicial Magistrate of 3. Imprisonment up (b) has no power to grant interim maintenance and the
Second Class to 3 years or/and fine expenses of the proceedings
D. Assistant Sessions 4. Imprisonment up (c) has power to grant interim maintenance but no
Judge to 1 year or/and fine power to grant expenses or the proceedings
up to Rs. 5,000 (d) has no power to grant interim maintenance but has
Code : the power to grant expenses of the proceedings
A B C D 35. The power of a police officer to require attendance
of a woman witness in a cognizable offence extended
(a) 2 4 3 1
to:—
(b) 3 2 1 4
(a) calling that woman to police station through a male
(c) 1 4 2 3 constable.
(d) 3 1 4 2 (b) calling that woman to police station through a
30. Which of the following sections of the Codes of female constable.
Criminal Procedure, 1973 mandates that whenever (c) calling that woman to police station through her
it is necessary to cause a female to be searched, the parents or family members.
search shall be made by another female with strict (d) not calling that woman to police station, but going
regard to decency ? personally to the place where such woman resides.
(a) Section 51(1) (b) Section 52(1) 36. Which of the following statement is not true?
(c) Section 51(2) (d) Section 52(2) (a) No further investigation can be conducted in respect
31. The guidelines regarding the arrest of judicial of an offence after forwarding a police report to the
officers by the police were issued by the Supreme magistrate.
Court in (b) The statement of the witnesses recorded during
(a) Joginder Kumar v State of Uttar Pradesh investigation under Section 161 of the Code of
(b) M C Abraham v State of Maharashtra Criminal Procedure 1973 are inserted in case diary.

(c) D K Basu v State of West Bengal
(d) Delhi Judicial Service Association v State of Gujarat
32. Which of the following statement is not true-
(a) A warrant of arrest may be executed at any place in
India.
(c) Any criminal court cannot use police diary as an
evidence in that case.
(d) No magistrate of second class, not specially
empowered by the High Court, shall authorize
detention in the custody of police under Section
167 of the code of Criminal Procedure 1973.

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37. In scrutiny of a complaint the magistrate does the 3. All the facts so established should be consistent
following (Choose the correct course available): only with the hypothesis of guilt and inconsistent
(a) If the magistrate is not competent to take cognisance with innocence
of the offence mentioned he still may take cognisance 4. The circumstances should, to a moral certainity,
if it is a complaint case exclude the possibility of guilt of any person other
than the accused.
(b) The magistrate takes cognisance of the case but
cannot examine the complainant on oath Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(c) The magistrate may look into the complaint and (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
send it to the police for investigation (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) Direct an investigation even if the offence is triable 42. Assertion (A) : Extra-judicial confession, if volun-
exclusively by the Sessions Court tary, can be relied upon with other
38. When, in any warrant case instituted otherwise than evidence.
on a police report, the accused appears or is brought Reason (R) : Extra-judicial confession is a weak
before a Magistrate, the Magistrate shall piece of evidence.
(a) satisfy himself that he has complied with the Code :
provisions of Section 207 of the Code of
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
Criminal Procedure
explanation of (A)
(b) postpone issue of process against the accused if he
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
is residing at a place beyond the area in which he
explanation of (A)
exercises his jurisdiction
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(c) either inquire into the case himself or direct an
investigation to be made by a police officer for the (d) (A) is false but (R) is true
purpose of deciding whether or not there is suffi- 43. Which one of the following is not a case of ‘Dying
cient ground for proceeding Declaration’?
(d) shall proceed to hear the prosecution and take all (a) Rattam Gaud v. State of Bihar
such evidence as may be produced in support of (b) Paniben v. State of Gujarat
the prosecution
(c) Sita Ram v. State of U.P.
39. During trial, statements of an accused person are (d) Kaushal Rao v. State of Maharashtra
recorded by the court under Code of Criminal
Procedure 1973 under:— 44. Assertion (A) : The findings of the criminal court are
inadmissible in a civil suit.
(a) Section 311 (b) Section 312
Reason (R) : Acquittal or conviction in a criminal case
(c) Section 313 (d) Section 314 has no evidentiary value in a subsequent civil litigation
40. The period of limitation shall commence — except for the limited purpose of showing that there
(a) on the date of the offence was a trial of resulting in acquittal or conviction, as the
case may be.
(b) where the commission of the offence was not
known to the person aggrieved by the offence or to (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation
of A
any police officer, the first day on which such offence
comes to the knowledge of such person or to any (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
police officer, whichever is earlier explanation of A
(c) where it is not known by whom the offence was (c) A is true but R is false
committed, the first day on which the identity of (d) A is false but R is true
the offender is known to the person aggrieved by 45. Assertion (A) : In criminal cases the fact that accused
the offence or to the police officer making investiga- is of good character is relevant.
tion into the offence, whichever is earlier
Reason (R) : In criminal cases bad character of the
(d) All of the above accused is always irrelevant.
41. In reference to circumstantial evidence : Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. The circumstances from which the conclusion is Code :
drawn, should be fully established
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
2. The circumstances should be conclusive in nature explanation of (A)

6
 (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct the particular ship was orally excepted from the
explanation of (A) policy.
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false (b) A agrees in writing to pay Rs. 1000 on the first of
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true March, 2002. A party says that at the same time an
oral agreement was made that money should not
46. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
be paid till the 31st of March, 2002.
using the codes given below the Lists:-
(c) An estate called the Rampur Tea Estate is sold by a
List-I List-II
deed which contains a map of the property sold.
A. Section 46 of Indian 1. Opinion digital One party says that land not included in the map
Evidence Act signature had always been regarded as part of the estate and
B. Section 47 of Indian 2. Opinion existence was meant to pass by the deed.
Evidence Act of right or custom (d) A enters into a written contract with B to work in
when relevant certain mines, the property of B, on certain terms.
C. Section 47A of Indian 3. Facts bearing upon A says that he was induced to do so by a
Evidence Act opinion of experts misrepresentation of B as to their value.

D. Section 48 of Indian 4. Opinion as to 50. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
Evidence Act handwriting when by using the code given below the lists:
relevant List-I List-II
Code : (Provisions) (Section of Evidence Act)
A B C D A. Burden of Proof 1. Section 106
(a) 4 3 2 1 B. On whom burden 2. Section 103
(b) 1 2 3 4 of proof lies
(c) 2 1 4 3 C. Burden of Proof 3. Section 102 as
(d) 3 4 1 2 to particular fact
47. Under which provision of law, can a court direct D. Burden of proving 4. Section 101
any person to write any words or figures for com- fact epecially within knowledge
parison of handwriting ? A B C D
(a) Section 91 of Cr.P.C. (a) 3 4 1 2
(b) Section 54-A of Cr.P.C. (b) 2 3 4 1
(c) Section 73 of Indian Evidence Act. (c) 4 3 2 1
(d) Section 311 of Cr.P.C. (d) 1 2 3 4
48. In cases where a document proved to be thirty years 51. Presumption under Section 113A of Indian Evidence
old is produced from proper custody, which of the Act pertains to
following presumptions will the court make? (a) Dowry death
(a) The court makes an irrebutable presumption that (b) Custodial death
the contents of the document is true.
(c) Abetement of suicide by a married woman
(b) The court shall presume that the person who had
custody of the document is the executor of the (d) Absence of consent in certain prosecutions for rape
document. 52. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(c) The court may presume that the signature and (a) A rule of law can not be nullified by resorting to
handwriting is the signature and handwriting of the doctrine of estoppel.
person to be and was duly executed and attested. (b) Assurances held out but not incorporated in an
(d) The Court shall not make any presumption as to agreement would not attract doctrine of estoppel.
its validity or its execution. (c) Plea of promissory estoppel shall be available even
49. Which of the following facts can be proved under if an officer of the Government acts outside the
section 92 of the Indian Evidence Act? scope of his authority.
(a) The policy of insurance is affected on goods in ships (d) An estoppel arises as soon as the relationship of
from Kolkata to London. The goods are shipped landlord and tenant is created and tenant is not
in a particular ship which is lost. A party says that permitted to deny the title of his landlord.

7
53. From the following which is an exception to section Choose the correct answer from the codes given
23 of the Evidence Act? below:
(a) Section 126 of the Evidence Act Codes :
(b) Section 162 of the Evidence Act (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(c) Section 125 of the Evidence Act explanation of (A)
(d) Section 152 of the Evidence Act (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
54. A party who calls a witness:
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(a) Can put any question to him which might be put in
cross examination by the adverse party (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
(b) Can put any question to him which might be put in 59. Match List-I with List-II and select correct answer
cross examination by the opposite party only with using the code given below the lists:
the permission of the Court List I List II
(c) Cannot put any question to him which might be A. Act to Judge when acting 1. Section 84
put in cross examination by the opposite party even judicially
with the permission of the Court
B. Accident in doing a lawful 2. Section 82
(d) Can in no case put a question to his own witness act
which might be put in cross examination by adverse
C. Act of a child under seven 3. Section 80
party
years of age
55. Section 159 of Evidence Act provides for
D. Act of a person of 4. Section 77
(a) The credit of a witness may be impeached unsound mind
(b) Court’s power to disallow indecent or scandalous Code:
question
A B C D
(c) Witness can refresh his memory
(a) 1 2 3 4
(d) To put any question which might be put in cross-
examination by party to his own witness (b) 4 3 2 1

56. Read the following (c) 2 3 4 1

1. Indian Courts have jurisdiction to try crime
committed by an Indian in a foreign country
2. Indian Courts do not have jurisdiction to try crime
committed by a foreigner in India
of the above
(a) (1) is true but (2) is false
(b) (1) is false but (2) is true
(c) Both (1) & (2) are true
(d) Both (1) & (2) are false
57. Who among of the following is not a "public
servant" asccording to Section 21 of the Indian
Penal Code 1860
(a) Chief Minister and Prime Minister
(b) Judge and Magistrate
(c) Government servant appointed on deputation
(d) Principal of Government college
58. Assertion (A) : 'A', a soldier, fires on a mob by the
order of his superior officer, in conformity with the
commands of law. 'A' has committed no offence.
Reason (R) : Nothing is an offence which is done by a
person who is bound by law to do it.
(d) 3 4 1 2
60. The right of private defence of the body :
(a) commences as soon as reasonable apprehension of
danger to the body arises from an attempt or threat
to commit the offence and it continues as long as
such apprehension of the danger to the body
continues
(b) commences as soon as reasonable apprehension of
danger to the body arises from an attempt or threat
to commit the offence and it continues even after
that apprehension ceases
(c) commences only when the assault is actually done
and continues during the period of assault
(d) commences only when the assault is actually done
and continues even after the assailant has left
61. Which one of the following is not an ingredient of
offence of criminal conspiracy.
(a) The agreement between two or more person who
are alleged to conspire
(b) The agreement should be to do an illegal act
(c) The agreement should be to do an act which is
though not illegal but is done by illegal means

8
 (d) some overt act in pursuance of the agreement is (d) Offence of abetment of the offences enumerated
always necessary to be done even if the agreement is under Section 206(vii) of the criminal procedure
to commit an offence. code
62. The ingredients of Section 149 of the Indian Penal 66. 'A' meets a girl aged fifteen years in a park. She
Code are— tells him that she is sixteen years of age and she is
ill-treated at her house by her father and that she
1. Knowledge of the probability of the
would be happy to be taken away from there.
commission of the offence
Thereafter 'A' takes the girl to his house and allows
2. Common intention her to remain there. In this case:—
3. Unlawful objects stated in Section 141 of the (a) 'A' has committed no offence as the girl has come
IPC with him with her own consent.
4. Active participation in commission of crime. (b) 'A' has committed no offence as the girl
Section the correct answer using the codes given misrepresented her age and 'A' believed her matured
below— and capable of consenting.
Codes: (c) 'A' has committed the offence of kidnapping of
minor from the lawful guardian.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(d) 'A' has committed the offence of kidnapping and
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
wrongful confinement.
63. ‘A’ knowing that ‘B’, ‘C’, ‘D’, ‘E’, ‘F’ and ‘G’ are about
67. Match List I with List II and give the correct answer
to commit the offence of dacoity in Kathmandu,
by using the codes:
Nepal harbours them in his house in Sitamarhi,
Bihar with the intention of facilitating the List I List II
commission of such dacoity ‘A’ has A. Voluntarily throwing 1. Imprisonment may
(a) not committed any offence as the dacoity was yet to or attempting to extend to fourteen
throw Acid years
take place
B. Buying minor for 2. Imprisonment not
(b) not committed any offence that can be tried in India
purposes of less than five years,
(c) committed the offence of harbouring dacoits prostitution etc. may extend to seven
(d) committed an offence which can be tried and pun- years
ished only in Nepal C. Gang Rape 3. Imprisonment for a
64. The salient feature required to be considered to term which may ex
assess the defence of grave provocation within the tend to ten years
meaning of Indian Penal Code is D. Robbery committed 4. Rigorous imprison
(a) it can only be by words spoken and not otherwise. on the highway ment not less than
between sunset and twenty years may
(b) the mental background created by previous act of
sunrise extend to life
the victim cannot be seen/considered in any
circumstance. Code:
(c) whether a reasonable man, belonging to same class A B C D
of society as the accused, placed in same situation (a) 2 3 4 1
would be so provoked to loose his self control (b) 1 2 3 4
need to be considered.
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) applicable only if accused has a scope for
(d) 3 4 1 2
premeditation and calculation.
68. Which of the following statements is false :
65. Which one of the following offences cannot be
summarily tried? (a) theft is 'robbery' if, in order to the committing of
the theft, or in committing the theft, or in carrying
(a) Grievous hurt
away or attempting to carry away property obtained
(b) Theft when the value of stolen property is below by the theft, the offender, for that end, voluntarily
Rs. 200 causes or attempts to cause to any person death or
(c) Offences relating to Sections 454 and 456 of the hurt or wrongful restraint, or fear of instant death
Indian Penal Code or of instant hurt, or of instant wrongful restraint.

9
 (b) Extortion is 'robbery' if the offender, at the time of (d) will succeed because consideration given by a near
committing the extortion, is in the presence of the relation may be treated as consideration given by
person put in fear, and commits the extortion by the promisee
putting that person in fear of instant death, of 73. Consider the following statements :
instant hurt, or of instant wrongful restraint to
In Bhagvandas Goverdhandas Kedia v. Girdharilal
that person or to some other person and by so
Parshottamdas and Co. it was laid down that
putting in fear, induces the person, so put in fear
then and there to deliver up the thing extorted. 1. Section 4 does not imply that the contract is
made qua the proposer at one place and qua
(c) Property, the possession whereof has been trans-
the acceptor at another place.
ferred by theft. or by extortion, or by robbery, any
property which has been criminally misappropri- 2. the communication of acceptance should be
ated or in respect of which criminal breach of trust from a person who has the authority to accept.
has been committed is designated as 'stolen prop- Information received from an unauthorized
erty'. person is ineffective.
(d) none of these Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
69. Criminal trespass has been defined in which section
of Indian Penal Code? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) Section 441 (b) Section 440 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Section 452 (d) Section 457 74. Which one of the following agreements is induced
by undue influence?
70. In which one of the following cases Section 499 and
Section 500 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 have (a) A applies to a banker for loan at a time when
been recently declared Constitutional by the there is stringency in the money market. The
Supreme Court? banker declines to make the loan except at an
unusually high rate of interest. A accepts the loan
(a) Subramanium Swamy v. Union of India
on these terms
(b) Rajkumar Gupta v. Union of India
(b) A, enfeebled by disease or age, is induced by B’s
(c) Janet Jaypaul v. SRM University influence over him as his medical attendant, to
(d) Abhay Singh v. State of U.P. agree to pay B an unreasonable sum for his
71. In case of General Offer, a contract is entered professional services
into- (c) A, at the age of sixty-five years, executes a deed
(a) The world at large of gift in favour of his only grandson gifting
him all his properties to the exclusion of his
(b) The person who gives a reciprocal general offer
wife, sons and daughters
(c) The friend of the offeror
(d) B, a rich man, donates all his properties to a
(d) The person who performs the conditions of charitable trust leaving nothing for himself and
the general offer his family members
72. ‘A’ promises to provide maintenance allowance 75. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
to her maternal uncle in consideration of answer by using the codes given below the
certain properties gifted to her by her mother. lists :
‘A’ refuses to pay maintenance amount and
List-I List-II
maternal uncle institutes suit against ‘A’ to
enforce the promise. Which one of the (a) Undue influence (i) Contracts uberrima
following is the correct statement? Maternal fides
uncle : (b) Fraud (ii) Fiduciary relation
(a) will not succeed as he being a stranger to (c) Misrepresentation (iii) Unlawfully
consideration can not sue upon the contract
detaining of
(b) will succeed because according to the Indian
property
Contract Act consideration may be given by the
promisee or any other person (d) Coercion (iv) Positive assertion
not warranted by
(c) will succeed because he is near relative and in such
the information of
cases consideration is not necessary
the person making it

10
 Codes : 81. According to Section 18 of the Transfer of Prop-
(a) (b) (c) (d) erty Act, 1882 the provisions of some sections shall
not apply in the case of transfer of property for the
(a) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) benefit of the public in the advancement of religion,
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) knowledge, commerce, health safety or any other
(c) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) object beneficial to mankind. These sections are:—
(a) 13, 14, 15 & 16 (b) 14, 16 & 17
(d) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(c) 14, 16, 17 & 18 (d) 14, 15 & 20
76. The contract can be discharged by impossibility
of performance specified in : 82. Section 43 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
enables a transferee to whom a transferor has made
(a) Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
a fraudulent or erroneous representation to lay hold,
(b) Section 53 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 at his option, of any interest:—
(c) Section 56 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 (a) Which the transferor may subsequently acquire in
(d) Section 28 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 property, provided it does not adversely affect the
right of any subsequent purchaser for value with-
77. Where the rate of interest prescribed in case of out notice
breach is too high, the Court can interfere
(b) Which the transferee may rescind the proceeding
(a) On the proof of coercion
(c) Which both transferor and transferee rescind
(b) On the proof of undue influence
(d) None of the above
(c) On the satisfaction that the stipulation is by
83. “Every sale accompanied by agreement for re-
way of penalty
conveyance of property would not constitute mort-
(d) On the ground of equity gage by conditional sale.”
78. A employs B to recover Rs. 1,000 from C This statement is related to which section of Trans-
through B’s misconduct the money is not fer of Property Act?
recovered B is: (a) Section 55 (b) Section 56
(a) Entitled to no remuneration and must make (c) Section 58 (d) Section 60
good the loss
84. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(b) Neither entitled to remuneration not liable to answer using the codes given below :
make good the loss
List-I List-II
(c) Entitled to commission from C A. Feeding the Grant 1. Section 92
(d) None of the above by Estoppel
79. The Amendent of Transfer of Property Act, 1982 in B. Doctrine of 2. Section 17
the year 2002 effective from:— Subrogation
(a) 31st December, 2002 (b) 1st July, 2002 C. Doctrine of 3. Section 14
Accumulation
(c) 30th October, 2002 (d) 2nd July, 2002
D. Rule against 4. Section 43
80. Section 6 of Transfer of Property Act provides that
Perpetuity
property of any kind may be transferred except the
following : Codes :
(i) A mere right to sue A B C D
(ii) A public office or salary of a public officer (a) 4 1 2 3

(iii) The chance of an heir-apparent succeeding to an (b) 1 2 3 4

estate (c) 3 4 2 1
(iv) An easement apart from the dominant heritage (d) 4 2 1 3
Choose the correct combination : 85. Which one of the following pair is correctly
matched?
(a) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) cannot be transferred
(a) Universal donee - Section 128A
(b) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) cannot be transferred
(b) Mortgaged debt - Section 134
(c) All of (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) can be transferred
(c) Exchange of Money - Section 120
(d) None of the above can be transferred
(d) All of the above
11
86. Under the Specific Relief Act, 1963, a suit for recov- (ii) When the plaintiff has personal interest in the
ery of possession can be filed: matter
(a) Only in respect of moveable property (iii) To prevent the breach of a contract the performance
(b) Only in respect of immovable property of which would not be specifically enforced
(c) In respect of both moveable and immovable prop- (iv) To restrain any person from instituting or pros-
erties ecuting any proceeding in a civil matter
(d) Neither in respect of moveable nor in respect of Codes :
immovable property (a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
87. Section 12 of the Specific Relief Act deals with : (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(a) Rectification of instrument 91. Specific performance of contract means
(b) Personal bars to relief
(a) Actual execution of the contract according to its
(c) Specific performance of part of contract stipulations
(d) Cancellation of instruments (b) claim of damages or compensation for non-execu-
88. A sues B for the specific performance of a contract. tion of contract
In the plaint, A seeks the relief of specific (c) Either (a) or (b)
performance. He does not seek any relief in the
alternative. The Court determines that it cannot (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
order the specific performance of the contract. Can 92. For the purpose of Limitation Act, a suit is insti-
the court award compensation instead? tuted :
(a) Yes, as Specific Relief Act directs that compensation (i) in an ordinary case, when the plaint is presented
must be awarded. to the proper officer
(b) Compensation can be awarded since Order VII, Rule (ii) in the case of a pauper when his application for
7 of the Code of Civil Procedure provides that any leave to sue as a pauper is made
other relief can be awarded and the same does not
(iii) in the case of a claim against a company which
have to be specifically pleaded.
is being wound-up by the Court when the
(c) Compensation can be awarded only after the Court claimant first sends in the claim to the official
allows the plaint to be amended for including a liquidator
claim of compensation
Which of the above are correct?
(d) No, damages cannot be awarded since the relief of
specific performance and of compensation are (a) Only (i) (b) Only (i) and (ii)
inconsistent pleadings, and therefore no amend- (c) None of these (d) All these
ment can be brought to this effect. 93. Statement A: In computing period of limitation for
89. A suit filed by ‘X’ for a declaration that a one year any appeal, the day from which such period is to be
old boy allegedly born to the defendant wife ‘Y’ was reckoned, shall be included.
not his son.
Statement B: In computing period of Limitation for
(a) The suit is competent and maintainable under any appeal, the day on which the judgment complained
Section 34 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 of was pronounced and the time requisite for obtaining
(b) Suit is not competent and maintainable under the copy of the decree shall be excluded.
Section 34 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 (a) Statement A is correct
(c) The suit is expressly barred under Section 14 of the
(b) Statement B is correct
Specific Relief Act, 1963
(c) Both are correct
(d) The suit is expressly barred under Section 38 of the
Specific Relief Act, 1963 (d) Both are incorrect
90. In which of the following cases Injunction cannot 94. With reference to the Limitation Act, Match List I
be granted :- with List II and select the correct answer by using
(i) If it would impede or delay the progress or comple- the codes given below the lists :
tion of any infrastructure project or interfere with List I List II
the continued provision of relevant facility related (a) Extension of prescribed period (i) Section 3
thereto or services being the subject matter of such
project in certain cases

12
 (b) Effect of Fraud of Mistake (ii) Section 5 (a) A person who, at the time the offence was commit-
(c) Effect of Acknowledgment in (iii) Section 17 ted, was in charge of, and was responsible for the
conduct of the business of the company and not
writing the company
(d) Bar of Limitation (iv) Section 18 (b) The company, in its name
Code : (c) A Director of the Company nominated by the
A B C D Central Government
(a) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (d) A person, in charge of and responsible for the
conduct of the business of the company, as well as
(b) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii) the company
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 99. Section 142A of the Negotiable Instruments Act,
(d) (ii) (iii) (ii) (iv) 1881 was inserted by :
95. In case of a suit for property which the plaintiff has (a) Act 26 of 2015, Section 4 (w.e.f. 15.6.2015)
conveyed while insane, the time from which the (b) Ins. By Act 55 of 2002, Section 10 (w.e.f. 6.2.2003)
period of limitation begins to run is (c) Ins. By act 66 of 1988
(a) when the plaintiff is restored to sanity. (d) None of the above
(b) the date the property was conveyed. 100. What are the defences available against proceed-
(c) when the plaintiff has knowledge of the conveyance. ings under section 138 of Negotiable Instruments
Act?
(d) Both (a) and (c)
(a) absence of a legally enforceable debt or liability
96. The term "a cheque in the electronic form" is
defined in the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 (b) absence of legal notice of 15 days
under: (c) lack of jurisdiction
(a) Section 6(a) (d) all of the above
(b) Section 6(b) 101. Every Revenue Officer in a sub-division shall be
subordinate to?
(c) Explanation I(a) of Section 6
(a) Collector (b) Sub Divisional Officer
(d) None of these
(c) Tahsildar (d) None of the above
97. Point out which one of the following statements is
not correct regarding 'assignment' and 102. Who shall order that boundaries of all survey
numbers, block numbers or plot numbers of the
'negotiation' of instrument.
village shall be fixed and demarcated?
(a) In assignment, there is transfer of the right to receive
(a) State Government
the payment of debt but it is not in case of
negotiation. (b) Collector

(b) The assignee is not liable for any defect in the title
of his assignor but a holder in due course of a
negotiable instrument is liable for the defects in the
title of the previous transferors.
(c) An assignment does not bind the debtor unless a
notice of the assignment has been given to him
but no information of the transfer of a negotiable
instrument is to be given to the debtor.
(d) In assignment, there is no presumption in favour
of assignee that he has given consideration.
However in case of holder in due course of
negotiable instrument, he is presumed to have given
consideration for the instrument.
98. If the person committing an offence under Section
138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, is a
company, the following shall be deemed to be guilty
of the offence:
(c) Tahsildar
(d) Sub-Divisional Officer
103. Fine for unauthorizedly taking possession of land
mentioned in Section 248 of the Code may extend
to :
(a) Rs. 500/- in non urban areas & Rs. 2000/- in urban
areas per day
(b) Rs. 5000/- per day at the discretion of Tehsildar
(c) Rs. 1,00,000/- at the discretion of Tehsildar
(d) Rs. 1000/- at the discretion of Tehsildar
104. Under the Code a second appeal against the order
passed by Collector shall lie before :
(a) Commissioner
(b) Settlement Commissioner
(c) Board of Revenue
(d) High Court

13
105. Who is competent to transfer a revenue case from 110. M.P. Accommodation Control Act does not apply
one District to another under Section 29 of the M.P. to
Land Revente Code? (a) Government Property
(a) State Government (b) Board of Revenue (b) Non-agricultural Lana
(c) Chief Secretary (d) Revenue Minister (c) Property of Local Authority used for residential
106. Which of the following acts cannot form ground purpose
of eviction of the tenant: (d) All of the above
(a) Nuisance 111. "Wandering in many worlds" is written by:
(b) Disclaimer of the title of his landlord (a) Justice K.T. Thomas
(c) Material structural alteration (b) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer
(d) Use of a portion of his accommodation as his office (c) Justice Narayana Kurup
107. In order to get benefit of protection against eviction (d) Justice Bharucha
in any appeal by a tenant against any decree for his 112. World Cup Cricket was first played in England in
eviction (a) 1969 (b) 1971
(a) the tenant is required to deposit in the Court or pay (c) 1975 (d) 1979
to the landlord an amount of rent as per the
113. Name the Mayor of Agra who handed over a 12
requirement of sub-Section (1) of Section 13 of
inch silver key to the US President, Donald Trump
the M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961
when he visited the city recently.
(b) the tenant not bound to deposit or pay rent as per
(a) Baby Rani Maurya (b) Inderjeet Singh Arya
requirement of subSection (1) of Section 13 of the
M.P. Accommodation Control Act, 1961 (c) Anjula Singh Mahaur (d) Naveen Jain
114. The first session of UNO General Assembly was
(c) the tenant is required to deposit or pay rent as per
held on
the requirement of sub-Section (1) of the M.P.
Accommodation Control Act, 1961 if the landlord (a) January 10, 1945 (b) January 10, 1946
apply for such deposit or payment (c) January 10, 1947 (d) January 10, 1948
(d) none of the above 115. A queen honeybee lays eggs of
108. Which of the following is incorrect statement? (a) one type from which all castes develop
(a) Tenant can sublet the whole or any part of the (b) two types, one forming queen and workers and the
accommodation held by him as a tenant with the other forming drones
previous consent in writing of landlord (c) three types forming queen, drones and workers
(b) Tenant can transfer or assign his rights in the tenancy (d) Unfertilized eggs die while fertilized ones form all
or in any part thereof with the previous consent in castes
writing of landlord 116. In 1981, which of the following were designated as
(c) For subletting, the previous consent of landlord State Animal & State Bird respectively?
has to be taken in writing. It is a mandatory (a) Tiger and Dudhraj
provision
(b) Barahsingha and Sparrow
(d) A landlord shall claim or receive the payment of any
(c) Barasingha and Dudhraj
sum as premium of “pugree” for giving his consent
to the subletting of the accommodation held by (d) Tiger and Sparrow
the tenant 117. What is the average annual rainfall in Madhya
Pradesh?
109. Where order for eviction of tenant is obtained on
the grounds under subsection (1)(e) and (a) of (a) 102 cm (b) 112 cm
Section 12 of the Act, the landlord cannot obtain (c) 114 cm (d) 120 cm
possession before lapse of which of the following 118. Which of the following river is not a part of drainage
period? system emerging from Amarkantak Plateau?
(a) one month (b) two months (a) Kali Sind (b) Betwa
(c) any time (d) six months (c) Son (d) Chambal

14
119. Tele-communication services in Madhya Pradesh (c) Abul Kalam Computer University
commenced in? (d) Rajiv Gandhi Computer University
(a) 1972 (b) 1974 130. What's considered the 'backbone' of the World
(c) 1989 (d) 1997 Wide Web?
120. Renowned singer Kishore Kumar was born in which (a) URL (b) HTML
district of Madhya Pradesh? (c) HTTP (d) FTP
(a) Khandwa (b) Khargaon 131. Please place the book ............ the desk.
(c) Indore (d) Badwani (a) Upon (b) On
121. The printed output from a computer is called— (c) In (d) Over
(a) Copy (b) Soft Copy 132. Select the word which is most nearly opposite in
(c) Hard Copy (d) Paper meaning as the word "FORBID":
122. The full form of EEPROM is : (a) Forgive (b) Allow
(a) Electronically erasable Programmable read only (c) Refuse (d) Deprive
memory
Directions Each of the following sentences in this section
(b) Electrically erasable Programmable read only has a blank space and four words or group of words given
memory after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you
(c) Electronically enabled Programmable read only consider the most appropriate for the blank space.
memory 133. The manager of the company wants the sales team
(d) Electrically enabled Programmable read only to hand .................. their reimbursement documents
memory by Monday.
123. Which of the following separates primary file and (a) across (b) out
extension : (c) in (d) over
(a) Dot (.) (b) Point 134. To face the music
(c) @ (d) All above (a) to enjoy a musical recital
124. The operating system which is the most common (b) to bear the consequences
type of Software :
(c) to live in a pleasant atmosphere
(a) Communication software
(d) to live in a pleasant atmosphere
(b) Word processing software
One Word Substitution
(c) System software
135. The practise of having many wives.
(d) Application software
(a) Bigamy (b) Calligraphy
125. The full form of IP is :
(c) Polygamy (d) Polyandry
(a) Internet Process (b) Internet Provider
Synonyms
(c) Internet Protocol (d) Internet Placement
136. The five day week in Government Offices is bound to
126. Symbol used in e-mail address : benefit the jaded office goers.
(a) @ (b) # (a) refreshed (b) routined
(c) $ (d) None of these (c) fatigued (d) vigorous
127. Which of the following is not an operating system : 137. Itinerant
(a) MS Windows (b) MS-DOS (a) frequent use of 'it'
(c) MS-Excel (d) Linux (b) anything involving repetition
128. Which of the following devices cannot be shared (c) plan for proposed journey
on a computer network ?
(d) travelling from place to place
(a) Hard Drive (b) Keyboard
Antonyms
(c) CD Drive (d) Printer
138. Mrs Nisha made a fervent appeal to the mambers of
129. The 1st Computer University of India is : the club to maintain unity.
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru Computer University (a) active (b) impassive
(b) Indira Gandhi Computer University (c) cold (d) passionate

15
 Sentence Completion
Directions Four alternatives a, b, c and d are given under each
sentence, you are required to select the most suitable alternative
to fill in the blank/blanks in the sentence to make it
meaningful.
139. It was impossible to recover the victims' bodies as
the place of the accident was ................
(a) inaccessible (b) marshy
(c) distant (d) rocky
140. Director, he said, would .............. the matter at once.
(a) invigilate (b) explore
(c) investigate (d) survey
141. According to provisions of the Section 10,
punishment for aggravated sexual assault shall be—
(a) Imprisonment for a term not less than five years
but not more than seven years and also with fine.
(b) Imprisonment for a term not less than three years
but not more than five years and also with fine.
(c) Imprisonment for a term not less than seven years
but not more than ten years and also with fine.
(d) None of above.
142. Which of following conditions, as per provisions
of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences
Act, 2012, has to be adhered to while examining or
recording statement of the child
(a) the statement of child shall be recorded at the
residence of child or the place where they usually
resides or the place of his choice
(b) as far as practicable the statement should be recorded
by woman police officer not below the rank of Sub
Inspector, who shall not be in uniform
(c) the Investigating Officer shall ensure that at no
point of time the child comes in contact in any way
with the accused
(d) all the above
143. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Section 33(5) makes provision for that the Special
Court shall ensure that the child is not called
repeatedly to testify in the Court.
(b) Section 33(6) makes provision for that the Special
Court not permit aggressive questioning or character
assassination of the child and ensure that dignity
of the child is maintained at all times during trial.
(c) Section 33(7) makes provision for that the Special
Court shall ensure that identity of child is not
disclosed at any time during course of investigation
or trial.
(d) All of above.
144. Who, as per Section 2(1) of the Juvenile Justice (Care
and Protection of Children) Act, 2000, is a 'Juvenile
in conflict with law'?

16
(a) A Juvenile who is alleged to have committed an
offence and has not completed eighteen years of
age as on the date of commission of such offence
(b) A Juvenile who is alleged to have committed an
offence and has not completed twelve years of age
on the date of commission of such offence
(c) A Juvenile who is alleged to have committed an
offence and has not completed sixteen years of age
on the date of commission of such offence
(d) A Juvenile who is alleged to have committed an
offence and has not completed fourteen years of
age on the date of commission of such offence
145. Which among the following are the General
Principles in administration of the Act :
(a) Principle of fresh start
(b) Principle of non-waiver of rights
(c) Principle of diversion
(d) All of the above
146. Where an offence under The Juvenile Justice (Care
and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 is punishable
with imprisonment for less than three years, then
such offence shall be—
(a) Cognizable, bailable and triable by Magistrate of
the First Class.
(b) Cognizable, non-bailable and triable by Magistrate
of the First Class.
(c) Non cognizable, bailable and triable by any
Magistrate.
(d) None cognizable, non bailable and triable by any
Magistrate.
147. What year was the Information Technology Act,
2000 enacted?
(a) 1998 (b) 2000
(c) 2005 (d) 2010
148. What does CERT-In stand for in the context of the
IT Act?
(a) Computer Emergency Response Team-India
(b) Cyber Enforcement and Response Team-India
(c) Central Electronic Resources and Technology-India
(d) Computerized Emergency Response Team-Indian
149. *Under the IT Act, what is the role of an
intermediary in the context of user-generated
content?*
(a) Content creation (b) Content moderation
(c) Content distribution (d) Content encryption
150. Which section of IT Act deals with the appointment
of Controller of certifying authorities
(a) Section 17 (b) Section 15
(c) Section 10 (d) Section 5
 (A venture of Pariksha Manthan Educational Services Pvt. Ltd.)
MP PCS(J) PRELIMS TEST SERIES 2023
LAW PAPER NO. 1

Answer Key

1.(d) 2.(b) 3.(b) 4.(b) 5.(d) 6.(d) 7.(c) 8.(c) 9.(a) 10.(c)
11.(a) 12.(a) 13.(c) 14.(a) 15.(c) 16.(d) 17.(d) 18.(a) 19.(d) 20.(a)
21.(a) 22.(b) 23.(d) 24.(b) 25.(c) 26.(c) 27.(a) 28.(b) 29.(d) 30.(c)
31.(d) 32.(c) 33.(d) 34.(a) 35.(d) 36.(a) 37.(c) 38.(d) 39.(c) 40.(d)
41.(c) 42.(a) 43.(c) 44.(a) 45.(c) 46.(d) 47.(c) 48.(c) 49.(d) 50.(c)
51.(c) 52.(c) 53.(a) 54.(b) 55.(c) 56.(a) 57.(d) 58.(a) 59.(b) 60.(a)
61.(d) 62.(d) 63.(c) 64.(c) 65.(a) 66.(c) 67.(a) 68.(d) 69.(a) 70.(a)
71.(d) 72.(b) 73.(a) 74.(b) 75.(a) 76.(c) 77.(c) 78.(a) 79.(a) 80.(d)
81.(b) 82.(a) 83.(c) 84.(a) 85.(b) 86.(c) 87.(c) 88.(c) 89.(a) 90.(c)
91.(a) 92.(d) 93.(b) 94.(a) 95.(d) 96.(c) 97.(b) 98.(d) 99.(a) 100.(d)
101.(b) 102.(a) 103.(c) 104.(a) 105.(b) 106.(d) 107.(a) 108.(d) 109.(b) 110.(a)
111.(b) 112.(c) 113.(d) 114.(b) 115.(b) 116.(c) 117.(b) 118.(c) 119.(b) 120.(a)
121.(c) 122.(b) 123.(a) 124.(c) 125.(c) 126.(a) 127.(c) 128.(b) 129.(d) 130.(c)
131.(b) 132.(b) 133.(c) 134.(b) 135.(c) 136.(c) 137.(d) 138.(b) 139.(a) 140.(c)
141.(a) 142.(d) 143.(d) 144.(a) 145.(d) 146.(c) 147.(b) 148.(a) 149.(b) 150.(a)

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