PHÒNG GDĐT KIỂM TRA CHẤT LƯỢNG HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN

HUYỆN KIM BẢNG NĂM HỌC 2023-2024

Môn: Tiếng Anh - Lớp 8
Đề chính thức (Thời gian làm bài 150 phút)

( Đề kiểm tra gồm 08 trang, học sinh làm ngay vào bộ đề này)
Số phách
ĐIỂM CỦA BÀI KIỂM TRA

Bằng số: .............................................. Họ tên người chấm số 1: ........................

Bằng chữ:............................................ Họ, tên người chấm số 2: ........................

SECTION A. LISTENING (25 points)

Part I. You will hear five short conversations. You will hear each conversation twice. There is
one question for each conversation. For questions 1-5, put a tick under the right answer.(5
points)
Example: 0. How many people were at the meeting?
A. 3 B. 13 C. 30
1. What are they going to buy for Pam?
A. a book B. a plant C. chocolate
2. When is the man's appointment?
A. Wednesday B. Thursday C. Friday
3. Which is the aunt's postcard?
A.by the river B.behind the tall trees C. in the mountain
4. What time will the plane to Milan leave?
A. 1:00 B. 7:15 C. 8:15
5. What does Joe's father do?
A. farmer B. photographer C. pilot
Your answer:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part II. Listen to Sarah and Mathew talking about the people they met at the party. What do
they say about each person? Match the answers with the descriptions. (10 points)
Example: 0. Jenny – A

People Your answer Descriptions

6. John 6………….. A. blonde
7. Mary 7….………. B. famous
8. Bob 8………… C. friendly
 9. David 9…….…… D. interesting
10. Sally 10……..….. E. quiet

Part III. Listen to Anne asking her friend about going to a shopping centre. Choose the correct
answer in each question. (10 points)

Example: 0. The name of the new shopping centre is

A. The Rivers B. The Forest Centre C. Queen's

11. At the moment, the shopping centre sells
A. clothes B. books C. food
12. You can take a coach to the shopping centre on
A. Mondays B. Tuesdays C. Saturdays
13. Anne's coach ticket will cost
A. £2.50 B. £5.60 C. £10.80
14. The nearest coach stop to Anne's house is
A. in the bus station B. in the market square C. outside the museum
15. The coach journey takes
A. 10 minutes B. 20 minutes C. 40 minutes
Your answer:
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

SECTION B. PHONETICS (10 points)

Part I. Choose the word in each group that has the underlined part pronounced differently
from the rest. (5 points)
1. A. accent B. kangaroo C. damage D. pasture
2. A. improvement B. development C. comment D. equipment
3. A. pleased B. missed C. closed D. raised
4. A. transform B. information C. informative D. support
5. A. variety B. complicate C. communicate D. interactive
Questions 1 2 3 4 5
Keys

Part II. Find the word A, B, C or D which has different stress pattern in each line (5 points)
1. A. situation B. environment C. community D. immediate
2. A. economy B. economic C. industrial D. committee
3. A. numerous B. industry C. portable D. variety
4. A. unsuitable B. traditional C. competition D. participate
5. A. Christmas B. jolly C. compete D. teenager
Questions 1 2 3 4 5
Keys
 SECTION C. LEXICO & GRAMMAR ( 80 points)

Part I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to complete these sentences. (20 points)
1. Before the meeting finished, they had arranged when __________ next.
A.they met B.they to meet C.to meet D.meeting
2. My grandma __________ a lot of pleasure from gardening.
A.does B.has C.makes D.gets
3. Working hours will fall to under 35 a week, __________?
A.will they B.won't they C.won't it D.will it
4. What __________ if you saw a UFO?
A.do you do B.will you doC.would you do D.did you do
5. The __________ of space exploration started in the 1960s.
A.era B.time C.period D.age
6. Many advances have been _in the field of communication through the use of fiber optics.
A.done B.caused C.brought D.made
7. He was the first man __________ to help the flood victims.
A.arrive B.arrived C.arriving D.to arrive
8. From 1865 to 1875, a remarkable __________ of inventions was produced.
A.diversity B.mixture C.variety D.collection
9. You should talk to your dad first because that fridge ____not be suitable for your family.
A.can B.may C.need D.ought
10. Do you think there ____less conflict in the world if all people ___ the same language?
A.would be/ spoke B.is/ spoke C.were/ speak D.is/ will speak
11. The Statue of Liberty is a major monument in New York which __________ freedom.
A.attracts B.symbolises C.decides D.understands
12. Like the kangaroo and koala, the platypus is a __________ animal in Australia.
A.scenic B.tailless C.foreign D.unique
13. David uses English as his mother______ because he comes from the UK.
A.tongue B.mouth C.nose D.cheek
14. The Sydney Opera House is an ___ of Australia's creative and technical achievement.
A.orchestra B.emblem C.icon D.armorial
15. The government of New Zealand has done a lot to __________ the culture of the Maori.
A.preserve B.surround C.puzzle D.pronounce
16. Coming to Scotland, visitors can drive through vast green __________.
A.lochs B.stations C.castles D.pastures
17. - How is your holiday in New Zealand? - __________.
A.Really B.Awesome C.Absolutely right D.Sure
18. The flight number 781 to Melbourne __________ at 9 o'clock tomorrow morning.
A.arrives B.is arriving C.has arrived D.will arrive
19. Some documents say that people __________ the Glastonbury Festival since the
beginning of the 19th century.
 A.celebrated B.were celebrating C.have celebrated D.celebrate
20. We _____ on the Great Ocean Road, an Australian National Heritage at the moment.
A.will drive B.drive C.have driven D.are driving

Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
K

Part II. Supply the correct form or tense of the verbs in the parentheses ( 20 points)

1. Planets outside our Solar System (call) ......................... exoplanets.

2. She asked her teacher if scientists (find).................water on Mars yet.
3. In 1876, at the age of 29, Alexander Graham Bell (invent)...............his telephone.
4. At this time tomorrow, we (watch).....................a solar eclipse.
5. Tom (be) ....................... sick if he ate all those chocolates.
6. Scientists (search) .............................for signs of liquid water on Mars for decades.
7. Mark and Judy saw a flying saucer when they (walk).........................in space.
8. How would the world change if extraterrestrial life (find)...........................?
9. NASA is planning (send)....................a helicopter to Mars in July of 2020.
10. It’s possible we may not (be) .............................alone even in our own solar System.
Your answer:.

1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

Part III. Find the mistake in each sentence, and rewrite the sentences correctly (20 points)
1. As a conscious consumers, I always consider the environmental impact of the products
I buy.
……………………. → ……………………
2. Efforts to protect endanger species are crucial for environmental preservation.
……………………. → ……………………
3. The issue of climate change is closely related from environmental protection.
……………………. → ……………………
4. Remembering to recycling plastic bottles is important for sustainable living.
……………………. → ……………………
5. Instead of throwing away old electronics, it’s better to recycle or to donate them.
……………………. → ……………………
6. Using eco-friend materials and practices can help reduce our ecological footprint.
……………………. → ……………………
7. Nanolearning provides us small amounts of information over a short period of time.
 ……………………. → ……………………
8. We need a high-speedy Internet connection to make a video conference.
……………………. → ……………………
9. Chemical waste is a common pollution that poses risks to the environment and human
health.
……………………. → ……………………
10. Before conducting any environmentals research, researchers need to obtain
permission from the relevant authorities.
……………………. → ……………………
Part IV. Use the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the sentences (20 points)
1 (POLLUTE)………………………… are harmful substances that contribute to air, water,
and soil pollution.
2. (ENVIRONMENT) ……………….………… are individuals who advocate for the
protection and conservation of the environment.
3. Consumption refers to the use and utilisation of resources, and sustainable ( CONSUME)
………………………………….……….. aims to reduce waste and promote responsible
resource usage.
4. (CONSERVE)…………………..…..………….. efforts focus on preserving and protecting
natural habitats, biodiversity, and ecosystems.
5. Advertisements play a role in grabbing people’s ( ATTENTION) ………………………….
…….……… and promoting products or services.
6. When shopping, it’s important to pay attention to the quality, price, and features of the
…………………………….......(PRODUCE)
7. (ATTRACT)…………………….…..….. discounts and promotions can be appealing to
shoppers and influence their purchasing decisions.
8. Despite the seriousness of natural disasters, ( HUMOROUS)…………….…….….can
sometimes bring moments of relief and positivity.
9. While natural disasters are (PREDICT) ………….………………… , scientists study and
analyse patterns to improve prediction and preparedness.
10. (SCIENCE)………………………. play a crucial role in understanding the causes and
impacts of natural disasters and developing effective response strategies.

SECTION D. READING (40 points)

Part I. Fill in each blank with ONE appropriate word to make a meaningful passage. (20
points)
In these days of high unemployment, it is often difficult (1)_______young people to
find a job. If they are lucky (2)________to be asked to go for an Interview, they may find
(3)___________there are at least 20 other applicants for the (4____________. If a company
is thinking of offering (5)__________a job, they will ask you for at least one reference from
either your previous employer (6)__________someone who knows you well..
(7)_________taking up your job, you may have to sign a contract. You will probably have to
do some training, (8)__________help you to do the job more successfully. Once you have
decided that this is your chosen career, you will then have to work (9)__________to try and
get promotion, which usually brings more responsibility and more money! If you are
unlucky, you may be made redundant, and not be able to find (10)____________job. It is
also a good idea to pay some money into a pension scheme, which will help you to look after
yourself and your family when you are retired. Finally, good luck!
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part II. Choose the most suitable word for each space. (10 points)
These days, students have great chances to get hold of learning applications to assist
them in their schoolwork. (1) …………, many of them tend to rely on these apps too much,
especially using homework helper apps. Instead of doing assignments on their own, idle
students frequently capture English questions or mathematical problems, upload them on
these apps, and then copy the suggested answers as well as solutions into their notebooks.
The shortcoming is that these students can hardly (2) ………… what they are writing down,
which leaves them a big gap of knowledge. Moreover, it’s very unfair for diligent students
(3) ……….. burn the midnight oil to complete the tasks without any help. Plus, depending
on these apps is a double-edged sword because when teachers are suspicious (4)
…………… cheating ones, they have many ways to examine whether students solve
problems themselves or not. In short, it is advisable that learning apps, Photomath, QANDA,
to name but a few, should be used as a last (5) ……………. or by advanced learners who
prefer finding out more various solutions to their problems.
1. A. Although B. But C. So D. However
2. A. understood B. understand C. to understand D.
understanding
3. A. whose B. what C. who D. which
4. A. of B. on C. by D. at
5. A. choice B. way C. desert D. resort
Your answer:
Questions 1 2 3 4 5
Keys

Part III. Read the text carefully, then choose the correct answers. (10 points)
Since the world has become industrialized, there has been an increase in the number
of animal species that have either become extinct or have neared extinction. Bengal tigers,
for instance, which once roamed the jungles in vast numbers, now number only about 2300
and by the year 2025, their population is estimated to be down to zero. What
is alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been caused
almost entirely by poachers who, according to some sources, are not interested in material
gain but in personal gratification. This is an example of the callousness that is part of what is
causing the problem of extinction. Animals like the Bengal tiger, as well as other endangered
species, are a valuable part of the world’s ecosystem. International laws protecting these
animals must be enacted to ensure their survival, and the survival of our planet.
Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways.
Some countries, in order to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to
animal reserves. They, then charge admission to help defray the costs of maintaining the
parks, and they often must also depend on world organizations for support. With the money
they get, they can invest equipment and patrols to protect the animals. Another solution that
is an attempt to stem the tide of animal extinction is an international boycott of products
made from endangered species. This seems fairly effective, but will not by itself, prevent
animals from being hunted and killed.
1. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The Bengal tiger B. international boycotts
C. endangered species D. problems with industrialization
2. What does the word "which" in paragraph 1 mean?
A. Bengal tigers B. animal species C. the jungles D. poachers
3. which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “alarming” in the first
paragraph?
A. dangerous B. good C. gripping D. distressing
4. The above passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to contrast _______
A. a problem and a solution B. a statement and an illustration
C. a comparison and a contrast D. a specific and general information
5. Which of the following best describes the author’s attitude?
A. forgiving B. concerned C. happy D. surprised
Your answers:
Questions 1 2 3 4 5
Keys

SECTION E. WRITING (45 points)

Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as
the sentence printed before it. ( 20 points)
1. “You’d better not spend any more time in the sun, Henry” said Peter
-> Peter advised ……………………………………………………………………
2. If he improves his spelling, he will get good grades.
-> Unless ……………………………………………………………………..……
3. Theater seats can be booked by telephone.
-> You …………………………………………………………………………….
4. I’ve never been to a less exciting concert.
-> It was ………………………………………………………………………….
5. She left the room without saying a word.
-> She didn’t say ………………………………………………………………….
6. The secretary said she was sorry she was late for the meeting.
-> The secretary apologized …………………………………………………………..
7. It was such an interesting novel that I read it again and again.
-> The novel ……………………………………………………………………………
8. The teacher started to write the lesson plan right after he returned home from work.
-> Hardly had ………………………………………………………………………….
9. They didn’t go camping yesterday because it rained heavily.
-> Because of ………………………………………………………………………….
10. She never seems to succeed even though she works hard.
-> Hard ……………………………………………………………………………….
Part II. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it means exactly the same as the given
one. Using the given word in brackets. Do not change the word. ( 10 points)
1. The early train is scheduled to arrive in London at 10 o'clock. (arrives )
-> The early train ……………………………………………………. at 10 o'clock.
2. They consider the temple to be a religious site in the community. (that)
-> It.... . ……………………………….....the temple is a religious site in the community.
3. We have never stayed at a worse hotel than this. (the)
-> This... …………………………………………………we've ever stayed at.
4. It's a pity I don't have a smart phone now. (wish)
-> I ……………………………………..a smart phone now.
5. We've never been to Alaska before. (ever)
-> It's the first time we ………………….………………………. to Alaska.
Part III. Write a paragraph ( 150 – 180 ) words about the benefits of online shopping (15
points)
You can base on the suggestion bellow:
- Providing convenience and flexibility
- Offering a wide variety of products
- Offering good deals and discounts
- Providing inline reviews and rating
 The end
PHÒNG GD&ĐT HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM KIỂM TRA CHẤT LƯỢNG
HUYỆN KIM BẢNG HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP HUYỆN NĂM HỌC 2023-2024
Môn: Tiếng Anh - Lớp 8
Đề chính thức (Thời gian làm bài 150 phút)

SECTION A. LISTENING (25 points)

Part I. (5 points) 5 X 1 =5

1. B 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. A
Part II. (10 points) 5 X 2 = 10

6. E 7. C 8. H 9. G 10. D
Part III. (10 points) 5 X 2 = 10
11. A 12. B 13. B 14. C 15. C
SECTION B. PHONETICS (10 points)
Part I. Choose the word in each group that has the underlined part pronounced differently
from the rest. (5 points) 5 x 1 = 5 points

Questions 1 2 3 4 5
Keys D C B B A
Part II. Find the word A,B,C,D which has different stress pattern in each line (5 points)
5 x 1 = 5 points
Questions 1 2 3 4 5
Key A B D C C

SECTION C. LEXICO & GRAMMAR ( 80 points)

Part I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to complete these sentences. (20 points)
20 x 1 = 20 points

Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
K C D B C A D D C B A B D A C A D B A C D
Part II. Supply the correct form or tense of the verbs in the parentheses ( 20 points)
1. are called 6. have searched
2. had found 7. were walking
3. invented 8. was found
4. will be watching 9. to send
5. would be 10. be

Part III. Find the mistake in each sentence, and rewrite the sentences correctly (20 points)
10 x 2 = 20 points
1. consumers -> consumer 6. eco-friend -> eco-friendly
2. endanger -> endangered 7. provides us -> provides us with
3. from -> to 8. high-speedy -> high-speed
4. recycling -> recycle 9. pollution –> pollutant
5. to donate -> donate 10.environmentals -> environmental
Part IV. Use the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the sentences (20 points)
10 x 2 = 20 points
1.pollutants 6. products
2. environmentalists 7. attractive
3. consumption 8.humour
 4. conservation 9. unpredictable
5. attention 10. scientists

SECTION D. READING (40 points)

Part I. Fill in each blank with ONE appropriate word to make a meaningful passage. (20
points) (10 x 2 =20 points)

l. for 2. enough 3. that 4. job 5. you

6. or 7. Before 8. which 9. hard 10. another

Part II. Choose the most suitable word for each space. (10 points)( 5 x 2 = 10 points)

Question 1 2 3 4 5
Key D B C A D
Part III. Read the text carefully, then choose the correct answers. (10 points) 5 x 2 = 10
points

Question 1 2 3 4 5
Key C A D A B

SECTION E. WRITING (45 points)

Part I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as
the sentence printed before it. ( 20 points) 10 x 2 = 20 points
1. Peter advised Henry not to spend any more time in the sun.
2. Unless he improves his spelling, he won’t get good grades.
3. You can book theater seats by telephone.
4. It was the least exciting concert, I have ever been to.
5. She didn’t say a word when she left the room.
6. The secretary apologized for (her) being late for the meeting.
7. The novel was so interesting that I read it again and again.
8. Hardly had the teacher returned home from work when he started to write the lesson plan.
9. Because of the heavy rain, they didn’t go camping yesterday.
10. Hard as/ though she works/ she may work, she never seems to succeed.

Part II. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it means exactly the same as the given
one. Using the given word in brackets. Do not change the word. ( 10 points)
5 x 2 = 10 points
1. The early train arrives in London at 10 o'clock.
2. It is considered that the temple is a religious site in the community.
3. This is the worst hotel (that) we've ever stayed at.
4. I wish I had a smart phone now.
5. It's the first time we have ever been to Alaska.
Part III. Writing a passage. (15 points)
1. Format. (2 points) - the composition has 3 parts: the Introduction (01 para), the body (01
or 2 para) and the conclusion (01 para).
2. Content. (6 points): a provision of main ideas and details as appropriate.
3. Language. (5 points): a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of
secondary gifted students
4. Presentation. (2 points): coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of
secondary gifted students.

The end

Chú ý: Tổng số điểm toàn bài là 200; kết quả làm bài của thí sinh được quy về thang điểm 20