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03/12/2023 Code-A_Phase-1 & 2

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,


Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 NCERT Revision Test(P1)2325-T03A Time : 200 Min.

PHYSICS

SECTION-A
1. (3) 19. (1)

2. (3) 20. (3)

3. (1) 21. (2)

4. (2) 22. (2)

5. (3) 23. (1)

6. (2) 24. (1)

7. (4) 25. (3)

8. (1) 26. (2)

9. (3) 27. (1)

10. (1) 28. (3)

11. (4) 29. (3)

12. (2) 30. (1)

13. (1) 31. (2)

14. (2) 32. (1)

15. (1) 33. (3)

16. (3) 34. (1)

17. (2) 35. (2)

18. (3)

SECTION-B

36. (1) 44. (2)

37. (1) 45. (2)

38. (4) 46. (2)

39. (1) 47. (1)

40. (1) 48. (2)

41. (3) 49. (3)

42. (2) 50. (2)

43. (3)

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2325-T03A

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A
51. (1) 69. (2)

52. (2) 70. (3)

53. (4) 71. (2)

54. (3) 72. (2)

55. (2) 73. (2)

56. (3) 74. (3)

57. (1) 75. (3)

58. (1) 76. (2)

59. (4) 77. (4)

60. (3) 78. (3)

61. (4) 79. (1)

62. (1) 80. (4)

63. (1) 81. (2)

64. (3) 82. (2)

65. (3) 83. (2)

66. (3) 84. (1)

67. (2) 85. (3)

68. (1)

SECTION-B

86. (4) 94. (1)

87. (4) 95. (3)

88. (3) 96. (3)

89. (3) 97. (4)

90. (2) 98. (1)

91. (4) 99. (4)

92. (3) 100. (3)

93. (1)

BOTANY

SECTION-A

101. (2) 119. (2)

102. (1) 120. (1)

103. (1) 121. (3)

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2325-T03A

104. (3) 122. (2)

105. (1) 123. (3)

106. (4) 124. (3)

107. (4) 125. (2)

108. (4) 126. (1)

109. (3) 127. (3)

110. (4) 128. (2)

111. (2) 129. (2)

112. (3) 130. (3)

113. (2) 131. (1)

114. (3) 132. (1)

115. (4) 133. (1)

116. (4) 134. (3)

117. (2) 135. (2)

118. (2)

SECTION-B
136. (2) 144. (4)

137. (3) 145. (3)

138. (1) 146. (3)

139. (3) 147. (3)

140. (2) 148. (2)

141. (4) 149. (4)

142. (2) 150. (1)

143. (1)

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

151. (2) 169. (3)

152. (3) 170. (3)

153. (4) 171. (3)

154. (4) 172. (1)

155. (3) 173. (1)

156. (1) 174. (4)

157. (3) 175. (2)

158. (4) 176. (2)

159. (2) 177. (2)

160. (3) 178. (4)

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2325-T03A

161. (3) 179. (1)

162. (4) 180. (4)

163. (2) 181. (4)

164. (2) 182. (4)

165. (3) 183. (1)

166. (2) 184. (2)

167. (3) 185. (2)

168. (2)

SECTION-B
186. (3) 194. (2)

187. (2) 195. (3)

188. (1) 196. (2)

189. (1) 197. (1)

190. (2) 198. (2)

191. (3) 199. (3)

192. (4) 200. (1)

193. (4)

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2325-T03A

Hints and Solutions

PHYSICS

SECTION-A
(1) Answer : (3)
Solution:
T = (1+2+3)g
= 6g N
= 60 N
(2) Answer : (3)
Solution:
−−−−−−−−−−−−
−−−
vs = √μrg= √0.2 × 12.5 × 10 = 5 m s–1
18
= 5× = 18 km/hr
5

(3) Answer : (1)


Solution:
Action and reaction forces are antiparallel to each other and acts on different bodies.

(4) Answer : (2)


Solution:
2
v 10×10 1
tan θ = = =
rg 10√3×10 √3

⇒ θ = 30°

(5) Answer : (3)


Solution:
F 2 2
a =
m
=
2
= 1 m/s

v = at = 3 m/s

(6) Answer : (2)


Solution:

Impulse = 1(5 – (–5)) = 10 N-s


(7) Answer : (4)
Solution:
3mg−mg
a1 =
m
(3m−m)
a2 = g
(3m+m)

(8) Answer : (1)


Solution:
vAB = vA − vB = 2 − 10 = −8 m/s
so friction will be rightward.
(9) Answer : (3)
Hint:
Kinetic energy change with distance so particle has tangential acceleration.
Solution:
1
Kinetic energy, K = 2 mv2 = as2
2
2 2as
v =
m
ds
4as
dv dt
2v ⋅ =
dt m
2as
at =
m

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2325-T03A

(10) Answer : (1)


Hint:


ΔP
F avg
=
Δt

Solution:

−→
− → →
ΔP = P 2 − P 1

ˆ ˆ
= mv i − (−mv i )

∣−→
− ∣
∣ΔP ∣ = 2mv
∣ ∣
πR
Δt =
v
−→

∣ ∣
∣ΔP ∣

∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ 2mv
2

∣F av ∣ = =
Δt πR
∣ ∣

(11) Answer : (4)


Hint:
F = ma
Solution:
F
a =
m

v
2
= u
2
+ 2aS (S = Displacement)
2 F
v = 2 S
m
−−−
2F S
v = √
m

1
v ∝
√m

(12) Answer : (2)


Hint:

Δ p = ∫ F dl = area under F – t curve
Solution:
0.5×(−4)
5×1
Δp = 5 + +0+ + 0.5 × (−4)
2 2

= 7.5 – 1 – 2
= 4.5 N s

(13) Answer : (1)


Solution:
→ →
A ⋅ B = AB cos θ
−−−−−−− −−−−−−−
– 1 + 2 + 2 = √1 + 4 + 1 √1 + 1 + 4 cos θ
3 1
cos θ =
6
⇒ cos θ =
2
⇒ θ = 60 º

(14) Answer : (2)


Solution:
⃗ ∂U ^ ∂U ^
F = −{ i + j}
∂x ∂y

∂ ∂
2 3 ^ 2 3 ^
= −{ (3x y ) i + (3x y ) j }
∂x ∂y

⃗ 3^ 2 2^
F = − {6xy i + 9x y j } at (2, 2) F ⃗ = ^ ^
−96 i − 144 j

(15) Answer : (1)


Solution:
mg
T − mg =
2
3mg
T =
2

Work done by tension = T × h


3mgh
w =
2

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2325-T03A

(16) Answer : (3)


Solution:
→ 2
1 ∣ ∣
KE = 2
m

v

1
= KE =
2
× 1(4 + 16) = 10 J

(17) Answer : (2)


Solution:
1
U1 =
2
k1 x
2
1
...(i)
1
U2 =
2
k2 x
2
2
...(ii)
∵ F1 = F2
k1 x1 = k2 x2
2 2
F F
U1 = , U2 =
2k1 2k2

U1 k2
=
U2 k1

(18) Answer : (3)


Solution:
Work done = F.S cos180º
= – 25×2 N
= –50 N
(19) Answer : (1)
Solution:
→ →

P = F ⋅ v

ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ
= (4 i + j − 2k)(2 i + 2 j + 3k) W
= [8 + 2 – 6] W
=4W
(20) Answer : (3)
Solution:
According to work energy theorem
1 2
mg(h + 2R) = mv
2

As v = 5 gR
1
∴ mg(h + 2R) =
2
× m5gR

5
h + 2R = R
2
R
h =
2

(21) Answer : (2)


Hint:
→ →
Component of vector A along â = ( A . â) â

Solution:

Component of vector A along â
ˆ ˆ
( i −j) ˆ ˆ
i −j
ˆ ˆ
= [(3 i + 2 j ) ⋅ ]( )
√2 √2

1 ˆ ˆ
= ( i − j)
2

(22) Answer : (2)


Solution:
As the impact force is in different direction than the velocities of objects, the objects will move in 2 dimension
after collision.

(23) Answer : (1)


Solution:
2
P
K =
2m
2 2
P 6P
(P + ) ( )
5 5

k2 = ⇒ k2 =
2m 2m

2
Δk 6
% = (( ) − 1) × 100
K 5

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2325-T03A

36
= ( − 1) × 100
25

= 11 × 4 = 44%

(24) Answer : (1)


Solution:
K = mad
⇒K∝d

(25) Answer : (3)


Solution:

In UCM
→ →
F c
⋅ v = 0


Because of F c ⊥ v

F c has constant magnitude.

(26) Answer : (2)


Solution:
Apply conservation of linear momentum
4v2 + 1 × 20 = 0 ⇒ v2 = −5 m/s
1 2 1 2
× 1 × (20) + ×4×5
2 2

= 200 + 50 = 250 J
(27) Answer : (1)
Solution:
mA g = μMB g

mA = 0.4 × 10 = 4 kg

(28) Answer : (3)


Solution:

−−−−−−−
Contact force = fc = √f 2
+N
2

−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−
2 2
= √(mgsinθ) + (mgcosθ)
−−−−−−−−−−−
2 2
= mg√cos θ + sin θ

fc = mg

(29) Answer : (3)


Solution:
Maximum value of static friction is called limiting friction.
(30) Answer : (1)
Solution:
T = (10 + 5)10 = 150 N

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2325-T03A

(31) Answer : (2)


Solution:
tanα = μ

(32) Answer : (1)


Solution:
T = mg – ma
3mg
mg−
75 3mg g
,a
4
T = mg = = =
100 4 m 4

(33) Answer : (3)


Solution:
CGS unit of force is Dyne.
(34) Answer : (1)
Solution:
Mud from the wheels of a moving car flies off tangentially because of inertia of direction of mud.
(35) Answer : (2)
Solution:
1 2 4
mv −0 = t
2

v ∝ t2
⇒a∝t
⇒F∝t

SECTION-B
(36) Answer : (1)
Solution:
1 2
0− mv = −(2d)R
2

1 2
0− m (2v) = −(nd)R
2

(37) Answer : (1)


Hint:
Work-energy theorem.
Solution:
Minimum work done to accelerate the truck from speed 0 to v and from v to 2 v are
1 2 1 2 1 2
W1 = mv − m(0) = mv
2 2 2
1 2 1 2 3
and W2 = 2
m(2v) −
2
m(v) =
2
mv
2

∴ W1 < W2

(38) Answer : (4)


Solution:
→ →
F ⋅ P = 0
→ →
F should be normal to P

(39) Answer : (1)


Hint:
Work done by gravity = change in kinetic energy.
Solution:
st
ΔKE1 (mg)×displacement in 1 second
=
rd
ΔKE2 (mg)×displacement in 3 second
1
2
a(1)
ΔKE1 2 1
= =
ΔKE2 1
2 2
5
a( 3 −2 )
2

(40) Answer : (1)


Solution:
a b
U = −
12 6
x x
dU
= 0
dx
1

2a 6

x = ( )
b

(41) Answer : (3)


Hint:
Use conservation of energy

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2325-T03A

Solution:

By conservation of M.E.
1 2 1 2
mv = mv − mgr(1 − cos θ)
2 0 2
2
mv
mg cos θ − N =
r
2
mv
mg cos θ =
r
1 2 1
mv = −mgr(1 − cos θ) + mgr cos θ
2 0 2

9 mgr cos θ
1
m × gr = −mgr + mgr cos θ +
2 16 2
9 3 cos θ
= −1 +
32 2
41 3 cos θ
=
32 2
41
cos θ =
48

−1 41
θ = cos ( )
48

(42) Answer : (2)


Hint:
There will be loss of kinetic energy in an inelastic collision.
Solution:
(1) Work done in the motion of a body over any closed loop will be zero in the case of conservative force.
(2) In an inelastic collision total momentum of the system will be conserved but there will be loss of kinetic
energy.
(3) Total energy of the system may not be conserved in the presence of external force.
(4) In an elastic collision momentum and energy of the system will be conserved but momentum and energy of
individual body will not conserved.

(43) Answer : (3)


Solution:
For 3 kg block:
F – Kx = 3a
Kx = 6N
For 6 kg block:
6 = 6a
a = 1 m/s2
(44) Answer : (2)
Solution:
dP
F =
dt

P = const.
F=0
(45) Answer : (2)
Solution:


d p
F =
dt

d 3 2
F = (3t + 2t + 1)
dt

= 9t2 + 4t + 0 = 9t2 + 4t
at t = 1 s
⇒ F = 9 + 4 = 13 N

(46) Answer : (2)


Solution:
Linear impulse

(47) Answer : (1)


Solution:

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2325-T03A

''
w m(g+a)
=
'
w m(g−a)

2 g+a
=
1 g−a

∴ 2g – 2a = g + a
g = 3a
g
∴ a =
3

(48) Answer : (2)


Solution:
According to Newton's second law

→ →
d p d
F = = (m v )
dt dt

for a system of fixed mass


→ →
d v
F = m ⋅
dt
→ →
d p d v
Hence, dt
= m
dt
[for fixed mass system]

(49) Answer : (3)


Solution:
The work done in moving the body may or may not be zero.
(50) Answer : (2)
Solution:
The maximum compression in the spring will occur when both blocks moves together with same speed
mv = (m+m)v'
v
v' =
2

Work KE Theorem
1 1 v 2 1
2 2
mv − (2m) ( ) = Kx
2 2 2 2
2
1 2 mv 1 2
mv − = Kx
2 4 2
2
mv 1 2
= Kx
4 2
−−
m
v√ = x
2k

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

(51) Answer : (1)


Solution:
Extensive properties depend upon the quantity of matter.

(52) Answer : (2)


Solution:
ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
∵ At equilibrium, ΔG = 0
∴ ΔH = TΔS
ΔH 75000
T = = = 300 K
ΔS 250

(53) Answer : (4)


Solution:
1st law of thermodynamics,
ΔU = Q + W = 100 J + (–60 J) = 40 J
(54) Answer : (3)
Solution:
Elements present in standard states are having zero enthalpy of formation.

(55) Answer : (2)


Solution:
If ΔH < 0 and ΔS > 0 then ΔG is always negative at all temperature.

(56) Answer : (3)


Solution:
Δcomb HCH = −x
4

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2325-T03A

16 g CH4 gives x J of heat


x
1 g CH4 gives 16
J of heat
x
32 g CH4 gives 16
× 32 = 2x J of heat.

(57) Answer : (1)


Solution:
Isoelectric species have same bond order. N2 and CO are isoelectronic.

(58) Answer : (1)


Solution:
Crystallisation results in the decrease in randomness therefore entropy decreases.
(59) Answer : (4)
Solution:
Hybridisation of Xe

sp3 d2

(60) Answer : (3)


Solution:
C6 H10 (g) + H2 (g) → C6 H12 (g)
ΔrH = Standard enthalpy of hydrogenation.
Δr H = ( Δcomb HC + Δcomb HH ) − ( Δcomb HC )
6 H10 2 6 H12

= (–3800) + (–241) – (–3920) = –121 kJmol–1


(61) Answer : (4)
Solution:
Localised lone pair takes part in hybridisation.
+

CH3 → sp2

CH3 → sp3

CH3 → sp2

(62) Answer : (1)


Solution:
During adiabatic process
q=0
q
So, ΔS = T = 0

(63) Answer : (1)


Solution:
Order of ionic character:
NaCl > MgCl2 > AlCl3 > SiCl4

(64) Answer : (3)


Solution:
W = ΔU = nCv(T2 – T1 )
–4010 J = 20 J (T2 – 300)
T2 – 300 = –200.5
T2 = 99.5 K

(65) Answer : (3)


Solution:
1 mole of H2 SO4 gives = 2 moles H+, 2 mole NaOH gives = 2 moles OH– , 2 moles of H+ and OH– on
neutralisation produce = 2 × 57.1 kJ
(66) Answer : (3)
Solution:
Energy of resonance hybrid of a molecule is lower than that of any of the canonical structures.

(67) Answer : (2)


Hint:
Thermochemical reactions can be added or subtracted algebraically on the basis of ΔH.
Solution:

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2325-T03A

Applying 3(i) + (ii) – (iii)


2A → E + 4C,
ΔH = 900 – 120 – 500 = 280 kJ mol–1
(68) Answer : (1)
Solution:
For isothermal process, T2 = T1
V2
So, ΔS = nR ln (
V1
)

(69) Answer : (2)


Solution:
Hybridisation of PCl3 and PCl5 are sp3 and sp3 d respectively.

(70) Answer : (3)


Hint:
ΔG° = –2.303 RT logKp
Solution:
ΔG° = –2.303 × 8.314 × 298 × log100

(71) Answer : (2)


Solution:
Heat of fusion
ΔS =
Temperature

3000 J/ mol
=
300 K

= 10 JK–1 mol–1

(72) Answer : (2)


Solution:
CP – CV = R

(73) Answer : (2)


Hint:
Δr H = Σ (B. E. )
reactants − Σ (B. E. ) products
Solution:
OCl2 (g) → O(g) + 2 Cl(g)

ΔrH = 2B.E.O – Cl = 420


B.E.O – Cl = 210 kJ mol–1 .

(74) Answer : (3)


Hint:
Enthalpy of formation is enthalpy change for formation of 1 mole product by using reactants species of
standard state.
Solution:
S8 (Rhombic) + 8O2 (g) → 8SO2 (g)
ΔH°reaction = 8ΔfH°(SO2 (g)) = ΔcH°(S8 )

(75) Answer : (3)


Solution:
(i) SR + O2 (g) → SO2 (g) ΔH = –298 kJ/mol
(ii) SM + O2 (g) → SO2 (g) ΔH = –303 kJ/mol
(i)-(ii)
SR → SM, ΔH = +5 kJ/mol

(76) Answer : (2)


Hint:
At equilibrium, ΔG = 0
Solution:
ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
ΔH = TΔS
ΔH 149×1000
ΔS = T = 298
= 500 J/K-mol

(77) Answer : (4)


Solution:
When strong acid and base react then there is formation of water. The energy released in such process is –
57.1 kJ/eq.
So, for 1 mole of H2 O dissociation energy required = +57.1 kJ/mol = 13.7 kcal/mol

(78) Answer : (3)

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2325-T03A

Solution:
O2 has two unpaired electrons, so it is paramagnetic in nature

(79) Answer : (1)


Solution:
Z = 101 : Unnilunium : Unu
(80) Answer : (4)
Solution:
ΔS ≠ 0 for free expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal condition, it is positive.
(81) Answer : (2)
Solution:
– ve charged
Ionic radii ∝ {for isoelectronic species}
+ ve charge
Hence, order of radii is
O2– > F – < Na+ > Mg2+
(82) Answer : (2)
Solution:
For, N2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2NO(g)
Δng = 0 therefore ΔH = ΔU

(83) Answer : (2)


Solution:
ΔH
T=
ΔS
55000
=
120

= 458.33 K
If the temperature is above 458.33 K, then reaction will be spontaneous.

(84) Answer : (1)


Solution:
O– + e– → O2– is endothermic.

(85) Answer : (3)


Solution:
For isochoric process, ΔV = 0

SECTION-B

(86) Answer : (4)


Solution:
N2 + 3H2 → 2 NH3 ; Δr H = −a

2 NH3 → N2 + 3H2 ; Δr H = a
1 3 a
NH3 → N2 + H2 ; Δr H =
2 2 2

(87) Answer : (4)


Solution:
H – H ⇒ 435.8 kJ mol–1
H – N ⇒ 389 kJ mol–1
H – O ⇒ 464 kJ mol–1
H – F ⇒ 569 kJ mol–1
(88) Answer : (3)
Solution:
PCl5 → sp3 d hybridised, trigonal bipyramidal shape.
Axial bonds are longer than equatorial bonds because of more repulsion.
(89) Answer : (3)
Solution:
For adiabatic reversible process
γ−1 γ−1 γ γ
Ti V = Tf V and Pi V = Pf V
i f i f

(90) Answer : (2)


Solution:
For isothermal process, temperature is constant therefore heat capacity is ∞.
(91) Answer : (4)
Solution:

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2325-T03A

Using Hess Law


ΔH4 = ΔH1 + ΔH2 + ΔH3

or
ΔH4 − ΔH3 = ΔH1 + ΔH2

(92) Answer : (3)


Solution:
Pressure and temperature are independent of amount of substance. Hence they are intensive properties.
(93) Answer : (1)
Solution:
If number of gases moles are different, process is always accompanied by change in entropy.
Decomposition of NH3 and formation of N2 O are endothermic.

(94) Answer : (1)


Solution:
W =– ∫ Pext dV = 0

Since, Pext = 0 (vacuum)

(95) Answer : (3)


Hint:
1
Bond order = 2
( Nb − Na )

Where Nb = Number of electrons in bonding orbitals and Na = Number of electrons in antibonding orbitals.
Solution:
NO+ and CO both have 14 electrons each hence will have the same bond order i.e. 3.
(96) Answer : (3)
Solution:
V2
w = –nRT × 2.303 log V1

100
= –1 × 8.314 × 300 × 2.303 log 10
J

= – 5744.14 J
= – 5.7 kJ

(97) Answer : (4)


Solution:
ΔS > 0 for option (4) as Δng > 0

(98) Answer : (1)


Solution:
The formula of compound is AB3

(99) Answer : (4)


Solution:
q (Heat) is a path function.

(100)Answer : (3)
Solution:
W = −Pext ΔV = – 3.5(10 – 4) = – 21 L atm
W = –21 × 101.3 = –2.1 kJ
ΔU = q + W

For insulated container q = 0


ΔU = W = −2.1kJ

BOTANY

SECTION-A
(101)Answer : (2)
Solution:
In some plants such as Rhizophora growing in swampy areas, many roots come out of the ground and grow
vertically upwards. Such roots, called pneumatophores, help to get oxygen for respiration
(102)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Flowers which cannot be divided into two similar halves by any vertical plane passing through centre are
called zygomorphic flowers. Canna has zygomorphic flowers.

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2325-T03A

(103)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Axillary buds are converted into tendrils for climbing in grapevines.
(104)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Underground stems of some plants such as grass and strawberry spread to new niches and when older parts
die new plants are formed.
(105)Answer : (1)
Solution:
In racemose type of inflorescence, main axis continues to grow and flowers are borne in acropetal order..
(106)Answer : (4)
Solution:
If the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another but not in any particular direction, the aestivation is
called imbricate, e.g. Cassia
(107)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Papilionaceous corolla is found in members of family Fabaceae.
(108)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Lupin is a member of Fabaceae used as ornamental plant. Epipetalous stamens is not seen in lupin.
(109)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Edible part of mango is middle fleshy mesocarp.
(110) Answer : (4)
Solution:
Opposite phyllotaxy – Calotropis and Guava.
(111) Answer : (2)
Solution:
The given floral formula is of Fabaceae family.
(112) Answer : (3)
Solution:
A bud is present in the axil of the simple and compound leaf is not in the axil of each leaflet.
Both simple and compound leaves can have reticulate venation. A compound leaf’s lamina is divided into
many leaflets when the incision touches the midrib.

(113) Answer : (2)


Solution:
Valvate – Calotropis
Twisted – China rose
Imbricate – Cassia
Vexillary - Bean

(114) Answer : (3)


Solution:
Parthenocarpic fruits are developed without fertilisation.
(115) Answer : (4)
Solution:
Pitcher of Nepenthes is modified leaf.
(116) Answer : (4)
Solution:
In mustard, ovary becomes two-chambered due to formation of false septum.
(117) Answer : (2)
Solution:
Floral formula does not describe about number of ovules or locules.
(118) Answer : (2)
Solution:
Sweet potato – Adventitious root.

(119) Answer : (2)


Solution:
After fertilisation, ovary wall develops into fruit wall and ovules develop into seeds.
(120)Answer : (1)

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2325-T03A

Solution:
The sepals and petals are sterile and referred to as the non-essential or accessory parts of the flower because
they do not directly participate in the process of sexual reproduction.
(121)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Gymnosperms have albuminous cells and sieve cells. They lack sieve tubes and companion cells.
(122)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Collenchyma is living mechanical tissue.
(123)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Radial vascular bundle is found in both dicot and monocot roots.
(124)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Lenticels are lens shaped openings found in most woody trees. They are involved in gaseous exchange in
dicots. They are formed by activity of phellogen.

(125)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Water containing cavities are seen inside vascular bundles of monocot stem.

(126)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Axillary buds are constituted by cells of shoot apical meristem.

(127)Answer : (3)
Solution:
A vessel is made up of many cells called vessel members. Both vessel and sieve tube have perforated end
walls.

(128)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Phloem parenchyma is absent in most of the monocots.
(129)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Protoxylem is first formed primary xylem while metaxylem is later formed primary xylem.
(130)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Interfascicular cambium is a secondary meristem.
(131)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Casparian strips are seen in root where they block the passage of water molecules through them.
(132)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Collenchyma has thick walls at corners made up of cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin. Parenchyma has
cellulose as a major component of cell walls.

(133)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Seed coats of legumes are rich in sclereids.
(134)Answer : (3)
Solution:
The only living component of xylem is xylem parenchyma (ray parenchyma).
(135)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Pericycle is absent in monocot stem.

SECTION-B
(136)Answer : (2)
Solution:
The spring wood is lighter in color and has a lower density whereas the autumn wood is darker and has a
higher density.
(137)Answer : (3)
Solution:

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2325-T03A

In dicot stem, pericycle forms semilunar patches of sclerenchyma cells.


(138)Answer : (1)
Solution:
During secondary growth primary phloem gets crushed but primary xylem remains more or less intact.

(139)Answer : (3)
Solution:
In roots, the protoxylem lies towards periphery and metaxylem lies towards the centre. It is exarch condition of
protoxylem.

(140)Answer : (2)
Solution:
In the dicot root, the vascular cambium is completely secondary in origin. It originates from the tissue located
just below the phloem bundles and a portion of pericycle tissue, above the protoxylem forming a complete and
continuous wavy ring, which later becomes circular.
(141)Answer : (4)
Solution:
The dead component of phloem is phloem fibres or bast fibres.
(142)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Isobilateral leaf are monocotyledonous leaf and their mesophyll cells are not differentiated into palisade and
spongy parenchyma.
(143)Answer : (1)
Solution:
These features belong to family Liliaceae.
(144)Answer : (4)
Solution:
All the tissues inside of the endodermis constitute the stele. It lacks endodermis.

(145)Answer : (3)
Solution:
The shield shaped cotyledon in maize seed is called scutellum.

(146)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Muliathi is a medicinal plant belongs to the family Fabaceae.

(147)Answer : (3)
Solution:
When pistils in a flower are fused together, it is called syncarpous condition.

(148)Answer : (2)
Solution:
In lily, the outer two whorls (calyx and corolla) are not distinct and are termed as perianth.
(149)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Coleoptile covers plumule and coleorhiza covers redicle.
(150)Answer : (1)
Solution:
The arrangement of veins and veinlets in the lamina of leaf blade is termed as venation.

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A
(151)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Plasma without the clotting factors is called serum.
(152)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Fishes have a two-chambered heart with an atrium and a ventricle, in which the heart pumps out
deoxygenated blood which undergoes oxygenation in the gills. The oxygenated blood is then supplied to the
body parts from where deoxygenated blood is returned to the heart.

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2325-T03A

(153)Answer : (4)
Solution:
AV valves are muscular flaps or cusps.
(154)Answer : (4)
Solution:
All the four chambers of heart are in a relaxed state, i.e., they are in joint diastole. As the tricuspid and bicuspid
valves are open, blood from the pulmonary veins and vena cava flows into the left and the right ventricles
respectively through the left and right atria. The semilunar valves are closed at this stage. The SAN now
generates an action potential which stimulates both the atria to undergo a simultaneous contraction – the atrial
systole. This increases the flow of blood into the ventricles by about 30 per cent.
(155)Answer : (3)
Hint:
Antibodies for A, B and Rh antigens are present
Solution:
‘O’ blood group persons are called ‘universal donors’ because A, B and Rh antigens are absent on the
surface of their RBCs. So, on entering into body of recipients having A, B, AB or O blood group it will not elicit
any immune response.
(156)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Neutrophils – 60– 65% of total WBCs
Lymphocytes – 20 – 25% of total WBCs
Monocytes – 6 – 8 % of total WBCs
Basophils – 0.5 – 1% of total WBCs
(157)Answer : (3)
Hint:
Erythrocytes are the most abundant of all cell types in human blood.
Solution:
Normal count of formed elements per mm3 of blood :
RBCs – 5 million to 5.5 million
WBCs – 6000 to 8000
Platelets – 150000 to 350000

(158)Answer : (4)
Hint:
Individual with blood group AB is a universal recipient.
Solution:
Blood group of Individual Donor’s blood group
A A, O
B B, O
AB A, B, AB, O
O O

(159)Answer : (2)
Hint:
Liver is the largest gland in the body.
Solution:
The flow of deoxygenated blood from the digestive organs to the liver before returning to the systemic
circulation is called hepatic portal circulation. Coronary circulation is a special coronary system of blood
vessels in our body exclusively for the circulation of blood to and from the cardiac musculature.
(160)Answer : (3)
Solution:
‘Dub’ is diastolic heart sound which is produced due to closure of semilunar valves during ventricular diastole.
AV valves open during ventricular diastole.
(161)Answer : (3)
Hint:
Rh negative mother.
Solution:
Erythroblastosis fetalis has been observed when the Rh negative blood of a pregnant mother mixes with Rh
positive blood of the newborn. In this, the Rh antibodies from the mother (Rh negative) can cross the placenta
and enter foetal circulation during subsequent pregnancies and destroy the foetal RBCs.
(162)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Plasma is a straw coloured, viscous fluid constituting nearly 55% of blood. 90-92% of plasma is water and
proteins contribute 6-8% of it.

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2325-T03A

(163)Answer : (2)
Solution:
The end of T-wave marks the end of ventricular systole and initiation of joint diastole.
(164)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Fibrinogen, globulins and albumins are the major proteins found in blood plasma. Collagen and elastin forms
the fibrous component of the connective tissue.
(165)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Platelets also called thrombocytes which are cell fragments produced from megakaryocytes. Tissue at the site
of injury releases thromboplastins.
(166)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Angina occurs due to conditions that affect the blood flow. Hypertension leads to heart diseases. Cardiac
arrest is when the heart stops beating.
(167)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Each ventricle pumps out approximately 70 ml of blood during a cardiac cycle. The stroke volume multiplied by
the heart rate gives the cardiac output which averages (70 ml × 72 beats = 5040 ml) ~ 5 litres in a healthy
individual.

(168)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Adrenal medullary hormones like adrenaline and noradrenaline increase the cardiac output.
Parasympathetic neural signals decrease the rate of heart beat, speed of conduction of action potentials and
thereby the cardiac output.

(169)Answer : (3)
Solution:
AB group individuals lack antibodies.

(170)Answer : (3)
Solution:
ADH is stored and released by neurohypophysis.

(171)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Protonephridia or flame cells are excretory structures in platyhelminthes such as Planaria and
cephalochordates such as Amphioxus.

(172)Answer : (1)
Solution:

(173)Answer : (1)
Hint:
Maximum reabsorption of substances takes place in PCT.
Solution:
Glucose, amino acids, Na+ are reabsorbed by active transport in PCT.
(174)Answer : (4)

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2325-T03A

Solution:
Urine concentration is based on the length of loop of Henle.
Presence of longer loop of Henle is characteristic feature of mammalian kidneys.
(175)Answer : (2)
Hint:
JGA releases Renin
Solution:
JGA – Juxta glomerular apparatus is formed by cellular modifications in DCT and afferent arteriole
(176)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Hint : Water conservation.
Sol. : Presence of an interstitial gradient helps in easy passage of water from the collecting tubules thereby
concentrating the filtrate (urine). Human kidneys can produce urine nearly four times concentrated than the
initial filtrate formed.

(177)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Nearly all of the essential nutrients and 70-80% of electrolytes and water are reabsorbed in PCT. Minimum
reabsorption occurs in ascending limb of loop of Henle.
(178)Answer : (4)
Solution:

DCT reabsorb HCO3 and selectively secrete hydrogen and potassium ions and NH3 to maintain the pH and
sodium-potassium balance in blood.
(179)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Vasa recta is a branch of peritubular capillaries. Glomerulus is a tuft of capillary formed between afferent and
efferent arteriole.
(180)Answer : (4)
Solution:
The wall of the atria of the heart releases ANF (Atrial Natriuretic Factor) in response to an increase in blood
pressure and volume.
ANF can cause vasodilation (dilation of blood vessels) and thereby decreases the blood pressure.

(181)Answer : (4)
Solution:
Sebaceous gland produces sterols.

(182)Answer : (4)
Solution:
On an average, 1100-1200 ml of blood is filtered by the kidneys per minute which constitute roughly 1/5th of
the blood pumped out by each ventricle of the heart per minute.

(183)Answer : (1)
Solution:
Uric acid is the least toxic nitrogenous waste among urea, ammonia and uric acid.

(184)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Presence of glucose and ketone bodies in urine are the symptoms of diabetes mellitus

(185)Answer : (2)
Solution:
Renal tubule begins with Bowman’s capsule which encloses glomerulus and includes PCT(Proximal
convoluted tubule), loop of Henle and DCT (Distal convoluted tubule).

SECTION-B

(186)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Older erythrocytes are removed from the circulation by phagocytic cells of spleen. Spleen is also called
graveyard of RBCs.
(187)Answer : (2)
Hint:
Cells responsible for immune response of the body are present in lymph.
Solution:
Lymph is a colourless fluid containing specialised lymphocytes which are responsible for the immune
responses of the body.

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2325-T03A

(188)Answer : (1)
Hint:
Animals having dual mode of life.
Solution:
In amphibians, the left atrium receives oxygenated blood from gills, skin and lungs and the right atrium gets the
deoxygenated blood from other body parts.
(189)Answer : (1)
Hint:
It leads to death
Solution:
Heart stops beating in cardiac arrest
Angina pectoris – Acute chest pain which appears when not enough oxygen reaches the heart
Heart failure – One of the main symptoms is congestion of the lungs
(190)Answer : (2)
Hint:
Equal to normal value of stroke volume
Solution:
Stroke volume = End diastolic
Volume – End systolic volume
= 130 – 60 = 70 mL
(191)Answer : (3)
Hint:
Heart chamber which has thickest myocardium.
Solution:
Left ventricle pumps blood to all systems of the body by its forceful contraction. So, its wall has thicker
musculature in comparison with any other chamber of the heart.
(192)Answer : (4)
Hint:
Tunica intima is the innermost layer of blood vessels.
Solution:
Each artery and vein consists of 3 layers:
(a) Tunica intima Inner lining of squamous epithelium (endothelium)
(b) Tunica media A middle layer of smooth muscles and elastic fibres
(c) Tunica externa An external layer of fibrous connective tissue with collagen fibres

(193)Answer : (4)
Hint:
Mammals are ureotelic.
Solution:
Reptiles, birds, land snails and insects secrete nitrogenous wastes as uric acid in the form of pellet or paste
with a minimum loss of water and are called uricotelic animals. Mammals, many terrestrial amphibians and
marine fishes mainly excrete urea and are called ureotelic animals.
(194)Answer : (2)
Hint:
PCT
Solution:
One of the regions in a nephron where aldosterone acts
Nearly all of the essential nutrients and 70-80 per cent of electrolytes and water
PCT
are reabsorbed.
Descending limb of
Permeable to water, almost impermeable to electrolytes.
Henle’s loop
Ascending limb of Henle’s
Impermeable to water, permeable to electrolytes.
loop

DCT Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water. Collecting duct is not a part of
nephron.

(195)Answer : (3)
Hint:
GFR = 125 mL/min
Solution:
In a healthy individual, the glomerular filtration rate is 125 mL/minute or 180 litre/day or 7.5 litre/hour.
(196)Answer : (2)
Solution:

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NCERT Revision Test(P1)2325-T03A

Other than kidneys, organs which help in elimination of excretory wastes are liver, skin, lungs, sebaceous
glands and little amount also excreted by saliva.

(197)Answer : (1)
Hint:
Accumulation of urea in blood.
Solution:
Renal calculi – Stone or insoluble masses of crystallised salts within the kidney
Glomerulonephritis – Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney
Gout – Accumulation of uric acid in joints
Uremia – Increased accumulation of urea in blood

(198)Answer : (2)
Hint:
Artificial kidney
Solution:
In hemodialysis, the dialysing fluid have the same composition as that of plasma except the nitrogenous
wastes.
(199)Answer : (3)
Solution:
Antennal glands or green glands perform the excretory function in crustaceans like prawns.
Protonephridia or flame cells are present in platyhelminthes, rotifers, some annelids and cephalochordates
(Amphioxus).
(200)Answer : (1)
Solution:
In a standard ECG, the P wave represents electrical excitation (or depolarisation) of the atria which leads to
contraction of both the atria. The QRS (wave) complex represents the depolarisation of the ventricles, which
initiates the ventricular contraction (ventricular systole). The T-wave represents the return of the ventricles from
excited (depolarised) to normal state (i.e., repolarisation). The end of the T-wave marks the end of systole.

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