College of Engineering and Technology

Department of Mechanical Engineering

Model Exam for Fifth Year Mechanical Engineering Regular Program
Students

Academic Year:2023

Time Allowed: 2:30

Maximum Weight 100%

Prepared

by

Mechanical Engineering Staff!

May 2023

Bonga, Ethiopia

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Choose the best answer from the given alternatives.

1. Heat transfer takes place as per –

(a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics (b) First law of thermodynamic
(c) Second law of the thermodynamics (d) Stefan’s law
2. If hot air at 80°C is blown over a 2-m X 4-m flat surface at 30°C and tf the average convection
heat transfer coefficient is 55 W/m 2 °C, then the rate of heat transfer from the air to the plate,
in kW would be a) 2 b) 22 c) 250 d) 220
3. In free con-vection heat transfer, Nusselt number is function of
(a) Grashoff no. and Reynold no. (b) Grashoff no. and Prandtl no.
(c) Prandtl no. and Reynold no. (d) Grashoff no., Prandtl no. and
Reynold no.
4. A counter flow heat exchanger is used to col 2000 kg/hr of oil (c p = 2.5 k J/kg K) from 105
degree Celsius to 30 degree Celsius by the use of water entering at 15 degree Celsius. If the
overall heat transfer coefficient is expected to be 1.5 k W/m2 K, find out the water flow rate.
Presume that the exit temperature of the water is not to exceed 80 degree Celsius
(a) 1680.2 kg/hr b) 1580.2 kg/hr c) 1480.2 kg/hr d) 1380.2 kg/hr 5. For
an opaque body the sum of absorvitiy and reflectivity is
a) 0 b) 0.5 c) 1 d) 0.8
6. An automobile radiator is an example of _______ heat exchanger
a) Crossflow b) Parallel flow c) Counter flow d) Recuperator
7. An SI engine sometimes continues to run for a very small period even after the ignition is
switched off. This phenomenon is called?
a) Dieseling b) Idling c) Throttling d) none of the mentioned
8. The thermal efficiency of a petrol engine is ______ as compared to diesel engine.
a) Same b) Less c) More d) none of the mentioned
9. The replacement of the exhaust gas with fresh air/fuel mixture in a cylinder for the next cycle
is a) Carburation b) Scavenging c) Advancing d) Throttling

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10. Number of working strokes per min. for a four stroke cycle engine are ____ the speed of the
engine in r.p.m.
a) Equal to b) One-half c) Twice d) Four-times

11. Morse test can be conducted for:

a) Petrol engines b) Diesel engines
c) Multi cylinder engines (D) Single Cylinder Engines
12. If one cylinder of a diesel engine receives more fuel than the others, then for that cylinder
a) Exhaust will be smoky b) Scavenging occurs
c) Exhaust temperature will be high d) Engine starts overheating 13.
What is the difference between management and administration?
A. Administration determines the objectives and policies of an enterprise and Management
caries out these policies to achieve the objectives of the enterprise.
B. Management determines the objectives and policies of an enterprise and
Administration caries out these policies to achieve the objectives of the enterprise. C.
There is no difference between managment and administration.
D. All are the same.
14. It consists of small group of executives, board of directors, chairman, managing director,
personnel manager, chief executive etc.
A. Top management C. Middle management-
B. Lower-level management D. None of the above
15. Which of the following is correct.
A. Technical skill refers to the ability to use methods, processes, tools, equipment,
techniques and knowledge of a specialized field.
B. Human skill refers to the ability to work effectively with others and build cooperative
group relations to achieve organizational objectives.
C. Conceptual skill is the ability to see the organization as a whole, to recognize
interrelationships among different functions of the business and external forces and to
guide effectively the organizational efforts. D. All of the above.
16. Which one of the following is not the principle of industrial plant design? A. Overall
integration and minimum distance.
B. Cubic space utilization and smooth and continuous flow.
C. Maximum flexibility, safety, security and satisfaction.
D. None of the above.

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17. Which principle of industrial plant design that concerns about to reduces the material handling
to the minimum.
A. Overall integration
B. Minimum handling
C. Cubic space utilization
D. Minimum distance

18. The principle of layout which concerns to utilize both horizontal and vertical space.
A. Maximum flexibility
B. Minimum distance
C. Cubic space utilization
D. Maximum flexibility
19. Which of the following is not correct about galvanometer?
A. Galvanometer is a PMMC instrument designed to be sensitive to extremely current levels
B. Galvanometer used to detect zero current or voltage in a circuit rather than to measure the
actual level of current or voltage
C. Galvanometer is a very sensitive instrument with the type of center-zero scale D.
Galvanometer is not sensitive instrument with the type of center-zero scale
20. Which of the following is the correct sentence during current measurement?
A. An ammeter is always connected in series with a circuit
B. An ammeter is always connected in parallel with a circuit
C. The basic D.C ammeter is not galvanometer
D. An ammeter is always connected in series and parallel with a circuit
21. Which of the following is not correct during the voltage measurements?
A. The basic D.C. voltmeter is galvanometer
B. An ammeter is always connected across or parallel with the points in a circuit at which the
voltage is to be measured
C. The resistance is required to be connected in parallel with the ammeter
D. The voltmeter measures the voltage across the two points of a circuit or a voltage across a
circuit component
22. Which of the following is not a type of pressure sensing element?

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 A. Bellows
B. Bourdon tube
C. Manometer
D. Orifice plate
E. Diaphragm
23. __________ is used for temperature measurement.
A. Thermocouple
B. Venturimeter
C. Manometer
D. Rotameter

24. The figure below shows the quarter car suspension model. Based on the figure below derive
the equation for mass 2.

A. 𝑀2𝑥2̈ − 𝐵1𝑥1̇ + 𝐵1𝑥2̇ − 𝑘1𝑥1 + (𝑘1 + 𝑘2)𝑥2 = 𝑘2𝑥𝑝

B. 𝑀2𝑥2̈ + 𝐵1𝑥1̇ + 𝐵1𝑥2̇ − 𝑘1𝑥1 + (𝑘1 + 𝑘2)𝑥2 = 0

C. 𝑀2𝑥2̈ − 𝐵1𝑥1̇ + 𝐵1𝑥2̇ − 𝑘1𝑥1 + (𝑘1 − 𝑘2)𝑥2 = 𝑘2𝑥𝑝

D. 𝑀2𝑥2̈ − 𝐵1𝑥1̇ + 𝐵1𝑥2̇ − 𝑘1𝑥1 + (𝑘1 + 𝑘2)𝑥2 = 0

25. Assume the room has a heater. The heat generated from the heater is called 𝑞1 and the heat

leave the room is called 𝑞2. Because of the heater the room temperature 𝑇 is warmer than the

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 outside temperature 𝑇𝑜. Based on this explanation develop mathematical expression for the
temperature of a room.

A) 𝑅𝐶 𝑑𝑇 𝑑𝑡 + 𝑇 = 𝑅𝑞2 + 𝑇0 C) 𝑅𝐶 𝑑𝑇𝑑𝑡 + 𝑇0 = 𝑅𝑞1 + 𝑇

𝑑𝑇 𝑑𝑇
B) 𝑅𝐶 𝑑𝑡 + 𝑇 = 𝑅𝑞1 − 𝑇0 D) 𝑅𝐶 𝑑𝑡 + 𝑇 = 𝑅𝑞1 + 𝑇0

26. The actuator used for the application of Hand pump purpose
A) Hydraulic actuator C) Slider-crank
B) Four bar chain D) Rachet and pawl

27. The output of the system is dependent on the input value of the system is called
A) Close loop control system C) Connected system
B) Open loop control system D) Sequence control
system

28. The type of semiconductor that make by adding 5 valance electros on silicon is called
A) “N” type C) pn
B) “P” type D) Diode
29. The actuator uses to carry moderate loads for industrial application and mainly used for systems
which require quick and accurate response. These actuators are clean, make less noise and
relatively compact in their design.
A. Electrical actuator C) Pneumatic actuator

B. Mechanical actuator D) Hydraulic actuator

30. Which design procedure is correct procedure for correct design
A, need synthesis analysis of force material selection design of element
modification detail drawing production
B, need synthesis material selection force analysis design of element
modification detail drawing production

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 C, need synthesis material selection force analysis modification design of
element detail drawing production
D, need synthesis material selection design of element modification force
analysis detail drawing production
31. The difference between pressure and stress is
A, pressure is not mechanical property of material while stress is mechanical property
B, stress is internal resistance of material in force per unit area while pressure is external
C, pressure is for liquid while stress is for solid
D, there is no difference between them, since both are force per unit area.
32. Shear stress per strain in the limit of proportionality is called
A. bulk module B. young’s modules
C. modules of rigidity D. none
33. The relation between young’s modules and bulk modules is

A 𝐾= 𝐸 B𝐾= 𝐸 C 𝐾= 𝐸 D 𝐾= 𝐸
3(1−2𝜇) 2(1+𝜇) 3(1+2𝜇) 3(1+𝜇)

34. A theory of failure which states failure of material will occur at which when the maximum
principal strain reaches the strain due to yield stress in simple tension or when the maximum
principal strain reaches the strain due to yield stress in simple compression test is called,

A, maximum principal stress theory B, maximum shear stress theory,

C maximum shear strain theory, D maximum principal strain theory.
35. A combination method of steady and variable stress which is used for both ductile and brittle
material is,
A, Gerber Method of stress combination, B, Good man stress combination method
C, Soderberg stress combination method, D, all
36. The rivet is subjected to double shear type stress when the type of riveted joint is,
A, but joint B, lap joint
C double lap riveted joint D, double but riveted joint

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37. Which one is the advantage of welded joints than riveted joints. A, there is even distribution
of stress in welding type of joint B, the inspection of welding is simpler than riveted.
C, welding joint is lighter and has 100% efficiency.
D, there is a supervision in contraction and expansion of material in welded area, therefore
there will not be any crack or failures in welding type of joint.
38. A type of key which transmits a turning moment and also permits axial movement is called
A, gib head key B, feather key, C, saddle key D, tangent key
39. A type of screw thread which allow transmission of power in either direction is.
A, Acme or trapezoidal screw B, square thread C, buttress thread D none.
40. A spring type which usually used for supporting of automobile unsprang mass is called,
A. laminated or leaf spring B. tortional spring C. helical spring D. disc spring
41. Which one of the following Activities involved to achieve good Reliability and
Maintainability
A) Design B) Manufacture C) Field service Operation D) all of the above
42. Which one of the following the basic reasons of Reliability and Maintainability are
interdependent?
A) Maintainability is a parameter that greatly contributes to the reliability of a system.
B) The design and assurance activities required to achieve Reliability and Maintainability,
in many cases are the same.
C) Reliability and Maintainability contribute to the overall availability of the system
Availability
D) all of the above
43. Imagine that Mr. A went to the Bonga University Maintenance of Machinery Laboratory to
determine and check the classification of failures: immediate failure and gradual degradation
failure. Which one of the following classifications of failures did Mr. A receive?
A) By Suddenness failure B) By Result C) By Cause D) By Degree
44. Inventory control theory attempts to determine those procedures which will minimize the sum
of the costs of

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 A) Running out of stock B) Ordering cost C) Replenishing stock D) all of the above

45. whether the failure is hidden or evident to operating crew under normal operational conditions;

A) Nature of failure B) Environmental consequences C) Operational consequences D) all

46. Which one of the following the Reliability Center Maintenance, the evolution of maintenance
can be traced through three generations? What are the distinction between these generations
depends up on basically three technical factors?
A) Growing expectations of maintenance B) Changing view on equipment failures,
B) C) Changing maintenance techniques D) all of the above
47. Which of the following components is mainly manufactured by performing metal forging?
A) Connecting rod B) Engine block
C) Piston D) Crankcase
48. Which of the following metal forming processes is best suitable for making the wires?
A) Forging B) Extrusion
C) Drawing D) Rolling
49. The heat transfer factor in welding is correctly defined by which one of the following
descriptions:
A) The proportion of the heat received at the work surface that is used for melting,

B) The proportion of the total heat generated at the source that is received at the work
surface,
C) The proportion of the total heat generated at the source that is used for melting, D)
The proportion of the total heat generated at the source that is used for welding?
50. In three high rolling mill, what is the direction of rolling of the three rollers?
A) Clockwise-clockwise- clockwise
B) Clockwise-anticlockwise- clockwise
C) Clockwise-anticlockwise- anticlockwise
D) Anticlockwise-anticlockwise-anti clockwise
51. Which of the following is not a surface finishing process?
A) Honing B) Grinding C) Boring D) Lapping

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52. Which of the following metals are used as the matrix metals in nearly all WC cemented
carbides and TiC cermet’s
A) Aluminum, B) Chromium, C) Cobalt, D) Tungsten carbide?
53. Welding involves localized coalescence or joining together of two metallic parts at their faying
surfaces usually performed on parts made of the same metal, but some welding operations can
be used to join dissimilar metals. Then discuss the reasons why most welding operations are
inherently dangerous.
A) Most welding operations are carried out at high temperatures that can cause serious
burns on skin and flesh. And in gas welding, the fuels are a fire hazard.
B) In arc welding and resistance welding, the high electrical energy can cause shocks that
are fatal to the worker.
C) In arc welding, the electric arc emits intense ultraviolet radiation that can cause
blinding and other hazards include sparks, smoke, fumes, and weld spatter.
D) all of the above
54. Which of the following casting techniques is the best technique for casting tubes and hollow
pipes?
A) Die-casting B) Slushcasting C) Centrifugalcasting D) Investment casting
55. Which is the sequence of operation in conventional powder metallurgy process.
A) Atomization …. Blending and Mixing … Compacting
….Sintering
B) Blending and Mixing … Compacting…. Atomization
….Sintering
C) Atomization …. Blending and Mixing … Sintering
…. Compacting
D) Blending and Mixing … Atomization …. Compacting …. Sintering
56. One of is the application of slider crank mechanism inversion, when link 2 is fixed. A)
Whitworth quick-return mechanism C) Oscillating cylinder engine
B) Reciprocating engine D) Bull-engine
57. Which one of the following is the best example of higher kinematic pair?

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 A) Universal joint C) Nut turning on a screw
B) Shaft rotating in a bearing D) Cam and follower
58. When three bodies move relative to one another they have three instantaneous centers, all of
which lie on the same straight line. This theorem is called
A) Instantaneous velocity C) Coriolis Acceleration
B) Kennedy D) Instantaneous acceleration
59. _______ is a dead weight governor, as the speed of the shaft increases the balls move outward
rising the sleeve height and vice versa.
A) Porter Governor C) Hartnell Governor
B) Inertial Governor D) Spring loaded Governor
60. _________ is a technique of correcting or eliminating unwanted inertia forces, thereby
neutralizing or minimizing unpleasant and injurious vibratory effects.
A) Gyroscopes C) Inversion B)
Balancing D) Gear train
61. Which one of the following is material handling equipment? A. Industrial Vehicles/Trucks
and Auxiliary Equipment.
B. Conveyors and Hoisting Equipment.
C. Bulk Handling Equipment/System and Robotic handling system.
D. Containers and supports.
E. All
62. What are the procedures for the selection of suitable material handling equipment for a specific
purpose?
A. Identify and define the problem, collect relevant data, analyze the data, evaluate
alternative, choose the preferred solution and apply the solution.
B. Identify and define the problem, evaluate alternative, choose the preferred solution and
apply the solution.
C. Identify and define the problem, analyze the data, evaluate the alternative, collect
relevant data. D. All.
63. The factor acting on the operating conditions of hoisting equipment is.
A. Load on the machine
B. ITS annual and daily utilization
C. Relative duty factory (DF)
D. Ambient temperature

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 E. All of the above
64. Pneumatic conveyors are generally used for conveying A. package goods B.
granular material
C. mineral ores D. heavy goods
65. What is the temperature of air recorded by a thermometer, when the moisture present in it starts
condensing?
a) DBT b) WBT c) DPT d) WBD
66. What does the process 1-2 represent?

a) Condensation b) Evaporation c) Compression d) Expansion

67. Find out the value of C.O.P. for the given values of enthalpies.
h1 = 1126.25 kJ/kg, h4 = 250.25 kJ/kg, W = 120 kJ/kg
a) 5.3 b) 6.3 c) 7.3 d) 8.3
68. The process of under cooling the refrigerant below the saturation temperature happens?
a) Compression b) Before condensation c) Evaporation d) Before throttling
69. Why is the evaporator used?
a) To improve C.O.P. b) To decrease the refrigeration effect
c) To absorb heat d) To reject heat

70. The internal resistance which the body offers to meet the load or external force is:
A. Stress C. Pressure B. Strain
D. None
71. The property of material by virtue of which a body returns to its original shape after removal
of load is known as:

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 A. Ductility C. Plasticity B. Elasticity D. Resilience
72. What is the bending moment at end supports of a simply supported beam?
A. Maximum C. Zero

B. Uniform D. Minimum
73. The energy absorbed in a body, when it is strained within the elastic limits, is known as
A. Strain energy C. Proof resilience B.
Resilience D. Modulus of resilience
74. A material obeys hook’s law up to:
A. Modulus of resilience C. Yield point
B. Elastic limit D. Ultimate point
75. What is the point P shown on the stress-strain curve?

A. Upper yield point C. Elastic limit

B. Yield plateau D. Ultimate point
76. A shaft of diameter D is subjected to a twisting moment (T) and a bending moment (M). If the
maximum bending stress is equal to maximum shear stress developed, then M is equal to:
A. T/2 C. 2T
B. T D. 4T
77. Factor of safety is defined as the ratio of:

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 A. Ultimate stress to working stress C. Breaking stress to ultimate stress
B. Working stress to ultimate stress D. Ultimate stress to breaking stress

78. Principal planes are planes having:

A. Maximum shear stress C. Minimum shear stress
B. No shear stress D. None of the above
79. Mohr's circle is used to determine the stresses on an oblique section of a body subjected to:
A. Direct tensile stress in one plane accompanied by a shear stress
B. Direct tensile stress in two mutually perpendicular directions
C. Direct tensile stress in two mutually perpendicular directions accompanied by a simple
shear stress.
D. All of the above
80. From the state of plane stress as shown in the figure, the corresponding plane stress (𝜎 max
𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝜎 𝑚𝑖𝑛) respectively is?

A. 40MP,30MPa C. 30MP,40MPa
B. 30MP,70MPa D. 70MP,30MPa
81. Which hydraulic machine convert mechanical energy into pressure energy?
a) Pump b) Refrigerator
c) Heat engine d) Turbine
82. Hydraulic machine convert mechanical energy into hydraulic energy by means of centrifugal
force acting on the fluid ______
a) Centrifugal pump b) Rotary pump
c) Multiple rotor d) Reciprocating pump
83. ________________ has large change in inlet to exit radius when compared to centrifugal
compressors.
a) Axial compressors b) Axial & Centrifugal compressors

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 c) Centrifugal compressors d) None of the mentioned 84.
________ are used as stationary compressors in steam turbines.
a) Moving vanes b) Guide vanes
c) Moving & Guide vanes d) None of the mentioned
85. In which type of turbine, the runner needs to be run full of water?
A. Impulse turbine C. Reaction turbine
B. Both a. and b. D. None of the above
86. …………is properties are defined at fixed points in space as the fluid flows past these points;
this is the most common description and yields the field representation of fluid flow.
a. Eulerian approach c. both approach
b. Lagrangian approach d.all
87. The right limb of a simple U-tube manometer containing mercury is open to the atmosphere
while the left limb is connected to a pipe in which a fluid of specific gravity 0.9 is flowing.

The center of the pipe is 12 cm below the level of mercury in the right limb. Find the pressure
of fluid in the pipe if the difference of the mercury level in the two limbs is 20 cm.

a.4 N/cm2 c. 3.45 N/cm2

b.2.598 N/cm2 d. 2.156 N/cm2

88. Water is flowing through a pipe having diameter 300 mm and 200 mm at the bottom and upper
end respectively. The intensity of pressure at the bottom end is 24.525 N/cm2 and the pressure
at the upper end is 9.81 N/cm2 determine the diffrence in datum head if the rate of flow through
pipe is 40lit/s.

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 a.15 m c. 13.7 m

b.14.89 m d.12.67 m

89. ………is a line formed by tangents of the velocity field of the flow and Local velocity vector
is tangent to this line at every point along the line and a given time. The tangent of the
streamline the direction of the velocity at that specific point.
a. Streamlines c, Pathlines b. Streaklines d. none
90. The heat given to an ideal gas in isothermal conditions is used to:
a. increase temperature
b. do external work
c. increase temperature and in doing external work
d. increase internal energy
91. An ideal gas goes from state A to state B via three different processes, as indicated in the PV
diagram. If Q1, Q2, Q3 indicates the heat absorbed by the gas alone the three processes and
ΔU1, ΔU2, ΔU3 indicates the change in internal energy alone the three processes respectively,
then

a. Q1 > Q2 > Q3 and ΔU1 = ΔU2 = ΔU3

b. Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and ΔU1 = ΔU2 = ΔU3
c. Q1 = Q2 = Q3 and ΔU1 > ΔU2 > ΔU3
d. Q3 > Q2 > Q1 and ΔU1 > ΔU2 > ΔU3
92. During an adiabatic expansion of 3 moles of a gas, the change in internal energy was found to
be equal to - 100 J. The work done during the process is equal to:
a. 122 J
b. 100 J
c. -300 J
d. 300 J
93. According to Kelvin-Plank’s statement of second law of thermodynamics
a. It is impossible to construct an engine working on a cyclic process, whose sole purpose is
to convert heat energy to work.

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 b. It is possible to construct an engine working on a cyclic process, whose purpose is to
convert heat energy in to work
c. It is impossible to construct a device which operates in a cyclic process and produces no
effect other than the transfer of heat form a cold body to a hot body
d. It is impossible to construct an engine working on a non-cyclic process, whose sole purpose
is to convert heat energy to work.
94. If a reversible heat engine A is operating between the temperature levels T1 and T2 and another
reversible heat engine B of different capacity is also operating between the same temperature
difference T1 and T2, then the efficiency of reversible heat engine B is
a. greater than efficiency of the reversible heat engine A
b. less than the efficiency of the reversible heat engine A
c. equal to the efficiency of the reversible heat engine A
d. cannot say
95. If cooling water to make ice reduces is entropy, does this violate the second law of
thermodynamics?
a. No, because entropy must be increased elsewhere to extract the heat.
b. No, because the second law doesn't apply in this case.
c. No, because cooling water doesn't reduce its entropy.
d. All of the above
e. None of the above.
96. In the context of first law efficiency and second law efficiency, which of the following
statement is false?
a. first law efficiency = energy output / energy input and their difference is the energy loss
b. second law efficiency = exergy output / exergy input and their difference is irreversibility
c. second law efficiency = exergy output / exergy input and their difference is energy loss
d. by reducing energy loss, first law efficiency can be improved and by reducing
irreversibilities, second law efficiency can be improved.
97. Dalton's law of partial pressure states that
a. the total pressure of a mixture of ideal gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of
individual gases divided by number of gases mixed
b. the total pressure of a mixture of ideal gases is equal to the partial pressure of any
individual gas in the mixture
c. the total pressure of a mixture of ideal gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of
individual gases
d. the total pressure of a mixture of ideal gases is equal to the average of the partial
pressures of individual gases
98. The higher heating value of a fuel is
a. the heating value when the H2O in the products is in the liquid form

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 b. the heating value when the H2O in the products is in the vapour form
c. less than lower heating value
d. a and c are correct
99. How can we take advantage of the increased efficiencies at higher boiler pressures without
facing the problem of excessive moisture at the final stages of the turbine?
a. Superheating
b. Reheating
c. decreasing boiler pressure
d. a and b
100. Which of the following process shows throttling in an expansion device of an ideal vapour
compression refrigeration system

a. process 1 -2
b. process 4- 1
c. process 3-4
d. process 2-3

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