English

(1001CMD303054230147) *1001CMD303054230147* Test Pattern

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET (UG)

MAJOR
(Academic Session : 2023-2024) 20-03-2024

PRE-MEDICAL : LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE PHASE - MLH, MLI, MLJ, MLK, MLM, MLX,
MAZG, MAZH, MAZI, MAZJ, MAZL, MAZS, MAZT, MAZU, MAZW
Test Booklet Code This Booklet contains 28 pages.

L2 Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Important Instructions :
1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and
fill in the particulars on ORIGINAL Copy carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four options with a
single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are divided
into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below :
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos - 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151
to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos - 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to
200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start attempting the question paper.
In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be
evaluated.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
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sign (with time) the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases, where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time,
will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an Unfair Means case.
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Room/Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per the Rules and Regulations of this examination.
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whether such candidate (having a physical limitation to write) uses the facility of scribe or not.

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :

Form Number : in figures
: in words
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Candidate's Signature : Invigilator's Signature :

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2024

 2 English

Topic : SYLLABUS-2

SECTION-A ( CHEMISTRY ) 7. Which of the following order is correct ?

(1) NH3 < PH3 > AsH3 (Acidic strength)
1. An element kurchatovium, belongs to ? (2) Na < Mg < Al < Si (I.E1)
(1) b-block element (2) p-block element (3) Al2O3 < MgO < K2O < Na2O (Basic strength)
(3) d-block element (4) Transition element (4) N < P < C < Si ( Δ Heg)
2. Consider the following electronic configuration 8. Which of the following transformation requires
of an element (A) least energy?
[Rn]5f06d27s2 (1) (2)
Then correct statement about (A) is :-
(3) (4)
(1) It belongs to 7th period and 4th group
(2) It belongs to 7th period and 2nd group 9. Match the column :
(3) It belongs to 7th period and 6`th group Column-I Column-II
(4) It belongs to 7th period and 3rd group (a) Energy released (p)

3. The ionization energy will be minimum and (b) Energy absorbed (q) O – → O – 2
maximum respectively for the process :- (c)
Inert gas configuration
(r) Sr → Sr+2
is achieved
(1) Ba(g) → Ba+2
(g) (2) Be(g) → Be+2 (g)
+ + Half filled configuration
(3) Cs(g) → Cs(g) (4) Li(g) → Li(g) (d)
is achieved
(s)
(1) 1 and 2 (2) 3 and 2 (t) Ge → Ge –
(3) 3 and 4 (4) 1 and 4
(1) (a) → p, s, t (b) → q, r (c) → q, r (d) → s, t
4. Select the incorrect order of ionic radii ?
(2) (a) → p, t (b) → q, r, s (c) → q, r (d) → s, t
(1) I⊖ > Se – 2 > Br⊖ > H+
(3) (a) → p, s, t (b) → q, r (c) → q (d) → s, t
(2)
(4) (a) → p, t (b) → q, r, s (c) → q (d) → s, t
(3) K+ < Sc+3 > V+5 > Mn+7
10. The option with only amphoteric oxide is/are :-
(4) N3 – < P3 – < As3 –
(1) Cr2O3, B2O3, SnO, SnO2
5. The electronic configuration of the element which (2) Cr2O3, CrO, SnO, PbO2
is just above the element with atomic number 43 (3) NO, B2O3, PbO, SnO2
in the same periodic group is ? (4) ZnO, Al2O3, PbO, PbO2
(1) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p63d5, 4s2 11. Which among the following compound does not
(2) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p63d10, 4s2, 4p5 show hydrogen bonding?
(3) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p63d6, 4s1 (1) Phenol (2) Ethyl alcohol
(4) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p63d10, 4s24p6 (3) Acetic acid (4) Diethyl ether
6. Which of the following configuration is associated 12. Which is not true statement for resonance?
with biggest jump between 2nd and 3rd I.E. ? (1) Identical bonding
(2) Identical arrangement of atoms
(1) 1s2, 2s22p2 (2) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s1 (3) Same number of paired electrons
(3) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s2 (4) 1s2, 2s22p1 (4) Structures with nearly same energies
PHASE - MLH, MLI, MLJ, MLK, MLM, MLX, MAZG, MAZH, MAZI, MAZJ, MAZL, MAZS, MAZT, MAZU, MAZW
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13. Which of the following underlined carbon is sp3 19. Which of the following can form hydrogen bond
hybridised :- with water ?
(1) HCOOH (2) (NH2)2CO (1) HCN (2) NH4F
(3) (CH3)2CHOH (4) CH3CHO (3) NaHCO3 (4) All
14. Assuming no hybridisation in BF3 than types of 20. Which of the following salt has higher lattice
bond length will be :- energy than its hydration energy?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
(1) NaNO3 (2) CsF (3) NaCl (4) LiF
15. Match the following
21. Of the following hydrides which one has lowest
Bond Bond length boiling point ?
(i) C – H (p) 96 (1) AsH3 (2) SbH3 (3) PH3 (4) NH3
(ii) O – H (q) 136 22. Assertion : H2 is a non polar molecule but not
(iii) N – O (r) 107 100% covalent molecule.
Reason : London dispersion force is present
(iv) C – O (s) 143
between non polar molecule.
Correct match is :-
(1) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(1) (i) - r, (ii) - p, (iii) - q, (iv) - s (2) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(2) (i) - q, (ii) - p, (iii) - r, (iv) - s
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
(3) (i) - p, (ii) - q, (iii) - s, (iv) - r
is correct explanation for Assertion.
(4) (i) - r, (ii) - q, (iii) - p, (iv) - s
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
16. Molecule has polar and non polar bond but the is not correct explanation for Assertion.
molecule as a whole is polar :-
23. Assertion : Na2SO4 is soluble in water while
(1) H2O2 (2) Cl2O6 BaSO4 is insoluble.
(3) B2Cl4 (4) I2Cl6 Reason : Lattice energy of BaSO4 exceed its
hydration energy.
17. In which of the following compound N-atom is
not sp2 hybridised :- (1) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(1) Borazine (2) Trisilyl ammine (2) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
(3) Methyl isocyanate (4) Silyl isocyanate
is correct explanation for Assertion.
18. Assertion : The dipole moment of O2F2 is not (4) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
equal to zero. is not correct explanation for Assertion.
Reason : All atom are lying is same plane.
24. Which of the following can not be explained by
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Dalton's atomic theory ?
Reason is correct explanation for Assertion.
(1) The law of conservation of mass
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason (2) The law of constant composition
is not correct explanation for Assertion. (3) The law of multiple proportion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false. (4) Generation of electricity by rubbing of glass
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true. rod with silk
PHASE - MLH, MLI, MLJ, MLK, MLM, MLX, MAZG, MAZH, MAZI, MAZJ, MAZL, MAZS, MAZT, MAZU, MAZW
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25. Calculate the maximum number of electrons 31. The total number of orbitals associated with the
having both m = +1 and s = + 1 in chromium (Cr) principal quantum number n = 5 are :-
2
atom :- (1) 36 (2) 16 (3) 9 (4) 25
(1) 15 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 5 32. Which of the following sets of quantum number
is possible ?
26. Which of the following is correct for species 27
13 X
+3
?
−1
(1) Number of neutrons are 14 (1) n = 2, ℓ = 2, m ℓ = – 1, ms =
2
(2) Number of electrons are 10 +1
(2) n = 3, ℓ = 1, m ℓ = 0, ms =
2
(3) Number of protons are 13 +1
(3) n = 2, ℓ = 3, m ℓ = +3, ms =
(4) All of the above 2
(4) n = 3, −1
27. If the potential energy (PE) of electron of hydrogen ℓ = 2, m ℓ = – 3, ms =
2
atom is – 1.7 eV then in which of the following 33. Correctly match column-I with column-II :-
excited state hydrogen electron is present :- Column-I Column-II
(1) 1st (2) 2nd (3) 3rd (4) 4th
Zero probability Magnetic
28. Assertion : The path of an electron in an atom (A) density function (P) quantum
can be determined accurately. region number
Reason : From the value of | ψ |2 at different Same energy
points within an atom, it is possible to predict the (B) (Q) Ground
orbitals
region around the nucleus where electron will
Most stable
most probably be found. (C) (R) Node
state
Choose the correct option :-
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and Orientation of
(D) (S) Degenerate
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. electron cloud
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason (1) A→R, B→P, C→Q, D→S
is not the correct explanation of assertion. (2) A→R, B→S, C→Q, D→P
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect. (3) A→S, B→R, C→Q, D→P
(4) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct. (4) A→P, B→R, C→S, D→Q
29. If de-broglie wavelength of an electron in 34. Which of the following statements are false ?
nth orbit of hydrogen atom is equal to 8 π a0 (a) ms refers to the direction of the spin of electron.
(where a0 is Bohr radius) then value of n is :- (b) The total number of nodes are given by (n + 1).
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 (c) The principal quantum number defines the
30. Calculate shortest wavelength for transition in shape of the orbital.
the Balmer series of atomic hydrogen. (d) 2s orbital has only one radial node.
(1) 3648 Å (2) 912 Å (1) (a) and (d) (2) (b) and (d)
(3) 6566 Å (4) 8208 Å (3) (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (c)
PHASE - MLH, MLI, MLJ, MLK, MLM, MLX, MAZG, MAZH, MAZI, MAZJ, MAZL, MAZS, MAZT, MAZU, MAZW
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35. Statement-I : The energy of 4p orbital is smaller 38. Select the incorrect statement :
than 3d orbital. (1) In general, more the ionisation energy, more
Statement-II : Electrons first occupy the lowest will be (E.N.) electronegativity.
energy orbital available to them and then enter
into higher energy orbitals only after the lower (2) Electronegativity increases, metallic character
energy orbitals are filled. increases.
Correct option will be :- (3) In general, lower the ionisation energy, higher
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct will be reducing property.
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is (4) Cl has higher electron affinity than F.
incorrect 39. Which of the following order for bond length is
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct ?
correct (1) dN – N in N2H4 < dN – N in N2F4
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect (2) dC – C in C2H4 < dC – C in C2F6
SECTION-B ( CHEMISTRY ) (3) dO – O in O2H2 < dO – O in O2F2
(4) None of these
36. Consider the following statements :-
(1) Alkaline earth metals have minimum IE2 in 40. Incorrect statement about valency is :
their corresponding period. (1) It increase from IA to IVA with respect to
(2) In any period, generally atomic radius of hydrogen.
alkali metal is the highest. (2) It increase from IA to VIIA with respect to
oxygen
(3) Sulphur has less negative electron gain
enthalpy than oxygen. (3) Maximum covalency of second period
elements is 4
Select correct statements :-
(4) Third period elements can expand their
(1) Both 1 and 2 covalency upto 8
(2) Both 2 and 3 41. Which of the following orbital can form σ bond
(3) 1, 2 and 3 in PCl5 molecule ?
(4) Only 1 (1) dxy (2) dZ 2 (3) dx2 −y 2 (4) dyz
37. Assertion : Cd is a transition element. 42. Which compound has the strongest London
Reason : Cd and Cd+2 both have completely dispersion force?
filled d-orbital in their ground state. (1) SiH4 (2) CH4 (3) SnH4 (4) GeH4
(1) Assertion is true but Reason is false. 43. Which of the following process involve breaking
(2) Assertion is false but Reason is true. of covalent bond :-
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are true and (1) Evaporation of water
Reason is correct explanation for Assertion. (2) Melting of ice
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason (3) Formation of atomic chlorine
is not correct explanation for Assertion. (4) Sublimation of bromine
PHASE - MLH, MLI, MLJ, MLK, MLM, MLX, MAZG, MAZH, MAZI, MAZJ, MAZL, MAZS, MAZT, MAZU, MAZW
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44. What is the shape of cationic part of Cl2O6? 47. Which state of Be+3 ion has the same Bohr's orbit
radius as that of the ground state of hydrogen atom ?
(1) Distorted tetrahedral
(1) First orbit
(2) Square pyramidal
(2) Second orbit
(3) Square planar (3) Third orbit
(4) Angular (4) Fourth orbit
45. Match the molecule/species with their properties : 48. A golf ball has a mass of 50 g and a speed of 100 m/s.
The axial bond length If the speed can be measured within accuracy of 2%,
(A) IF7 (P) is larger than the then uncertainty in the position is :-
equatorial bond length. (1) 1.05 × 10 – 33 m
The axial bond (2) 1.05 × 10 – 36 m
(B) [SiF6 ]–2 (Q) length is shorter than (3) 5.27 × 10 – 34 m
the equatorial bond length (4) 5.27 × 10 – 37 m
orbital are
dx2 −y 2 49. Consider the following statements :-
(C) BrF3 (R)
involve in bonding. (A) Bohr model of the hydrogen atom ignores
All possible bond dual behaviour of matter and contradicts
(D) [PI4+] (S) Heisenberg uncertainty principle.
angle are not identical.
(B) All the information about the electron in an
All possible bond
(T) atom is stored in its orbital wave function ψ .
angle are identical.
(C) The Paschen series of lines are the only lines
in the hydrogen spectrum which appear in the
(1) (A) - Q, R, S (B) - R, T (C) - P, S (D) - T
infrared region of the electromagnetic spectrum.
(2) (A) - Q, S, T (B) - S, P (C) - P, S (D) - T, P (D) The brightness or intensity of spectral lines
depends upon the number of photons of same
(3) (A) - Q, R, S (B) - T (C) - P, S (D) - R, S wavelength or frequency absorbed or emitted.
Correct statement(s) is/are :-
(4) None (1) A and B only
(2) B and C only
46. Which of the following statement regarding (3) A and D only
cathode rays is incorrect ? (4) A, B and D
(1) Cathode rays themselves are not visible 50. If an electron in hydrogen atom shows transition from
(2) Television picture tubes are cathode rays tubes an orbit having radius 13.225 Å to an orbit having
radius 4.761 Å then this transition belongs to :-
(3) In the absence of electrical or magnetic
(1) Balmer series and visible region of spectrum
field, these rays travel in straight lines
(2) Paschen series and visible region of spectrum
(4) The characteristics of cathode rays depend
upon the material of electrodes used in (3) Paschen series and infrared region of spectrum
discharge tube. (4) Brackett series and infrared region of spectrum
PHASE - MLH, MLI, MLJ, MLK, MLM, MLX, MAZG, MAZH, MAZI, MAZJ, MAZL, MAZS, MAZT, MAZU, MAZW
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Topic : SYLLABUS-2

SECTION-A ( PHYSICS ) 54. The maximum safe speed of a vehicle over a

banked road of radius 150 m is 10 m/sec. If the
51. A man is standing on a rough ( μ = 0.5) horizontal width of the road is 7.5 m, the height of outer
disc rotating with constant angular velocity of 5 rad/s. edge is :-
At what distance from centre should he stand so that (1) 0.25 m (2) 0.50 m
he does not slip on the disc?
(3) 0.35 m (4) 0.60 m
(1) R ≤ 0.2 m
55. A body of mass 1 kg is moving in a vertical circular
(2) R > 0.2 m path of radius 1 m. The difference between the kinetic
(3) R > 0.5 m energies at its lowest and highest positions is :-
(4) R > 0.3 m (1) 20 J
52. A string of length 1 m is fixed at one end and (2) 10 J
carries a mass 100 g at the other end. The string (3) 4 √5 J
makes 2/ π revolutions per second around the
vertical axis through fixed end. The tension in (4) 10 (√5 − 1) J

the string is : (Take g = 10 ms – 2) 56. A bomb of mass 12 kg at rest explodes into two
fragments of masses in the ratio 1 : 3. The K.E.
of the smaller fragment is 216 J. The momentum
of heavier fragment is (in kg-m/sec) :-
(1) 36
(2) 72
(3) 108
(4) Insufficient data
(1) 16 N
57. If the linear density of a rod of length L varies as
(2) 1.6 N λ = x2, compute position of its centre of mass :-

(1) 3L (2) L
(3) 0.16 N
4 2
(4) None of the above L 2L
(3) (4)
4 3
53. For a particle moving in a circular path with 58. A can of height h is filled with liquid of uniform
increasing speed, which of the following relation density ρ . If the liquid is coming out from the
is correct ? bottom, then centre of mass of the "can + water
(at = tangential acceleration, →a = net acceleration) in the can".
(1) →a t . →v = 0 (1) first ascends and then descends
(2) →a . →v > 0 (2) first descends and then ascends
(3) →a . →v < 0 (3) always descends
(4) →a . →v = 0 (4) none of these
PHASE - MLH, MLI, MLJ, MLK, MLM, MLX, MAZG, MAZH, MAZI, MAZJ, MAZL, MAZS, MAZT, MAZU, MAZW
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59. Three particles of masses 1 kg, 2 kg and 3 kg 64. Four identical rods each of mass m and length ℓ
are subjected to forces 3i^ − 2j^ + 2k^ N ,
( ) make a square frame in xy plane as shown in figure.
(
^
and ^i + ^j + k^ N respectively.
−i^ + 2j^ − k) N ( )
Calculate its moment of inertia about the x-axis :-
Find the magnitude of the acceleration of the
center of mass of the system (in m/s2) :-

(1) √14 (2) 2

6

(3) √16 (4) √ 14

6 2
60. Collision between objects is perfectly inelastic &
mass of each block is 2 kg, then loss in kinetic 5
mℓ2
4
(1) (2) mℓ2
energy of system will be :- 3 3
(3) mℓ2 (4) None of these
65. A homogeneous disc with a radius 0.2 m and
(1) 325 J (2) 350 J mass 5 kg rotates about geometrical axis.
The angular velocity of the rotation of the
(3) 450 J (4) 50 J
disc as a function of time is given by the
61. A body of mass 5 kg moving with a velocity 10 m/s formula ω = 2 + 6t radian/sec. The tangential
collides with another body of the mass 20 kg at rest force applied to the rim of the disc is :-
and comes to rest. Velocity of the second body due
(1) 1 N (2) 2 N
to the collision is :-
(3) 3 N (4) 4 N
(1) 2.5 m/s
66. If a solid sphere, disc and solid cylinder are
(2) 5 m/s allowed to roll down an inclined plane from the
(3) 7.5 m/s same height, then :-
(4) 10 m/s (1) The cylinder will reach the bottom first
62. A ball is dropped from a height h. If the coefficient (2) The disc will reach the bottom first
of restitution be e, then to what height will it rise (3) The sphere will reach the bottom first
after jumping twice from the ground ? (4) All will reach bottom at the same time
(1) eh/2 (2) e2h 67. Find the minimum value of F to topple about an edge.
(3) eh (4) e4h
63. A ring and a disc have the same mass and roll
without slipping with the same linear velocity v.
If the total kinetic energy of the ring is 8 J, the
kinetic energy of disc is :- Mgb Mga
(1) (2)
(1) 8 J (2) 6 J 2a b
Mg Mga
(3) 16 J (4) 4 J (3) (4)
2 2b
PHASE - MLH, MLI, MLJ, MLK, MLM, MLX, MAZG, MAZH, MAZI, MAZJ, MAZL, MAZS, MAZT, MAZU, MAZW
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68. A body of mass m is moving with constant 73. A planet is revolving around the sun as shown in
velocity parallel to x-axis. The angular momentum elliptical path. The correct option is
with respect to origin :
(1) Increases with time
(2) Decreases with time
(3) Does not change
(1) The time taken in travelling DAB is less
(4) None of above
than that of BCD
69. Which of the following is incorrect related to
(2) The time taken in travelling DAB is greater
energy of a satellite ?
than that of BCD
(1) T.E = – KE (3) The time taken in travelling CDA is less
PE
than that of ABC
(2) KE =
2 (4) The time taken in travelling CDA is greater
(3) B.E. = |T.E.| than that of ABC
(4) None of these 74. The gravitational field intensity at a point 10,000 km
from the centre of the earth is 4.8 N kg – 1. The
70. A body of mass 'M', placed on earth surface, is taken to gravitational potential at that point is :-
a height h = 3R; then change in gravitational potential
energy is :- (R = Radius of earth) (1) – 4.8 × 107 J kg – 1
5MgR 2 (2) – 2.4 × 107 J kg – 1
(1) (2) MgR
4 3
(3) 4.8 × 106 J kg – 1
3 MgR
(3) MgR (4) (4) 3.6 × 106 J kg – 1
4 4
71. A body of mass m is situated at distance 4Re 75. A lead sphere of 2 mm diameter and relative density
above the earth's surface, where Re is the radius 11.20, attains a terminal velocity of 2.5 cm s – 1 in a
of earth. How much minimum energy should be liquid of relative density 1.20. The coefficient of
given to the body so that it may escape ? viscosity of liquid will be : (Take g = 10 ms – 2)
(1) mgRe (2) 2mgRe (1) 0.88 P-s (2) 0.60 P-s
mgRe mgRe
(3) (4) (3) 0.96 P-s (4) 0.55 P-s
5 16
72. What is the minimum energy required to launch 76. An ice cube is floating on the surface of water
a satellite of mass m, from the surface of the with a small cork ball inside. If ice cube melts,
earth of mass M and radius R, in a circular orbit then water level will :
at an altitude of 2R ? (1) Increase
5GmM 2GmM (2) Decrease
(1) (2)
6R 3R
(3) Remain unchange
GmM GmM
(3) (4) (4) Date insufficient
2R 3R
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77. A rubber rope of length 8 m is hung from the 83. There is a small hole in a hollow sphere. The
ceiling of a room then increase in length of the water enters in it, when it is taken to a depth of
rope due to its own weight is 40 cm under water. The surface tension of water
is 0.07 N/m. The diameter of hole is :-
[Y = 5 × 106 N/m2, ρ = 1.5 g/cm3, g = 10 m/s2]
(1) 7 mm (2) 0.07 mm
(1) 96 mm (2) 48 mm
(3) 0.0007 mm (4) 0.7 m
(3) 24 mm (4) 12 mm
84. The graph shows the extension ( Δ ℓ ) of a wire of
78. If Young's modulus of a substance is 3.84 × 109 N/m2
and coefficient of rigidity is 1.6 × 109 N/m2, then length 1m, suspended from the top of a roof at one
poission ratio will be : end, with a load W connected to the other end. If the
cross-sectional area of the wire is 10 – 6 m2, young's
(1) 0.18 (2) 0.23 (3) 0.20 (4) 0.12 modulus of the material of the wire is :
79. Water flows steadily through a horizontal pipe of
variable cross-section. If the pressure of water is
P at a point where flow speed is v, the pressure
at another point where the flow speed is 2v, is
(Take density of water as ρ ) :-
3 ρ v2 ρ v2
(1) P− (2) P−
2 2
3 ρ v2
(1) 2 × 1011 N/m2
(3) P− (4) P – ρ v2
4 (2) 2 × 10 – 11 N/m2
80. A water tank resting on the floor has two small (3) 3 × 1012 N/m2
holes vertically one above the other. The holes
are h1 cm and h2 cm above the floor. How high (4) 2 × 10 – 3 N/m2
does water stand in the tank if the jets from the
85. Internal radius of a capilary tube is 1 cm and
holes hits the floor at the same point ? 28
surface tension of water 70 dyne/cm, if angle of
(1) (h1 + h2) (2) (h2 – h1) contact is zero, then water will rise up in the tube
h21 + h22 h22 − h21 up to height.
(3) (4)
2 2 (1) 4 cm (2) 2 cm
81. The surface tension of soap solution is 0.03 N/m.
The work done in blowing a soap bubble of surface (3) 14 cm (4) 18 cm
area 40 cm2 is :- SECTION-B ( PHYSICS )
–4 –4
(1) 1.2 × 10 J (2) 2.4 × 10 J
86. A fan's blades are rotating at the rate of 900 rpm.
(3) 12 × 10 – 4J (4) 24 × 10 – 4J
Fan is switched off and blades stop after 6 s of
82. Ratio of excess pressure inside two soap bubble switching off. Assume constant angular retardation.
is 2 : 3, then ratio of their volume will be :- Find number of revolution made after switching off.
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 4 : 9 (1) 30 (2) 45
(3) 27 : 8 (4) 9 : 4 (3) 60 (4) 80
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87. A circular ring of mass 6 kg and radius a is 91. Three particles A, B and C of equal mass move
placed such that its centre lies at the origin. Two with equal speeds v along the medians of an
particles of mass 2 kg each are placed at the equilateral triangle as shown in the figure. They
intersecting points of the circle with + ve x-axis collide at the centroid G of the triangle. After
and +ve y-axis. Then the angle made by the collision A comes to rest, B retraces its path with
speed v along GB direction. The velocity of C is-
position vector of centre of mass of entire system
with x-axis is :-
(1) 45° (2) 60°
(3) tan – 1(4/5) (4) 30°
88. A body of mass 3 kg collides elastically with
another body at rest and then continue to move in (1) v along GA (2) 2v along GA
the original direction with one half of its original
(3) 2v along GB (4) v along BG
speed. What is the mass of the target body ?
92. The radius of gyration of a rod of length L and
(1) 1 kg
mass M about an axis perpendicular to its length
(2) 1.5 kg and passing through a point at a distance L/3
(3) 2 kg from one of its ends is :-
(4) 5 kg (1) √ 7 (2) L
L
6 9
89. A bullet of mass 0.01 kg and travelling at a L
(3) (4) √ 5
speed of 500 m/sec strikes a block of 2 kg which L
3 2
is suspended by a string of length 5 m. The 93. A massless string is wrapped round a disc of mass M
centre of gravity of the block is found to rise a and radius R. Another end is tied to a mass m which
vertical distance of 0.1 m. What is the speed of is initially at height h from ground level as shown in
the bullet after it emerges from the block ? the fig. If the mass is released, then its velocity while
touching the ground level will be :
(1) 200 m/s (2) 220 m/s
(3) 204 m/s (4) 284 m/s
90. Assertion : In case of bullet fired from gun, the
ratio of kinetic energy of gun and bullet is equal
to ratio of mass of bullet and gun.
Reason : In firing, momentum is conserved.
(1) Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason (1) √ 2gh
is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) M
√ 2gh
(2) Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is m
not a correct explanation of the Assertion. (3) √ 2ghm/M
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) √
4mgh
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False. 2m + M
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94. In Fig. the bar is uniform and weighing 500 N. 97. A uniform disc of radius 20 cm is performing pure
How large must W be if tensions T1 and T2 are rolling on a moving surface. If its angular velocity
to be equal ? is 5 rad/s, then find velocity of its centre of mass.

(1) 1 m/s
(2) 2 m/s
(3) 3 m/s
(1) 500 N (2) 300 N
(4) None of these
(3) 750 N (4) 1500 N th
98. 3
95. A uniform rod of mass m, length L is rotating in A body is projected up with ( ) the escape
4
horizontal plane about axis passing through center velocity from earth's surface. The height reached
by the body is (Re = Radius of earth) :-
and perpendicular to length with angular velocity ω .
7 9
If a particle of mass m/2 is gently attached to one of (1) Re (2) Re
9 7
its end, then angular velocity will be- 7 3
(3) Re (4) Re
(1) 2 ω / 5 (2) ω / 3 3 7
99. Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely
(3) 3 ω / 5 (4) ω / 2 as the nth power of the distance. Then, the time
period of a planet in circular orbit of radius R
96. around the sun will be proportional to :
A uniform rod of mass m and length ℓ , hinged at (1) Rn
end A, is released from horizontal position (2) R(n+1)/2
shown in figure. Just after the rod is released :
(3) R(n – 1)/2
Column I Column II
(4) R – n
3g
(A) Angular acceleration of C (P) 100. The area of cross-section of one limb of an U-tube
2
3g is twice that of other. Both the limbs contain
(B) Angular acceleration of B (Q)
2ℓ mercury at the same level. Water is poured in the
3g wider tube so that mercury level in it goes down by
(C) Acceleration of C (R)
4 1 cm. The height of water column is :
3g
(D) Acceleration of B (S) (density of water = 103 kg m – 3,
ℓ
density of mercury = 13.6 × 103 kg m – 3)
(1) A → S, B → S, C → R, D → P
(1) 13.6 m
(2) A → Q, B → Q, C → R, D → P (2) 40.8 m
(3) A → Q, B → S, C → P, D → R (3) 27.2 m
(4) A → S, B → Q, C → P, D → R (4) 54.4 m
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Topic : SYLLABUS-2

SECTION-A ( BOTANY ) 104. Ribosomal RNA is synthesized in ?

(1) Ribosome
101. Algal cell wall is made up of-
(2) Cytoplasm
(1) Cellulose, Galactans, Hemicellulose, Pectins
(3) Centriole
(2) Cellulose, Hemicellulose, Pectins, Protein
(4) Nucleolus
(3) Cellulose, Galactans, Mannans & Minerals
likes CaCO3 105. Select the correct statement regarding chloroplast
(4) Cellulose, Hemicellulose, Galactans, Mannans (1) It is a double membranous structure
102. Assertion (A) : The isolated lysosome vesicles (2) Space limited by the outer membrane is
have been found to be very rich in almost all called stroma
types of hydrolytic enzymes.
Reason (R) : In plants, the tonoplast facilitates (3) Stroma of chloroplast contain enzymes
the transport of number of ions and other require for synthesis of fats
materials against concentration gradient into the (4) They contain 80-S ribosome
vacuole.
In the light of above statements choose the most 106. In animal cells lipid like steroidal hormones are
appropriate answer from the option given below. synthesised in :-
(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct (1) RER
explanation of A. (2) SER
(2) Both A and R are true and R is not correct
(3) Vacuole
explanation of A.
(4) Lysosome
(3) A is true but R is false.
107. Spherical and membraneless structure is :-
(4) A is false but R is true.
103. Match the Column – I with Column – II (1) Nucleus

Column – I Column – II (2) Lysosome

Smooth endoplasmic (3) Chloroplast
(i) (A) Protein synthesis
reticulum
Rough endoplasmic (4) Nucleolus
(ii) (B) Lipid synthesis
reticulum
108. The core of a cilium or flagellum composed of
(iii) Lysosome (C) Packaging of materials microtubules and their associated proteins is
(iv) Golgi apparatus (D) Hydrolytic enzymes called :-
(1) (i) – B, (ii) – A, (iii) – D, (iv) – C (1) Basal body
(2) (i) – D, (ii) – B, (iii) – C, (iv) – A (2) Axoneme
(3) (i) – B, (ii) – C, (iii) – D, (iv) – A (3) Microfilament
(4) (i) – C, (ii) – D, (iii) – C, (iv) – A (4) Tubulin
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109. Choose the incorrect statement :- 114. Key feature in anaphase is

(1) Condensation of chromosomes
(1) All eukaryotic cells are not identical
(2) Division of sister chromatids
(2) Centriole is absent in almost all plant cells (3) Chromosomes moved to spindle equator
(4) Nucleolus, Golgi body reform
(3) Plants cells don't have cytoskeletal structure 115. Identify the given diagram :-
(4) Plastids are absent in animal cells
110. Outer and inner membranes of mitochondria are
(1) Structurally and functionally similar

(2) Structurally and functionally dissimilar Which statement is true for just next stage of
above diagram ?
(3) Structurally similar but functionally different
(1) Homologous chromosomes separate.
(4) Structurally different but functionally similar (2) Sister chromatids separate.
111. In which phase of mitosis chromosomes decondense (3) Nuclear membrane and nucleolus reappear.
and lose their individual identity ?
(4) The bivalent chromosomes align on the equator.
(1) Prophase 116. Which of following marks the phase of DNA
replication and chromosome duplication ?
(2) Metaphase
(1) Anaphase (2) Anaphase-II
(3) Anaphase
(3) G2-phase (4) S-phase
(4) Telophase 117. In the following question two statements are
112. In Oocytes of some vertebrates, which of the given : examine the statements carefully and
following stages in meiosis can last for years? given the answer.
Statement-I : During the mitotic telophase
(1) Leptotene chromosome cluster at opposite spindle poles
(2) Zygotene and their identity is lost as discrete elements.
Statement-II : In telophase the individual
(3) Pachytene chromosomes no longer be seen and each set of
(4) Diplotene chromatin material tends to collect at each of the
two poles.
113. All the following events happen in prophase-I of
meiosis except :- (1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct.
(1) Terminalization
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is
(2) Chiasmata incorrect.
(3) Segregation (3) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
(4) Synapsis (4) Both statement I and II are correct.
PHASE - MLH, MLI, MLJ, MLK, MLM, MLX, MAZG, MAZH, MAZI, MAZJ, MAZL, MAZS, MAZT, MAZU, MAZW
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118. (i) Cell growth is a continuous process.
(ii) DNA synthesis occurs only during one
specific stage in the cell cycle.
Choose the correct option :-
(1) (i) correct and (ii) incorrect.
(2) (i) incorrect and (ii) correct.
(3) (i), (ii) both incorrect.
(4) (i),(ii) both correct.
119. Select the incorrect statements :
(a) Diakinesis represents transition to telophase-I.
(b) The leptotene and zygotene stages of
prophase-I are relatively long lived compared to
pachytene.
(c) Yeast can progress through cell cycle in only
about 90 minutes.
(d) In animal cell during G2 phase, the centriole
duplicates in the cytoplasm.
(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, b and d
(4) a, c and d
120. How many chromosomes will the diploid cell of a
plant contain at G1, after S and Anaphase respectively
if the haploid cell of that plant has 7 chromosomes?
(1) 7, 7, 14
(2) 7, 14, 14
(3) 14,14,28
(4) 7,7,7
PHASE - MLH, MLI, MLJ, MLK, MLM, MLX, MAZG, MAZH, MAZI, MAZJ, MAZL, MAZS, MAZT, MAZU, MAZW
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121. Statement-I : Competitive inhibitors are often
used in the control of bacterial pathogens.
Statement-II : Prosthetic groups are tightly
bound to the apoenzyme whereas co-enzymes
association with the apoenzyme is only transient.
Select the correct option :
(1) Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(2) Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Only statement-I is correct
(4) Only Statement-II is correct
122. Which of the statements are incorrect.
(1) Enzymes generally function in a wide range
of temperature and pH.
(2) Enzymes show it's highest activity at optimum
temperature and pH.
(3) High temperature destroys enzymatic activity.
(4) All of these.
123. How the presence of an enzyme affects the
activation energy of a reaction ?
(1) It increased
(2) It decreased
(3) It is first increased and then decreased
(4) Activation energy is not affected at all
124. How do enzymes brings about such high rates of
chemical conversions ?
(1) By increasing activation energy.
(2) By lowering down activation energy.
(3) By forming enzyme inhibitor complex.
(4) By lowering temperature of reaction.
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125. An active site of an enzyme is :-
(1) A crevice into which substrate fits
(2) A pocket into which product fits
(3) A site where metalic ion is present
(4) A site which has no significance in action
of enzyme.
126. ___________ Structure is most stable structure
of protein.
(1) Primary
(2) Secondary
(3) Tertiary
(4) Quaternary
127. Given Below are two statements :
Statement - I :- Primary structure of protein gives
positional information of Amino acid in protein.
Statement - II :- Tertiary structure of proteins is
necessary for many Biological activities of proteins.
In the light of above statement, choose the correct
answer from the options given below :-
(1) Both Statement - I and Statement - II are false.
(2) Statement - I is true but Statement - II is false.
129. Assertion : Tertiary structure is absolutely necessary
for the many biological activities of proteins.
Reason : In a polypeptide or a protein, amino acids are
linked by a peptide bond which is formed when the
carboxyl (–COOH) group of one amino acid reacts
with the amino group (–NH2) of the next amino acid.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct
explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct
explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.
130. The sequence of events by which a cell
duplication its genome, synthesises the other
constituents of the cells and eventually divides
into two daughter cells is called :
(1) Interphase
(2) Karyokinesis
(3) Cell cycle
(4) Cytokinesis
131. The key features of metaphase are :
(1) Splitting of centromere
(2) Chromosomes are moved to spindle equator
and get aligned along metaphase plate.
(3) Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of
chromosomes.

(3) Only statement - I is correct. (4) Both 2 and 3

(4) Both statement - I and Statement - II are true. 132. Arrange the 5 sub stages of prophase stage of
meiosis in sequence -
128. Which one of the following is acidic amino acid ?
(a) Pachytene (b) Zygotene
(1) Glutamic (c) Diplotene (d) Diakinesis
(2) Lysine (e) Leptotene
(3) Valine (1) a, c, b, e, d (2) b, c, e, d, a
(4) Arginine (3) d, a, e, b, c (4) e, b, a, c, d
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133. Select the correct option :- SECTION-B ( BOTANY )
Column I Column II
136. Identify the A, B, C and D and select the correct
Synapsis aligns
match with their related function.
(a) homologous (i) Anaphase-I
chromosomes
Synthesis of tubulin
(b) (ii) Zygotene
protein
Action of enzyme
(c) (iii) G2-phase
recombinase
Centromeres split and
(d) chromatids move (iv) Anaphase-II
towards opposite poles
(v) Pachytene
(1) 'A' is carbohydrate – cell to cell recognition

(a) (b) (c) (d) (2) 'B' is carbohydrate – cell to cell recognition
(1) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv)
(3) 'D' is phospholipid bilayer – Active transport
(2) (i) (ii) (v) (iii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (4) 'C' is peripheral protein – osmosis and passive
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) transport
134. Lipid are not strictly :- 137. Select the incorrect statements :
(1) Micromolecule (a) Golgi apparatus is the important site for
synthesis of lipid.
(2) Macromolecule
(b) The cell envelope in a bacterial cell consist of
(3) Biomolecule
cell wall and plasma membrane only.
(4) None of above (c) Both the centrioles in a centrosome lie
135. (a) Mitochondira (i) Photosynthesis perpendicular to each other in which each has an
(b) Chloroplast (ii) Aerobic respiration organisation like the cartwheel.
(d) The hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes are
(c) Chromoplast (iii) Food storage
optimally active at basic pH.
(d) Leucoplast (iv) Provide colour
Select the correct match (1) a, b and c
(1) a = i, b = ii, c = iii, d = iv (2) b, c and d
(2) a = ii, b = i, c= iii, d = iv
(3) a, b and d
(3) a = ii, b = i, c = iv, d = iii
(4) a = ii, b = iv, c = i, d = iii (4) a, c and d
PHASE - MLH, MLI, MLJ, MLK, MLM, MLX, MAZG, MAZH, MAZI, MAZJ, MAZL, MAZS, MAZT, MAZU, MAZW
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138. Sugars of glycolipids and glycoproteins on the 142. Which phase of meiosis is responsible for
outer surface of plasma membrame helps in : increase the genetic variability in the population
of organisms:-
(1) Cell to cell recognition mechanism
(1) Leptotene
(2) Growth (2) Pachytene
(3) Zygotene
(3) Cell division
(4) Diplotene
(4) Secretion 143. Match the column I with column II and select the
correct option.
139. A number of proteins synthesised by ribosomes on Column I Column II
the endoplasmic reticulum are modified in the:-
Chromatids move to
a Prophase i
(1) Inter cellular space opposite poles
Chromosomes decondense
(2) Cisternae of golgi apparatus b Metaphase ii
and lose their identity

(3) Cytoplasm of cell Condensation of

c Anaphase iii
chromosomal material start
(4) Vesicles of golgi apparatus Alignment of chromosomes
d Telophase iv
along metaphase plate
140. Which of the following phenomenon occurs
during telophase. (1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(1) Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of (2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
chromosomes. (3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

(2) Centromeres split and chromatids separate (4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
144. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as
(3) Chromatids move to opposite poles. assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion (A) : Enzymes which catalyse oxido reduction
(4) Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform. between two substrates is called oxidoreductases.
141. Select the correct statement - Reason (R) : Enzymes catalysing the linking together of
two compound are called ligases.
(1) Human cells in culture usually divide once In the light of above statements, choose the most
in approximately every 24 hours appropriate answer from the options given below:
(2) Centrioles duplicates in the cytoplasm during (1) Both A and R are correct but R is not the
G2 - phase correct explanation of A.
(3) In the quiescent stage cells remain (2) A is correct but R is not correct.
metabolically inactive (3) A is not correct but R is correct.
(4) During G1 - stage cell is metabolically active (4) Both A and R are correct and R is the
but does not shows organelle duplication correct explanation of A.
PHASE - MLH, MLI, MLJ, MLK, MLM, MLX, MAZG, MAZH, MAZI, MAZJ, MAZL, MAZS, MAZT, MAZU, MAZW
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145. 148. Which one ensures maintenance of chromosome
number generation after generation ?
(1) Splicing

(2) Only meiosis

(3) Meiosis and fertilisation

Above diagram showing the concept of activation (4) Mitosis and fertilisation
energy. If in this diagram energy level of ‘P’ become
higher than the energy level of ‘S’ then which of the 149. Observe the structure formula of organic compound
following will not apply for this graph ? given below & answer accordingly.
(1) The process will be endothermic
(2) Activation energy with enzyme will be less
than activation energy without enzyme
(3) Energy difference between transition state and
product will be more than activation energy
(4) The substrate will go through the transition state
146. Generally enzymes are different from inorganic
catalyst because :-
(1) Not being used up in reaction
(2) Change the rate of reaction
(3) Having high diffusion rate (1) It represents trihydroxypropane
(4) Can not work at high temperature
(2) It represent chloestrol-a compound of cell
147. Consider the following four statment(a-d) and
select the option which includes all the correct membrane
ones only (3) It represent a phospholipid called gingelly oil
(a) Collagen is the most abundant protein in
animal world. (4) It represent a phospholipid called lecithin, a
(b) Lipid is a heteropolymer while DNA is component of cell membrane.
homopolymer
150. Which one of the following is not an aromatic
(c) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms
amino acid ?
including carboxyl carbon.
(d) Water is the most abundant chemical in (1) Tyrosine
living organisms.
Options :- (2) Lysine
(1) Statement a, b and d
(2) Statement b and c (3) Phenylalanine
(3) Statement a and d
(4) Statement a, c and d (4) Tryptophan
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Topic : SYLLABUS-2

SECTION-A ( ZOOLOGY ) 157. The heart chamber responsible for pumping

oxygenated blood to the rest of the body is –
151. In ventricular systole, blood is pumped into -
(1) Left atrium
(1) Oxygenated into Pulmonary arteries and
(2) Right atrium
deoxygenated into Dorsal aorta
(3) Left ventricle
(2) Oxygenated into Dorsal aorta deoxygenated
into Pulmonary arteries (4) Right ventricle
(3) Oxygenated into and Vena cava and 158. Which is correct for lymph?
deoxygenated into Pulmonary veins (1) Lymph is red in colours
(4) Oxygenated into Pulmonary veins and (2) It is responsible for the immune responses
deoxygenated into Vena cava of the body
152. The heart is protected by a double walled (3) WBC present in lymph
membranous bag known as :-
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(1) Pericardium (2) Peritonium
159. Among the following which are complete
(3) Pleura (4) Both (1) and (3)
components of human blood ?
153. Blood from head, neck and arms enters the heart
(1) Formed elements
through :-
(1) Superior vena cava (2) Inferior vena cava (2) Platelets

(3) Pulmonary artery (4) Pulmonary vein (3) Formed elements & Plasma
154. Atrial systole : (4) R.B.C, W.B.C. & Platelets
(1) It is due to generation of action potential in 160. Which connective tissue cells donot have power
AV­node of division
(2) It increase the flow of blood into the (1) Cartilage (2) Tendon
ventricles about 70% (3) Ligament (4) Blood
(3) It increase the flow of blood into the 161. Choose the incorrect one :-
ventricles about 30%
(1) RBCs are devoid of nucleus in mammals
(4) It is due to generation of action potential in and are biconcave in shape
purkinje fibers
(2) A healthy individual has 12 – 16 gm of
155. Which blood group lacks antigen on their RBCs?
haemoglobin in every 100 ml of blood
(1) O (2) A (3) B (4) AB
(3) RBCs are formed in the red bone marrow in
156. Which of the following organs can be called the all bones in the adults
"blood bank"?
(4) Haemoglobin molecules present in RBCs
(1) Lungs (2) Heart play a significant role in the transport of
(3) Liver (4) Spleen respiratory gases
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162. Choose the correct statements among the following :- 165. Choose the correct options with respect to the
(1) AVN is the pace maker that generates action muscularity chambers of heart :-
potential and initiates the atrial systole (1) Left ventricle > Right Atrium > Right ventricle >
(2) During each cardiac cycle, the 'lub' sound Left Atrium
is due to closure of semilunar valves (2) Left ventricle > Right ventricle > Right Atrium >
(3) Stroke volume in each cardiac cycle is Left Atrium
approximately 170 ml of blood (3) Right Ventricle > Left ventricle > Right atrium >
(4) The opening between right atrium and right Left Atrium
ventricle is guarded by tricuspid valve (4) Left Atrium > Right Atrium > Right ventricle >
163. Which of the following is correct match for Left ventricle
blood groups and donor compatibility? 166. During normal respiration without any effort the
Blood Antigens Antibodies Donor's volume of air inspired or expired is called as :-
Group on RBCs in plasma group
(1) Tidal volume
(1) A A anti-A A, AB
(2) B B anti-B B, AB
(2) Inspiratory reserve volume
(3) AB A,B anti-A,B AB, A, B, O (3) Residual volume
(4) O nil anti-A,B O (4) Expiratory reserve volume
164. Given below are the abnormal conditions related 167. FRC is :
to blood circulation. Identify the disorder :-
(1) ERV + RV (2) TLC – IC
a. Acute chest pain due to failure of O2 supply to
heart muscle. (3) ERV + TV + RV (4) Both (1) & (2)
b. When the heart stops beating. 168. Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is shown
c. Deposit of calcium fat, cholesterol and fibrous in graph
tissue in arteries.
d. State of heart when it is not pumping blood
effectively enough to meet the needs of the body.
e. Heart muscle is suddenly damage by inadequate
blood supply.
a b c d e
Heart Athero- Cardiac Heart
1. Angina (1) X - Oxygenated blood,
failure sclerosis arrest attack
Y - Deoxygenated blood
Cardiac Athero- Heart Heart
2. Angina (2) X - Deoxygenated blood,
arrest sclerosis failure attack
Y - Oxygenated blood
Heart Athero- Heart Cardiac
3. Angina (3) X - Blood of Haemophilic person,
attack sclerosis failure arrest
Y - Blood of normal person
Cardiac Athero- Heart Heart
4. Angina (4) X - Blood of embryo
arrest sclerosis attack failure
Y - Blood of adult
PHASE - MLH, MLI, MLJ, MLK, MLM, MLX, MAZG, MAZH, MAZI, MAZJ, MAZL, MAZS, MAZT, MAZU, MAZW
20-03-2024 1001CMD303054230147

169. Pressure of Systemic Systemic
Gases Veins Arteries
O2 40 mm Hg 95 mm Hg
CO2 A B
Choose the correct option for A and B to complete
the given data :
(1) A – 45 mm Hg; B – 40 mm Hg
(2) A – 45 mm Hg; B – 45 mm H
(3) A – 45 mm Hg; B – 50 mm Hg
(4) A – 45 mm Hg; B – 55 mm Hg
170. Which of the following is not possible when
pneumotaxic centre is sending a strong signal?
(1) Rate of breathing increases
(2) Complete filling of lungs
(3) Decreased duration of inspiration
(4) Decreased duration of expiration
171. Which of the following factor is not favourable
for oxyhaemoglobin formation in alveoli ?
(1) High pO2 (2) Low pCO2
(3) Low pH (4) Low temperature
172. Dissociation curve shift to left when there is:-
(1) Decrease in O2 concentration
(2) Decrease in CO2 concentration
(3) Increase in CO2 concentration
(4) Increase in 2-3-DPG/BPG concentration
173. Assertion : Pneumotaxic centre can moderate the
functions of the respiratory rhythm centre.
Reason : Role of oxygen in the regulation of
respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason
is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
PHASE - MLH, MLI, MLJ, MLK, MLM, MLX, MAZG, MAZH, MAZI, MAZJ, MAZL, MAZS, MAZT, MAZU, MAZW
1001CMD303054230147
22 English
174. Assertion : In emphysema, respiratory surface is
decreased.
Reason : It is a chronic disorder in which alveolar
walls are damaged.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason
is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
175. Statement-I :- Oxygen is utilised by the organisms
indirectly to break down nutrient molecules.
Statement-II :- CO2 is also produced during these
catabolic reactions.
(1) Statement-I and statement-II both are true.
(2) Statement-I is true and statement-II is false.
(3) Statement-I is false and statement-II is true.
(4) Statement-I and statement-II both are false.
176. A negative pressure in lungs is generated with
respect to atmospheric pressure, when :-
(1) Intrapulmonary pressure is higher than
atmospheric pressure
(2) Volume of thoracic chamber decreases.
(3) Diaphragm and external intercoastal
muscles contracts.
(4) Atmospheric pressure is lower than
intrapulmonary pressure.
177. Which hormone is concerned with the concentration
of urine ?
(1) Oxytocin (2) Vasopressin
(3) Prolactin (4) Cortisol
178. Cortical portions projecting between the medullary
pyramids in the human kidney are :-
(1) Columns of Bellini (2) Columns of Bertini
(3) Vasa recta (4) Papilla
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 English 23
179. Presence of glucose and ketone bodies in urine 184. In the given diagram, choose the correct statement
are indicative of :- regarding the labelled parts :-
(1) Diabetes mellitus
(2) Diabetes Insipidus
(3) Proteinuria
(4) Albuminuria
180. Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney known as :-
(1) Glomerulonephritis
(2) Renal calculi
(1) Renal pelvis is a space inner to hilum
(3) Nephritis
(2) Renal vein have maximum amount of urea.
(4) None of these (3) Medullary pyramid is conical shaped
181. Which of the following are uricotelic animals ? (4) Cortex is inner zone of kidney
185. Select the correct statement for A, B, C, D in given
(1) Rohu and frog
diagram :-
(2) Lizard and crow
(3) Camel and frog
(4) Earthworm and eagle
182. Which is both an osmoregulator and nitrogenous
waste ?
(1) Diameter of ''B'' is more than "A"
(1) Ammonia
(2) "A" form peritubular capillary network
(2) Urea around "D"
(3) Uric acid (3) Brush bordered Epithelium present in "D".
(4) All of the above (4) Cuboidal cells of "B" form membrane which
183. Statement-I : Ammonia is the most toxic form of helps in ultrafiltration
nitrogenous waste which requires least amount SECTION-B ( ZOOLOGY )
of water for its elimination.
Statement-II : Urea is the least toxic form of 186. Which of the following system returns the blood
nitrogenous waste that can be removed with a from intestine and breaks into portal system of
minimum loss of water. capillaries in the liver ?
(1) Both statements are correct (1) Renal portal system
(2) Statement I is correct & statement II is incorrect (2) Hepatic portal system
(3) Statement I is incorrect & statement II is correct (3) Lymphatic system
(4) Both statements are incorrect (4) Systemic circulation
PHASE - MLH, MLI, MLJ, MLK, MLM, MLX, MAZG, MAZH, MAZI, MAZJ, MAZL, MAZS, MAZT, MAZU, MAZW
20-03-2024 1001CMD303054230147
 24 English

187. Centre for heart beat regulation is present is : 193. Which of the following moderate the functions
(1) Pons varoli (2) Cerebellum of respiratory rhythm centre ?
(1) Pneumotaxic centre
(3) Cerebrum (4) Medulla (2) Dorsal respiratory group
188. The characteristic of Heart of fish is :- (3) Ventral respiratory group
(1) Venous heart (2) Two chamber (4) Hypothalamus
194. Assertion : Exchange part is the site of actual diffusion
(3) Single circulation (4) All of these
of O2 and CO2 between blood and atmospheric air.
189. Read the following properties of blood corpuscles:- Reason : The alveoli (vascularised bag like structure)
(a) They are colourless due to lack of haemoglobin and their ducts form the exchange part. alveoli are the
(b) They are non-nucleated primary sites of exchange of gases.
(c) They are relatively lesser in number which (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason
averages 6000-8000 mm – 3 of blood is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(d) They have long life span approx 120 days Out to (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
these which properties are not shown by leukocytes ? is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Options :- (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
(1) 'a' and 'b' (2) 'b' and 'c'
195. Statement-I : O2 is utilised by the organisms to
(3) 'b' and 'd' (4) 'c' and 'd' directly breakdown simple molecules like
glucose, amino acids, fatty acids etc. to derived
190. Column-II energy to perform various activities.
Column-I Statement-II : The process of exchange of O2
(/mm3 of blood)
A. Erythrocytes i. 1,50,000-3,50,000/mm3 from the atmosphere with CO2 produced by the
cells is called breathing.
B. Thrombocytes ii. 5-5.5 million/mm3
C. Leucocytes iii. 6000-8000/mm3
(1) Both Statement are correct
Options : (2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect.
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii (2) A-iii, B-i, C-ii (3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-i (4) A-ii, B-i, C-iii (4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.
191. The duration of cardiac cycle is ? 196. Choose the incorrect statement.
(2) 0.8 μ sec (a) O2 gets bound to haemoglobin in the alveolar
(1) 0.8 sec
surface
(3) 0.08 sec (4) 0.008 sec (b) Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood deliver
192. Which of the following occurs during expiration. around 15 ml of O2 to tissues under normal
physiological condition.
(1) Ribs and sternum raised
(c) Alveoli are primary sites of gaseous exchange
(2) Volume of thorax increased (d) CO2 is 20-25 times less soluble than O2
(3) Diaphragm relaxed and arched upwards (1) a and b (2) b and c
(4) Diaphragm contracted (3) b and d (4) c and d
PHASE - MLH, MLI, MLJ, MLK, MLM, MLX, MAZG, MAZH, MAZI, MAZJ, MAZL, MAZS, MAZT, MAZU, MAZW
1001CMD303054230147 20-03-2024
 English 25
197. The structural and functional unit of kidney is :- 200. Consider the following four statements (A-D) and
(1) Nephron select the option which includes all the incorrect
statements
(2) Neuron (A) Henle's loop plays a significant role in the
(3) Neuroglia maintenance of high osmolarity of medullary
interstitital fluid
(4) Villi
(B) Collecting duct plays a role in the
198. Water reabsorption in the distal parts of kidney maintenance of pH and ionic balance of blood by
tubules is regulated by :- the selective secretion of H+ and K+ ions
(1) STH (2) TSH (C) Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water
takes place in PCT
(3) ADH (4) MSH (D) Nearly all of the essential nutrients and 70-80
199. Release of renin from juxtaglomerular cells percent of electrolytes and water are reabsorbed
plays an important role in :- by collecting duct
(1) Increasing absorption of sugars and sodium ions. (1) Statements (A), (B), (D)
(2) Vasodilation of blood vessels (2) Statements (A), (C), (D)
(3) Increasing the glomerular blood pressure (3) Statements (B), (D)
(4) Decreasing the glomerular blood pressure (4) Statements (C), (D)

PHASE - MLH, MLI, MLJ, MLK, MLM, MLX, MAZG, MAZH, MAZI, MAZJ, MAZL, MAZS, MAZT, MAZU, MAZW
20-03-2024 1001CMD303054230147
 26 English

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

PHASE - MLH, MLI, MLJ, MLK, MLM, MLX, MAZG, MAZH, MAZI, MAZJ, MAZL, MAZS, MAZT, MAZU, MAZW
1001CMD303054230147 20-03-2024
 MAJOR TEST PLAN FOR LEADER & ACHIEVER : (PLAN-C)
(MAZL , MAZS , MAZT , MAZU , MAZW , MAZG , MAZH ,
MAZI , MAZJ, MLH , MLI , MLJ , MLK , MLM, MLX)
(Session : 2023-2024)
TEST NO. TEST DATE DAY SYLLABUS
1 15-03-2024 FRIDAY SYLLABUS -1
2 20-03-2024 WEDNESDAY SYLLABUS -2
3 26-03-2024 TUESDAY SYLLABUS -3
4 31-03-2024 SUNDAY SYLLABUS -4
5 05-04-2024 FRIDAY SYLLABUS -5
6 10-04-2024 WEDNESDAY SYLLABUS - 6
7 14-04-2024 SUNDAY SYLLABUS - 1+2+3
8 18-04-2024 THURSDAY SYLLABUS - 4+5+6
9 21-04-2024 SUNDAY FULL SYLLABUS (A.I.O.T)
10 24-04-2024 WEDNESDAY FULL SYLLABUS
11 28-04-2024 SUNDAY FULL SYLLABUS
12 02-05-2024 THURSDAY FULL SYLLABUS

SYLLABUS PHYSICS CHEMISTRY BIOLOGY

Physics and Measurement, Kinematics,
The Living world,
Laws of Motion, Work, Energy and Power
Some basic concepts of chemistry, Biological classification,
Experimental Skills :
Equilibrium, Plant kingdom,
SYLLABUS 1 * Vernier Calipers-Its use to measure the internal and
Chemical Thermodynamics, Structural organisation in animals (Animal Tissue),
external diameter and depth of a vessel. * Screw Gauge-
Redox reactions Animal kingdom,
Its use to determine thickness/ diameter of thin
Cockroach, Frog
sheet/wire.

Center of mass and collision, Circular motion, Rotational

Cell : The unit of life,
motion, Gravitation,
Cell cycle and cell division,
Properties of solids and liquids.
Biomolecules, Enzyme,
Experimental Skills :
Atomic structure, Excretory products and their elimination
* Young'S modulus of elasticity of the material of a
SYLLABUS 2 metallic wire.
Classification of elements and periodicity in properties, Chemical (Excretory System)
bonding & Molecular structure Breathing and exchange of gases
* Surface tension of water by Capillary rise and effect of
(Respiratory System)
detergents,
Body fluids and circulation
* Co-efficient of viscosity of a given viscous liquid by
(Circulatory System)
measuring terminal velocity of a given spherical body.

Thermodynamics, Kinetic theory of gases,

Oscillations and Waves Photosynthesis in higher plants,
Experimental Skills : Plant growth and development,
* Simple pendulum-dissipation of energy by plotting a Respiration in plants,
graph between the square of amplitude and time. Some basic principles of organic chemistry, Neural control and co-ordination
SYLLABUS 3 * Metre scale - the mass of a given object by the principle Hydrocarbons, (Nervous System),
of moments. Purification and characterisation of organic compounds. Chemical co-ordination and integration
* Speed of sound in air at room temperature using a (Endocrine System),
resonance tube, Locomotion and movement
* Specific heat capacity of a given (I) Solid and (II) (Muscles, Skeletal System)
Liquid by method of mixtures.
Chemical Kinetics, Solutions, Electrochemistry,
Principles related to Pratical Chemistry :-
The chemistry involved in the titrimetric exercises-Acids, Bases
Electrostatics & Capacitor, and the use of indicators, oxalic acid vs KMnO4, Mohr’s salt vs
Current Electricity,
KMnO4. Sexual reproduction in flowering plants,
Experimental Skills :
Chemical principles involved in the following experiments. Morphology of flowering plants,
* The resistivity of the material of a given wire using a
SYLLABUS 4 metre bridge.
1. Enthalpy of solution of CuSO4. Anatomy of flowering plants,
2. Enthalpy of neutralization of strong acid Human reproduction,
* The resistance of a given wire using Ohm'S Law.
and strong base. Reproductive health
* Resistance and figure of merit of a Galvanometer by
Half Deflection Method. 3. Preparation of lyophilic and lyophobic sols.
4. Kinetic study of the reaction of iodide ions
with hydrogen peroxide at room temperature.

p-block elements, d & f-block elements,

Magnetic effects of current and magnetism,
SYLLABUS 5 Electromagnetic induction and Alternating currents,
Electromagnetic waves
Coordination compounds.
Principles Related to Pratical Chemistry :-
1. The chemistry involved in the preparation Principles of inheritance and variation,
of Inorganic compound; Mohr’s salt, potash alum. Molecular basis of inheritance,
2. Chemical principles involved in the Microbes in human welfare,
qualitative salt analysis. Biotechnology : Principles and processes,
Biotechnology and its applications
3. Cation – Pb2+, Cu+2, Al3+, Fe3+, Zn+2, Ni2+ Ca2+, Ba2+, Mg2+, NH4+
4. Anions – CO32–, S2– , SO42–, NO2−, Cl−, Br−, I–
(Insoluble Salt Excluded)

Optics, Dual nature of matter and radiation,

Atoms and nuclei, Electronic devices
Experimental Skills :
Organic Compounds Containing Halogens,
* The focal length of ;
Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen,
(I) Convex mirror (II) Concave mirror
Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen, Biomolecules
(III) Convex lens, Using the parallax method. Organisms and Populations,
Principles Related to Pratical Chemistry :-
* The plot of the angle of deviation Vs angle of incidence Ecosystem,
1. Detection of extra elements (Nitrogen, Sulphur, halogens)
for a triangular prism. Biodiversity and Conservation,
SYLLABUS 6 * Refractive index of a glass slab using a travelling
in organic compounds.
Demography,
2. Detection of the hydroxyl (alcoholic and phenolic),
microscope. Biology in human welfare : Human Health and Disease,
carbonyl (aldehyde and ketones) , carboxyl and amino
* Characteristic curves of a P-N junction diode in Origin and Evolution
Functional groups in organic compounds.
forward and reverse bias.
3. The chemistry involved in the preparation of Acetanilide ,
* Characteristic curves of a zener diode and finding
p-nitro, acetanilide, aniline yellow and iodoform.
reverse break down voltage.
* Identification of diode, Led, Resistor,
A Capacitor from a mixed, Collection of such items.

Note : All tests will be available in Both ONLINE & OFFLINE modes.
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