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FANPAGE TÀI LIỆU TIẾNG ANH NÂNG CAO

LISTENING PRACTICE FOR NATIONAL ENGLISH COMPETITION


PRACTICE TEST 1

Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a talk about ethical concerns with artificial
intelligence and decide whether these statements are True (T), False (F) or Not Given
(NG). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. People tend to be oblivious to the moral issues associated with artificial intelligence in
the research stage.
2. Video tracking can be deployed to speed up recovery from injuries.
3. A handful of giants have become the dominant overlords in the realm of artificial
intelligence.
4. Artificial intelligence is intended to harm human society as it does not share human
values.
5. Machines are vulnerable to biases from the data introduced by their human makers.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a report on possible signs of life discovered on
Venus and answer the questions. Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS taken from
the recording for each answer in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
6. Where were the radio telescopes located?
7. How was the reaction of the first woman towards the discovery?
8. What have been launched to Venus several times?
9. How are the climatic conditions in the area between 50 and 60 km above the Venus’s
surface described?
10. What is exemplified as a physical characteristic that helps microbes adapt to rigorous
conditions?
Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to an interview with someone who consulted a 'life
coach' to improve her life and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best
according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes
provided.
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11. Brigid says that she consulted a life coach because


A she had read a great deal about them.
B both her work and home life were getting worse.
C other efforts to improve her life had failed.
D the changes she wanted to make were only small ones.

12. What did Brigid's coach tell her about money?


A It would be very easy for Brigid to get a lot of it.
B Brigid's attitude towards it was uncharacteristic of her.
C Brigid placed too much emphasis on it in her life.
D Few people have the right attitude towards it.

13. What does Brigid say about her reaction to her coach's advice on money?
A She felt silly repeating the words her coach gave her.
B She tried to hide the fact that she found it ridiculous.
C She felt a lot better as a result of following it.
D She found it difficult to understand at first.

14. What does Brigid say happened during the other sessions?
A She was told that most people's problems had the same cause.
B Her powers of concentration improved.
C Some things she was told to do proved harder than others.
D She began to wonder why her problems had arisen in the first place.

15. What has Brigid concluded ?


A The benefits of coaching do not compensate for the effort required.
B She was too unselfish before she had coaching.
C She came to expect too much of her coach.
D It is best to limit the number of coaching sessions you have.
Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a talk about pandemic diseases and supply the
blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS taken
from the recording for each answer in the space provided.
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TOP 5 DEADLIEST PANDEMIC DISEASES

1. Smallpox
• first emerged around 400BC
• caused 16.______________________ all over the body
• the only disease declared to be 17.______________________
2. Bubonic Plague
• also known as the 18.______________________
• caused by a bacterium spread by 19.______________________
• 20.______________________, called buboes, occurred in the body
3. The Spanish Flu
• began and ended in a 21.______________________
• filled the lungs of patients with 22.______________________
4. Malaria
• categorized as a blood disease
• caused by 23.______________________
• Anopheles mosquitoes would 24.______________________ infected blood and
pass it on to the next person they bite
5. HIV/AIDS
• often sexually transmitted
• HIV 25.______________________ the immune system

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PRACTICE TEST 2

Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a talk about corporate social responsibility and
decide whether these statements are True (T), False (F) or Not Given (NG). Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. Corporate social responsibility refers to a type of business regulation required by law
that aims to do some environmental or social good.
2. Corporate social responsibility could bring businesses both tangible and intangible
benefits.
3. Opinions are divided over which strategy should be adopted to maximize profit.
4. Businesses generally embrace the implementation of corporate social initiatives.
5. Good Coffee Corp gives priority to both price and quality when choosing which
country to import coffee.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a report on Siberian heat wave and answer the
questions. Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS taken from the recording for each
answer in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
6. How does the woman describe Yakutia?
7. What does the number of 1.7 million hectares temporarily burned out refer to?
8. What impact is mentioned as climate change alters the Gulf Stream current?
9. How did the river change in the aftermath of the diesel spill last month?
10. What was cited as the possible cause of the leakage of diesel?
Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to part of a discussion in which two consultants,
Abbie Dale and Ryan Richardson, are talking about two different small businesses that
have achieved success and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according
to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
11. What does the company Ryan has chosen encourage its customers to do?
A buy every kit it produces
B create new designs and submit them

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C personalise their online purchases


D tell others how good the products are

12. According to Abbie, the social clothing company's customers


A like to draw attention to themselves.
B are willing to help in publicity campaigns.
C show creativity in the videos they send in.
D have become fiercely loyal to the brand.

13. Ryan believes that the main difference between the two companies is
A the number of employees they have taken on.
B the way in which they have developed.
C the variety of problems they have to solve.
D the age range they cater for.

14. What does Abbie find most astonishing about the company she talks about?
A its skill in collaborating with partners
B the owner's ability to keep developments secret
C the fact that it has grown so fast
D the number of products it aims to launch

15. According to Ryan, people who buy and assemble the electronic kits
A should start their own businesses.
B are surprised by their simplicity.
C find the experience rewarding.
D aren't frightened of making mistakes.
Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a report on heat wave in Japan and supply the
blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken
from the recording for each answer in the space provided.
- An unprecedented heat wave in Japan has killed at least 65 people while over 30,000
people were admitted to hospital suffering from heat-related conditions such as
heatstroke or 16.______________________.

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- The whole country has sweltered in blistering heat in the last two weeks with scarcely a
17.______________________.
- At Tokyo’s 18.______________________, ambulance calls are pouring in large
numbers.
- An intensifying heat 19.______________________ is cited as the cause of such
scorching temperatures and there is no sign that it would 20.______________________
in the next two weeks.
- People cope with extreme heat by covering themselves with
21.______________________, splashing themselves with water and staying indoors.
- 22.______________________ are mentioned as a new type of product that is marketed
by some companies.
- One of the 23.______________________ implemented by 2020 Olympics organisers is
lining the marathon course and major roads with a kind of reflective surface. They are
also planning to install big tents, cooling fans and 24.______________________ to keep
people cool.
- Japan is a 25.______________________, so extreme heat could impose a tremendous
strain on medical services.

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PRACTICE TEST 3

Part 1. For questions 1-7, listen to a talk about the impact of the media and decide
whether these statements are True (T), False (F) or Not Given (NG). Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. The biological impact of storytelling makes it more difficult for the audience to shape
their views of life.
2. Between 2006 and 2016, only a minority of actors in the UK were Black people.
3. The representation of Black actors is often associated with stereotypical themes or
types of character.
4. The portrayal of the Mammy character in Gone With The Wind attempted to bridge the
divided gap between races.
5. Colourism is depicted more in pop culture than in other areas of entertainment.
6. The perceived benefits of white proximity can be a driving force that prompts anti-
Black views and behaviors.
7. The audience should try to learn to make objective observations about sources of
information in the media.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

Part 2. For questions 8-14, listen to a report on a disaster in California and answer the
questions. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the recording for
each answer in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
8. What is the name of the wildfire?
9. How is the vegetation in the wildfire area described?
10. What type of terrain may affect the firefighting effort?
11. What has been dropped on the area in an attempt to control the fire?
12. What has been opened by the Red Cross to shelter people?
13. Who reported that many of his firefighters were already burned out?
14. What is considered as an essential element of being a firefighter?
Your answers
8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

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Part 3. For questions 15-19, listen to an interview with someone who reviews hotels.
and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
15. What does Paddy say about some readers of her column?
A They suspect that she enjoys criticising hotels.
B Her attitude to hotels has changed because of their response.
C Her comments match their experiences of hotels.
D They prefer reading about hotels they would not want to visit.

16. What does Paddy say about some hotel-keepers?


A They sometimes have to force themselves to have a sense of humour.
B They would be more suited to a different profession.
C They expect to receive negative comments about their hotels.
D They are surprised that they become friends of hers.

17. Paddy says that some hotel-keepers she has contacted about the book have
A realised that she does not really have an assistant called Emily.
B corrected inaccuracies that were in her review of their hotels.
C responded favourably despite criticisms she had made.
D made her wonder whether her reviews of their hotels were unfair.

18. Paddy says that one hotel-keeper she spoke to told her that
A other people are unlikely to be treated in the same way in hotels as she is.
B he was unwilling to discuss some of the comments in her review.
C her reviews did not have as much influence as she believed.
D he no longer wanted his hotel to appear in the book.

19. The same owner also told her that


A he had passed information about her to other hotels.
B he resented her description of him in her review.
C he did not understand why she wanted to put his hotel in her book.
D there was nothing distinctive about her physical appearance.
Your answers
15. 16. 17. 18. 19.

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Part 4. For questions 20-25, listen to a talk about the Great Green Wall of China and
supply the blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN FOUR
WORDS or NUMBERS taken from the recording for each answer in the space
provided.
The Great Green Wall project aims to plant around 20.______________________ of
forests in a wall stretching about 3000 miles and as wide as 900 miles in some places.
China has seen approximately 21.______________________ overtaken every year by the
Gobi Desert.
The “Yellow Dragon” refers to the sand storms that could sweep across China, choking
its citizens with its 22.______________________.
However, the situation is only getting worse as the encroaching Gobi has swallowed up
villages and cities while 23.______________________ billions of dollars a year in
economic losses.
Corruption and poor management have been identified as the major causes of the
24.______________________ .
Several major blunders have 25.______________________ and desertification is still a
significant problem with far-reaching consequences .

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PRACTICE TEST 4

Part 1. For questions 1-6, listen to a talk about drugs and decide whether these
statements are True (T), False (F) or Not Given (NG). Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. A report of the UN Office reveals that new drugs are replacing the traditional ones.
2. Cannabinoids produce stronger response than marijuana.
3. Between 2010 and 2012 seizures of older synthetic amphetamine increased
dramatically.
4. Heroin addiction in Europe is diminishing thanks to a series of crackdowns
implemented by European governments.
5. Cocaine has been sold with higher quality.
6. Ketamine is mainly used in surgical procedures for animals.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

Part 2. For questions 7-12, listen to a talk about the smart grid and answer the
questions. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the recording for
each answer in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
7. What happened throughout the northeastern United States and parts of Canada in
2003?
8. Which TWO adjectives does the speaker use to describe the current power grid
infrastructure?
9. What does the local power plant has to do to power light?
10. What are the parties involved in the two-way communication that smart grid allows
for?
11. What does the speaker call the electric power industry?
12. What does the speaker liken the convenience brought about by smart grid to?
Your answers
7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.

Part 3. For questions 13-17, listen to a discussion in which two people, Derek Grant
and Lucy Wadham, talk about the current state of mass tourism and choose the answer

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(A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided.

13. From the figures quoted by Lucy, it can be concluded that


A most of the revenue generated from safari packages goes to the airline.
B mass tourism inevitably leads to poverty.
C hotels in developing countries do not have high standards.
D there aren't sufficient local products to cater for tourists.

14. What does Derek say about governments whose countries are tourist destinations?
A They are constantly trying to increase their profit margins.
B They ignore the negative impacts of mass tourism.
C They have very limited bargaining power.
D They are unfamiliar with aspects of modern business methods.

15. Derek's example of excessive water consumption caused by mass tourism shows how
A ineffective the laws are in developing countries.
B local food production can be adversely affected by it.
C difficult it is to find sources of pure water.
D valuable a resource water has become in recent years.

16. Lucy says that when a resort loses its appeal,


A the locals are left to fend for themselves.
B money has to be spent on a new infrastructure.
C the cost of package holidays falls considerably.
D it becomes vulnerable to natural disasters.

17. According to Derek, tourism


A does more harm than good in the long run.
B is too big an industry to be tampered with.
C is largely responsible for global inequality.
D promotes cultural sensitivity most of the time.
Your answers
13. 14. 15. 16. 17.

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Part 4. For questions 18-25, listen to a report on new medical findings and supply the
blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken
from the recording for each answer in the space provided.
Preliminary findings from the UK showed that dexamethasone, a 18.________________,
could be lifesaving for COVID-19 patients on ventilators.

Kirsten Lyke, who runs a coronavirus vaccine trial at the University of Maryland,
believes that there are certain issues that need to be 19.________________.

As the press release only gives the brief results, she is waiting for more in-depth
information from the 20._______________. Also, it needs seven years to ascertain the
patients get positive results as hasty release and unreliable intervention might
21.________________.

In general, Lyke is 22.________________ about the outcome of the trial.

Doctors got into trouble with 23.________________ such as hydroxychloroquine and


azithromycin, but Lyke believes this is not the case for dexamethasone, which doctors are
familiar with.

People are becoming 24.________________ with the government’s inconsistent


guidelines on mandatory mask wearing.

America's 25.________________ is an Achilles' Heel when it comes to saving lives in a


pandemic.

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PRACTICE TEST 5
Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a talk about top five artificial intelligence colleges.
What does the speaker say about each college? Choose five answer from the box and
write the correct letter, A-J, in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

A. provides learners with multifarious courses and research prospects in its lab.
B. first began its research into artificial intelligence around six decades ago.
C. offers prominent graduates with enormous career opportunities right at home in
South California.
D. had its first artificial intelligence research center established in 2015.
E. reigns supreme among all artificial intelligence colleges in the US and worldwide.
F. has become an obvious option for those who desire to pursue a career in AI.
G. includes more than two dozen faculty members and over a hundred graduate
students.
H. embraces a comprehensive programme which goes beyond technical aspects.
I. is making waves in all technological disciplines.
J. makes a name for itself as the most prominent lab worldwide.

Colleges
1. Harvard University
2. University of California, Berkeley
3. Massachusetts Institute of Technology
4. Stanford University
5. Carnegie Mellon University

Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a talk about populism and answer the questions.
Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in
the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

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6. How is the term “populist” generally perceived to be?


7. Besides superior individuals or groups in society, what do populists appeal the masses
to attack on?
8. What is required in the process of the formulation and administration of public policy
in a democratic society?
9. Instead of using evidence and argument, what do populists revel in?
10. In what way can populism become a real menace to society?

Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to a radio interview in which a choreographer, Alice
Reynolds, discusses a dance programme and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which
fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes provided.

11. How is the programme designed to help youngsters?


A by getting them to talk about their feelings
B by encouraging them to loosen up
C by enabling them to convey their thoughts.
D by giving them a way to entertain themselves

12. When talking about the nature of communication, Alice reveals that
A teenagers are quick to react to a number of emotions.
B people who learn to show how they feel can articulate better.
C shy youngsters find the programme more useful than others.
D young people have a lot of pent up negative emotions.

13. What aspect of the programme encourages teenagers to face their troubles?
A the social side of dance
B the freedom of the movement
C the obligation to interact
D the release of feelings

14. Alice contrasts professional and amateur dancers in order to

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A highlight the usefulness of the programme.


B emphasise the use of emotions in dance.
C illustrate the difference between teaching styles.
D explain the ability to recognise feelings.

15. What point does Alice make about the study into a person’s personality?
A It found that certain types of people dance better than others.
B Personality has a bearing on people’s willingness to participate.
C Who people are can be recognised through their movements.
D It revealed that most people try to hide their true nature.

Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a talk about how curry from India conquered
Britain and supply the blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN
FOUR WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in the space provided.

Curry is the anglicized version of the Tamil word Kari, meaning a spiced sauce and was
commonly used to describe any 16.______________________ originating from the
Indian subcontinent.

Although the first 17.______________________ of curry was in 1598, it was not until
mid-18th century that the first known curry recipe was published in Britain.

The first Indian restaurant in Britain, albeit 18.______________________, served a wide


range of dishes.

Chicken curry, which used an elderly fowl, then entered the


19.______________________.

At the early stage, the British curry stuck to Indian spices, blending meaty stews with a
variety of ingredients but, nonetheless, without 20.______________________.

In the 19th century, however, the British curry started to distance from the original recipe,
with mango being replaced by 21.______________________ and ready-made spice
mixed with 22.______________________.

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Curry only boomed after the second World War when the 23.______________________
resulted in mass migration to Britain.

In the 1970s, the dish was both 24.______________________, and catered to the tastes
of British people.

In 2001, British Foreign Secretary Robin Cook 25.______________________ that


chicken tikka masala, an Indian dish, was a true British national dish.

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PRACTICE TEST 6
Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a talk about five key global issues. What does the
speaker say about each of the issues? Choose five answers from the box and write the
correct letter, A-J, in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

A. Clashes between forces within a newly-formed country cause heavy death toll and
looming starvation
B. Under a new zero-tolerance policy, children were forced to work in cages
C. A peace agreement was signed, ending years of civil war
D. The authority is reportedly detaining populations of an ethnic group in a bid to re-
educate them
E. World powers help to resolve a civil conflict by backing Saudi Arabia’s campaign
F. An inhumane policy faced immense public opposition and political pressure
G. Military forces commit atrocities against a minority group, resulting in mass
migration.
H. The government attacks a religious minority group in an effort to crack down on
freedom of speech
I. Some countries place travel restrictions on civilians to prevent them from fleeing across
borders
J. A civil conflict broke out, followed by military intervention from neighbouring
countries.

Global issues
1. China’s internment camps
2. Rohingya crisis
3. South Sudan’s civil war
4. Conflict in Yemen
5. U.S. family separation

Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a talk about America’s most promising artificial
intelligence companies and answer the questions. Write NO MORE THAN FIVE
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WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in the corresponding numbered
boxes provided.
6. Which technique is implemented by Sequoia to single out the top 100 best AI
manufacturers?
7. According to the expert, what is the real definition of AI?
8. What is the prediction of optimum or correctness level mentioned to illustrate?
9. Which line of product does the company Nuro zero in on this year?
10. Besides customer satisfaction, what aspect of businesses would benefit from the
widely selected development scheme?

Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to part of an interview with Miriam Baker, a
psychologist, about how social media has changed self-expression and choose the
answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers
in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

11. According to Miriam, what is the main reason people feel the need to create
perfect images of their lives on social media?
A They are hoping to attract more friends.
B They want their lives to seem more exciting.
C They are in need of validation.
D They have very unhappy lives.

12. In Miriam's view, the average user of social media is


A driven and only interested in self-gratification.
B lonely and looking for meaningful connections.
C curious and concerned with their surroundings.
D volatile and confused about what they want.

13. When discussing her own experience with social media, Miriam reveals
A her unexpected pleasure at the response.
B her desire to engage with it more.
C her worry of becoming addicted.

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D her anxiety of not being accepted.

14. Miriam compares media in the past with social media today to
A highlight the reduction in consumption.
B focus on the differing subject matter.
C explain the difference in the audience.
D illustrate the variety of content.

15. What advice does Miriam give about combating `Digital Narcissism'?
A Be true to who you really are.
B Try to post more meaningful content.
C Focus on others and not yourself.
D Do things that increase your self-esteem

Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a talk about déjà vu and supply the blanks with
the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS taken from the
recording for each answer in the space provided.

The feeling of living through the present situation once before is described as
16.______________________.
Besides youngsters and movie fans, 17.______________________ are more likely to
experience déjà vu than others.
For a long time, this occurrence had been attributed to 18.______________________
disturbances before a 19.______________________ coined the French word déjà vu,
literally meaning “already seen”.
The first possible explanation for this illusion is 20.______________________ where a
person experiences the current sensory twice successively.
Another theory on the cause of déjà vu, dual processing, mentions a
21.______________________ when two cognitive processes are uncoupled.
There are also some speculations that déjà vu results from errors around a major
component of the brain called 22.______________________. However, this is refuted by
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further research which claims that déjà vu involves the 23.______________________ of


the brain.
One suggested method of studying déjà vu is examining those suffering from
24.______________________.
Another approach is looking at 25.______________________ as the origin of déjà vu
could lie in the mysterious universe.

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TEST 7
Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a report on how European countries are dealing
with the coronavirus pandemic and decide whether these statements are True (T) or
False (F). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

1. Under the full lockdown in Italy, all grocery stores must be shut down.
2. There is a ban on entry for people from Austria into Italy.
3. Angela Merkel warned that Coronavirus could infect up to 17% of Germany's
population.
4. Public gatherings still take place in the UK.
5. According to the professor, although the UK is taking more drastic measures than
Italy, its effectiveness is open to question.

Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a talk about how to prevent a food crisis and
answer the questions. Write NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS taken from the
recording for each answer in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

6. Which group of nations have auspiciously implemented feasible measures in the fight
against the pandemic?
7. What have Peruvian and Brazilian governments increased in their cash-transfer
program?
8. According to the ODI’s research, which aspects of life have been improved among
cash-grant recipients?
9. What is the name of the method applied by corporations to grant financial aids for
reduced working hours?
10. In addition to providing tax relief and access to retirement accounts, which step has
also been taken to alleviate economic burden?

Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

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Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to a discussion between Belinda Phipps and Kate
Andrews about Prime Minister David Cameron's pledge to close the gender pay gap by
making large businesses publish their pay gap figures, and choose the answer (A, B, C
or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided.

11. Belinda Phipps suggests that the Equal Pay Act


A. should be repealed by the government.
B. allows equal pay claims to be brought.
C. requires businesses to publish their pay gap figures.
D. is too outdated to exert any effect on the gender wage gap.

12. Why does Kate Andrews mention the data from the Office for National Statistics
(ONS)?
A. To encourage women to opt out of the workforce
B. To highlight overall imbalance in favour of women
C. To make a point against the proposed legislation
D. To demonstrate as evidence of gender discrimination in the workplace

13. What puts female workers at a disadvantage compared with their male counterparts?
A. Inability to achieve a work-life balance
B. Unwillingness to stay focused on one career path
C. Mental strength to catch up after falling behind
D. Ineptitude to deal with the harsh realities of working life

14. Belinda Phipps and Kate Andrews agree that


A. whether to work overtime or not is of one’s own accord.
B. gender pay gap is the result of social beliefs rather than employer discrimination.
C. some women tend to be deprived of the right to make free choices related to their
career.
D. forcing businesses to publish their pay gap figures cannot solve the issue of income
inequality by gender.

15. When the host cites possibilities about the promising future of women at work,
Belinda Phipps
A. implies that these have insignificant impact on whether gender pay gap will continue
to exist or not.
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B. asserts that more rigorous action need to be taken to turn these possibilities into
realities.
C. claims that such brighter prospects for women would be a turning point in the labor
history.
D. contends that such possibilities are baseless and unreliable.

Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4. Listen to five short extracts in which people are talking about films and do the
tasks below.

TASK ONE
For questions 16-20, choose from the list (A-H) what unexpected aspect each speaker
encountered while watching the film.
A the versatility of the cast
B the seamlessness of the images
C the authenticity of the scenes
D the film’s sense of humour
E the feeling elicited
F the scarcity of roles
G the impact of the soundtrack
H the intensity of the special effects

Speaker 1 16 __________
Speaker 2 17 __________
Speaker 3 18 __________
Speaker 4 19 __________
Speaker 5 20 __________
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TASK TWO
For questions 21-25, choose from the list (A-H) what each person sees as the role of
special effects in films.
A setting the scene
B tricking the audience
C shocking the viewer
D augmenting the viewing experience
E crafting new realities
F affording harmony in the story
G enhancing the characters
H providing excitement

Speaker 1 21 __________
Speaker 2 22 __________
Speaker 3 23 __________
Speaker 4 24 __________
Speaker 5 25 __________

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PRACTICE TEST 8
Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a talk about the richest places in the world. What
does the speaker say about these places? Choose five answers from the box and write
the correct letter, A-J, in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
A. A crash in an industry is closely linked to foreign affairs.
B. Social gaps still persist in the projected wealthiest place worldwide.
C. According to the IMF, this country is following unsustainable development pathways.
D. Authorities need to carefully study the market data and assess the external conditions
and risks.
E. The boom in a lucrative industry originated from a discovery made around 50 years
ago.
F. With GDP per capita at nearly $80,000, this country is the richest place in Europe.
G. There is a dark side to the obsession with economic growth targets.
H. Nearly 40 per cent of the total proven natural gas reserves globally are located in this
place.
I. This is a success story of a formula implemented to overthrow an autonomous regime.
J. Foreign companies that are seeking asylum from large corporate taxation move to this
tax haven.
K. Holding the largest natural gas reserves, this country claims the first spot of the richest
nation's ranking.
Countries
1. Ireland
2. Singapore
3. Luxembourg
4. Macau
5. Qatar
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a report on how China successfully landed its rover
on Mars and answer the questions. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken
from the recording for each answer in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
6. What challenge did the rover encounter before its touchdown on the Martian surface?
7. Besides parachute and rockets, what was used as a combination to carry out the
mission to Mars?
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8. What was Jurong?


9. In which field does this outstanding achievement consolidate the leading position of
China?
10. What was the name of the U.S. rover which made a successful landing on Mars in
February?
Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to a discussion in which two historians, Matt
Thomas and Sue Wilkins, talk about a book they have written and choose the answer
(A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided.
11. Sue says that
A until recently amateur archaeologists weren't allowed to dig on the Thames foreshore.
B official authorisation is needed to excavate along the river.
C any finds must be reported to the Port of London Authority.
D she had to be a member of a society to dig under any part of the Thames.

12. Matt says that, in the past, poverty-stricken children


A would hunt for birds along the river banks.
B used to try and sell things to people walking along the river.
C would burn things they found by the river to keep warm.
D discovered things in the mud at certain times of the day.

13. How did Sue use to feel about the Thames?


A nostalgic because she visited the river with her parents
B excited about finding rare jewellery and other treasures
C repulsed by the appearance of the water
D revolted by the thought that she would excavate in mud one day

14. Matt is intrigued by


A what can be learnt from the artefacts they find.
B the transport people used in the Middle Ages.
C how London's inhabitants used to dispose of their rubbish.
D the large expanses of mud which are exposed when the tide goes out.

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15. What makes the discovery of the small-scale items so important?


A their surprising ornamental use
B what they reveal about family relationships
C the fact that the mud has conserved them remarkably well
D the fact that they confirm a widely held theory
Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a talk about a hidden fix for the gender pay gap
problem and supply the blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN
FOUR WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in the space provided.
Many 16.______________________have already been made to ensure that the females
receive equal pay for equal work with their male counterparts. However, less
remuneration and promotion prospects can still be found among the former gender. The
reason is their role as the 17.______________________, which forces them to sacrifice
their working hours to family obligations, including after-school childcare and
18.______________________. That parents are in a predicament finding childcare
around school hours 19.______________________ about assimilating work and school
schedules. A discrepancy in those two schedules leads to a million fewer women with
20.______________________working, it is a real public issue. According to a CAP 2016
Report in the U.S, a staggering sum of $55 billion of work output was lost to
21.______________________. All too often, we tend to focus on these problems
22.______________________. Furthermore, many people positively regard aligning
school and work schedules as 23.______________________ that is beneficial to both
students and teachers. This can also 24.______________________ with the genuine
demand of families, according to Chris Gabrieli- Chairman of the Massachusetts Board
of Higher Education. Changing the school calendar, nevertheless, is not the hard-and-fast
solution to gender pay gap; if fact, a 25.______________________ addressing various
other issues is needed.

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PRACTICE TEST 9
Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to five short extracts in which people are talking about
television programme. Choose from the list (A-H) the main reason why each speaker
watches the programme and write the correct letter in the corresponding numbered
boxes provided.
A to appreciate nature at its best
B to spy on a secret environment
C to catch a glimpse of life in a different era
D to witness the dark side of people
E to observe those experiencing difficulties
F to see the information unabridged
G to learn about conservation
H to marvel at a perceptive nature
Speaker 1
Speaker 2
Speaker 3
Speaker 4
Speaker 5
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a talk about the world in 20 years' time and answer
the questions. Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS taken from the recording for
each answer in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
6. What is the stimulant behind Africa’s economic boom?
7. What will become heavily dependent on AI in Europe?
8. What have fossil fuels been labelled as in the Middle East?
9. What will stand in lieu of oil disputes in the future?
10. What will citizens across the globe become in order to fight cyber threat?
Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

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Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to part of a radio interview with two academics,
Anne Trowell and Jonathan Sims, on internet technology and choose the answer (A, B,
C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided.
11 Anne and Jonathan agree that people become anxious when technology
A begins to control their children’s lives.
B establishes unsustainable connections.
C forces a redefinition of social relations.
D introduces feelings of inadequacy.

12 What point is made about changes in our relationship with technology?


A The changes will require creative thinking.
B Technology will have to be more tightly controlled.
C People must learn to trust technology.
D The changes will involve more attention to detail.

13 When talking about internet search engines, the speakers agree that
A they are improving social interaction.
B much information is oversimplified.
C they sometimes lead to confusion.
D basic knowledge is widely available.

14 How does Jonathan define the problem of increased connectivity between people?
A It facilitates the communication of false emotion.
B It decreases the likelihood of agreement.
C It allows only a few people to compete for attention.
D It makes human interaction dependent on machines.

15 What does Anne find striking about international news in the digital age?
A the limited focus of the public
B the diversity of the media used
C the risks involved in reporting
D the need for sensitivity in editing
Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

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Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a talk about how pandemics are linked to climate
change and supply the blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN
FOUR WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in the space provided.
The prevailing catastrophe is considered an (16) ______________________ with the
outbreak of a nightmarish novel virus which has a tremendous level of (17)
______________________. Humanity has already witnessed the contribution that
climate change has made to the rising likelihood of pandemics such as Zika, Ebola,
SARS and recently, Covid-19. By forcing wild animals to (18)
______________________ and move nearer to human due to loss of habitat and
inappropriate temperature, climate change has cleared the way for diseases to spread
from these animals to our community. Deforestation for (19) ______________________,
in fact, is the major culprit of so serious a situation. In addition, air pollution carries an
alarming risk for (20) ______________________, which accounts for high lethality level
among respiratory diseases like Covid-19. The immense population density in
cosmopolitan areas worldwide also means frequent human-to-human contacts that ,in
turn, increases the peril of (21) ______________________. Another drive behind the
pandemic is civil aviation. The fact that only Chinese passengers were (22)
______________________ for coronavirus initially, for instance, caused other infected
travellers to (23) ______________________ nationwide. To protect our planet from both
the (24) ______________________ of climate disruption and Covid-19, it’s high time
urgent action was taken. However, dangers can be expected from the pathogens as we
necessarily remove (25) ______________________ of life on our planet.

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PRACTICE TEST 10
Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a report on Jupiter. What is said about Jupiter?
Choose FIVE letters from A-H. Write the correct letter in the corresponding numbered
boxes provided. Your answers can be written in any order.
A. Jupiter is the only planet in the solar system born from primordial stardust
B. The mass of other planets combined is half of that of Jupiter
C. The leading position in the solar system has earned Jupiter the label “King”
D. Jupiter’s enormous size and gravity have been accountable for the sizes of other
planets in the solar system
E. The Great Red Spot has been characteristic of Jupiter for over three centuries
F. A solid center is not the feature of Jupiter
G. Underneath the crusts of Calisto, Europa and Ganymede lies a huge amount of water
H. The Galilean Satellites comprise the four largest moons that are least volcanically
active.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a report on an ecological disaster in Sri Lanka and
answer the questions. Write NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS taken from the
recording for each answer in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
6. How is the condition of the ship when it is sinking off Sri Lanka’s west coast?
7. What are ready to be used to deal with possible risks?
8. What have waters been dirtied by?
9. What may cause plastic pellets to drift to Indonesia?
10. What is the name of the ill-fated ship?
Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to a discussion in which two biologists, Ian
Cartwright and Angela Sharpe, talk about conservation and the public's perception of
it and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear.
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

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11 According to Ian, why aren't people easily convinced of the importance of protecting
endangered species?
A They find it difficult to understand the concept.
B They are presented with information that is too vague.
C They do not believe human activity causes extinction.
D They think that conservationists are exaggerating the situation.

12 Angela says that eco-tourism has been successful because


A it provides locals with a long-term source of income.
B it has been properly managed by governments in developing countries.
C it encourages people to have more respect for nature.
D it is affordable for a large number of people from developed countries.

13 The story Ian tells about how economists determined the value of the environment
highlights
A what a complex subject economics can be.
B the ease with which false promises are made.
C why companies get away with polluting lakes.
D how ignorant people are of the role nature plays in their lives.

14 What explanation does Angie give for people being indifferent to the destruction of
the ecosystem?
A They believe scientists will fix the problem.
B The vast majority do not suffer too much when it happens.
C They consider the exploitation of environmental resources necessary.
D They think the cost of replacing unrecognised benefits has been overestimated.

15 The species Ian refers to


A indicate how fast an ecosystem is likely to collapse.
B only live in one specific ecosystem.
C are extremely sensitive to environmental change.
D appear to be in the greatest danger of extinction.

Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

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Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a talk about climate change adaptation and
supply the blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN FOUR
WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in the space provided.
Climate change can exert a comprehensive impact on all aspects of life. In designing,
therefore, environmental issues such as aggravated deforestation, water scarcity, and (16)
______________________ must also be considered besides architectural factors like
built coast and housing. In addition to those forces, the designing disciplines also have to
encounter intensified (17) _____________________ and (18) _____________________.
Due to the multifarious weather events involved, the indiscernibility of climate makes it
increasingly onerous to assume, to (19) ______________________, to respond, and to
design for. To tackle climate change in vulnerable areas, choosing to stay and fix the
problem, which is in fact required by (20) ______________________, economy, and
policy, is far outperformed by deciding to move in terms of resilience. In this fight
against climate change, designers serve an extraordinary role with their ability to serve
both the land and the community in (21) ______________________.
Location, elevation, and unremitting (22) ______________________ are among the
factors that put Miami among the first sufferers from rising sea level. One architectural
studio on climate change in this city have to deal with multiple issues, including social
justice, politics, (23) ______________________ and climate justice because of such a
reason. Another studio in Virginia also focuses on designing for farms to move inland
due to the replacement of farming by (24) ______________________ and severe salt
intrusion.
The designing disciplines might spread optimism about climate change and collaborate
with (25) ______________________ to figure out appropriate land-based practices for
particular areas.

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LISTENING PRACTICE FOR NATIONAL ENGLISH COMPETITION


PRACTICE TEST 11

Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a talk about Google company and decide whether
these statements are True (T), False (F) or Not Given (NG). Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. Impediment to market penetration, price dominance, unjust benefits and fierce
competition characterize a monopoly market.
2. In the early 19th century, Standard Oil’s production constituted approximately 90% of
the total output in the U.S.
3. Google was accused of gaining unfair advantages over competitors by requiring
smartphone makers to load Google apps onto the phone before a customer buys it.
4. Yelp has filed a complaint against Google in the EU, stating that Google’s search
engine has biased for its own results.
5. EU does not take action against monopolies unless they exert pernicious effects on
consumers.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a talk about the history of hamburgers and answer
the questions. Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS taken from the recording for
each answer in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
6. What kind of meat was mentioned as one of the ingredients of the Roman’s version of
hamburger?
7. What did the hamburger version in 1700 become part of?
8. Which invention had enabled affordable and delicious meals to be easily made from
meat?
9. What did the White Castle claim about their hamburgers?
10. Besides being a convenient takeout, what was another purpose that burgers were
reputed for?
Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

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Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to an interview with Norma Powell, who is a
financial advisor, and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to
what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

11 Young people are tempted to live beyond their means because


A they consider they have a right to use credit cards and store cards.
B they may be unaware of the extent of the debts they incur.
C they may be unable to pay cash for consumer goods.
D they have become more materialistic as a result of using credit cards.

12 Norma believes the main reason young people get into debt is due to
A the large numbers of credit cards available to them.
B the overdrafts they create at university.
C the fact that they can't find a job.
D the lack of financial advice from parents.

13 She thinks that if parents have a responsible attitude to money,


A their children will be more likely to follow their advice.
B they will be able to demonstrate the dangers of getting into debt.
C their children will follow their advice but not their example.
D they will be able to build up some savings for their children.

14 A fixed amount of pocket money


A forces a child to save money.
B teaches a child to budget.
C makes a child feel independent.
D gives a child a saving strategy.

15 Teenagers sometimes find it difficult to save because


A they want to buy clothes all the time.
B they don't want to listen to their parents.
C they are influenced by friends and advertising.
D they have lost sight of what is important in life.
Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

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Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a talk about a work of literature and supply the
blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken
from the recording for each answer in the space provided.

CRIME AND PUNISHMENT


16. Raskolnikov lives in ______________________, and from the beginning of the story
he is unable to advance his education.
17. Selling his last worthy pieces to an ______________________, he is so desperate
that he devises a robbery and murdering plan.
18. Dostoyevsky’s searing prose brings to life the limitation of 19th century Saint
Petersburg, with examples from dark pubs to run-down buildings and
______________________.
19. The author shows stories about characters such as Marmeladov, a miserable former
official who has pushed his family to the brink of collapse, and Svidrigailov, an
______________________ royalty.
20. Leaving behind bright career prospects in the military, Fyodor had been captivated by
ideas of ______________________.
21. Many comrades of Dostoyevsky were killed, only to be subjected to mock execution
and ______________________ from the Tsar.
22. In the 1864 novella "Notes from Underground," the belief that the contradictory
desire for human soul would never be fully satisfied by ______________________ was
asserted clearly.
23. Doctrines of ______________________ greatly endorsed by many of Dostoyevsky’s
current scholars have been emulated.
24. Raskolnikov isolates himself from mankind due to his fervent belief in his acumen to
______________________.
25. Dostoyevsky’s riveting narrative of the social and psychological turmoil depicts a
realistic picture of his punishment and the ______________________.

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PRACTICE TEST 12

Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a talk about the Ant IPO delay and decide whether
these statements are True (T), False (F) or Not Given (NG). Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. Shanghai authorities disrupted Ant’s IPO at short notice on the grounds of its fragile
business plans.
2. Ant Group’s IPO would have been unprecedented in the fintech industry.
3. Interference from China is the main reason accounting for the questionable status of
Hong Kong as a major financial centre.
4. Winston Ma forecasts that the fintech industry will not cease to enjoy a period of
phenomenal growth in the wilderness.
5. Recent regulations from the Chinese government will shift the role of Ant Group as a
fintech company.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a talk about Neptune and answer the questions.
Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in
the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
6. What is the distance between Neptune and the Sun?
7. What is Neptune’s core made up of besides water ice?
8. What gives Neptune blue color?
9. What can strong winds recorded on Neptune do?
10. What is the name of the spacecraft that has visited Neptune?
Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to part of an interview with an artist about the
subject of art and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what
you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

11 How does Brendan feel about his work?


A He prefers negative criticism to no reaction at all.

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B His intention is to provoke critics with his art.


C He believes his art can only be viewed subjectively.
D His definition of art is at odds with general opinion.

12 According to Brendan, standing on a chair


A is an example of what art should be.
B would be art if it was intended to be.
C is an example of mediocre art.
D would not be considered art by most people.

13 Brendan says that some successful artists


A are not very good at drawing.
B have not been able to create original art.
C lack the ability to express ideas.
D use excessively old-fashioned techniques.

14 Brendan doesn't think that


A throwing paint at a canvas would constitute art.
B it is difficult to come up with original ideas.
C critics are open-minded enough.
D modern art has nowhere left to go.

15 The invention of the camera


A allowed more people to indulge their passion for taking portraits.
B enabled photographers to imitate life more closely.
C meant that artists were no longer restricted to copying from life.
D changed the way society viewed the role of the artist.

Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a talk about sleep and supply the blanks with the
missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the
recording for each answer in the space provided.

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SLEEP AND MENTAL HEALTH


16. The culprit behind our ______________________ relationship to sleep originates
from our ancient understanding of the subject.
17. Parents of small children have a disposition to be ______________________ in
routine negotiations.
18. Every reversal becomes a drama, every disappointment turns into a catastrophe and
every excitement shifts into ______________________.
19. An innovatively ______________________ approach to bedtimes when growing up
can be considered an expression of independence and individuality.
20. There are various ways of expressing our perceptions about lives, ranging from
positive narratives to appalling tales of complete ignorance and
______________________.
21. When exhaustion sets in, we tend to think in a ______________________ way.
22. When we lie in bed, we think that we bear a resemblance to a
______________________, for instance, a rabbit or a squirrel.
23. Given the harsh grown-up life, we need to be free to ______________________ this.
24. It is inferred from curled squirrel position that mental problems cannot be universally
handled by ______________________.
25. It is not until we have treated ourselves with a ______________________ or a long
night’s sleep that we understand the reasons to live.

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PRACTICE TEST 13

Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a talk about office life and decide whether these
statements are True (T), False (F) or Not Given (NG). Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. Antony Slumbers believed that employee productivity was the reason for the
establishment of the office.
2. Open-plan offices were characterized by constant distraction and work inefficiency.
3. Unexpected meetings have yet to be proven to foster sudden inspiration or
recognition..
4. Lack of monitoring from bosses is assumed to obstruct straightforward exchange.
5. Some research has pointed out that firms opting out of rigidity tend to draw the best
workforce.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a report on Black Fungus in India and answer the
questions. Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS taken from the recording for each
answer in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
6. Which form do the moles causing black fungal infection take?
7. Among Covid 19 patients, who are most vulnerable to black fungal infection?
8. Which problem with the nose may a patient experience when he or she suffers from
black fungal infection?
9. According to top Indian doctors, what is the culprit behind the rise of infections?
10. Which treatment do patients receive when the infection is identified on time?
Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to part of a radio interview with a member of a
language revival action group and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best
according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes
provided.

11. The bill that was recently passed by the Scottish Parliament
A states that Gaelic is the official language of Scotland.
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B enables Gaelic to be taught in Scottish schools.


C has benefited teaching in Scottish schools.
D represents a victory for Philip McNair's action group.

12. One of the action group's aims is to


A encourage family members to speak Gaelic at home.
B provide teachers with the incentive and the means to teach in Gaelic.
C recruit and train more language teachers in secondary schools.
D provide Scottish schools with equipment for language learning.

13. McNair attributes the revival of interest in Gaelic to


A the success of a similar language revival campaign in Wales.
B fears that Scottish Gaelic would suffer the same fate as Manx.
C the fact that the Isle of Man now has several hundred Gaelic speakers.
D the fact that Gaelic had been officially declared a dead language.

14. According to McNair, an important factor in achieving the group's goal is


A the view that Gaelic is part of Scotland's cultural heritage.
B the political autonomy that Scotland has finally won for itself.
C the necessary backing to put ideas into practice.
D the pride people take in having a strong cultural identity.

15. How does he regard the latest developments?


A optimistically
B stoically
C impassively
D fanatically

Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a talk about Asian unicorn start-ups and supply
the blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS
taken from the recording for each answer in the space provided.

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UNICORN STARTUPS
16. Bain & Company report has attributed the boom of unicorns in the region to the
increase in private equity investment and ______________________.
17. ______________________ is the term used to describe a startup company valued at
over $100 billion.
18. August 2020 marks the milestone of Grab in introducing financial services, such as
loans, ______________________, health insurance, and a pay-later program.
19. Besides being a service provider for mobile payments, logistics, and food delivery,
Go Jek is a ______________________.
20. Hyal Route owns the largest independent ______________________, shared fiber
network platform in Myanmar and Cambodia
21. Traveloka is an online-based company, mainly dealing with flight tickets,
______________________, and so on.
22. In the ecosystem of OVO, ______________________, business partners and
members are able to conduct digital payment and smart financial services.
23. Store images have been convertible into shelf insights thanks to the combination of
artificial intelligence, machine learning engines and detailed ______________________
from Trax.
24. Revolution Precrafted allows customers to live in aesthetically adorned properties by
creating a wide range of customized, ______________________ spaces.
25. Singapore and Indonesia will no longer be the exclusive ______________________
for unicorns.

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PRACTICE TEST 14

Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a talk about the power of quiet leadership and
decide whether these statements are True (T), False (F) or Not Given (NG). Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. The Extrovert Ideal characterizes great leaders with the qualities of extrovertness,
responsiveness, confidence and impromptu speaking.
2. According to one study, the higher senior leaders scored on the extrovert scale, the less
their staff became satisfied with them.
3. Intrinsic motivation paves the way for the pursuit for materialism.
4. The way leadership courses are designed may undermine the confidence of introverted
people.
5. Inimical attitude can stand out in a world full of soundbites, forcefulness and extreme
thinking.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a talk about the history of fish and chips and
answer the questions. Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS taken from the
recording for each answer in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
6. What was the status of potatoes before the 18th century?
7. What was the primary target of bread-crumbed filets?
8. Apart from the development of railroad system, what stimulated the shipping of fish to
inland regions?
9. What are the most common supplementary ingredients of fish and chips in the UK?
10. Besides being clean from printers, how was the newspapers used for wrapping?
Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to an interview with two authors called Simon Chirk
and Naomi Glenn, who are talking about getting started as a novelist and choose the
answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers
in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
11. Simon thinks that young would-be authors should

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A. attempt to get known in another field first.


B. secure the support of a publisher from the outset.
C. devote themselves to the more lucrative types of writing.
D. have sufficient intrinsic motivation to meet the challenge.

12. Naomi suggests that unpublished writers need to avoid


A. trying to combine writing with another occupation.
B. exhausting themselves with a gruelling routine.
C. attempting to work with outdated equipment.
D. becoming distracted from the task in hand.

13. Naomi agrees with Simon's point that a first novel should
A. explore an aspect of a glamorous lifestyle.
B. reflect the writer's own personal experience.
C. seek to replicate elements of recent bestsellers.
D. feature appealing characters in an everyday setting.

14. Naomi and Simon disagree about the extent to which young novelists should
A. do research into unfamiliar subject areas or periods.
B. aim for established genres with large readerships.
C. allow prospective publishers to suggest a theme.
D. concentrate on producing a strong narrative.

15. What point does Naomi make about teenage fiction?


A. Feedback from readers can be very stimulating.
B. Novels need to deal with sophisticated issues.
C. The long-term rewards can be worthwhile.
D. It's easy to develop a loyal following.

Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a talk about hacking and supply the blanks with
the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS taken from the
recording for each answer in the space provided.
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THE SECRET LIVES OF THE HACKER


16. In broad terms, hacking can be conceived as ingenious ______________________
since this activity aims to exploit the properties of things in an unanticipated manner.
17. The way that Galileo used crooked glass to ______________________ can be seen as
a hacking activity.
18. NASA engineers used a hack to save Apollo 13, with a book, a plastic bag and a
______________________.
19. In order to establish a call, phone providers utilized ___________________.
20. Many hackers are propelled by the desire to understand the operation of a system, to
______________________ and hidden secrets.
21. Steve Wozniak found source of inspiration from his early explorations to embark on
______________________.
22. There is an analogy between some types of hackers and security forces working to
protect their ____________________.
23. Greed, fame, nonconformity and the yearnings to hurt others for
____________________ are what propel hackers.
24. Another type of hackers is ______________________ who aim to deceive people.
25. While hackers themselves value their actions, other people deem what they do as
____________________.

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PRACTICE TEST 15
Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a talk about a chance to rethink the world and
decide whether these statements are True (T), False (F) or Not Given (NG). Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. Slightly more than half of English population survived the Black Death after the first
wave of the pandemic.
2. The collapse of the exploitative feudal system could be attributed to the shortage of
agricultural land as against increased labour force.
3. Troop commuting and consumer goods factories provided a nesting ground for the
spread of Spanish flu.
4. In 1948, calls for a unified medical service poured out which led to the establishment
of the Britain’s National Health Service.
5. Online learning will replace traditional schooling in the wake of the Covid-19
pandemic.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a talk about five green projects in China. What
does the speaker say about each of the issues? Choose five answers from the box and
write the correct letter, A-J, in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

A.The project capitalizes on the market forces to solve environmental pollution.


B. This architectural feat is created based on previous experience of similar constructions.
C. Recently, this project has been entirely accomplished, adding 1GW of the estimated
5.5 GW to the local electricity grid.
D. The purpose of the project is to increase the arability of land in the Gobi desert.
E. Located in a crowded coastal city, this construction has attracted more than 63 million
tourists, mainly from Korea and Japan.
F. In this project, an emitter is bound to produce a fixed amount of carbon into the
atmosphere.
G. There have been grave misgivings from the scientific community about the feasibility
of the project.
H. A combination of two buildings adorned with plants helps to solve air pollution in a
city.

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I. The construction is a marketing tactic spreading the image of a national icon.


J. The construction acts as an educational center enhancing visitors’ environmental
consciousness.

Five green projects


6. The Green Towers in Nanjing
7. The China Eden Project
8. The Datong Solar Power Top Runner Base
9. The carbon trading market
10. The Great Green Wall
Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to a radio interview in which two academics called
John Farrendale and Lois Granger, taking part in a discussion on the subject of
attitudes to work and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to
what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

11. Lois agrees with John's point that


A most people dread the prospect of unemployment.
B the psychological effects of unemployment can be overstated.
C some people are better equipped to deal with unemployment than others.
D problems arise when unemployment coincides with other traumatic events.

12. Lois agrees with the listener who suggested that


A work is only one aspect of a fulfilling life.
B voluntary work may be more rewarding than paid work.
C not everybody can expect a high level of job satisfaction.
D people should prepare for redundancy as they would for retirement.

13. What is John's attitude towards people who see work as a 'means to an end'?
A He doubts their level of commitment to the job.
B He accepts that they have made a valid choice.
C He fears it will lead to difficulties for them later.
D He feels they may be missing out on something important.
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14. When asked about so-called 'slackers' at work, John points out that
A they accept the notion that work is a necessary evil.
B people often jump to unfair conclusions about them.
C their views are unacceptable in a free labour market.
D such an attitude has become increasingly unacceptable.

15. Lois quotes the psychologist Freud in order to


A show how intellectual ideas have shifted over time.
B provide a contrast to the ideas of Bertrand Russell.
C question the idea that a desire to work is a natural thing.
D lend weight to John's ideas about increased social mobility

Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a talk about the history of chocolate and supply
the blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS
taken from the recording for each answer in the space provided.

HISTORY OF CHOCOLATE
16. Central and South America are the places where chocolate was first
_________________.
17. Liquid chocolate was traditionally added with water, chili or ___________________.
18. Chocolate was used in a wide range of events, from ______________________ to
burial.
19. Chocolate was already a tasty and gratifyingly bizarre ______________________
before the British realized its value.
20. Chocolate is reputed to maintain body warmth, create the pure blood cycle, preserve
the ______________________ and rejuvenate cardiovascular organ.
21. Chocolate was labelled as an ______________________ owing to its revitalizing
effect on female consumers.

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22. The poor was able to gain access to so-called “the food of the gods” because of the
transformation from ______________________ chocolate to cocoa powder.
23. The plummet in the price of sugar, coupled with intense rivalry among
______________________ corporations led to the rise in popularity of milk chocolate.
24. There was a huge variety of chocolate bars, boxes and shapes for
______________________ to pick up.
25. It is scientifically proven that dark chocolate which consists of caffeine, theobromine
and ______________________ could trigger happiness, great health and reductions in
stress

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PRACTICE TEST 16
Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a talk with the author of a book called The Dolphin
Way and decide whether these statements are True (T), False (F), or Not Given (NG).
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. According to the author, Gen Z are very familiar with digital technology and
computers because they have grown up with them.
2. Having a healthy diet will teach children how to find useful information and get rid of
junk stuff on the Internet.
3. Jellyfish and tiger parenting are opposite to each other and there cannot be any
compromise between them.
4. Most Gen Z need a strong sense of purpose in what they do as they are highly public-
spirited.
5. The new era requires every Gen Z to optimally make use of Google by asking the right
questions.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a talk about teeth. What is said about them?
Choose FIVE letters from A-J. Write the correct letter in the corresponding numbered
boxes provided. Your answers can be written in any order.
A. The accessories made from teeth that the Vikings put on were regarded as lucky
charms.
B. Barbers and blacksmiths had a knack for dentistry.
C. Only after the complete formation of the child set of teeth can the presence of wisdom
teeth be felt.
D. An average person has more adult teeth than milk teeth.
E. Grills and virtual filters can now serve to beautify teeth.
F. The majority of British mature people reported having dental filling at least seven
times during their life.
G. The substitution of toothpaste for natural parts has resulted in a lucrative industry.
H. Sharks have the ability to replenish their teeth once they are lost.
I. A 7-year-old boy was found to have 536 teeth inside his mouth.
J. In the Middle East, children used to be instructed to burn their baby teeth in order to
avoid hardship in the afterlife.

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Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. For questions 11-16, listen to part of an interview with two students called Jolie
and Alan about a TV series they watch called ‘The Sensing Brain’ and choose the
answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers
in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

11. What point is made about a good sense of smell?


A It is a natural ability that is hard to improve.
B Some people have a far better one than others.
C It can be developed in a similar way to other abilities.
D Some people exaggerate how poor theirs is.

12. What does Jolie say about describing perfumes?


A Experts use a vocabulary that is hard for people to understand.
B Some perfumes are too complex to be described.
C Ordinary people sometimes fail to use words appropriately.
D Some perfumes require a particularly specialist vocabulary.

13. What does Alan say about synthetic smells?


A They are able to mislead people into believing they are natural.
B They have a greater effect on people than natural ones.
C They are seen as more unpleasant than natural ones.
D They vary in their popularity with the public.

14. When talking about smell and the brain, Alan reveals
A his belief that humans have superior smelling abilities to some animals.
B his doubts about whether humans and animals should be compared.
C his suspicion of those who report on experiments in the media.
D his awareness of the problems of conducting accurate studies.

15. Alan and Jolie agree that listening to music while studying
A is beneficial if the music chosen is not too emotional.
B has an undesirable effect on their powers of concentration.

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C helps the mind to focus on things that are important.


D has different effects depending on the material being studied.

16. When talking about the next episode of the programme, Jolie shows that she
A is worried about the amount of information there is on the internet.
B has doubts about how good the internet is for people.
C believes the internet makes her own life more difficult.
D trusts in her brain’s capacity to evaluate information on the internet

Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.

Part 4. For questions 17-25, listen to an interview with Pfizer CEO Albert Bourla on
Covid-19 vaccine manufacturing outlook and supply the blanks with the missing
information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR NUMBERS taken from
the recording for each answer in the space provided.

Both Pfizer and Moderna may not suffer from intensified pressure in vaccine
manufacturing despite a soaring in the number of individuals who could become eligible
to get the vaccine. Instead, a ramp-up in alterations to administer more vaccines is
considered the 17______________________ at the moment. Pfizer CEO Albert Bourla
shared his confidence in the company’s ability to deliver the vaccines on time thanks to
the 18______________________ with the US government. This is viewed as a(n)
19______________________ contrast to the hitherto popular conception that vaccine
supply can be insufficient. For the time being, around 20______________________ have
been released. Because of a 21______________________ of an extra dose in the vial and
rising productivity in manufacturing, it is also possible to expect an increased pace of
vaccine output on a 22______________________ all year round. The six doses have
been submitted to all 23______________________ and already been approved by the
FDA, WHO, EU, Switzerland authorities, 24______________________ authorities etc.
Pfizer’s manufacturing team is now 25______________________ in virtually impossible
speeds.

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PRACTICE TEST 17
Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a talk about the struggles for independence in many
countries and decide whether these statements are True (T), False (F), or Not Given
(NG). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. Several Catalan politicians leading the independence movement were arrested for
holding the illegal referendum.
2. Most secessions across the globe come from ethnocultural groups who demand
independence for their homelands.
3. One of the prerequisites for a region to become a state is that it is recognized by other
states, according to the 1933 Montevideo Convention.
4. No country can simultaneously form diplomatic relations with both China and Taiwan.
5. The establishment of both Somaliland and Eritrea has led to civil wars in these newly-
formed countries.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a talk about journalism. What is said about it?
Choose FIVE letters from A-J. Write the correct letter in the corresponding numbered
boxes provided. Your answers can be written in any order.
A. Not only intense competition among the media but also emerging business models
originate from the Internet.
B. Journalism is grounded on the notion of freedom of expression.
C. People are captivated by the conflict and bias featured in online sources.
D. Technology provided by tech giants unwittingly results in unselective and unchecked
information.
E. Newspaper has always been a form of tax record.
F. Journalists employ the term “fake news” to accuse populist leaders and interest groups
of deceiving the general public.
G. Journalists should try to discount human input in their articles.
H. Heroic journalists expose child-related abuse perpetrated by paedophiles.
I. The history of journalism is in many ways defined by technological change.
J. Radio reports by BBC brought the atrocities of a civil war to the world.
Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

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Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to part of a discussion programme, in which a


teacher called Simon and a business journalist called Trina are talking about the issue
of change, and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you
hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

11. What does Simon say about change when discussing linguistic expressions?
A It is an inevitable part of life.
B It is generally perceived as unwelcome.
C Its significance has altered over time.
D It brings improvements when they're least expected.

12. What do they agree about change in the business community?


A It is regarded as synonymous with progress.
B It is seen as unfortunate but necessary.
C It never seems to be questioned.
D. It can lead to undesirable results.

13. What does Trina dislike about feedback forms?


A the scale of the reaction they can provoke
B the disharmony they can create within organisations
C the extent of their use in the world of education
D the justification they give to managers who want to introduce changes

14. When discussing day-to-day routines, Simon and Trina agree that people
A make too much fuss about small-scale changes.
B find that changes in the workplace mirror those in daily life.
C only like change that clearly benefits them personally.
D experience an ongoing cycle of resisting and accepting change,

15. In Simon's view, people will really enjoy an activity if


A they do it on a regular basis.
B they keep on changing it slightly.
C it represents a change for them.
D it coincides with their expectations..

Your answers
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11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a discussion on gender pay gap and supply the
blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken
from the recording for each answer in the space provided.
In response to the PM’s proposal on gender pay gap, several skeptics hold the conviction
that her point is mistaken since the 16______________________ recorded merely
indicates an upsurge in maternity leave. Psychologist Jordan Peterson, when asked what
his 17______________________ was to the PM’s motion, referred to the egalitarian
18______________________ between males and females. According to him, a minority
of men who have remunerative jobs can substantially 19______________________,
which is the rationale behind such a misapprehension about gender pay gap. One barrier
limiting women’s access to top occupations is the fixed 20______________________
involved. One obvious example is the predominance of males in a
21______________________, which requires employees to work
22______________________ of more than 10 hours per day. The comprehensive
explanation is women’s greater responsibility in childcare, yet it is still impossible to
23______________________ such burden. Mr. Jordan believed this could hardly be
considered gender stereotypes, as reducing 24______________________, including
25______________________, to solely one variable can be highly problematic.

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PRACTICE TEST 18
For questions 1-5, listen to a talk about private education and decide whether these
statements are True (T), False (F), or Not Given (NG). Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. Enrollment in private primary schools has registered greater increase compared with
that in private secondary schools over the last 15 years.
2. The demand for private schools stems from profound socio-economic changes.
3. Private education plays an important role in solving illiteracy in several massive states
in Pakistan.
4. Inclusivity is one noticeable factor that many private schools lack.
5. High levels of tuition fee in the private sector are understandable considering the high
quality of education that private schools offer.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a talk about lung cancer. What is said about it?
Choose FIVE letters from A-J. Write the correct letter in the corresponding numbered
boxes provided. Your answers can be written in any order.
A. Lung cancer is by far the leading cause of death among cancer patients.
B. Heavy smokers and former ones are the main targets of the US national lung-screening
trial.
C. Lung cancer remains a death penalty until further advances in screening can be
achieved.
D. Most nations rely on Nelson’s report to implement complete screening systems.
E. Women reap more benefits from screening than their male counterparts in terms of
reduced mortality rates.
F. Half a million US citizens underwent lung-screening trial every year for three years.
G. The invisibility of initial symptoms exacerbates the severity of the disease.
H. Biopsies are highly recommended for patients before being diagnosed positive with
cancer.
I. Treating the smallest nodules as positive could reduce the rate of false positives.
J. CT scans are a completely reliable method in diagnosing lung cancer.
Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

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Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to part of a programme in which Amanda and Peter,
two founders of a fruit juice company called Topfruit, talk about their business and
choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
11. What opinion is expressed about the way Topfruit was set up?
A It is surprising that it worked out so smoothly.
B Working with friends certainly saved time and energy.
C Having a single founder would have made the launch simpler.
D Since the founders had such similar views it was hard to allocate roles.

12. What is the positive culture of the company mainly attributed to?
A guaranteed salary increases
B the nature of the product that is being sold
C strict adherence to staff monitoring procedures
D certain criteria in the recruitment process

13. How do both founders feel about running their company now?
A They are fed up with dealing with daily problems.
B They feel anxious about whether its success will continue.
C They enjoy the challenges they face in their work.
D They feel pleased that they have acquired a good grasp of business.

14. When describing past mistakes in staffing, Amanda reveals


A her belief that good qualifications are the key factor.
B her acceptance that it is vital to admit failures early on.
C her trust that improvements can be made to the process.
D her fear that senior appointments are impossible to get right.

15. What gives Topfruit an advantage over its larger competitors?


A The emphasis on ingredients which fit market trends.
B The product research based on scientific models.
C The clarity of the labelling.
D The extremely sophisticated advertising.
Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

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Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a talk about gender equality and supply the
blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS taken
from the recording for each answer in the space provided.
An inspirational song titled 16______________________ is composed by singer and
activist Chris Williamson as an encouragement for females to go with their gut. Back in
history, a 17______________________, including Alice Paul and Lucy Burns, however,
were intent on pushing the gender equality campaigns forward. Among these campaigns
was an enormous parade held in 1913 March in Washington D.C, with the participation
of marchers, floats, bands, chariots, 18______________________, etc. There were also a
performance of 19______________________ at the Treasury building and a large public
meeting featuring eminent rhetoricians. Despite the presence of
20______________________, many male dissidents blatantly expressed their objections
to the campaign by spitting, flinging objects and 21______________________ at female
marchers. Undeterred by these obstacles, the National Women’s party was founded,
persevering in 22______________________, with an estimated 2000 women taking part
in the 23______________________ between January 9th 1917 and June 4th 1919. The
preposterous harassment and imprisonment of 33 females by police in 1917 was later
regarded by a 24______________________ as against the law. The rights were finally in
the hands of women thanks to the unrelenting efforts of more than fifty
25______________________ campaigns and hundreds of other campaigns.

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PRACTICE TEST 19
Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a talk about Going Zero Waste and decide whether
these statements are True (T), False (F) or Not Given (NG). Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. Going zero waste doesn’t necessarily mean completely eradicating trash.
2. While several factors prevent American cities from conducting zero waste initiatives
effectively, most American corporations actually ensure 100% of waste diverted away
from landfill.
3. Only Unilever, Procter & Gamble and Microsoft successfully apply innovative
strategies to reduce waste or power consumption.
4. UVQ carries out its zero waste initiative by changing the form of matter of trash with a
chemical converter.
5. One effortless way to reduce trash lies in our own lifestyles, not in any innovation or
machine.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a talk about diplomatic immunity. What is said
about it? Choose FIVE letters from A-J. Write the correct letter in the corresponding
numbered boxes provided. Your answers can be written in any order..
A. Most violations committed by diplomats can be overlooked.
B. A German man was to blame for his death in the accident of June 2017.
C. Host country is occasionally delegated prosecution from the convict’s home country.
D. Diplomats are allowed to carry out their duties with little regard for host countries’
legal systems.
E. The practice of diplomatic immunity originated from ancient Indian poetry.
F. Over 16 million dollars in fines to diplomats has not been settled yet.
G. Unsettled criminal case is one side effect of diplomatic immunity.
H. Thanks to diplomatic immunity, diplomats will not be subject to imprisonment and
execution for the rest of their life.
I. The Mongol Empire paid the price for violating agreements not to execute messengers.
J. The Vienna Convention stipulates that diplomats are not required to comply with their
host country’s laws.

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Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to an interview with a couple who work as
photographers in Africa and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best
according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes
provided.

11. Why do Bob and Hilary find it hard to organise their photographic trips?
A Ceremonies take place at irregular intervals.
B The information they receive is unreliable.
C The precise timing of events is unpredictable.
D Important messages may not reach them in time.

12. Hilary feels that she and Bob are accepted by the communities they visit because
A they don't rush into things.
B they make influential friends.
C they avoid getting involved with them
D they are able to explain their aims to them

13. When living with a group of people in a remote area, Bob and Hilary
A avoid adopting local eating habits.
B make a point of dressing in local clothes.
C depend on the hospitality of their hosts.
D take a supply of basic provisions with them.

14. Hilary explains that they gain access to very private ceremonies thanks to
A their persistent requests.
B changing attitudes in Africa.
C their long-term relationships with people.
D an acceptance of their role in the ceremonies.

15. Bob and Hilary feel that the significance of their work is that
A it will prevent certain traditions from dying out.
B it portrays traditional ceremonies in a positive way.

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C it encourages young Africans to appreciate their heritage.


D it allows comparisons with similar traditions elsewhere.

Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a talk about how farm animals are linked to
climate change and supply the blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE
THAN FOUR WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in the space
provided.
Vehicles and 16______________________ from heavy industry are universally viewed
as the two primary sources of greenhouse gas emissions, which accelerate climate
change. In Australia, methane from livestock, rather than cars or
17______________________, accounts for the third largest share of greenhouse gases.
Interviewed at a cattle sale in Braidwood, George Sheriff said the large amount of
methane emitted by livestock through 18______________________ or bottom birds
could be an enormous burden on farmers in case a carbon tax is imposed. The Rudd
Government, nevertheless, has recently spent lavishly on a research project aiming to
mitigate the influence of 19______________________. In fact, the vast majority of
methane is generated from the front end of the 20______________________ instead of
from the rear end as widely perceived. The frequency that people flatulate might increase
should they consume excessive 21______________________. Similarly, the production
of methane in livestock can speed up if they are put into a 22 ______________________
with unregulated diet. Indeed, besides the sequestering of gases by dung beetles, Martin’s
cattle also follow a self-regulating diet with salts, minerals, and
23______________________. His objections to the government’s research project was
shared by 24______________________ in the Senate- Barnaby Joycer, who dismissed
the program as a sort of 25______________________.

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PRACTICE TEST 20
For questions 1-5, listen to a talk about blockchain technology and decide whether
these statements are True (T), False (F), or Not Given (NG). Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. Decentralization is inherent to a blockchain system that has higher security than a
traditional bank.
2. Blockchain features immutability which ensures the safety of the transaction data.
3. Instead of relying on the third party, the validation of bitcoin transactions is confined
to participants from certain places.
4. Only by adopting blockchain technology can banks and companies keep up with the
growth rate of fintech startups.
5. Blockchain technology will prevent the government from abusing their power to
disadvantage their citizens.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a talk about five trends in the future of E-
commerce in 2021. What does the speaker say about each of the issues? Choose five
answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-J, in the corresponding numbered
boxes provided.
A. The approach helps to resolve a tough problem related to the process of taking orders
and sending products to customers.
B. Companies invest in the human touch as a novel way to enhance their brand image.
C. This solution is created in response to a change in web tracking and targeting method.
D. UX baseline is not required when more consumers are shifting to shopping online.
E. A successful brand is one that appears on the customers’ search, not the one that pops
up after an unbranded search.
F. Augmented reality helps users imagine how products look like on their bodies before
deciding whether to buy or not.
G. Customer retention involves repeated communication through general advertisements
on social media.
H. A product-based strategy makes sure that customers will be satisfied with the products
they’ve bought and will come back.
I. In the E-commerce world, the winners are the ones who can provide a simple and data-

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driven operating model.


J. This is a creative tool for a business to deal with returned products that can cause grave
damage.
Five trends
1. The omnichannel approach
2. The incorporation of AR
3. Stores becoming fulfillment centers
4. A new way for brand building
5. Brand loyalty enhancement
Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to part of a discussion in which a developer, Faye
Mannia, and an environmentalist, Peter Green, talk about a new government-run trial
and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
11 At the beginning of the discussion, it can be inferred that Faye believes the listeners
A are confident their government always acts wisely.
B are unfamiliar with current property values.
C may be biased against her point of view.
D have no knowledge of the trials whatsoever.

12 Peter says that the new government plan


A will lead to a reduction in the diversity of wildlife.
B has not been supported by a single scientist.
C should be delayed by at least ten years.
D may cause property prices to rise too quickly.

13 Faye mentions the iron ore mine in Brazil


A to point out that development is occurring on a global scale.
B to show the importance of increasing employment opportunities.
C to highlight the dangers of allowing poverty to spread.
D to illustrate the need to respond to changing priorities.

14 Peter fears that those involved in the new plan


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A will break the law and go unpunished.


B cannot be trusted to pay for the habitats they destroy.
C will use it to their advantage.
D are unlikely to make any compromises during negotiations.

15 Faye accuses environmentalists of


A using the media to attack developers.
B having a lack of foresight.
C not appreciating historic buildings.
D ignoring the wishes of the general public
Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a talk about climate change adaptation and
supply the blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in the space provided.
The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is oftentimes misperceived as the world’s fiscal
sponsor, the omniscient and practically immeasurable 16______________________ for
any suffering nations. Indeed, the drive behind this organization’s assistance is likened to
a 17______________________’s, which is nothing but pressurizing the hard-hit
countries to fulfill its requirements. Such a paradox can be seen in the case of Malawi in
1990s-2000s. Besides the HIV/AIDS epidemic that was diminishing overall life
expectancy and 18______________________, the South East Asian country was also
harshly deteriorated by a food shortage due to extreme weather. Under the IMF’s policy
conditions to the early 1990s 19______________________, Malawi had to sell off its
20______________________ to private companies while abandoning its agricultural
subsidy program. The IMF’s suspension of economic aid as a punishment against the
Malawi government for violating such commitments was heavily criticized, with Action
Aid’s 21______________________ of the food crisis being the accusation. In fact, the
emergency situations were completely overlooked by the organization’s rigid approach to
22______________________. It is by now crystal clear that IMF’s assistance was
intrinsically a loan at an 23______________________, an exchange for natural resources
and a vicious circle of corruption and inflation. Therefore, a handful of nations are
24______________________ this financial trap. Free market principles can be a cure for
everything if only 25______________________ the urgency to care for the best interests
of citizens.

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LISTENING PRACTICE FOR NATIONAL ENGLISH COMPETITION


PRACTICE TEST 21
Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a talk about five 5 Crazy Ways Social Media Is
Changing Your Brain Right Now. What does the speaker say about each of the issues?
Choose five answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-J, in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided.
A. Love is intensified by the factor of obscurity in the first meeting.
B. Egocentric people will be most happy when using social media to share their stories.
C. One’s ability to control himself is weakened when he or she is stimulated by rewards.
D. Knowing each other well in real life makes it easier to become close partners.
E. Whenever a phone buzzes, one is hardwired to make a subconscious response and
loses concentration on the present work.
F. This phenomenon is characterized by occasional auditory hallucinations.
G. A small phone buzz cannot interrupt your work if you concentrate enough to neglect
it.
H. Levels of a kind of neurotransmitter are expected to increase as a response to a
rewarding stimulus.
I. White matter in some brain regions that guide one’s consciousness can be triggered by
instant gratification.
J. Distractions become very subtle when one divides his focus on different activities.

Five psychological tendencies:


1. Cannot log off
2. Multi-tasking
3. Phantom vibration syndrome
4. Deriving happiness from being the centre of attention.
5. More successful partnerships
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a report on a natural disaster and answer the
questions. Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS taken from the recording for each
answer in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
6. What weather conditions was Orange Beach struggling with?
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7. What did a Category 2 hurricane turn into after one night?


8. What was the state of the boat docks after being hit by bloated waters?
9. How did strong winds damage a church in Alabama?
10. What weather conditions could be expected in many regions in the South East?
Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to an interview in which two academics, Julia Ford
and Stuart Cameron, discuss human memory, and choose the answer (A, B, C or D)
which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes provided.

11. Julia and Stuart both think that concerns about the reliability of shared memories are
A. over-emphasised in some studies. B. reasonable in some situations.
C. underestimated by some psychologists. D. unfounded in legal contexts.

12. What surprised Stuart about how older couples remembered information?
A. the marked difference in the success of their approach
B. the few signs of personal disagreement
C. the great variety in the memories recalled
D. the evidence of the use of similar processes.

13. Julia and Stuart agree that the least effective sharing of memories occurred when one
person
A. ignored the knowledge of the other person.
B. tried to control the direction of the conversation.
C. knew a lot more about the topic than the other person.
D. contradicted information given by the other person.

14. Julia contrasts humans with animals in order to


A. illustrate human social independence.
B. suggest humans abuse their privileges.
C. emphasise the carelessness of some humans.
D. explain how humans are vulnerable.

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15. When talking about the nature of change in human memory, Julia and Stuart reveal
A. their respect for art history.
B. their insistence on scientific evidence.
C. their interest in cultural explanations.
D. their differences regarding philosophical claims.

Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a talk about a special plant called bladderwort
and supply the blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in the space provided.
BLADDERWORT
16. The unsurpassable speed of bladderworts derives from their exclusive and intricate
______________.
17. Bladderwort is second to _______________ for the title "euphemism of the year."
18. This genus of carnivorous plants can be found in anywhere with shallow water or
______________.
19. The external glamour of bladderworts lies in their ______________.
20. ______________ are inevitable for bladderworts to capture their targets swiftly.
21. The jargon "hair trigger" well explains how this plant can catch its preys with a
______________.
22. The bladder is known to be ______________, and this characteristic facilitates the
operation of the trap.
23. One type of glands produces ______________ to decompose the prey while the other
is responsible for pumping water.
24. Scientists seem to have difficulty in distinguishing ______________ microorganisms
from preys.
25. A certain category of bladderwort, which can be nurtured by humans, is described as
______________ by the speaker.

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PRACTICE TEST 22
Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a talk about five inventions that changed the world.
What does the speaker say about each of the inventions? Choose five answers from the
box and write the correct letter, A-J, in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

A. This invention marked the height of a momentous era - a transition towards modernity.
B. A man invented this equipment because he found it difficult to effectively load goods
onto his truck.
C. This invention gave rise to the construction of one of the basic components of the
infrastructure.
D. The initial motivation for this invention was to create better information exchange
between computer manufacturers, but it flourished beyond this.
E. The idea of this invention started when people found it difficult to move horse carts
around.
F. This invention does not only transform several aspects of human life in a superficial
way.
G. This invention had an enormous impact on the transformation of global education.
H. The first attempt failed to work because the inventor used a false tool.
I. This invention has mechanical components that make it attachable to its counterparts.
J. This invention was created to facilitate the process of gathering agricultural produce.

Top five inventions:


1. ISO shipping container
2. The light bulb
3. The wheel
4. The printing press
5. The Internet

Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a talk about the future of power and answer the
questions. Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS taken from the recording for each
answer in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
6. What is the position of Saudi Arabia in the oil cartel?
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7. Which technology has helped the United States to take advantage of oil reserves?
8. What are multiple nations trying to seek for?
9. What is the adjective used to describe two environmentally-friendly sources of
energy?
10. What should be established across borders to boost the efficiency of renewable
energy sources?
Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to part of an interview with two British architects,
Malcolm Fletcher and Alison Brooks, about the design of new low-cost housing, and
choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
11. What view is expressed about the government's plans to build houses on greenfield
sites?
A. Opposition groups are unlikely to have any real influence.
B. It may be possible to create space by demolishing some existing buildings.
C. There is a more important priority than preserving the countryside.
D. New developments should show continuity with what has gone before.

12. What does Malcolm regard as special about the Newhall housing development in
Essex?
A. the involvement of local people in the planning process
B. the unusual attitude of the original landowners
C. the good relationship between the builders and the architect
D. the freedom given to the designers

13. The aspect of Margaret Gibbs's houses which both Alison and Malcolm appreciate is
A. their visual appeal. B. their generous dimensions.
C. their structural strength. D. their internal layout.

14. When designing the space around the Essex houses, Margaret Gibbs
A. attempted to integrate homes with recreational areas.
B. conceded to the general demand for a garden.
C. allowed a bigger external area than usual.

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D. aimed to safeguard the inhabitants' privacy.

15. What do Malcolm and Alison agree about the aesthetic qualities of buildings?
A. Architectural form may sometimes take precedence over function.
B. Beauty is an intrinsic aspect of good architecture.
C. There is little consensus concerning what constitutes good style.
D. Popular notions of good taste inevitably change over time.
Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a talk about a revolution of art and supply the
blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken
from the recording for each answer in the space provided.
A REVOLUTION OF ART
16. While ______________ music originated in the 1960s, the style of art synonymous
with this kind of music derived from an art movement initiated in the late 1800s.
17. The movement was called with different names, for example, ______________ in
Austria.
18. This “new art” was an admixture of many factors namely: flat, decorative patterns;
organic and ______________; and feminine figures.
19. The 1960s, as well as the late 1800s, could be deemed as a period of
______________.
20. Plain typeface and a ______________ failed to capture the attention of the audience,
so the introduction of high-quality posters is necessary to advertise the new generation of
hippie bands.
21. The mid-60s was witnessing the rejuvenation of ______________.
22. Feminine figures in such new style of art feature nudity, flowing hair and a
______________.
23. Some designers in this new art tended to alter the ______________ from original
images.
24. The “vibrancy” reflected in the eyes of beholders could refer to the experience of
______________.
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PRACTICE TEST 23
Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a talk about five 5 ways to stop getting distracted.
What does the speaker say about each of the solutions? Choose five answers from the
box and write the correct letter, A-J, in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

A. A disciplined approach to social media usage should be adopted to handle spontaneous


desire.
B. The speaker would complete the remained tasks on his daily to-do list on another day
if he couldn’t complete them on one day.
C. Diffidence in self-control can make our resistance to technology addiction worse.
D. Based on how much control you have over a transitional activity, this stage can be
distinguished from a distraction.
E. You shouldn’t use social media or check your emails when you are in a bad mood.
F. When internal triggers occur and get heightened, ignore them until they disappear.
G. If we think that we are more powerful than technology, then it will become less
important for our life.
H. Introspective experience helps you deal better with annoying inner impulses.
I. The speaker used to draft his daily duties without a predetermined timeline.
L. Liminal moments should be disposed of whenever they are consciously noticed.

Five ways to stop getting distracted:


1. Plan your day
2. Use social media and email at set times
3. Surf the urge
4. Beware of liminal moments
5. Remember you’re not powerless

Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to an interview with Angela Rasmussen, a virologist
at the Vaccine and Infectious Disease Organization at the University of Saskatchewan
and decide whether these statements are True (T), False (F) or Not Given (NG). Write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

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6. The UK government will be implementing the plan B strategy to fight against the new
strain of Delta variant.
7. The subvariant has two additional mutations, which demonstrates why it is growing so
quickly in the UK.
8. The UK has witnessed a substantial increase in the percentage of this particular
subvariant.
9. The UK has a more robust genomic surveillance program than many other countries.
10. The subvariant shows greater resistance to antibodies than the original Delta variant.
Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to a report on the use of artificial intelligence (AI)
in building a more sustainable food system and answer the following questions with
NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS. Write your answers in the space provided.
11. What does Brightseed look for by using artificial intelligence?
_____________________________________________________________
12. How does SomaDetect in Canada generate relevant data for dairy farmers?
_____________________________________________________________
13. What field has received more financial support as a result of limited agricultural
workforce?
_____________________________________________________________
14. What product is the AI-generated flavour created for?
_____________________________________________________________
15. In addition to ecosystem diversity, what factor can challenge the application of AI in
agriculture?
_____________________________________________________________

Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a talk about A brief history of cannibalism and
supply the blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in the space provided.

A BRIEF HISTORY OF CANNIBALISM


16. ______________ was the basic ingredient of mumia, a so-called elixir in Europe.in
the 15th century.

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17. There were rumours that the Caribs ______________before turning inmates into
meals.
18. Columbus pigeonholed anyone who defied his ______________ as a Caribe.
19. The word “Carib” was first used by colonizers to ______________.
20. Survival cannibalism refers to incidents when people resort to eating human flesh or
internal organs to tide themselves over during a famine, ______________ or a cursed
journey.
21. An example of medicinal cannibalism can be found in the way bodies from Egyptian
mummies and ______________ were stolen in the fifteenth century.
22. While blood was used as a remedy for a special neurological disorder, other internal
organs were treated as ______________.
23. A form of flesh-eating that occurred in families in China is called ______________
cannibalism.
24. Another practice of cannibalism named ______________was the result of cultural
precepts from a group of ethnic people in Oceania.
25. People have not identified the true root of cannibalism, whether the legitimate
customs, limits of human understanding or ______________.

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PRACTICE TEST 24

Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a talk about the complex changes of human body
after death and decide whether these statements are True (T), False (F) or Not Given
(NG). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. Primary flaccidity is a condition in which muscles become firm and difficult to bend.
2. Casper’s law states that if all other factors are equal, a body will take twice the time to
decompose in water than it would in air.
3. Zoroastrians nowadays choose to burn dead bodies instead of traditionally exposing
them to the Sun and scavenging birds.
4. Burial costs have increased exponentially over the years and many people can only
afford simple burials.
5. The remains resulting from the practice of promession can be in organic form.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a report on tornadoes hitting Midwest and answer
the questions. Write NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS taken from the recording for
each answer in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
6. Which factors make the devastating storms stronger?
7. What can be recorded in the state of Wincosin in one day?
8. How do high waters affect transportation in Pennsylvania?
9. What have been issued across the Midwest and the northeast?
10. What is expected to regain strength upon heading towards Florida?
Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to a radio programme in which two people, Janet
Jennings and Hal Brentford, are discussing corporate tax rates and choose the answer
(A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided.
11. Hat suggests that
A records show businesses pay more tax than the media suggests.
B low tax rates attract skilled workers to the country.

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C businesses pay the government a tot of indirect taxes.


D businesses bring benefits that warrant the low tax rates.

12. Janet implies attracting desirable foreign investment is


A dependent more on workforce characteristics than corporate tax.
B not critical to the long-term success of the economy.
C more likely if tax rates are slightly increased.
D going to require workforce retraining and upskilling.

13. According to Hat, if business rates increased.


A established companies like his might leave.
B the country might not attract as much new foreign investment.
C the skilled workforce might move elsewhere.
D local businesses might struggle to compete.

14. Why does Janet mention corruption levels, productivity and infrastructure?
A to highlight areas for improvement
B to highlight the negative effects of low corporation taxes
C to suggest other factors of competitiveness outweigh business tax rates
D to suggest where increased tax revenues could be spent

15. Hal believes that raising the corporate tax rate could
A have a devastating impact on the economy.
B cause potential investors to lose confidence.
C have an impact on levels of corruption in the country.
D be more damaging in the short- than long-term

Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a talk about the history of the modern hamburger
and supply the blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN FOUR
WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in the space provided.
The hamburger, often regarded as a (16) ______________________________ and recent
innovation, has its roots

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centuries earlier.
The earliest known version of hamburgers contained (17)
___________________________ , wine and several seasonings. The making of these
burgers signified (18) _________________________________ and earned them
recognition in various medieval recipes.
The idea of minced meat burgers officially entered (19) ___________________________
by around 1700 and featured largely in dishes such as roast meats.
By the end of the 19th century, hamburgers eventually appeared in America, and the
name for its version came from (20) ______________________________.
Factory workers in the US enjoyed hamburgers that were served in bread rolls, with
accompaniments like (21) ____________________ and ____________________.
Unlike their street version counterparts, the White Castle’s hamburgers were promoted as
(22) ______________________________.
American burgers first made their way into the UK in 1954, shortly after the country had
been (23) ______________________________.
Despite being well received at first, burgers were soon to be seen as (24)
________________________ and an ordinary takeout.
As the 2013’s horsemeat scandal shows, (25) ______________________________ were
often used for low-quality burgers in order to save production costs

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PRACTICE TEST 25
Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a talk about the history of Gin, an alcoholic
beverage, and decide whether these statements are True (T), False (F) or Not Given
(NG). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. The origin of Gin as a spirit can be traced to Arabian alchemists in the ninth century.
2. Gin could be used to help people seek solace in their daily lives.
3. In the 1700s, this special drink was levied as a means to improve the lives of people.
4. The invention of carbonated water helped Gin become more commercialized.
5. Gin’s popularity has become on the wane, but the reasons that make it popular in the
past remain valid today.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a talk about five most dangerous animals in the
world. What does the speaker say about each of the animals? Choose five answers from
the box and write the correct letter, A-I, in the corresponding numbered boxes
provided.
A. This creature has a knack for obscuring themselves.
B. This creature is often misperceived as mild and docile.
C. This creature is famous for using its eye-catching appearance to attract preys.
D. This creature has a tendency to knock off others fast and aggressively in response to
sudden provocation.
E. Despite its fearsome reputation, horror stories in certain traditions about this creature
are mostly fabricated.
F. This creature tends to be underestimated when it comes to predation capacity.
G. This creature has been pigeonholed as a God in some regions in Africa.
H. It is the most dangerous nocturnal creature in the world due to its affinity for dead
bodies.
I. The immediate effects of bites from this creature are caused by envenomation.

6. Black Mamba
7. Komodo Dragon
8. Hippopotamus
9. Hyena
10. Stonefish
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Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. For questions 11-16, listen to a report on wildfires taking toll on Oregon
firefighters and answer the questions. Write NO MORE THAN SIX WORDS taken
from the recording for each answer in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
11. What were dropped by firefighters and planes to put out a major wildfire in southern
Oregon?
12. What does the number 227 000 refer to?
13. Besides tiredness, what feeling does Garrett Souza, a firefighter, experience?
14. What agency reported the damage caused by wildfires?
15. What is the direct cause of increasingly prevalent and extreme wildfires?
16. What indicator was recorded at the highest of five-tier scale?
Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.

Part 4. For questions 17-25, listen to a talk about a mathematical model and supply the
blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS taken
from the recording for each answer in the space provided.
Alan Turing is mainly remembered for his feat of breaking the 17.
______________________ in the Second World War. He also contributed to our
understanding of the recurring development of patterns and shapes in biological
organisms, for instance, a Hydra’s 18. ______________________ pattern arranged in
whorls. In 1952, an article entitled 19. ______________________ was published, in
which a mathematical model termed the 20. ______________________ was introduced
to analyze natural patterns. This model could also account for the patterns found in plants
on a landscape, weather systems and the 21. ______________________. Unfortunately,
he committed suicide after being charged with 22. ______________________ and could
not witness his theory being proved. In 2012, his model was applied to explain why
digits, fundamentally a series of stripes, appeared in the 23. ______________________
of mouse embryos. In this case, three genes are involved in the process, creating either
digits or 24. ______________________. It is suggested that this mathematical genius
should be commemorated as a 25. ______________________ for his contributions to our
new outlooks.
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PRACTICE TEST 26
Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a talk about why some people have wanderlust and
decide whether these statements are True (T), False (F), or Not Given (NG). Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. Wanderlust originates from German, literally meaning a strong desire to travel and
experience the unknown.
2. The 7R variant of the DRD4 gene is linked to lower dopamine sensitivity, thereby
discouraging people from taking risks or seeking for sensation.
3. Genetics is the most important factor to differentiate between a thrill-seeker and a
homebody.
4. People tend to compare themselves to the better-off rather than the worse-off.
5. The quote by Jack Kerouac implies that venturing to distant lands makes our life more
meaningful.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to an interview with Daphne Lambert, who went on
an unusual kind of cycling trip in Spain and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which
fits best according to what you hear. Write the correct letter in the corresponding
numbered boxes provided.
6. What motivated Daphne to participate in the cycle ride?
A She read an article inviting donations to a charity.
B She decided to use her cycling skills to raise money for charity.
C She wanted to encourage the production of organic food in the UK.
D She needed convincing of the importance of organic food in our diet.
7. What were the participants' feelings when they first met each other?
A They were eager to share their doubts about the coming ride.
B They felt embarrassed to admit how much training they had done.
C They were optimistic about how well they would get on together.
D They felt worried about being unprepared for what lay ahead.
8. What initial problem did Daphne encounter in Spain?
A She was so saddle sore that she couldn't get on her bike.
B She was unable to take her bike on a practice ride.
C She found it extremely difficult to get off her bike.
D She found the design of her bike unfamiliar.
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9. What gave the cyclists a false sense of security?


A the beautiful scenery
B the police escort
C the descent from the first summit
D the height of the first hill
10. According to Daphne, the cycle ride itself was
A an enchanting and magical trip.
B an experience with many difficulties.
C a gastronomic adventure.
D a challenge no one was up to.
Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. For questions 11-16, listen to a talk about the future of farming and answer the
questions. Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS taken from the recording for each
answer in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
11. What will play an important role in feeding the growing population in the next twenty
years?
12. What can be trained to kill weeds or spray pesticides?
13. What devices can help farmers stay informed about vegetation growth?
14. What indicators of soil health can be analyzed by a robotic platform called BoniRob?
15. What can be examined by Agribotix’s software to monitor plant health?
16. In the plane-mounted system unveiled by Mavrx, what are installed in each aircraft to
capture large farms?
Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.

Part 4. For questions 17-25, listen to a talk about a writer and supply the blanks with
the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS OR NUMBERS
taken from the recording for each answer in the space provided.
- Dickens's work had a voluminous success with three iconic characters, namely an old
maid, a starving orphan and a 17. ______________________.
- Before being officially filed as books, serialization had his stories printed in 18.
______________________ as a way to capture the attention of readers.
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- Dickens's finesse in using words could be reflected via 19. ______________________


and peculiar figures.
- In Dickens's works, characters possessed the names mirroring their traits, and were set
against 20. ______________________.
- Dickens experienced living and working in a dirty living space when he worked for a
21. ______________________ as a child.
- Stories such as Nicholas Nickleby and Oliver Twist portray contemporary life as 22.
______________________.
- A dualistic space in Dickens's works can be found in Great Expectations where the
protagonist was saved from indigence by an 23.______________________.
- Only one novel of Charles Dickens ended without 24.______________________.
- Charles Dickens's wit is stated to resound boisterously throughout adaptations, novels
and 25.______________________.

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PRACTICE TEST 27
Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a talk about the science of motivation and decide
whether these statements are True (T), False (F), or Not Given (NG). Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. Given that the majority of people fall short of accomplishing their New Year’s
resolutions just after one month, keeping one’s motivation can be deemed as a
challenging task.
2. The study conducted by MIT suggests that rewards are more inclined to impair
cognitive tasks than those requiring physical agility.
3. When people are offered rewards for a previously unrewarded performance, changes in
their brain activities can be identified.
4. Mental contrasting, the strategy that aims to wipe out negative concerns about
impending setbacks, is the key to achieving goals.
5. The what-the-hell effect describes the feeling of being guilty and the willpower to
correct the mistake after having overindulged.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a report on a medical breakthrough and answer
the questions. Write NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS taken from the recording for
each answer in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
6. Given the patient's health status, what did the transplant really grant him?
7. What could the genetic alterations of the pig alleviate?
8. What problem can be mitigated if xenotransplantation proves effective?
9. What are mentioned as a roaring success in the field of xenotransplantation?
10. What are future transplants expected to not involve?
Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. For questions 11-16, listen to an interview with two experts on technology and
learning and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you
hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
11. What does Michael say about online learning?
A It appeals to a greater variety of learning styles.
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B It enables learning to suit the needs of the individual.


C It may one day replace the traditional school system.
D It allows us to choose the subjects we study.

12. When discussing the Khan Academy, Michael and Helen agree that it
A focuses only on mastering a specific subject, like maths.
B offers a generous amount of teaching and practice.
C has brought education to huge numbers of people.
D is less effective in generating original thought.

13. TED serves as an example of a site


A whose speakers provide amusing, factual talks.
B whose original focus has changed over time.
C which offers extended lectures in various subjects.
D which presents the same speakers every year.

14. Both Michael and Helen agree that schools


A are too rigid in the choice of subjects taught.
B are not tolerant of independent thinkers.
C educate children for the present, not the future.
D underestimate the importance of failure in learning.

15. What conclusions about gaming do Michael and Helen reach?


A It provides relief from difficult everyday issues.
B It generates cooperation between participants.
C It can be a huge source of knowledge.
D Its competitive aspect can become addictive.

16. When discussing the potential of gaming, Helen reveals that she is
A surprised at the abilities it develops in gamers.
B excited about the endless possibilities.
C doubtful about our ability to see the bigger picture.
D concerned about the time gamers spend online
Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.

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Part 4. For questions 17-25, listen to a talk about innovations in the climate science
and supply the blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in the space provided.
To reduce the reliance on fossil fuels, the major cause of 17.______________________
in Madagascar, Dr Pascal Safid invented a machine creating an alternative known as
18.______________________. This type of biofuel is in the form of
19.______________________, small in size and made from grass which is both
renewable and regenerative.
A professor in Australia is 20.______________________ carbon drawdown initiative
which aims to protect our ocean, the 21.______________________, from being polluted
by different underwater sources of carbon emissions such as seaweeds, mangals, seagrass
beds and 22.______________________.
By combining new materials such as perovskite or 23.______________________, a type
of III-V semiconductor, with the silicon in the field of 24.______________________, a
German scientist has successfully created multi-junction solar cells to replace standard
solar cells. The use of state-of-the-art materials allows the absorbance of a broader
25.______________________, hence improving energy conversion efficiency from
sunlight .

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PRACTICE TEST 28
Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a talk about the science of productivity and decide
whether these statements are True (T), False (F), or Not Given (NG). Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. Ego depletion refers to the idea that willpower draws upon a limited pool of mental
resources.
2. The Zeigarnik Effect suggests that a large project should be split up into smaller tasks
to avoid being interrupted or unfinished.
3. The example of elite musicians demonstrates that it is worth centering all of your
thoughts on your tasks in certain periods of time.
4. Those who strictly follow a diet often draw up an accountability chart to monitor their
progress.
5. A useful tip to maintain the pursuit of several tasks at the same time is making a to-do
list.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a report on a space mission and answer the
questions. Write NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS taken from the recording for each
answer in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. What is the space mission aimed at trialling?
2. What will the spacecraft do when it reaches the asteroid?
3. What is Dimorphos in relation to Dirimos?
4. What will be carefully observed by scientists?
5. Besides an onboard camera, what will be used to collect the images of the journey?
Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to an interview with a famous scientist, Marcus
Goran, and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you
hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
11. Marcus says that in order to make ground-breaking discoveries, scientists need
_____.
A. to set themselves ambitious targets
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B. to find satisfaction in the process itself


C. to keep minor achievements in perspective
D. to accept that few will share their passions
12. Marcus implies that high-quality science occurs when scientists _____.
A. have confidence in their predictions
B. are able to avoid potential disasters
C. face challenges in the hope of making significant advances
D. go through with what they have already planned
13. Marcus uses the metaphor of the painter to show that _____.
A. science is a cumulative process.
B. science is only partially creative.
C. science requires a critical audience.
D. science requires both skill and vision.
14. Why does Marcus liken ground-breaking science to rock-climbing?
A. Each involves working without much support.
B. A great deal is expected of participants in both.
C. Both require a high level of specialised training.
D. Each involves a comparable set of procedures.
15. What does Marcus feel about rules in science?
A. Most of them remain to be discovered.
B. Some have been formulated prematurely.
C. Too much emphasis is placed on them.
D. Some are too complicated to be useful.
Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a talk about recent medical breakthroughs and
supply the blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in the space provided.
Inspired by a new type of bacteria that can 16.______________________, Professor
Simone Schuler and her team could effectively control the transport of liquids which
takes place within the 17.______________________. This breakthrough paves the way
for more targeted drug delivery in the human body, something that is still
18.______________________ her as she confesses.

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By embedding a unique 19.______________________ into a miniature soft robot,


Professor Martin can create a type of robot with different 20.______________________.
This milestone in robotics could be further applied to complex medical purposes such as
21._____________________ and the process of administering pharmaceutical
compounds or circulating fluids.
Associate Professor Michelle Monje has discovered that brain tumors wire into a network
of 22._____________________, leading to what is called 23._____________________
which plays a crucial role in the development of certain brain cancers.
A scientist in Helsinki has come up with a novel idea to spot tumours in the body by
24._____________________ viruses, thereby tricking the immune system into thinking
that tumours are infections and activating 25._____________________ to respond.

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PRACTICE TEST 29
Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to an interview with a reporter about a popular show
and decide whether these statements are True (T), False (F) or Not Given (NG). Write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. Squid Game is predicted to become the most-viewed non-English language programme
worldwide.
2. The show revolves a contest in which indebted players risk their lives to play a series
of children's games for the chance to win a bundle.
3. The key to the show’s resounding success lies in its tremendous fanbase and word-of-
mouth strategy.
4. The reporter admits that a particular mistranslation of a context in the series has
spoiled the enjoyment of the viewers.
5. Though the creator had initially written the drama ten years ago, he was unable to find
a production company to fund the idea due to its inappropriate content.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a report on an unusual species and answer the
questions. Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS or NUMBERS taken from the
recording for each answer in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
6. What is mentioned as a trait of this species besides multiple body segments, a beak,
and an unusual head?
7. What does an associate professor liken the species to?
8. What software was used to tally up the legs of the species?
9. What does the species need to do to barrel tight spaces underground?
10. In what particular site in Brazil had several unknown invertebrates been found?
Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. For questions 11-16, listen to part of a discussion between two psycholinguists,
Dr Amanda Jeffries and Dr Tadeo Mendoza, who are talking about what it means to be
bilingual and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you
hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

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11. What definition of bilingualism do Amanda and Tadeo agree on?


A. Learning two languages in childhood and switching from one to another with ease.
B. Having equal ability in two languages, learnt either in childhood or later in life.
C. Knowing two languages, probably at different levels of proficiency, and up to the
competence necessary for successful communication.
D. True bilingualism is like having two monolinguals in one person.
12. Which of these statements about bilinguals and written language would Amanda not
agree with?
A. The main reason bilinguals often can’t write in one of their languages is because they
haven’t been taught.
B. There is no reason why a bilingual shouldn’t speak and write both languages fluently.
C. Different scripts can be a factor in not learning to write both languages.
D. If bilinguals don’t have a need to write in one of their languages, they are less likely to
learn it.
13. What is ‘language attrition’?
A. The loss of your second language due to lack of use.
B. The loss of either your first or second language because of lack of use.
C. The loss of any language previously spoken because of lack of use.
D. The loss of your mother tongue due to emigration.
14. Why aren’t bilinguals necessarily good at translating from one of their languages to
the other?
A. They might not be able to write in both languages.
B. They might not have learnt the skills needed for translating or have equal proficiency
in both languages.
C. They might only have learnt one language at school and therefore lack the technical
language needed for translating.
D. They may be insufficiently educated in one or other of their languages.
15. Why did people used to think learning two languages from early on might be
damaging?
A. The developing brain would be damaged and language acquisition delayed.
B. The brain would be stretched too far by two languages.
C. The child would become hopelessly confused and stop speaking altogether.
D. The child would end up having an insufficient vocabulary in both languages.
16. Why do Tadeo and Amanda think mixing languages isn’t detrimental?
A. Mixing languages creates new, dynamic languages like Spanglish and Hinglish.
B. People who mix languages with others who speak the same languages don’t seem to
have a problem with speaking to other monolinguals.
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C. Mixing languages is detrimental to the purity of each language and can cause
communication problems.
D. If people mix languages all the time, they forget how to speak each language properly.
Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16.

Part 4. For questions 17-25, listen to a talk about recent technological breakthroughs
and supply the blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN FIVE
WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in the space provided.

NEW TECHNOLOGIES OF 2021


Aerospace technologies
- While the aerospace industry is anticipated to make continual improvements, aerospace
innovations might be developed 17_____________________.
- 18______________________ has been proven to be an excellent solution for producing
components.
5G networks
- Improvements offered by the fifth-generation cellular network technology will give
businesses access to 19______________________, which are increasingly critical to
business operations.
- While Qualcomm will make a big push to bring 5G to more affordable phones, top
mobile firms have already been 20______________________ 5G phones.
- The global 5G services market size is estimated to reach $41.48 billion by 2020 and
expand at a compound annual growth rate of 43.9% from 2021 to 2027.
Edge computing
- Deploying edge computing is a trend shared by virtually all industries as it optimizes
network efficiency.
- Edge computing solutions range from 21______________________ to high
performance edges.
- The edge analytics market is expected to grow at a CAGR of more than 30% over the
period 2016-2021.
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Extended reality
- Extended reality technologies will help people avoid dangerous situations in which
22______________________ may be inherent.
- The virtual reality market is forecast to reach $57 billion by 2021.
Human augmentation
- This technology revolutionizes the way humans will function and open endless
possibilities to enhance physical health such as 23______________________ for throat
or bionic human joints.
- The human augmentation market is estimated to grow at a significant rate between 2020
and 2026.
Artificial intelligence
- This technology has already established itself as one of the most
24______________________ nowadays.
- More complex 25______________________ will be developed to design efficient
solutions to real-life problems.
- Worldwide spending on cognitive and artificial intelligence systems is forecast to reach
$57.6 billion in 2021.

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PRACTICE TEST 30
Part 1. For questions 1-5, listen to a milestone in the field of nuclear-fusion energy and
decide whether these statements are True (T), False (F), or Not Given (NG). Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. After years of little progress, obtaining a burning plasma state in the lab is a major
stride towards turning fusion energy into a sustainable energy source.
2. The self-heating process was the secret behind the success of the experiment, which
spit out such a large amount of power.
3. Ignition refers to the point at which the fuel is self-heating more rapidly than it is
cooling.
4. Nuclear fission is a more efficient source of energy than burning fossil fuels.
5. This is the first time the optimal conditions for the fusion reactions to occur are
thoroughly understood.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a report on a popular series and answer the
questions. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or NUMBERS taken from the
recording for each answer in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. On what reviewing platform does Squid Game earn a perfect critics' score of 100 per
cent?
2. How can the series, to a lesser extent, be characterized as being?
3. What have Korean cultural exports achieved in the US?
4. What facilitated the storytelling of the series, which was both unique and captivating?
5. Besides being a source of extreme gruesomeness, what function does the series serve?
Your answers
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to part of a conversation between two friends who
have just attended a workshop for people who want to increase their self-esteem and
choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

11. Following the workshop, both speakers seem to agree that


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A. they are looking forward to applying what they learnt.


B. they are likely to become unrecognizable to their family and friends.
C. the woman’s therapist would have disagreed with a lot of what they heard.
D. improving self-esteem is not something you can learn how to do.

12. What view is expressed about fear?


A. Some forms of fear are easier to overcome than others
B. It is something we must learn to face up to.
C. Being afraid forces you to take control of situations.
D. To develop self-esteem you must first be fearless

13. In the man’s opinion,


A. being unduly apologetic may let others take advantage of you.
B. being fair to others will boost your feeling of self-worth.
C. apologizing always increases your feelings of self-doubt.
D. there’s no point in saying sorry to people you don’t respect

14. What does the woman suggest about self-criticism?


A. It’s always harmful even if you rephrase it in a more positive way.
B. It can have a debilitating effect on your self-image.
C. Being self-critical is a habit she feels confident she can get out of.
D. It’s beneficial to be aware of our faults before others point them out.

15. According to the speakers, what did the workshop leader imply about accomplished
friends?
A. Our relationship with them is proof of our own merit.
B. We should end our relationship with people who we think are too good for us.
C. Comparing ourselves to others is bound to leave us feeling worthless.
D. Only when we are more confident will we see our friends’ real faults.

Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

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Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a talk about the mechanisms of a perfect vacuum
and supply the blanks with the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN FIVE
WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in the space provided.

Matter and energy exist almost everywhere in the universe, from numerous particles and
16_____________________ travelling freely through space to the presence of hydrogen
in large, empty 17_____________________.
The idea of an empty area lays the foundation for the mechanism of a vacuum cleaner, in
which matter is sucked in to 18_____________________. More advanced applications of
the vacuum technology include incandescent light bulbs which contain vacuums to
prevent 19_____________________ from being burnt or vacuum packing to maintain
food freshness.
Creating a vacuum for the 20_____________________ is more challenging as particle
beams should travel at approximately the speed of light without colliding with
21_____________________. The pipes need to be covered with special coatings and
22_____________________ would be the perfect material option.
The most fundamental building blocks of our universe are quantum fields, which are
actually 23_____________________. These fields always have a vacuum fluctuation
even without particles to 24_____________________. After the Big Bang, quantum
fluctuations were 25_____________________ to a dimensionless scale factor as a result
of the expansion of the universe.

KEY AND EXPLANATION


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