PW Only IAS Prelims 2024 Test 1 With Solution

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Prelims Wallah
Test
Test-1 of 38
(Polity NCERT)
TARGET 2024
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Prelims Wallah Test 2024

Test 1: Polity NCERT Test
1. Consider the following statements regarding 3. The vision of an independent political
the Parliamentary system of government in existence is an important feature of a
India: national identity.
1. The President is the head of state. How many of the statements given above are
2. The Prime Minister is usually the leader correct?
of the majority political party in the (a) Only one
legislature. (b) Only two
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) All three
correct? (d) None
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 4. In the context of Indian Polity, consider the
(c) Both 1 and 2 following statements:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Statement-I: The principles of Liberty,
Equality and Justice are part of the trinity of
2. Which one of the following statements is not Democracy.
correct about Freedom? Statement-II: Without equality, liberty would
(a) It enables one to pursue one’s interests . produce the supremacy of the few over the
(b) It allows the individual's creativity, many and Equality without liberty, would kill
sensibilities, and capabilities to fully individual initiative.
develop. Which one of the following is correct in
(c) It is the total absence of any kind of respect of the above statements?
constraint or restriction. (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(d) It permits the exercise of the individual’s correct and Statement-II is the correct
powers of reason and judgement. explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
3. Consider the following statements: correct and Statement-II isnot the correct
1. Civilisational continuity is an important explanation for Statement-I
feature of a national identity. (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
2. Territorial connection of a population incorrect
does not contribute to the national (d) Statement-1 is incorrect, but Statement-II
feeling. is correct
5. Consider the following actions taken in 7. Consider the following statements:

Indian polity: 1. The Prime Minister appoints the Cabinet
1. Preferential spending on disadvantaged Minister, Minister of State, or deputy
communities. minister.
2. Policy of quotas or reserved seats. 2. The 91st Amendment Act of 2003 of the
3. Special assistance. Indian Constitution mandates that the
How many of the above is/are taken as total strength of the Council of Ministers
affirmative action to ensure equality? should not exceed 15% of the total
(a) Only one number of members of the House of
(b) Only two People.
(c) All three Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) None correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
6. With reference to the discretionary powers of

8. Consider the following statements about First
the President of India, consider the following
Past the Post System:
statements:
1. The winning candidate need not secure a
1. The President can ask the Council of
majority of the votes.
Ministers to reconsider their decision.
2. The Constitution prescribes First Past the
2. He cannot withhold or refuse to give
Post system for the election of President,
assent to the bills passed by Parliament.
Vice President, elections to the Lok
Which of the statements given above is/are
Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
correct?
(a) 1 only
incorrect?
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
9. Which one of the following statements is 11. With reference to the system of Executive
correct regarding Bureaucracy? Presidency (a form of semi-presidential
(a) It is an organ that formulates laws on executive), consider the following
various political, social, and economic statements:
issues. 1. The president is both the head of state
(b) It is an organisation that facilitates and the head of government.
political stability and economic growth. 2. In this form of government, the president
(c) It is the executive organ responsible for is elected by the members of parliament.
assisting ministers in policy formulation Which of the statements given above is/are
and implementation. correct?
(d) None of the above statements are correct. (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
10. In the context of the Indian polity, which of 12. With reference to the Vice-President of India,
the following are part of the Political consider the following statements:
Executive? 1. He is elected by an electoral college
1. President consisting of the members of parliament
2. Vice president and state legislatures.
3. Prime Minister 2. He is elected for a term of five years.
4. Bureaucrats 3. He can be removed by the President of
5. Cabinet Minister India on recommendations of the Council
Select the correct answer using the code of Ministers.
given below 4. He acts as the president when a vacancy
(a) 1, 2, 3 only occurs by reason of death, resignation,
(b) 1, 2, 4 only removal by impeachment, or otherwise,
(c) 1, 2, 3, 5 only for the remaining term.
(d) All of the above How many of the statements given above are
incorrect?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
13. Consider the following statement about the 15. Consider the following:
Rajya Sabha: 1. Magna Carta (1215 )
1. It represents the states of India but not the 2. Geneva Conventions (1949)
Union territories. 3. Universal Declaration of Human Rights
2. It is a directly elected body of the (1948)
Parliament. 4. World Trade Organization Agreement
3. The elected members of the State (1995)
Legislative Assembly elect the members How many of the above can be considered as
of the Rajya Sabha. landmarks in the Development of Human
How many of the above statements are Rights?
correct? (a) Only one
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(b) Only two (c) Only three
(c) All three (d) All four
(d) None
14. Consider the following statements about 16. Which of the following statements is correct
Positive Liberty: regarding the Lok Sabha?
1. It is concerned with explaining the idea (a) The members of the Lok Sabha are
of ‘freedom from’ rather than ‘freedom elected by the process of proportional
to’. representation.
2. It is concerned with improving the (b) The value of vote of every individual
relationship between the individual and voter varies based on the population of
society. states.
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) The Lok Sabha can be dissolved before
correct? the expiration of its term.
(a) 1 only (d) None of the above
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
17. Which of the following is/are correct 19. Consider the following States:
regarding equality? 1. Andhra Pradesh
1. Natural inequalities arise out of people's 2. Bihar
differential capabilities and talents. 3. Karnataka
2. Social inequalities arise out of 4. Rajasthan
inequalities of opportunity or 5. Telangana
exploitation 6. Uttar Pradesh
Which of the statements given above is/are How many of the above states have a
correct? bicameral legislature?
(a) 1 only (a) Only three
(b) 2 only (b) Only four
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Only five
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) All of the above
18. Consider the following statements with

respect to “Negative” concept of Liberty: 20. Consider the following statements:
1. It implies the absence of restraints 1. The Rajya Sabha cannot initiate, reject,
and rights to do whatever one likes. or amend money bills.
2. It refers to the society in which 2. The Council of Ministers is responsible
adequate facilities are available for only to the Rajya Sabha.
each and every section of society to 3. The approval of Rajya Sabha is needed
for the removal of any subject from the
enjoy desirable rights.
State List.
3. It ensures the growth of poor, weak
How many of the above is/are correct ?
and downtrodden people.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
incorrect?
(c) All three
(a) 1 only
(d) None
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
21. In the context of the Indian polity, which of 23. Consider the following statements with
the following acts are considered as" reference to the Rajya Sabha:
Defection"? 1. Approval of ordinances issued by the
1. If a member remains absent in the House president
when asked by the party leadership to 2. Introduction and passage of
remain present. constitutional amendment bills.
2. If a member votes against the instructions 3. Resolution for discontinuance of national
of the party. emergency
3. If a member voluntarily leaves the 4. Introduction and passage of money bill.
membership of the party. In how many of the above cases, Rajya Sabha
Select the correct answer using the code enjoys equal powers with the Lok sabha?
given below. (a) Only one
(a) 1 only (b) Only two
(b) 1 and 2 only (c) Only three
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All four
(d) 3 only
22. With reference to the need for a bicameral 24. Consider the followings:
legislature in India, consider the following 1. Distribution of powers between the
statements: States and the central government
1. To give representation to a wider section 2. Representation of the state in the
of society. Parliament
2. To give representation to all regions or 3. Fundamental Rights
parts of the country. How many of the above provisions is/are
3. To make it possible for every decision to amended by the consent of half of the states?
be reconsidered. (a) Only one
4. To make it easy for the passage of a bill. (b) Only two
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) All three
correct? (d) None
(a) 1, 2, and 3.
(b) 2, 3, and 4.
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 3
25. Which one of the following statements is is/are incorrect?

correct regarding Indian secularism? (a) Only one
(a) It envisages the mutual exclusion of state (b) Only two
and religion. (c) Only three
(b) It prohibits the state from reasonable (d) None
interference in religious matters.
(c) It allows religious communities to 28. Consider the following statement :
establish and maintain their educational 1. The legislature is involved in the process
institutions. of appointment of judges.
(d) It allows reservations for seats in the 2. The judges of the Supreme Court and the
legislature for religious minorities. High Court have a security of tenure.
3. The Constitution provides that the
salaries and allowances of the judges are
26. In India, which one of the following not subject to the approval of the
Constitutional Amendments was primarily legislature.
enacted to introduce reservations in How many of the above are correct with
educational institutions and government jobs respect to the independence of the Judiciary?
for economically disadvantaged groups? (a) Only one
(a) 42nd Amendment (b) Only two
(b) 73rd Amendment (c) All three
(c) 86th Amendment (d) None
(d) 103rd Amendment
29. Which one of the following best describes the

27. Consider the following statements: “Harm Principle” of Mill?
1. The Indian State may engage with (a) It is an essential principle of Citizenship.
religion negatively to oppose religious (b) The state can interfere in the actions of
tyranny. individuals affecting only oneself.
2. Secularism is a doctrine that opposes all (c) It imposes restrictions on the state's
forms of inter-religious domination. power.
3. Indian secularism is based on the concept (d) It does not suggest imposing any kind of
of Principled distance. restriction on the harmful actions of the
How many of the statements given above individuals.
30. Liberty means the absence of constraints on 32. Which of the following statements is correct
individuals. In this context consider the regarding Marxism?
following statements about Liberty. (a) It favours public control over essential
1. Positive Liberty means no external resources and forms of property.
authority can interfere in the exercise of (b) It believes that political inequality is root
free will. cause of all inequality
2. Negative Liberty means Freedom as an (c) It favours private ownership of property.
expansion of opportunities to express (d) It favours free and fair competition
one’s self. between people.
correct? 33. Consider the following:
(a) 1 only 1. Settlement of the disputes between the
(b) 2 only Union and States and among the States.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. Lower court’s appeals in civil, criminal,
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 and constitutional disputes.
3. A dispute regarding elections to either
House of Parliament or the Legislature of
31. Which of the following is/are correct a State.
Regarding the appointment of Judges? How many of the above fall under the
1. The Constitution of India prescribes that original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
the senior-most judge of the Supreme (a) Only one
Court be appointed as the Chief Justice of (b) Only two
India. (c) All three
2. The other Judges of the Supreme Court (d) None
and the High Court are appointed by the
Prime Minister after consulting the CJI. 34. In the context of the Indian polity, ‘Judicial
Select the correct answer using the code Review’ implies that
given below. 1. The power of the judiciary to question the
(a) 1 only wisdom of the laws enacted by the
(b) 2 only legislature.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. The power of the judiciary to review all
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 legislative enactments before they are
assented to by the President
3. The power of the judiciary to examine the (a) 1 only

constitutionality of any law. (b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code (c) Both 1 and 2
given below. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only 37. Consider the following statements about
(c) 1, 2 and 3 Citizenship in India :
(d) 3 only 1. The Citizenship provisions can be found
in Part I of the Indian Constitution
35. Which of the following factors makes the 2. It is the full and equal membership of a
Indian Constitution a living document? political community.
1. Flexibility of interpretations 3. It involves obligations and rights of the
2. Modifications according to the changing citizens.
needs of society Which of the above given statements is/are
3. Judicial Interpretation incorrect?
4. Inclusivity (a) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code (b) 2 and 3 only
given below. (c) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 only
(b) 1, 2, and 3 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) All of the above.
38. Consider the following statements:

1. Rabindranath Tagore preferred the
36. With reference to judicial activism, consider concept of nationalism and patriotism
the following statements: over all other ideals and values.
1. It has blurred the line of distinction 2. Tagore made a clear distinction between
between the three organs of the opposing western imperialism and
government. rejecting western civilisation.
2. It has overburdened the courts. 3. Rabindranath Tagore was a fierce
Which of the statements given above is/are critique of the western civilization and
correct? values.
10
How many of the statements given above are (c) Chandramukhi Basu
correct? (d) Kadambani Ganguly
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 41. Which of the following is/are correct with
(c) All three reference to the removal of Judges?
(d) None 1. A judge of the Supreme Court or High
Court can be removed only on the
39. Consider the following statements regarding grounds of proved misbehaviour or
Local Self Government: incapacity.
1. In modern India, Lord Rippon created the 2. Only one Supreme Court judge has
first local self government institutions, been removed so far.
called the local boards. Select the correct answer using the code
2. Village panchayats were set up under the given below.
Government of India Act of 1919. (a) 1 only
Which of the above-given statements is/are (b) 2 only
correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
42. Which of the following is not correct

40. “She never went to school but championed regarding the 73rd Amendment?
the cause of women's education and earned (a) States have to establish a uniform three-
the title of “Pandita” and she also set up a tier Panchayati Raj structure.
Mission in Khedgaon near Pune in 1898, (b) The Gram Sabha's creation was made
where widows and poor women were mandatory by this amendment.
encouraged not only to become literate but to (c) The role and functions of the Gram Sabha
be independent”. are decided by the Parliament.
Which among the following personalities is (d) The intermediary level body need not be
appropriately described in the above constituted in smaller States.
paragraph?
(a) Ramabai Dongre
(b) Tarabai Sinde
11
43. Which of the following is/are correct 45. Consider the following statements with
regarding State Election Commissioners reference to local self government:
(SEC)? 1. One-half of the seats are reserved for
1. SEC is appointed by the central women in every panchayat.
government with the task of conducting 2. Election Commission of India is
panchayat elections in the state. responsible for conducting elections to
2. SEC is not under the control of the the panchayati raj institutions.
Election Commission of India. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the code (a) 1 only
given below. (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 46. Consider the following statements:
Statement-I : The Constitution provides
special status to the State of Nagaland.
Statement-II : The Indian Constitution
44. Consider the following committees: provides for asymmetric federalism.
1. Balwant Rai Mehta Which one of the following is correct with
2. Ashok Mehta respect to the above statements?
3. P.K.Thungon (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
4. Punchhi Commission correct, and Statement-II is the correct
How many of the above are related to explanation for Statement-I.
panchayati raj? (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(a) Only two correct, and Statement-II is not the
(b) Only three correct explanation for Statement-I.
(c) All four (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
(d) None incorrect.

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II
is correct.
12
47. Consider the following statement regarding (a) Only one

‘basic structure’: (b) Only two
1. The concept of the basic structure was (c) Only three
first introduced in the landmark (d) All four
judgement of Minerva Mills Case (1980).
2. It allows Parliament to amend any part of 49. Consider the following statements:
the Constitution within certain 1. The Indian Constitution does not make
limitations. the enjoyment of rights conditional upon
3. It places the Judiciary as the final the fulfillment of duties.
authority in deciding if an amendment 2. Both Fundamental Rights and
violates basic structure. Fundamental Duties are available to
How many of the above are correct? Citizens as well as Foreigners.
(a) Only one Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Only two correct?
(c) All three (a) 1 only
(d) None (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
48. Consider the following statements with (d) Neither 1 nor 2
reference to the Scheduled Castes and the
Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) 50. Consider the following statements:
Act, 1989: Statement-I: The natural inequalities emerge
1. Forcing a member of a Scheduled Caste due to differences in personal traits either
or a Scheduled Tribe to drink or eat any physical or mental.
inedible or obnoxious substance Statement-II: All social inequalities emerged
2. Forcing a person to remove clothes as a result of natural inequalities.
3. Illegal occupation of land owned by Which one of the following is correct in
person of scheduled caste respect of the above statements?
4. Assault or use of force on any woman (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
belonging to a Scheduled Caste or a correct and Statement-II is the correct
Scheduled Tribe explanation for Statement-I
How many of the above are crimes prescribed (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
in the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled correct and Statement-II is not the correct
Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989? explanation for Statement-I
13
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is How many of the above are correct regarding
incorrect amendments to the Constitution?
(d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II (a) Only one
is correct (b) Only two
(c) All three
51. In the context of the Indian judiciary, (d) None
consider the following statements:
1. The decisions of the Supreme Court of 53. Which of the following not only delineate the
India are binding on all courts in the affirmative actions that the Indian state
country. should undertake but also imply limitations
2. High courts cannot issue writs for the on the state's involvement?
enforcement of fundamental rights. (a) Fundamental Rights
3. District courts cannot consider appeals in (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
criminal cases. (c) Concurrent List of the Constitution
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) State Legislature's Powers
incorrect?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only 54. Consider the following statement with
(d) 1, 2 and 3 respect to the 42nd Amendment Act :
1. Fundamental Duties were included in the
Constitution through this amendment.
2. The duration of the Lok Sabha was
52. Consider the following statements: extended from five to six years
1. Some provisions of the Constitution are 3. This act put restrictions on the review
amended by Simple Majority. powers of the Judiciary.
2. Some provisions of the Constitution are How many of the above are incorrect ?
amended by a special majority of the two (a) Only one
houses of Parliament. (b) Only two
3. Some provisions of Constitutions are (c) All three
amended by special majority of the (d) None
Parliament and consent of half of the
State legislatures.
14
55. With reference to the division of powers 57. Consider the following statements with
between the levels of government in India, reference to Adivasis:
consider the following statements: 1. They are the original inhabitants who
1. Parliament, by an ordinary law, lived in close connection with cities.
demarcated the subjects between the 2. They practice the same religion all over
centre and the states. the country.
2. States are allowed to make laws on 3. They have their own languages.
subjects that are not mentioned in any of Select the correct answer using the codes
the lists in the seventh schedule. given below:
3. Indian federalism is a federalism with (a) 1 and 2 only
strong centralising tendency. (b) 3 only
How many of the above statements is/are (c) 2 only
correct? (d) None of the above
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 58. With reference to the concept of Equality,
(c) All three consider the following pairs:
(d) None Concept Appropriate Instance
56. With reference to the Indian Concept of
1. Affirmative Banks offer higher rates
Secularism, consider the following
action of interest to senior
statements:
citizens
1. The term ‘Secular’ was added to the
Preamble by the 44th Constitution 2. Equality of Every child should get
Amendment Act. opportunity free education
2. Indian Constitution reflects a Negative 3. Equal Every adult citizen can

concept of Secularism. Rights vote in elections
3. The secular state allows equal disrespect
How many of the above pairs are correctly
for some aspects of organised religions.
matched?
Which of the statements given above are
(a) Only one
incorrect?
(b) Only two
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) All three
(b) 1 and 3 only
(d) None
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the above
15
59. Which of the following statements 3. Concurrent List Forests, Trade

appropriately describes “federation”? Unions, Adoption
(a) It is the fusion of powers between the and Succession
centre and the states
How many of the above pairs are correctly
(b) It is separation of powers between the
matched?
centre and states
(a) Only one
(c) It is division of powers between the
(b) Only two
centre and the state
(c) All three
(d) It is a devolution of powers between the
(d) None
centre and the state
62. Which one of the following Articles of the

Indian constitution provides that ‘Every
1. Instability of Government
State's executive power shall be exercised in
2. Less scope of morality and possibility of
such a manner as not to impede or prejudice
corruption
the exercise of the Union's executive power,
3. It promotes equality
and the Union's executive power can extend
How many of the above are disadvantages of
to give directions to states whenever
Democracy?
necessary for that purpose’.
(a) Only one
(a) Articles 215
(b) Only two
(b) Articles 275
(c) All three
(c) Articles 325
(d) None
(d) Articles 257
61. With reference to the Constitution of India,

63. Which one of the following recommended
consider the following pairs:
that the appointments of the governor should
1. Union List Banking, Ports,
be made on a strictly non-partisan basis and
Currency &
that the governor should be an eminent
Coinage
person from outside the state?
2. State List Prison, Land, Trade (a) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
and Commerce (b) First Administrative Reform
Commission (1966)
(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(d) Kothari Commission (1966)
16
2. No criminal law shall declare any action

64. Which of the following statements is/are
illegal from a backdate.
correct?
3. A person can be asked to give evidence
1. The States Reorganisation Commission
against himself or herself.
was set up in December 1953, and it
How many of the above rights are provided
favoured the creation of states, also
by the Constitution?
taking into consideration linguistic
(a) Only one
uniformity in a state.
(b) Only two
2. The constitution of India provides
(c) All three
symmetrical representation in the Rajya
(d) None
Sabha for every state
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. 67. Which one of the following is a feature of
(a) 1 only ‘Federalism ’?
(b) 2 only (a) Single set of Polity at the national level
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Unwritten Constitution
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Independent Judiciary

(d) None of the above

1. Promotes inequality among citizens 68. Consider the following statements with
2. Enhances the dignity of the individual reference to the Writs issued by the court:
3. Improves the quality of decision-making 1. Mandamus is issued to an office holder
4. Provides a method to resolve conflicts who is not doing his legal duty.
5. Allows room to correct mistakes. 2. In Quo Warranto, the court orders a
How many of the above are benefits of lower court to transfer a matter to higher
Democracy? court.
(a) Two only 3. Certiorari is issued when a person holds
(b) Three only an office he is not entitled to.
(c) Four only Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) All five correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 only
1. No person would be punished for the
(d) 1, 2 and 3
same offence more than once
17
69. Which of the following are three dimensions 71. With reference to Fundamental Rights in
of ‘Equality’? India, consider the following statements:
1. Social Equality 1. Right to Property is neither a
2. Political Equality Fundamental Right nor a Constitutional
3. Economic Equality Right.
Select the correct answer using the code 2. Abolition of Untouchability is a
given below: Fundamental Right under Right against
(a) 1, 2 and 3 Exploitation.
(b) 1 and 2 only 3. The Constitution has guaranteed the right
(c) 2 and 3 only to propagate one’s religion.
(d) 1 and 3 only Which of the statements given above are
incorrect?
70. Consider the following statements: (a) 1 and 2 only
Statement 1: The 42nd Amendment to the (b) 2 and 3 only
Indian Constitution is called the “Mini (c) 1 and 3 only
Constitution”. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Statement 2: The 42nd amendment was
made in the background of Internal 72. Which of the following gives a citizen the
Emergency in the Country. right to approach courts to get any of the
Which one of the following is correct in fundamental rights restored in case of their
respect of the above statements? violation?
(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are (a) Right to Equality.
correct and Statement 2 is the correct (b) Right to Freedom.
explanation for Statement 1 (c) Right to Constitutional remedies.
(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are (d) Right to Life.
correct and Statement 2 is not the correct
explanation for Statement 1
(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is
incorrect
1. Secularism is a basic feature of the
(d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2
Constitution.
is correct
2. Indian Secularism is excessively
interventionist in nature.
18
3. Secularism is reflected in the 75. Which of the following is the correct

Fundamental Rights of the Constitution. connotation for the “political ideal of
Which of the above given statements are equality”?
correct? (a) Possession of equal worth by all human
(a) 1 only beings regardless of their colour, gender,
(b) 2 and 3 only race, or nationality.
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) Every citizen should enjoy equal
(d) All of the above economic rights without any
discrimination.
74. Consider the following pairs : (c) Decisions of government affect every
Writs Associated Features individual either men or women equally.
(d) Equal access to basic goods, such as
1. Prohibition It restricts the person
education, health care, safe housing.
from acting as an office
holder.
2. Habeas The court orders that the

Corpus arrested person should 76. Consider the following statements:
be presented before it. 1. Ordinary rights may be changed by the
ordinary process of law making, but a
3. Mandamus Issued against any
fundamental right may only be changed
public body, a
by amending the Constitution itself.
corporation or an
2. The right to form associations is often
inferior court.
restricted for the protection of the
4. Certiorari Issued when a lower interests of the Scheduled Tribes.
court has considered a Which of the statements given above is/are
case beyond its correct?
jurisdiction (a) 1 only
How many of the above pairs are correctly (b) 2 only
matched? (c) Both 1 and 2

(a) Only one (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Only two

(c) Only three
(d) All four
19
77. Consider the following statements: 79. With reference to the Constitution, consider
1. There are some amendments that have the following statements:
been made as a result of the consensus 1. The Constitution allows coordination
among the political parties. and assurance to its citizens.
2. The Amendments to the Constitution 2. The Constitution can specify who has
cannot be a product of different
the power to make decisions in a
interpretations of the Constitution given
society.
by the judiciary and the government of
the day.
correct?
3. All amendments to the Constitution can
(a) 1 only
be initiated both in the Parliament and the
(b) 2 only
State Legislatures.
(c) Both 1 and 2
How many of the above statements is/are
.(d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct?
(a) Only one
80. Consider the following statements with
(b) Only two
reference to the system of elections:
(c) Only three
1. In First Past the Post System, voters vote
(d) None
for the political party, while in
proportional representation, they vote for
78. With reference to Indian polity, a ‘liberal
candidate.
constitution’ ensures
2. In First Past the Post System every
1. Individual rights
constituency elects one representative,
2. Social justice
while in proportional representation,
3. Individual rights are always prioritised
more than one candidate can be elected.
over social justice
Select the correct answer using the code
correct?
given below.
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 3 only
20
81. Consider the following statements: He also coined the phrase “Unity in
1. Citizenship is not related to equality and Diversity.”
rights. Who among the following personalities is
2. Different state systems recognise appropriately described by the above phrase?
different Rights for their citizens. (a) Mahatma Gandhi
Which of the above statement(s) is/are (b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
incorrect regarding Citizenship? (c) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(a) 1 only (d) Subhash Chandra Bose
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 84. The Election Commission of India is not
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 responsible for the election of which of the
following?
82. With reference to Nation States, consider the (a) Urban Local bodies
following statements: (b) Legislative assembly
1. India defines itself as a secular and (c) Lok sabha
democratic nation state. (d) Office of President of India
2. Nation states claim that their boundaries
define territory, culture, and shared 85. With reference to the ‘Universal Declaration
history. of Human Rights’, consider the following
Which of the above statement(s) is/are statements:
correct ? 1. It was proclaimed by the United Nations
(a) 1 only General Assembly in 1948.
(b) 2 only 2. It delineates fundamental human rights to
(c) Both 1 and 2 be universally safeguarded for the first
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 time.
83. In his book he has written that “Indian unity correct?
is not something imposed from the outside (a) 1 only
but rather, “It was something deeper and (b) 2 only
within its fold, where the widest tolerance of (c) Both 1 and 2
belief and custom was practised and every (d) Neither 1 nor 2
variety acknowledged and even encouraged”.
21
86. Consider the following statements: (a) 1 only

1. Pluralism is the recognition of diversity (b) 2 only
within a political body. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. Indian society is pluralistic in nature. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
not correct? 89. Consider the following statements:
(a) 1 only Statement 1: The Judiciary can practically
(b) 2 only amend the Constitution through a formal
(c) Both 1 and 2 amendment.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Statement 2: The Basic Structure doctrine
87. With reference to the Election Commission consolidates the balance between rigidity and
of India, consider the following statements: flexibility.
1. The Election Commission of India is Which one of the following is correct in
concerned with the elections to respect of the above statements?
the panchayats and municipalities in the (a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are
states. correct. and Statement 2 is the correct
2. The Delimitation Commission is explanation for Statement 1
appointed by the Election Commission of (b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are
India. correct and Statement 2 is not the correct
Which of the statements given above is/are explanation for Statement 1
correct? (c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is
(a) 1 only incorrect
(b) 2 only (d) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 is correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
90. The ‘dignity of the individual’ and ‘unity and

88. The establishment of a panchayat at the integrity of the nation’ both are explicitly
grassroots level can be explained as an mentioned in which of the following in the
exercise to promote: Indian Constitution?
1. Participatory democracy (a) Directive Principle of State Policy
2. Centralisation (b) Fundamental Rights
Which of the above given objectives (c) Preamble
regarding panchayats is/are correct ? (d) Fundamental Duties
22
91. With reference to Secularism in India, 93. With reference to Adult Franchise in India,
consider the following statements: consider the following statements:
1. Indian secularism deals with religious 1. Adult Franchise is consistent with the
freedom of individuals and of principle of equality and non-
Minorities. discrimination.
2. The Right to Vote is a
2. It is compatible with the idea of state-
Fundamental Right in India.
supported religious reform.
3. In S. R. Bommai v. Union of India, the
Supreme Court decided to reduce the age
correct?
of voting eligibility from 21 years to 18
(a) 1 only
years.
(b) 2 only
How many of the above statements are
(c) Both 1 and 2
incorrect?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
1. The Proportional Representation system
(d) None
offers voters a choice not only between
parties but also between specific
candidates.
94. 'The Constitution is called a Living
2. More than one representative may be
Document’. Which of the following does not
elected from one constituency in the First
describes this Living document concept ?
Past The Post system.
(a) Modifications as per the changes in the
3. The entire country may be a single
society can be made in the Constitution.
constituency in the Proportional
(b) Flexibility in interpretations of the
Representation system.
Constitution.
How many of the above statements are
(c) Non transformative nature of the
correct?
Constitution.
(a) Only one
(d) Amendments are a part of the
(b) Only two
Constitutional evolution.
(c) All three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
23
95. Consider the following statements: How many of the statements given above are
1. The State Election Commission correct?
recognises political parties as Regional (a) Only one
Political Parties. (b) Only two
2. The superintendence and control of the (c) All three
preparation of electoral rolls for the (d) None
conduct of elections to the Legislature of
a State is vested in the State Election 97. Which one of the following statements is not
Commission. correct regarding Indian Citizenship?
3. All the nomination papers relating to the (a) Indian Citizenship deals with only
State Legislative election are submitted Political rights.
directly to the Chief Election (b) The Indian Constitution adopted an
Commissioner. inclusive notion of citizenship.
How many of the above statements are (c) The state does not discriminate against
incorrect? citizens on grounds only of religion, race,
(a) Only one caste, sex, place of birth.
(b) Only two (d) Freedom of movement is one of the
(c) All three rights granted to citizens in our country.
(d) None
98. With reference to the ‘Social Justice’,

96. With regards to the idea of ‘National self 1. It primarily focuses on ensuring the equal
determination’, Consider the following distribution of wealth among all citizens.
statements: 2. The concept of social justice is defined in
1. The notion of one culture - one state the Constitution of India.
began to gain wider acceptability in the 3. The 20th February is celebrated annually
nineteenth century in Europe. as the World Day of Social Justice.
2. The Treaty of Versailles established a How many of the above statements are
number of small, newly independent correct?
states under its influence. (a) Only one
3. The right to national self-determination (b) Only two
was asserted by several African countries (c) All three
during the colonial domination. (d) None
24
99. With reference to the ‘Human Rights’,

1. They are universal entitlements that
apply to all individuals solely by virtue of
being human.
2. They encompass only civil and political
liberties, excluding economic and social
rights.
3. They ensure that the authority of the
state is exercised without violating the
sanctity of individual liberty.
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
100. In the context of polity, which one of the

following would you accept as the most
appropriate element of social justice?
(a) Equal distribution of resources and
opportunities to all citizens,
disregarding their social backgrounds.
(b) Providing preferential treatment to
historically marginalized communities
to compensate for past injustices.
(c) Maintaining the status quo to avoid
disrupting societal harmony while
ensuring individual rights.
(d) Prioritizing economic growth over
social welfare to ensure a stable and
prosperous nation.
Prelims Wallah Test 2024

Test 1: Polity NCERT Test
1. Ans: C no individual living in society can expect to be
Exp: free of all restraints and restrictions. A free
Statement 1 is correct: In the Parliamentary society would be one that allows all of its
system of Executive, the Head of government members to reach their full potential while
(de facto) is usually known as the Prime imposing minimal societal restraints
Minister and the President is the head of state (reasonable restrictions).
(de jure). Reference: Chapter 2, Freedom, Political
Statement 2 is correct: The Prime Minister Theory, Ncert.
is the leader of the political party or coalition
that has the majority in the lower house of 3. Ans: B
Parliament or the elected legislative body. Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: Nations think of
themselves as having connections to the past as
well as reaching into the future. They
articulate for themselves a sense of their own
history by drawing on collective memories,
stories and historical records, to outline the
continuing identity of the nation. The
nationalists in India invoked its ancient
civilisation and cultural heritage to claim that
this civilizational continuity and unity is the
basis of the Indian nation.
Statement 2 is not correct: Nations identify
themselves with a particular territory.
Sharing a common past and living together on
a particular area or territory over a long period
of time gives people a sense of collective
identity. It helps them to imagine themselves as
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian one people.
Constitution at Work, chapter 4 Statement 3 is correct: It is a shared vision of
the future and the aspiration to have an
2. Ans: C independent political existence that
Exp: distinguishes groups from nations. Members
Freedom is multi-dimensional in nature and is of a nation share a vision of the type of state
at the core of human society. The absence of they want to build. They affirm a set of values
external restraints as well as the existence of and principles such as democracy, secularism
conditions in which people can develop their and liberalism.
talents, are some of the essential aspects of Reference: NCERT Class 11th Political
freedom. It is the condition in which people Theory, chapter 7
can grow their creativity and abilities as well
as expand their ability to freely express 4. Ans: D
themselves. In this view, freedom allows for Exp:
the complete development of an individual's Statement 1 is incorrect: Democracy means a
creativity, senses, and capacities, whether in way of life which recognizes liberty, equality
sports, science, or the arts. Freedom is and fraternity. The principles of liberty,
considered valuable because it allows us to equality and fraternity are not to be treated as
make choices and exercise our judgement. It separate items in a trinity. They form a union of
permits the exercise of the individual’s trinity in the sense that to divorce one from the
powers of reason and judgement. However,
other is to defeat the very purpose of withhold or refuse to give assent to Bills
democracy. (other than Money bills) passed by the
Statement 2 is correct: Liberty cannot be Parliament. The President can send the bill
divorced from equality, equality cannot be back to Parliament, asking it to reconsider it.
divorced from liberty. Nor can liberty and This ‘veto’ power is limited because if the
equality be divorced from fraternity. Without Parliament passes the same bill again and sends
equality, liberty would produce the supremacy it back to the President, then the President has
of the few over the many. Equality without to give assent to that bill.
liberty, would kill individual initiative. At last, in the case of the Hung assembly, he
Reference: Chapter 2, Freedom, Political may exercise his discretion in selecting
Theory, Ncert. someone who, in his opinion, will be able to
form a stable government.
5. Ans: C Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Exp: Constitution at Work, chapter 4
Affirmative action is based on the idea that it is
not sufficient to establish formal equality by 7. Ans: B
law. When we wish to eliminate inequalities Exp:
that are deeply rooted, it is necessary to take Statement 1 is incorrect: The Prime Minister
some more positive measures to minimise and decides the ministers in the Council of
eliminate entrenched forms of social Ministers i.e., the Prime Minister allocates
inequalities. Most policies of affirmative action ranks and portfolios to the ministers.
are thus designed to correct the cumulative Depending upon their seniority and political
effect of past inequalities. Affirmative action importance, the ministers are given the ranks of
can, however, take many forms, cabinet minister, minister of State or deputy
• preferential spending on facilities for minister. However, the appointment of the
disadvantaged communities, such as, ministers is done by the President of India.
scholarships and hostels, and Statement 2 is correct: Prior to the 91st
• Special consideration for admissions to Amendment Act (2003), the size of the
educational institutions and jobs Council of Ministers was decided by time
through quotas or reserved seats. constraints and situational demands. After that,
• Special assistance enables an amendment was passed requiring that the
communities to overcome the existing total strength of the Council of Ministers,
disadvantages and then compete with including the Prime Minister should not
others on equal terms, e.g., in exceed 15% of the total number of members
education, employment, creation of of the House of the People (or Assembly, in
barrier free environment for disabled the case of the States).
people, social security of old age etc. Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Reference: class 11th NCERT, chapter Constitution at Work, chapter 4
3
8. Ans: B
6. Ans: A Exp:
Exp: Statement 1 is correct: In First Past the Post
Statement 1 is correct: The President of India (FPTP) system (also called the Plurality
enjoys situational discretion in three cases. System), the winning candidate need not
Firstly, he can send back the advice given by secure a majority of the votes. In the electoral
the Council of Ministers and ask the Council race, the candidate who is ahead of others and
to reconsider the decision. When the President who crosses the winning post first of all, is the
thinks that the advice has certain flaws or legal winner.
lacunae or that it is not in the best interests of Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution
the country, he can ask the Council to prescribes Proportional Representation
reconsider the decision. system for the election of President, Vice
Statement 2 is incorrect: Secondly, The President, and for the election to the Rajya
President also has veto power, by which he can Sabha and Vidhan Parishads. However, for
the elections to the Lok Sabha and State Statement 2 is incorrect: A semi-presidential
Legislative Assemblies, First Past the Post form of government is one in which the
system is used. President is directly elected by the people of
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian the country and this form of government is also
Constitution at Work, chapter 3 known as the system of executive presidency.
Under the system of the Executive Presidency,
9. Ans: C it may happen that both the President and the
Exp: Prime Minister belong to the same political
The Executive organ of the government party or to different political parties.
includes the Prime Minister, the ministers and a Sri Lanka is a good example of a semi-
large organisation called the bureaucracy or presidential form of government.
administrative machinery. Trained and skilled Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
officers who work as permanent employees Constitution at Work, chapter 4
of the government are assigned the task of
assisting the ministers in formulating 12. Ans: C
policies and implementing these Exp:
policies. The bureaucracy is also expected to Statement 1 is incorrect: The election method
be politically neutral. This means that the of the Vice-President is similar to that of the
bureaucracy will not take any political position President; the only difference is that members
on policy matters. of State legislatures are not part of the
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian electoral college, which means he is elected by
Constitution at Work, chapter 4 an electoral college consisting of members of
both Houses of Parliament, in accordance with
10. Ans: C the system of proportional representation by
Exp: means of the single transferable vote, and the
The Executive is the branch of government voting in such an election is by secret ballot.
responsible for the implementation of laws and Statement 2 is correct: The Vice President is
policies in the country. The executive is often elected for five years.
involved in framing the policy too. The Statement 3 is incorrect:The Vice President
executive branch includes both Political and may be removed from his office by a
Permanent executives. The Executive consists resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by a
of the President, Vice President, Council of majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha, not by
Ministers (including cabinet ministers) the president on the recommendations of the
headed by the Prime Minister. Bureaucrats council of ministers.
are part of the permanent executive. Hence, Statement 4 is incorrect: The Vice President
they are not part of the Political Executive. acts as the ex officio Chairman of the Rajya
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian Sabha and takes over the office of the President
Constitution at Work, chapter 4 when there is a vacancy by reason of death,
resignation, removal by impeachment, or
11. Ans: A otherwise. The Vice President acts as
Exp: President only until a new President is
Statement 1 is correct: In the system of the elected.
Executive Presidency (a form of semi- Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
presidential executive), the President chooses Constitution at Work, chapter 4
the Prime Minister from the party that has a
majority in Parliament. Though ministers must 13. Ans: A
be members of Parliament, the President has the Exp:
power to remove the Prime Minister, or Statement 1 is incorrect: The Rajya Sabha
ministers. Apart from being the elected Head consists of not more than 250 members - 238
of State and the Commander-in Chief of the members representing both the States and
Armed Forces, the President is also the Head Union Territories and 12 members nominated
of Government. E.g. -Sri Lanka. by the President. Rajya Sabha is a permanent
body and is not subject to dissolution.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Rajya Sabha is free citizens can own and inherit
not directly elected by the people of India. It is property etc.
an indirectly elected body. The members of • 1776 American Declaration of
the Rajya Sabha serve a six-year term, and one- Independence and Bill of Rights
third of its members retire every two years. • 1787 Constitution of the United States
Statement 3 is correct: The voters of a state • 1789 French Declaration of the Rights
elect members of the State Legislative of man
Assembly. The elected members of the State • 1946 UN Commission on Human
Legislative Assembly in turn elect the Rights
members of the Rajya Sabha. • 1948 Universal Declaration of
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian Human Rights: In 1946, the UN
Constitution at Work, chapter 5 Commission on Human Rights was
established and in less than two years it
14. Ans: B had drafted the Universal Declaration
Exp: of Human Rights which was adopted
Statement 1 is incorrect: Positive liberty by the UN General Assembly (UNGA)
means the capacity to act in such a way as to in 1948.
take control of one’s life and realise one’s • 1949 Geneva Conventions: This
potential. It means the capacity to act on one's Convention represents the fourth
own will and pursue one's own goals. The updated version of the Geneva
arguments for positive liberty are concerned Convention on the wounded and sick,
with explaining the idea of ‘freedom to’. following those adopted in 1864, 1906
whereas Negative liberty means freedom and 1929.
from obstacles, barriers, or constraints that • 1950 European Convention for the
limit one’s actions. It seeks to define and Protection of Human Rights and
defend an area in which the individual would be Fundamental Freedoms
inviolable, in which he or she could ‘do, be, or • 1961 European Social Charter
become’ whatever he or she wished to ‘do, be, • 1993 Vienna Declaration and
or become’. This is an area in which no external Programme of Action adopted at the
authority can interfere. It is concerned with World Conference on Human Rights.
explaining the idea of ‘freedom from’. The WTO's main purpose is to ensure that
Statement 2 is correct: Positive Liberty is trade flows as smoothly, predictably, and
concerned with looking at the conditions and freely as possible. It operates through various
nature of the relationship between the agreements negotiated and signed by its
individual and society and improving these member countries.
conditions so that there are fewer constraints Reference: NCERT Class 11th Political
to the development of the individual's Theory, chapter 5
personality. The individual must get the
benefit of enabling positive conditions to 16. Ans: C
develop his or her capability in material, Exp:
political, and social domains. The Lok Sabha is directly elected by the people.
Reference: Chapter 2, Freedom, Political For the purpose of elections, the entire country
Theory, Ncert. (State, in case of State Legislative Assembly) is
divided into territorial constituencies of
15. Ans: C roughly equal population. One representative is
Exp: elected from each constituency through
Major Landmarks in the Development of universal adult suffrage, where the value of
Human Rights - vote of every individual would be equal. At
• 1215 Magna Carta: This document present, there are 543 constituencies. This
guarantees Barons their ancient rights number has not changed since the 1971 census.
i.e. All free men have the right to The Lok Sabha is elected for a maximum period
justice and a fair trial with a jury, All of five years. Before the completion of five
years, the Lok Sabha can be dissolved if no
party or coalition can form the government 19. Ans: C

or if the Prime Minister advises the Exp:
President to dissolve the Lok Sabha and hold India has a bicameral legislature, which means
fresh elections. it consists of two separate houses: the Rajya
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian Sabha (Council of States) and the Lok Sabha
Constitution at Work, chapter 5 (House of the People). The Constitution has
given the States the option of establishing either
17. Ans: C a unicameral or bicameral legislature. At
Exp: present, only six States have a bicameral
Statement 1 is correct: The differences in legislature. (i) Andhra Pradesh (ii) Bihar (iii)
people's capabilities and talents are inherent Karnataka (iv) Maharashtra (v) Telangana
characteristics that can lead to varying levels of (vi) Uttar Pradesh.
achievement and success. Hence, natural Rajasthan has a Unicameral legislature.
inequalities are those that emerge between Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
people as a result of their different Constitution at Work, chapter 5
capabilities and talents. It is generally
assumed that natural differences cannot be 20. Ans: B
altered Exp:
Statement 2 is correct: Unequal Opportunities The Rajya Sabha is the Upper House of
arise When certain groups or individuals are Parliament. It has its own distinctive features
systematically denied access to resources, and reflects the federal character of the
education, healthcare, jobs, and other essential Constitution, and protects the rights of States.
aspects of life. and Exploitation occurs when Statement 1 is correct: The Rajya Sabha
one group benefits unfairly from the labour, cannot initiate, reject, or amend money bills.
resources, or contributions of another It is the exclusive power of the Lok Sabha.
group. Hence, Social inequalities emerge as a However, it can provide recommendations for
consequence of inequalities of opportunity or money bills which may or may not be accepted
the exploitation of some groups in a society by the Lok Sabha.
by others. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Council of
Reference : class 11th NCERT, chapter 3 Ministers is collectively responsible to the
Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in
18. Ans: D particular. Hence, the Council of Ministers is
Exp: not responsible to the Rajya Sabha.
Statement 1 is correct: Negative conception of Statement 3 is correct: The approval of the
liberty implies the absence of restraints and Rajya Sabha is necessary if the Union
rights to do whatever one likes. It may make the Parliament wishes to remove a matter from the
powerful person more powerful to keep the State List (over which only the State
weaker ones at their mercy. Legislature can make law) to either the Union
Statement 2 is incorrect: Positive conception List or Concurrent List in the interest of the
of liberty refers to the society in which nation.
adequate facilities are available for each and Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
every section of society to enjoy desirable Constitution at Work, chapter 5
rights. It believes that any individual or section
should not hinder the progress of others. People 21. Ans: C
can enjoy all freedoms which are permissible Exp:
by laws. "Defection" refers to the act of an elected
The Positive liberty ensures the growth of poor, representative, such as a Member of Parliament
weak and downtrodden people also. It interprets (MP) or a Member of Legislative Assembly
that liberty lies in the removal of hindrances. (MLA), changing their political party affiliation
Hence statement 3 is about the Positive or leaving their original political party to join
conception of liberty. another party.
Reference: Chapter 2, Freedom, Political In the context of the Indian polity, if a
Theory, Ncert. member (i) remains absent in the House
when asked by the party leadership to • Election and impeachment of the

remain present, (ii) votes against the president.
instructions of the party, or (iii) voluntarily • Approval of the proclamation of all
leaves the membership of the party, it is three types of emergencies
considered as defection. When it has unequal powers:
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian • A money bill can only be introduced in
Constitution at Work, chapter 5 Lok Sabha and not in Rajya Sabha.
Hence, Statement 4 is incorrect.
22. Ans: A • Rajya Sabha can only discuss budgets
Exp: and cannot vote on demand for grants.
Statements 1 and 2 are correct: India, with its • A resolution for discontinuance of the
large size and diversity, usually prefers to have national emergency can be passed only
two houses of the national legislature to give in Lok Sabha. Hence, Statement 3 is
representation to all sections of the society, to incorrect.
bring harmony in the society, to cater to the • Rajya Sabha cannot remove ministers
needs of every section of the society, and also by passing No confidence motion.
to accommodate people from all geographical When it has special powers:
regions or parts of the country so that the • It can authorise parliament to make a
legislature can cater to the needs of every corner law on a subject enumerated in the state
of the country. list. ( Article 249)
Statement 3 is correct: Every decision taken • It can authorise the parliament to create
by one house goes to the other house for its a new All India Service common to
decision, which means that every bill and policy both the centre and state.
would be discussed twice. This ensures a • It alone can initiate a move for the
double check on every matter. Even if one removal of the Vice-President.
house takes a decision in haste,that decision Source: Class 11th NCERT: Indian
will come up for discussion in another house, Constitution at Work, Chapter 5
and reconsideration will be possible.
Statement 4 is incorrect: If every bill and 24. Ans: B
policy will be discussed twice,it is not easy to Exp:
pass a bill. This will not fulfil the aspirations of Certain provisions of the Indian Constitution
society. The presence of two houses will can be amended by obtaining the consent of at
facilitate deliberate discussion of a bill or policy least half of the states in addition to a special
brought out by the government. majority in both houses of Parliament. This
Source: Class 11th NCERT: Indian process is outlined in Article 368 of the
Constitution at Work, Chapter 5 Constitution. These provisions relate to matters
that affect the federal structure of the country,
23. Ans: B including the distribution of powers between
Exp: the central government and the states. For
The constitutional position of the Rajya Sabha example, changes to the provisions related to
can be studied from three angles: the election of the President, representation of
1) When it has equal powers with Lok Sabha states in
2) When it has unequal powers with Lok Sabha Parliament, etc. require the consent of half of
3) When it has special powers. the states in India, in addition to the special
When it has equal powers: majority in Parliament.
• Introduction and passage of ordinary Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
bills. Constitution at Work, chapter 9
• Approval of ordinances issued by the
president. Hence, Statement 1 is
correct.
• Introduction and passage of
constitutional amendment bills. Hence,
Statement 2 is correct.
25. Ans: C non-OBC and non-SC/ST sections of the

Exp: population. It introduces 10% reservation for
Indian secularism is not the same as the the EWS for admission to government as well
Western concept of the separation of religion as private, unaided education institutions
and state. In India, there is no mutual (except for minority educational institutions) .
exclusion between the State and Religion. Option A is incorrect: The 42nd
Indian secularism emphasises religious Constitutional Amendment Act is noted for
tolerance, equal treatment of all religions, and its inconsistent revisions and additions
the state's impartiality towards religious (1976). The 42nd Amendment provides a
matters. This includes the reasonable provision to temporarily suspend basic
interference of the state in religious matters rights. In an external emergency, Article 358
in order to protect individual rights. Ex: suspends constitutionally given rights.
Triple Talaq was made a legal offence in “Emergency legislation” is exempt from Article
India. Originally, the term ‘secularism ’ was 19.
not mentioned in the Indian Constitution; it was Option B is incorrect: 73rd and 74th
added by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976. Constitutional Amendments were passed by
Option C is correct: Indian secularism gives Parliament in December, 1992. Through these
rights to all religious communities, such as the amendments local self-governance was
right to establish and maintain their introduced in rural and urban India.
educational institutions. Freedom of religion Option C is incorrect: 86th Constitutional
in India means the freedom of religion of both Amendment Inserted new article 21A.- After
individuals and communities. article 21 of the Constitution, the following
In contrast, the western model of secularism article shall be inserted, namely:- Right to
follows the mutual exclusion of state and education.-"21A. The State shall provide free
religion in order to protect values such as and compulsory education to all children of the
individual freedom and citizenship rights. Both age of six to fourteen years in such manner as
religion and state must stay away from each the State may, by law, determine."
other's internal affairs. The state must not Reference: NCERT Class 11th Political
intervene in the domain of religion; religion Theory, chapter 4
likewise should not dictate state policy or
influence the conduct of the state. In other 27. Ans: D
words, mutual exclusion means that religion Exp:
and state must be strictly separated. The Indian Statement 1 is correct: The Indian State may
Constitution provides reservations for engage with religion negatively to oppose
socially and educationally backward religious tyranny. This is reflected in actions
citizens, not religious minorities. such as the ban on untouchability. The State
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian may also choose a positive mode of
Constitution at Work, chapter 10 engagement. Indian Secularism does not
require a total separation of religion from the
26. Ans: D state of affairs. It rejects non-interference in
Exp: religion. But it is also not excessively
Option D is correct: In India, lack of access to interventionist.
good education or health care and other such Statement 2 is correct: Secularism is first and
facilities is often found combined with social foremost a doctrine that opposes all forms of
discrimination on grounds of caste. The institutionalised religious domination.It
Constitution therefore allowed for reservations challenges not merely interreligious but also
of government jobs and quotas for admissions intra-religious domination. Put positively, it
to educational institutions for people belonging promotes freedom within religions, and
to the Scheduled Castes and Tribes. equality between, as well as within,
The 103rd Amendment inserted Articles religions.
15(6) and 16(6) in the Constitution to provide Statement 3 is correct: Indian secularism is
up to 10 per cent reservation to the based on the concept of principled distance
economically weaker sections (EWS) among between the state and the religion. This
means that the state gives equal preference personal liberty and government action (not
to every religion and respects them all citizenship).
equally. However, the state may interfere if Option b and d are incorrect: The Harm
such interference is deemed necessary. Principle of John Stuart Mill states that actions
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Political are permitted so long as they do not harm
Theory, chapter 8 someone else. Mill distinguishes between ‘self-
regarding’ actions, i.e., those actions that have
28. Ans: B consequences only for the individual and
Exp: nobody else, and ‘other regarding’ actions, i.e.,
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian those actions that also have consequences for
Constitution has ensured the independence of others. The state has no business interfering
the judiciary through a number of measures. in actions or choices that affect only one’s
The legislature is not involved in the process self-regarding actions. In contrast, with
of appointing judges. Thus, it was believed respect to actions that have consequences for
that party politics would not play a role in the others, actions that may cause harm to them,
process of making appointments. the state can interfere. There is no issue with
Statement 2 is correct: The judges have a actions that are harmful to the individuals
security of the tenure. They hold office till themselves. Example- If one wants to drink to
reaching the age of retirement (65 yr for the excess, one should be free to do so. But if one
Supreme Court and 62 yr for the High Court). gets behind the wheel of a car while under the
Only in exceptional cases, judges may be influence, then there’s good reason for the
removed. But otherwise, they have security of government to get involved.
tenure. Security of tenure ensures that judges Option c is correct: The principle is often to
can function without fear or favour. discuss about the limitations of state power.
Statement 3 is correct: The judiciary is not Constraining actions by the force of law should
financially dependent on either the executive or only happen when one’s actions cause serious
the legislature. The Constitution provides harm to other individuals. Whereas, social
that the salaries and allowances of the judges disapproval should be invoked for minor harm.
are not subject to the approval of the Otherwise, society must bear the inconvenience
legislature. in the spirit of protecting freedom.
Other measures to ensure the independence Reference: Chapter 2, Freedom, Political
of the judiciary include: Theory, Ncert.
• The actions and decisions of the judges
are immune from personal criticism. 30. Ans: D
• The judiciary has the power to penalise Exp:
those who are found guilty of the Statement 1 is incorrect: Positive liberty is to
contempt of court. provide opportunities by enabling positive
• Parliament cannot discuss the conduct conditions in material, political and social
of the judges except when the domains for the development of an individual.
proceeding to remove a judge is being It means freedom as the expansion of
carried out.
opportunities to express one’s self.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Statement 2 is incorrect: Negative liberty
Constitution at Work, chapter 6
seeks to define and defend an area in which the
29. Ans: C individual would be inviolable, in which he or
Exp: she could ‘do, be or become’ whatever he or she
Option a is incorrect: The Harm principle is wished to ‘do, be or become’. This is an area in
a basic premise of liberalism. John Stuart Mill which no external authority can interfere in the
was the first to propose it. The principle asserts exercise of free will.
that people should be allowed to act however Reference: Chapter 2, Freedom, Political
they want as long as their actions do not cause Theory, Ncert.
harm to others. It is a principle concerning
31. Ans: D the instances or disputes that fall under the

Exp: original jurisdiction:
Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the • Disputes between the Government
convention developed over the years, the of India on the one side and one or
appointment of the Chief Justice of India is more States on the other side.
determined by the President of India amongst • Disputes between the Government
the senior-most judges of the Supreme Court. of India and one or more States on
The Constitution of India does not explicitly one side and one or more States on
prescribe the process of appointing of CJI. the other side.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As per Article 124 • Disputes between two or more
and Article 217, the other Judges of the states
Supreme Court and the High Court are
appointed by the President after consulting
the CJI. This, in effect, meant that the final
decisions in matters of appointment rested with
the Council of Ministers.
32. Ans: A
Exp:
Marxism was an important political ideology
that argued that the root cause of entrenched
inequality was private ownership of
important economic resources such as oil, land,
or forests, as well as other forms of property. It
pointed out that such private ownership did not
only make the owners wealthy, it also gave
them political power. Such power enables them
to influence state policies and laws, and this
could prove a threat to democratic government.
Marxists and socialists feel that economic Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
inequality provides support for other forms Constitution at Work, chapter 6
of social inequality, such as differences of rank
or privilege. Therefore, to tackle inequality in 34. Ans: D
society, we need to go beyond providing equal Exp:
opportunities and try to ensure public control Option D is correct: The most important
over essential resources and forms of power of the Supreme Court is the power of
property. judicial review. Judicial Review means the
• Liberalism upholds the principle of free power of the Supreme Court (or High
and fair competition as the most Courts) to examine the constitutionality of
efficient and fair way of distributing any law. If the Court arrives at the
resources and rewards in society. conclusion that the law is inconsistent with
Reference : class 11th NCERT, chapter 3 the provisions of the Constitution, such a law
is declared unconstitutional and
33. Ans: A inapplicable. The term judicial review is
Exp: nowhere mentioned in the Constitution. As per
Original jurisdiction: Certain cases are article 13 (2) the union or state shall not make
exclusively within the Supreme Court's any law in contravention of a fundamental right.
jurisdiction. This means that all such cases The fact that India has a written constitution and
begin or originate solely with the Supreme the Supreme Court can strike down a law that
Court. This also means that similar cases cannot goes against fundamental rights, implicitly
be filed in any other court. The following are
10
gives the Supreme Court the power of judicial Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
review. Constitution at Work, chapter 9
Judicial Review does not cover the power of
the judiciary to question the wisdom of the
laws enacted by the legislature. Also, it does not 36. Ans: C
cover the power of the judiciary to review the Exp:
legislative enactments before they are Judicial activism refers to the judiciary's
assented to by the President. proactive involvement in defending citizens'
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian rights. Judicial activism was first practised and
Constitution at Work, chapter 6 developed in the USA. The Supreme Court and
the High Courts of India have the authority to
35. Ans: D review the constitutionality of any statute, and
Exp: if they find it to be in conflict with the
The Indian Constitution is often referred to as a constitution's provisions, they have the
"living document" due to several factors that authority to declare it unconstitutional. It must
allow it to adapt and remain relevant to be highlighted that the inferior courts lack the
changing times and societal needs. The concept authority to examine the legality of laws.
of a living document means that the There is, however, a negative side to the large
Constitution is not rigid or fixed; instead, it can number of PILs and the idea of a pro-active
be interpreted, amended, and applied in ways judiciary. First, judicial activism has blurred
that accommodate the evolving dynamics of the line of distinction between the executive
society. and legislature on the one hand and the
The following are factors that make the Indian judiciary on the other. Hence, statement 1 is
Constitution a living document: correct.
• Flexibility - In the actual working of the Secondly, it has overburdened the courts.
Constitution, there has been enough Hence, statement 2 is correct. The court has
flexibility in interpretations. Both political been involved in resolving questions that
practice and judicial rulings have shown belong to the executive, such as reducing air or
maturity and flexibility in implementing sound pollution, investigating cases of
the Constitution. corruption, or bringing about electoral reform,
which is not exactly the duty of the Judiciary.
• Amendment Process: The Constitution
These are matters to be handled by the
can be amended to address emerging issues
administration under the supervision of the
and challenges. Our Constitution accepts
legislatures.
the necessity of modifications according
Source: Class 11th NCERT: Indian
to changing needs of society. This allows
Constitution at Work, Chapter 6
the Constitution to evolve in response to
changing circumstances.
37. Ans: C
• Judicial Interpretation: The judiciary Exp:
plays a crucial role in interpreting the Statement 1 is incorrect: The provisions
Constitution. The Constitution is made relating to Citizenship can be found in Part
applicable in modern times by the court's Two of the Indian Constitution and in
decisions, which offer new interpretations subsequent laws passed by Parliament. Articles
of constitutional provisions and modify 5–11 (Part II) of the Constitution are related
them to fit current circumstances. to Citizenship in India.
• Inclusivity: The Constitution Statement 2 is correct: Citizenship is
acknowledges the diversity of India's described as the full and equal membership
population and provides mechanisms for of a Political community. It means that all
the representation and protection of various citizens have equal Rights and enjoy all civil as
communities. This inclusivity allows the well as Political Rights under the protection of
Constitution to remain relevant in a the State in return for their loyalty to the State.
pluralistic society Statement 3 is correct: Citizenship involves
certain rights as well as the obligations of
11
citizens to each other and to society. These administrative powers and bring governance
would include not just the legal obligations closer to the local population.
imposed by states but also a moral obligation to Statement 2 is correct: However, due to the
participate in and contribute to the shared life of slow progress of this local board, the Indian
the community. The Rights (Fundamental National Congress urged the government to
Rights) and obligations (Fundamental Duties) take the necessary steps to make all local bodies
for citizens are listed in the Indian Constitution more effective. Following the Government of
as well. India Act of 1919, village panchayats were
Reference: Chapter 6, Citizenship, Political established in a number of provinces. This
Theory. trend continued after the Government of India
Act of 1935.
38. Ans: A Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Exp: Constitution at Work, chapter 8
“Patriotism cannot be our final spiritual
shelter; my refuge is humanity. I will not buy
glass for the price of diamonds, and I will never 40. Ans: A
allow patriotism to triumph over humanity as Exp:
long as I live.”. Ramabai Dongre (1858–1922) championed
Statement 1 is incorrect: Rabindranath was the cause of women’s education. She never
not a blind follower of patriotism. He was very went to school but learnt to read and write from
critical of the narrow expressions of her parents. She was given the title ‘Pandita’
nationalism. Rather he was a worshipper of because she could read and write Sanskrit, a
truth and valued the principles of Humanity. remarkable achievement as women then were
Tagore made a distinction between opposing not allowed such knowledge. She went on to
western imperialism and rejecting western set up a Mission in Khedgaon near Pune in
civilisation. He thought that while Indians 1898, where widows and poor women were
should be rooted in their own civilization and encouraged not only to become literate but
cultural heritage, they should not resist learning to be independent. They were taught a variety
freely and profitably from the west. He was of skills from carpentry to running a printing
afraid that a rejection of the west in favour of press, skills that are not usually taught to girls
Indian traditions was limiting in itself and It even today.
could also easily turn into hostility to other Source: Ncert class 8th, Social and Political
influences from abroad, including Christianity, Life-III) Chapter 5
Judaism, Zoroastrianism and Islam. He was not
a fierce critique of the western civilization and
values. Instead he wanted to learn from the 41. Ans: A
west. Thus, statement 2 is correct and the Exp:
statement 3 is not correct. Statement 1 is correct: Removal of a judge is
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Political a very difficult procedure, and unless there is a
Theory, chapter 7 general consensus among Members of
Parliament, a judge cannot be removed. A
39. Ans: C judge of the Supreme Court or High Court
Exp: can be removed only on the ground of proved
Statement 1 is correct: In modern times, misbehaviour or incapacity. A motion
elected local government bodies were created containing the charges against the judge must
after 1882. Lord Ripon, who served as the be approved by a special majority in both
Viceroy of India from 1880 to 1884, is known Houses of Parliament.
for introducing significant reforms in local Statement 2 is incorrect: So far, only one case
governance. One of his notable contributions of the removal of a judge of the Supreme Court
was the creation of local self-government has come up for consideration before
institutions called "local boards." These Parliament. In that case, though the motion
reforms were part of an effort to decentralise got a two-thirds majority, it did not have the
support of the majority of the total strength
12
of the House, and therefore, the judge was Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
not removed. Constitution at Work, chapter 8
Constitution at Work, chapter 44. Ans: C
Exp:
42. Ans: C Local government is government at the village
Exp: and district level. Local government is about
The 73rd Amendment to the Constitution of setting up government closest to the common
India, also known as the Constitution (Seventy- people. Local government is about government
Third Amendment) Act, 1992, is landmark that involves the day-to-day lives and problems
legislation that brought significant changes to of ordinary citizens. Local government believes
the Panchayati Raj system in India. Enacted in that local knowledge and local interest are
1992, this amendment aimed to strengthen local essential ingredients for democratic decision
self-governance in rural areas by providing making. This process started in British times,
constitutional status and autonomy to and Lord Rippon is known as the father of
panchayats. The changes brought about by the “local governance”. But after Independence,
73rd Amendment in Panchayati Raj institutions various committees were formed for local
are: governance. Some of these committees were :
Three Tier Structure: All States now have a • Balwant rai mehta committee
uniform three tier Panchayati Raj structure. • Ashok mehta committee
At the base is the ‘Gram Panchayat‘. A Gram • P.K.Thungon
Panchayat covers a village or group of villages. • Punchhi commission
The intermediary level is the Mandal (also • G V K Rao committee
referred to as a block or Taluka). The • L M Singhvi committee
intermediary level body need not be Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
constituted in smaller States. At its apex is the Constitution at Work, chapter 8
Zilla Panchayat, which covers the entire rural
area of the District. The amendment also 45. Ans: D
made a provision for the mandatory creation Exp:
of the Gram Sabha. The Gram Sabha would Reservations were provided for the deprived
comprise all the adult members registered as sections of society according to their
voters in the Panchayat area. Its role and population, and one extra advantage of
functions are decided by the state legislature. panchayati raj institutions is that reservations
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian were provided to women also.
Constitution at Work, chapter 8 Statement 1 is incorrect: One third of the
positions in all panchayat institutions are
43. Ans: B reserved for women. It is important to note that
Exp: these reservations apply not merely to ordinary
Statement 1 is incorrect: The State members in Panchayats but also to the positions
government is required to appoint a State of chairpersons, or adhyakshas, at all three
Election Commissioner who would be levels. Further, reservation of one-third of the
responsible for conducting elections to the seats for women is not merely in the general
Panchayati Raj institutions. Earlier, this task category of seats but also within the seats
was performed by the State administration, reserved for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled
which was under the control of the State tribes, and backward castes.
government. Statement 2 is incorrect: The State
Statement 2 is correct: The office of the State government is required to appoint a State
Election Commissioner is autonomous, like the Election Commissioner who would be
Election Commissioner of India. The State responsible for conducting elections to the
Election Commissioner is an independent Panchayati Raj institutions. Earlier, this task
officer who is neither linked to nor under the was performed by the State administration,
control of the Election Commission of India. which was under the control of the State
government. Now, the office of the State
13
Election Commissioner is autonomous, like the • It has set specific limits on

Election Commissioner of India. However, the Parliament’s power to amend the
State Election Commissioner is an independent Constitution. It says that no
officer who is neither linked to nor under the amendment can violate the basic
control of the Election Commission of India. structure of the Constitution.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian • It allows Parliament to amend any
Constitution at Work, chapter 8 and all parts of the Constitution
(within this limitation). Hence,
46. Ans: A Statement 2 is correct
Exp: • It places the Judiciary as the final
Statement-I is correct: Under Article 371A, authority in deciding if an
the privilege of special status was accorded amendment violates basic structure
to the North-Eastern State of Nagaland. It and what constitutes the basic
not only gives validity to pre-existing laws structure. Hence, Statement 3 is
within Nagaland but also protects local correct.
identity through restrictions on Reference: NCERT Class 11th, Indian
immigration. Other states with special status Constitution at Work, chapter 9
are Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat,
Telangana, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal 48. Ans: D
Pradesh, Assam, Goa, Manipur, and Karnataka. Exp:
Statement-II is correct: “Asymmetric The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes
federalism” means federalism based on unequal (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, was framed in
powers and relationships in political, 1989 in response to demands made by Dalits
administrative, and fiscal spheres between the and others that the government must take
units constituting a federation. Unlike the seriously the ill treatment and humiliation
constitutional symmetry of American Dalits and tribal groups face in an everyday
federalism, Indian federalism has been sense. The Act distinguishes several levels of
constitutionally asymmetric with a strong crimes. Some of them are:
central government. • Force a member of a Scheduled
Hence, Both Statement-I and Statement-II Caste or a Scheduled Tribe to drink
are correct, and Statement-II is the correct or eat any inedible or obnoxious
explanation for Statement-I. substance. Hence, Statement 1 is
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian correct.
Constitution at Work, chapter 10 • Forcibly removes clothes from the
person of a member of a Scheduled
47. Ans: B Caste or a Scheduled Tribe or
Exp: parades him or her naked or with
Statement 1 is incorrect: The "Basic painted face or body or commits
Structure" doctrine refers to a legal principle any similar act which is derogatory
established by the Supreme Court of India that to human dignity. Hence,
certain core elements or principles of the Statement 2 is correct.
Constitution cannot be altered or amended by • Wrongfully occupies or cultivates
the Parliament, even if the amendment process any land owned by, or allotted to,
provided by the Constitution is followed. This … a member of a Scheduled Caste
doctrine acts as a safeguard against arbitrary or a Scheduled Tribe or gets the
changes that could undermine the fundamental land allotted to him transferred.
principles and values enshrined in the Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
Constitution. The concept of the basic • Assaults or uses force on any
structure was first introduced in the woman belonging to a Scheduled
landmark judgement of Kesavananda Caste or a Scheduled Tribe with
Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973). intent to dishonour her. Hence,
This ruling has contributed to the evolution of Statement 4 is correct.
the Constitution in the following ways:
14
Source: Ncert class 8th, Social and colour, race, etc. have been made by society
Political Life-III) Chapter 5 rather than based on inborn characteristics.
Reference : Class 11th NCERT, Political
49. Ans: A Theory, chapter 3, Equality,
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: The Indian 51. Ans: B
Constitution does not make the enjoyment of Exp:
rights dependent or conditional upon the The Constitution of India provides for a single
fulfillment of duties. In this sense, the
integrated judicial system. This means that,
inclusion of fundamental duties has not
unlike some other federal countries in the
changed the status of our fundamental rights.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Fundamental world, India does not have separate State
Duties were added to the Constitution by the courts. The structure of the judiciary in India is
42nd Amendment in 1976, upon the pyramidal, with the Supreme Court at the top,
recommendations of the Swaran Singh the High Courts below them, and district and
Committee. The Fundamental duties are subordinate courts at the lowest level. The
applicable only to citizens and not to lower courts function under the direct
Foreigners whereas, some of the superintendence of the higher courts.
fundamental rights are available to only Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court is
citizens i.e Prohibition of discrimination on the the apex court in the country and its decisions
grounds of race, religion, caste, sex or place of are binding on all other courts of the country.
birth, Equality of opportunity in matters of Statement 2 and 3 are incorrect: See the
public employment, etc while some diagram below.
Fundamental rights are available to both
citizens and foreigners i.e.Equality before law
and Equal protection of law, Protection of life
and personal liberty, etc.
50. Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: Some people argue that
inequality is natural while others maintain that
it is equality which is natural and the
inequalities which we notice around us are Source: Class 11th NCERT: Indian
created by the society. People are not equal by Constitution at Work, Chapter 6
birth as they differ in traits, ability and talents.
52. Ans: C
Human beings differ physically, mentally and
Exp:
intellectual strengths. But these natural
Statement 1 is correct: Some Provisions in
differences cannot be changed also. These the Constitution can be amended by a simple
inequalities are the result of different law of Parliament. i.e., a simple majority. No
characteristics and abilities of inborn qualities special procedure for amendment is required in
of a man. such cases. Such provisions include the
Statement 2 is incorrect: Socially produced abolition or creation of legislative councils in
inequalities emerge as a result of unequal states, salaries and allowances of the members
opportunities (not natural inequalities), i.e. of Parliament, privileges of the Parliament, its
family background, educational factors, members and its committees, conferment of
economic support etc. Social differences reflect more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court,
the values of society, which may appear to be citizenship–acquisition and termination,
unjust. The discrimination’s based on gender, elections to Parliament and state legislatures,
Fifth Schedule – administration of scheduled
15
areas and scheduled tribes; and Sixth Schedule– indicates areas of shared jurisdiction. While it
administration of tribal areas. defines the extent to which both levels of
Statement 2 is correct: A special majority government can make laws, it doesn't
refers to any majority other than a simple, necessarily prescribe limitations on state
absolute, and effective majority. It is a majority action as directly as Fundamental Rights do.
of two-third members present and voting, along Option D is incorrect: State legislatures have
with 50% of the total strength of the House. The the authority to make laws on subjects
provisions that can be amended in this way mentioned in the State List of the Constitution.
include Fundamental Rights and Directive These powers outline the legislative scope of
Principles of State Policy. state governments within their territories.
Statement 3 is correct: Some provisions, like While they define the areas in which state
the election of the President and its manner, the legislatures can act, they don't inherently
extent of the executive power of the Union and suggest restrictions on state action similar to
the states, the Supreme Court and high courts, Fundamental Rights.
the distribution of legislative powers between Reference: NCERT Class 11th Political
the Union and the states, any of the lists in the Theory, chapter 5
Seventh Schedule, the representation of states
in Parliament, and the power of Parliament to 54. Ans: D
amend the Constitution and its procedure Exp:
(Article 368 itself), are amended by a special The 42nd Amendment Act of the
majority of the Parliament and the consent Constitution of India, enacted in 1976, was
of half of the State legislatures. introduced during the period of the Emergency
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian declared in India from 1975 to 1977. Some of
Constitution at Work, chapter 9 the key changes brought about by the 42nd
Amendment Act include:
53. Ans: A • Fundamental Duties: Part IV-A was
Exp: added to the Constitution, introducing the
concept of Fundamental Duties for citizens.
Option A is correct: Rights not only indicate
These duties emphasise respect for the
what the state must do, they also suggest what
Constitution, national symbols, and values
the state must refrain from doing. The
and encourage citizens to promote
Constitution of India duly recognizes the
harmony, patriotism, and a sense of
importance of human rights and guarantees
integrity. Hence, statement 1 is correct .
certain Fundamental Rights in Part-III, It
• The duration of the Lok Sabha was
includes:
extended from five to six years by the
1. Right of equality,
42nd Amendment Act of 1976. Hence,
2. Right to freedom
statement 2 is correct.
3. Right against exploitation,
• Judicial Review Limitation: The
4. Right to freedom of religion, cultural and
Amendment curtailed the power of the
educational right
judiciary to review the validity of laws
5. The right to constitutional remedies
amending the Constitution. It was intended
Article 32 gives the right to constitutional
to limit the judiciary's ability to challenge
remedy in the form of original jurisdiction of
Constitutional Amendments, thereby
the Supreme Court of India for the enforcement
reducing checks on the government's
of these Fundamental Rights.
power. Hence, statement 3 is correct .
Option B is incorrect: Directive Principles of
State Policy are guidelines and principles in the
Indian Constitution that suggest the ideal
framework for governance. They are not
55. Ans: A
legally enforceable but serve as a moral and
political compass for the state. Exp:
Option C is incorrect: The Concurrent List The Indian Constitution establishes two
comprises subjects on which both the central different forms of government: the Union
and state governments can legislate. It government (central government), which
16
oversees the entire country, and the State 8 per cent of India’s population is Adivasi and
government, which oversees each unit or State. many of India’s most important mining and
Both of these are constitutionally recognized industrial centres are located in Adivasi areas –
and have a distinct scope of action. Jamshedpur, Rourkela, Bokaro and Bhilai
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution among others.
(and not an ordinary parliamentary law) clearly Statement 2 is incorrect: Adivasis practise a
demarcates subjects, which are under the range of tribal religions that are different from
exclusive domain of the Union, from those Islam, Hinduism and Christianity. These
under the States. often involve the worship of ancestors, village
Statement 2 is incorrect: there are some and nature spirits, the last associated with and
subjects that do not find mention in any of the residing in various sites in the landscape –
three lists provided in the seventh schedule, and ‘mountain-spirits’, ‘river-spirits’, ‘animal-
the power to legislate on any of those subjects spirits’, etc.
is solely vested in the central government (the Statement 3 is correct: Adivasis have their
parliament). own languages (most of them radically
Statement 3 is correct: some of the provisions different from and possibly as old as Sanskrit),
of the constitution have made Indian federalism which have often deeply influenced the
a federalism with a strong centre such as: formation of ‘mainstream’ Indian languages,
• Emergency provisions like Bengali. Santhali has the largest number of
• No territorial integrity for states speakers and has a significant body of
• Dependence of states on centremin publications including magazines on the
matters of financial resources, etc. internet.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian Source: Ncert class 8th, Social and Political
Constitution at Work, chapter 7 Life-III) Chapter 5
56. Ans: A 58. Ans: C

Exp: Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Secularism is one of Affirmative action: Banks offer higher rates of
the basic features of the Constitution. The term interest to senior citizens because senior
‘Secular’ was added to the preamble by the citizens have contributed to the development
forty-second Constitution Amendment Act and service of society throughout their age.
of 1976 (not 44th Constitutional Amendment Their age increases but their income decreases
Act).As per the Indian Constitution, India is a
due to medical needs and social needs.
secular country which has no State religion.
Equality of opportunity: Every child should
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Indian
Constitution reflects a Positive concept of get free education because every child should
Secularism. The Indian constitution has more get an equal opportunity to get education, i.e.
power than any religion in the country and the no one should be discriminated against on any
State acts as an enabler in the religious ground. This type of inequality is against the
freedoms of all communities. principle of equality.
Statement 3 is correct: The Secular State does Equal Rights: Every adult citizen has a right to
not have to treat every aspect of every religion vote. This principle is based on one person one
with equal respect. It allows equal disrespect vote one value, i.e. every adult citizen enjoys
for some aspects of organised religions. the right to vote. No citizen should be
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Political discriminated against on any ground to be
Theory, chapter 8 exempt from enjoying the right to vote.
Reference : Class 11th NCERT, Political
57. Ans: B
Theory, chapter 3, Equality,
Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Adivasis – the term 59. Ans: C
literally means ‘original inhabitants’ – are
Exp:
communities who lived, and often continue to
live, in close association with forests. Around Federalism is a system of government in which
power is divided between a central authority
17
and various constituent units of the country. disadvantage. Hence, Statement 3 is

Usually, a federation has two levels of incorrect.
government. One is the government for the
entire country, which is usually responsible for 61. Ans: C
a few subjects of common national interest. The Exp:
others are governments at the level of provinces The Constitution of India, under the seventh
or states that look after much of the day-to-day schedule, clearly demarcates subjects, which
administration of their state. Both levels of are under the exclusive domain of the Union
government enjoy their power independently of and those under the States.
each other. The federal system thus has dual
objectives: to safeguard and promote the unity
of the country, while at the same time
accommodating regional diversity. Therefore,
two aspects are crucial for the institutions and
practice of federalism. Governments at
different levels should agree to some rules of
power-sharing. They should also trust that each
will abide by its part of the agreement. An ideal
federal system has both aspects: mutual trust
and an agreement to live together.
60. Ans: B
Exp:
Democracy is not a magical solution for all the
problems. It has not ended poverty in our
country or in other parts of the world.
Democracy as a form of government only
ensures that people take their own decisions.
This does not guarantee that their decisions will
be good. People can make mistakes.
Some disadvantages of Democracy are:
• Leaders keep changing in a democracy.
62. Ans: D
This leads to instability. Hence,
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct.
• Article 257 deals with the control of the
• Democracy is all about political
Union over States in certain cases. It
competition and power plays. There is
provides that the executive power of every
no scope for morality.
state shall be exercised so as not to impede
• Democracy leads to corruption because
or prejudice the exercise of the executive
it is based on electoral competition.
power of the Union, and the executive
Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
power of the Union shall extend to giving
• So many people have to be consulted in
such directions to a state as may appear to
a democracy that it leads to delays.
the Government of India to be necessary for
• Elected leaders do not know the best
that purpose.
interests of the people. It leads to bad
• In short, the Union Government can issue
decisions.
directions to the State Government even
• Ordinary people don’t know what is
with regard to the subjects enumerated in
good for them; they should not decide
the state list.
anything.
• Promoting equality is one of the
benefits of democracy, not a
18
63. Ans: C Statement 2 is incorrect: The most

Exp: extraordinary feature of the federal
In 1983, the Central Government appointed a arrangement created in India is that many States
three-member Commission on Centre-state get a differential treatment. Due to the size
Relations to review the workings of the existing and population of each State being different,
arrangements between the Union and the States an asymmetrical representation is provided
in the changed socio-economic scenario. in the Rajya Sabha. While ensuring minimum
Sarkaria Commission Recommendations on representation for each of the smaller States,
Governor this arrangement also ensures that larger states
• The Governor Should be a respected get more representation.
individual and an outsider to the Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
state. Constitution at Work, chapter 7
• He may or may not have been actively
involved in politics prior to his 65. Ans: C
appointment. Exp:
• After leaving office, the person Democracy is a system of government by the
designated as Governor should not be whole population or all the eligible members of
eligible for any further appointments or a state, typically through elected
prestigious positions in the Union or a representatives. Democracy is a better form of
State Government, with the exception government when compared with dictatorship
of a second term as Governor or or any other alternative. The democracy is
election as Vice-President or President better because it:
of India. • Promotes equality among citizens.
• At the end of the Governor’s tenure, Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
reasonable benefits after retirement • Enhances the dignity of the individual.
should be offered. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• Governors should be impartial and • Improves the quality of decision-
not overly involved in the State’s making. Hence, Statement 3 is
regional politics. correct.
• He must be chosen after consulting • Provides a method to resolve conflicts.
with the Lok Sabha Speaker, the Vice- Hence, Statement 4 is correct.
President of India, and the State’s Chief • Allows room to correct mistakes.
Minister. Hence, Statement 5 is correct.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian Source: Ncert, Class 10th, Democratic Politics
Constitution at Work, chapter 7 II, Chapter 5
66. Ans: B
64. Ans: A Exp:
Exp: Our Constitution ensures that persons accused
Statement 1 is correct: The States of various offences would also get sufficient
Reorganisation Commission (SRC) was protection. We often tend to believe that anyone
established in India in December 1953. Its who is charged with some offence is guilty.
major goal was to investigate and advocate state However, no one is guilty unless the court has
rearrangement in the country based on found that person guilty of an offence. It is also
linguistic and administrative necessary that a person accused of any crime
characteristics. The SRC issued its report in should get adequate opportunity to defend
1955, and its recommendations served as the herself or himself. To ensure a fair trial in
foundation for the States Organisation Act courts, the Constitution has provided three
of 1956, which resulted in the organisation of rights:
states along linguistic lines as well as the • no person would be punished for the
formation of additional states and union same offence more than once. Hence,
territories. This measure became law on Statement 1 is correct.
November 1, 1956.
19
• No criminal law shall declare any The courts can issue various special orders
action as illegal from a known as writs.
backdate. Hence, Statement 2 is • Habeas corpus: A writ of habeas corpus
correct. means that the court orders that the arrested
• no person shall be asked to give person should be presented before it. It can
evidence against himself or also order to set free an arrested person if
herself. Hence, Statement 3 is the manner or grounds of arrest are not
incorrect. lawful or satisfactory.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian • Mandamus: This writ is issued when the
Constitution at Work, chapter 2 court finds that a particular office holder is
not doing legal duty and thereby is
67. Ans: C infringing on the right of an individual.
Exp: Hence, Statement 1 is correct
Federalism is a system of government in which • Prohibition: This writ is issued by a
power is divided and shared between a central higher court (High Court or Supreme
governing authority and individual constituent Court) when a lower court has considered a
political units, such as states or provinces. case going beyond its jurisdiction.
These constituent units retain a degree of • Quo Warranto: If the court finds that a
sovereignty and autonomy while also person is holding office but is not entitled
participating in a unified national or federal to hold that office, it issues the writ of quo
government. warranto and restricts that person from
Some features of Federalism: acting as an office holder. Hence,
• Two sets of polities—one at the Statement 2 is incorrect
regional level and the other at the • Certiorari: Under this writ, the court
national level. Each government is orders a lower court or another authority to
autonomous in its own sphere. transfer a matter pending before it to the
• The people, likewise, have two sets of higher authority or court. Hence,
identities and loyalties—they belong to Statement 3 is incorrect
the region as well as the nation Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
• The details of this dual system of Constitution at Work, chapter 2
government are generally spelt out in a
written constitution, which is 69. Ans: A
considered to be supreme and which is Exp:
also the source of the power of both sets While identifying different kinds of
of government inequalities that exist in society, various
• To prevent conflicts between the thinkers and ideologies have highlighted
centre and the State, there is an three main dimensions of equality namely,
independent judiciary to settle political, social and economic. It is only by
disputes.
addressing each of these three different
dimensions of equality can we move towards a
more just and equal society.
Option 1 is correct: Social equality aims to
68. Ans: C minimize the effects of social and economic
Exp: inequalities and guarantee certain minimum
Our Constitution contains a very impressive list conditions of life to all the members of the
of Fundamental Rights. But merely writing society — adequate health care, the opportunity
down a list of rights is not enough. There has to for good education, adequate nourishment and
be a way through which they can be realised in a minimum wage, among other things. In the
practice and defended against any attack on absence of such facilities it is exceedingly
these rights. Right to constitutional remedies is difficult for all the members of the society to
the means through which this is to be achieved. compete on equal terms.
20
Option 2 is correct: In democratic societies a constitutional right under Article 300A of

political equality would normally include the Constitution of India.
granting equal citizenship to all the members Statement 2 is incorrect: Abolition of
of the state. Certain basic rights such as the Untouchability (Article 17) was
right to vote, freedom of expression, movement incorporated in Part III of the Indian
and association and freedom of belief. These constitution. It is a Fundamental Right
under the Right to Equality (not under Right
are rights which are considered necessary to
against Exploitation).
enable citizens to develop themselves and
Statement 3 is correct: All persons are
participate in the affairs of the state. equally entitled to freedom of conscience and
Option 3 is correct: The degree of economic the right to profess, practice and propagate
inequality in a society would be to measure religion freely. However, it does not mean that
the relative difference between the richest one can force another person to convert his/her
and poorest groups. Marxists and socialists religion by force or allurement.
feel that economic inequality provides support Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
to other forms of social inequality such as Constitution at Work, chapter 2
differences of rank or privilege.
Reference : Class 11th NCERT, Political 72. Ans: C
Theory, chapter 3, Equality, Exp:
The right to constitutional remedies under
70. Ans: B Article 32 is the means through which the
Fundamental Rights could be realized in
Exp:
practice and defended against any attack. It
Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are
provides a citizen the right to directly
correct and Statement 2 is not the correct
approach the Supreme Court to issue
explanation for Statement 1
directions, orders or writs for the
• Statement 1 is correct: The 42nd
enforcement of Fundamental Rights. Dr.
amendment to the Indian
Ambedkar considered the right to constitutional
Constitution was seen as a wide
remedies as the ‘heart and soul of the
ranging amendment affecting large
constitution.’
parts of the Constitution. Hence, it is
also called as the Mini
Constitution.Various changes were
made in the Preamble, DPSP’s, 7th
73. Ans: C
schedule, Fundamental Duties etc. It
also attempted to make changes in Exp:
the Judicial Powers of High Court. Statement 1 is correct: In Kesavananda
• Statement 2 is correct: The 38th, 39th
Bharati v. State of Kerala judgement ,1973 the
and 42nd amendments were made in Supreme Court of India held that
the background of internal emergency Secularism is a part of the basic structure of
declared in the country from June 1975. the Constitution.
They sought to make basic changes in Statement 2 is incorrect: Indian secularism
many crucial parts of the Constitution. rejects non-interference in religion. But it is not
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian excessively interventionist. Indian
Constitution at Work, chapter 1 secularism follows the concept of principled
distance. Besides, interference need not
71. Ans: A automatically mean coercive intervention.
Statement 3 is correct: In India, Secularism is
Exp:
reflected in the Preamble of India. The term
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Right to
‘Secular’ was added to the preamble by the
Property created problems in attaining the goal
42nd constitution Amendment Act of 1976.
of socialism and equitable distribution of
This is also reflected in the fundamental
wealth. It was removed from the list of
rights especially from Article 25-28.
Fundamental Rights in 1978 by the 44th
constitutional amendment. However, it is still
21
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Political Reference : Class 11th NCERT, Political
Theory, chapter 8 Theory, chapter 3, Equality,
74. Ans: C 76. Ans: A

Exp: Exp:
Pair 1 is incorrect: Prohibition is issued by a Statement 1 is correct: While ordinary legal
higher court (High Court or Supreme Court) rights are protected and enforced by ordinary
when a lower court has considered a case law, Fundamental Rights are protected and
going beyond its jurisdiction. If the court finds guaranteed by the constitution of the country.
that a person is holding office but is not entitled Ordinary rights may be changed by the
to hold that office, it issues the writ of quo legislature through the ordinary process of
warranto and restricts that person from law making, but a fundamental right may
acting as an office holder. only be changed by amending the
Pair 2 is correct: Habeas corpus means that Constitution itself.
the court orders that the arrested person Statement 2 is incorrect: Right to form
should be presented before it. It can also order associations or unions may have restrictions
to set free an arrested person if the manner or in the interests of the sovereignty and
grounds of arrest are not lawful or satisfactory. integrity of India, public order or morality.
Pair 3 is correct: Mandamus means ‘We Right to movement may have restrictions for
command.’ This writ is used by the court to the protection of the interests of any Scheduled
order the public official who has failed to Tribe i.e.Inner line permit in the state of
perform his duty or refused to do his duty. Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Nagaland,
Besides public officials, Mandamus can be Manipur and Lakshadweep.
issued against any public body, a Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal, or Constitution at Work, chapter 2
government for the same purpose.
Pair 4 is correct: Certiorari, the court orders 77. Ans: A
a lower court or another authority to Exp:
transfer a matter pending before it to the Statement 1 is correct: There are many
higher authority or court. Prohibition is a writ amendments that have been made as a result
issued by a higher court (High Court or of the consensus among the political parties.
Supreme Court) when a lower court has This consensus reflected the prevailing political
considered a case going beyond its philosophy and aspirations of the society.
jurisdiction. Example- The Anti-defection amendment
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian (52nd amendment), the 61st amendment
Constitution at Work, chapter 2 bringing down the minimum age for voting
from 21 to 18 years, the 73rd and the 74th
75. Ans: A amendments, etc.
Exp: Statement 2 is incorrect: A number of
Option (a) is correct: Equality is a powerful amendments are a product of different
moral and political ideal that has inspired and interpretations of the Constitution given by
the judiciary and the government of the day.
guided human society for many centuries. It is
When these clashed, the Parliament had to
implicit in all faiths and religions which
insert an amendment underlining one
proclaim all human beings to be the creation of particular interpretation as the authentic
God. As a political ideal the concept of one. In the period 1970-1975, the Parliament
equality invokes the idea that all human repeatedly made amendments to overcome the
beings have an equal worth regardless of adverse interpretations by the judiciary.
their colour, gender, race, or nationality. It Statement 3 is incorrect: All amendments to
maintains that human beings deserve equal the Constitution are initiated only in the
consideration and respect because of their Parliament. Besides the special majority in the
common humanity. Parliament, no outside agency like a
22
constitution commission or a separate body is and duties which also acts as an assurance to
required for amending the Constitution. its citizens.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian Statement 2 is correct: A Constitution is a
Constitution at Work, chapter 1. body of fundamental principles according to
which a state is constituted or governed. One of
78. Ans: B the essential functions of a constitution is to
Exp: specify who has the power to make decisions
Option 1 is correct: The liberalism of the in a society. It also decides how the
Indian Constitution differs from classical government will be constituted. This
liberalism in two ways. First, it guarantees includes not only the type of government but
fundamental rights to individuals, including also an agreement on certain ideals that they
freedom of speech, expression, religion, and the all believe the country should uphold.
right to equality. These rights are considered
essential to individual dignity and are protected
from encroachment by the government. 80. Ans: B
Option 2 is correct: Second, Liberalism was Exp:
always linked to social justice. Ex. provision The constitution of a democratic country lays
for reservations for Scheduled Castes and down some basic rules about elections, and
Scheduled Tribes in the Constitution. there are two types of election systems:
Option 3 is incorrect: Classical liberalism • First past the post system
always privileges the rights of individuals over • Proportional representation
demands for social justice and community Statement 1 is incorrect: In the first past the
values. While Indian liberalism creates a post system, a voter votes for the candidate and
balance between the Social Justice and not the political party for which the candidate is
Fundamental rights. Thus, the doctrine of contesting the elections, while in proportional
representation, a voter votes for the political
basic structure envisages harmony between
party.
the Fundamental rights and DPSP (Directive Statement 2 is correct: In first past the post
principles of State policy). system, only one candidate is elected from one
Indian liberalism has two streams. The first constituency, while in proportional
stream began with Rammohan Roy. He representation, more than one candidate can be
emphasized individual rights, particularly the elected from one constituency according to the
rights of women. The second stream included proportion of votes political parties get.
thinkers like K.C. Sen, Justice Ranade and
Swami Vivekananda. They introduced the spirit
of social justice within orthodox Hinduism. For
Vivekananda, such a reordering of Hindu
society could not have been possible without
liberal principles -K.M. Panikkar, In Defence of
Liberalism, Bombay, Asia publishing house,
1962

79. Ans: C
Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution
provides a set of basic rules that allow for
coordination amongst members of a society. It
also provides several Fundamental rights
23
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian Indian unity is not something imposed from the
Constitution at Work, chapter 3 outside but rather, “It was something deeper
and within its fold, the widest tolerance of
81. Ans: A belief and custom was practised and every
Exp: variety acknowledged and even
Statement 1 is incorrect: Citizenship is not encouraged.” It was Nehru, who coined the
merely a legal concept. It is also closely phrase, “unity in diversity” to describe the
related to larger notions of equality and country.
rights. It ensures equality by countering the
divisive effects of class hierarchy. It thus 84. Ans: A
facilitates the creation of a better-integrated and Exp:
more harmonious community. Article 324 of the Indian Constitution provides
Statement 2 is correct: The development of for an independent Election Commission for the
human personality depends on the system of ‘superintendence, direction, and control of the
rights available to individuals. Different state electoral roll and the conduct of elections’ in
systems recognise different rights- the rights India. This body administers elections to Lok
available to the Americans would be Sabha, rajya sabha, state legislative
different from those available to the Indians. assemblies, office of the president, office of
A liberal-democratic society would give the vicepresident, etc. The elections to the
local bodies are conducted by the State
primacy to different Rights than a socialist
Election Commission, which is established by
society.
the state government.
Reference: Chapter 6, Citizenship, Political Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Theory. Constitution at Work, chapter 3
82. Ans: C 85. Ans: C

Exp: Exp:
Statement 1 is correct: A nation-state is a Statement 1 is correct: The Universal
territorially bounded sovereign polity—i.e., Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) is a
a state—that is ruled in the name of a milestone document in the history of human
community of citizens who identify rights. Drafted by representatives with different
themselves as a nation. India defines itself as legal and cultural backgrounds from all regions
a secular, democratic, nation state. of the world, the Declaration was proclaimed
Statement 2 is correct: Nation states claim that by the United Nations General Assembly in
Paris on 10 December 1948 (General
their boundaries define not just a territory but
Assembly resolution 217 A) as a common
also a unique culture and shared history. The standard of achievements for all peoples and all
national identity may be expressed through nations.
symbols like a flag, national anthem, national Statement 2 is correct: It sets out, for the first
language, or certain ceremonial practises, time, fundamental human rights to be
among other things. universally protected and it has been
Reference: Chapter 6, Citizenship, Political translated into over 500 languages. The UDHR
Theory. is widely recognized as having inspired, and
paved the way for, the adoption of more than
83. Ans: C seventy human rights treaties, applied today
Exp: on a permanent basis at global and regional
India’s diversity has always been recognised as levels (all containing references to it in their
a source of its strength. When the British ruled preambles).
India, women and men from different cultural, Reference: NCERT Class 11th Political
Theory, chapter 5
religious and regional backgrounds came
together to oppose them. In his book The
Discovery of India, Jawaharlal Nehru says that
24
86. Ans: D Election Commission of India. It is appointed

Exp: for the purpose of drawing up the boundaries of
Nationalism and pluralism: constituencies all over the country.
Statement 1 is correct: it is necessary to Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
consider ways by which different cultures and Constitution at Work, chapter 3
communities can survive and flourish within a
country. It is in pursuit of this goal that many 88. Ans: A
democratic societies today have introduced Exp:
measures for recognising and protecting the The establishment of Panchayats at the
identity of cultural minority communities living grassroots level as part of the Panchayati Raj
within their territory. Thus, the political system in India can be explained as an exercise
philosophy of Pluralism is the recognition of to promote:
diversity within a political body to permit the Participatory Democracy : Panchayats
peaceful coexistence of different interests, encourage the active participation of local
communities and lifestyles. residents in the decision-making process. By
Statement 2 is correct: involving ordinary citizens in discussions and
In a nation, some small groups may demand a decisions about local issues, it fosters a sense of
separate statehood as a right to self ownership, accountability, and responsiveness
determination. To avoid excessive demands of in governance.
such types, different groups need to be Overall, the establishment of Panchayats at the
recognised as a part of the national community. grassroots level is a fundamental step towards
This means that the national identity has to be strengthening local governance, promoting
defined in an inclusive manner which can citizen engagement, and achieving sustainable
recognise the importance and unique and inclusive development. Hence, option 1 is
contribution of all the cultural communities correct.
within the state. The kinds of group rights Decentralisation: Panchayats represent a form
include constitutional protection for the of decentralised governance where decision-
language, cultures and religion, of minority making authority is devolved from higher levels
groups and their members. The Indian of government to the local level. This promotes
constitution also has an elaborate set of the distribution of power and resources,
provisions for the protection of religious, allowing communities to have more control
linguistic and cultural minorities. This makes over their own development. Hence, option 2
the indian polity and society pretty much is incorrect.
pluralistic in nature. Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Political Constitution at Work, chapter 8
Theory, chapter 7
87. Ans: D 89. Ans: D

Exp: Exp:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Election Statement 1 is incorrect: The Supreme Court
Commission is not concerned with the gave the Kesavananda ruling in 1973. In the
elections to the panchayats and past four decades, this decision has governed
municipalities in the states. For this, the all interpretations of the Constitution and all
Constitution of India provides for a separate institutions in the country have accepted the
State Election Commission. The Election theory of basic structure. In fact, the theory of
Commission of India administers elections to basic structure is itself an example of a living
the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative constitution. There is no mention of this theory
Assemblies, State legislative councils, and the in the Constitution. It has emerged from judicial
offices of the President and Vice President of interpretation. Thus, the Judiciary and its
the country. interpretation have practically amended the
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Delimitation Constitution without a formal amendment.
Commission is appointed by the President of Statement 2 is correct: The basic structure
India and works in collaboration with the doctrine has consolidated the balance between
25
rigidity and flexibility. By saying that certain constituency in the Proportional

parts cannot be amended, it has underlined the Representation system (not in the FPTP). In
rigid nature while by allowing amendments to the First Past the Post System, every
all others it has underlined the flexible nature of constituency elects one representative.
the amending process. Statement 3 is correct: In the Proportional
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian Representation system, the entire country
Constitution at Work, chapter 1 may be a single constituency. Example- In
some countries, like Israel or Netherlands,
90. Ans: C the entire country is treated as one constituency
Exp: and seats are allocated to each party according
Option C is correct: The Preamble of the to its share of votes in the national election.
Indian Constitution outlines the ideals and Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
objectives of the Constitution. It emphasizes Constitution at Work, chapter 3
the importance of securing justice, liberty,
equality, and fraternity while maintaining 93. Ans: B
individual dignity and promoting the unity Exp:
and integrity of the nation. These represent Statement 1 is correct: Adult franchise
both the social and individual aspects of human ensures that all citizens are able to participate in
rights. the process of selecting their representative.
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Political This is consistent with the principle of
Theory, chapter 5 equality and non-discrimination. Our
Constitution makers had a firm belief in the
91. Ans: C ability and worth of all adult citizens as equals
Exp: in the matter of deciding what is good for the
Statement 1 is correct: . Indian Secularism society, the country and for their own
deals not only with religious freedom of constituencies.
individuals but also with religious freedom Statement 2 is incorrect: The Right to Vote is
of minority communities. Within it, an a Constitutional Right in India (not
individual has the right to profess the religion Fundamental Right). The right to vote in the
of his or her choice. Likewise, religious Constitution of India is guaranteed under
minorities also have a right to exist and to Article 326.
maintain their own culture and educational Statement 3 is incorrect: S.R. Bommai vs
institutions. Union of India is a landmark Supreme Court
Statement 2 is correct: Indian secularism has decision on the basic structure of the
made room for and is compatible with the Constitution and the misuse of Article 356
idea of state-supported religious reform. (President’s Rule). Whereas, The 61st
Thus, the Indian constitution bans Amendment Act, 1989 of the Indian
untouchability. The Indian state has enacted Constitution reduced the voting age for
several laws abolishing child marriage and elections from 21 to 18 years.
lifting the taboo on inter-caste marriage Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian
sanctioned by Hinduism. Constitution at Work, chapter 3
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Political Theory,
chapter 8 94. Ans: C
Exp:
92. Ans: A The Constitution is a sacred document and it is
Exp: an instrument that may require changes from
Statement 1 is incorrect: The First Past the time to time. It is transformative in nature.
Post (FPTP) system (Not Proportional Constitution accepts the necessity of
Representation) offers voters a choice not modifications according to changing needs of
only between parties but also between the society. In the actual working of the
specific candidates. Constitution, there has been enough flexibility
Statement 2 is incorrect: More than one of interpretations. Since it was first enacted in
representative may be elected from one 1950, there have been 105 amendments to the
26
Constitution of India. All living documents began to gain wider acceptability at the
evolve through debates, arguments, time.
competition and practical politics. Statement 2 is correct: Subsequently, the idea
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian of one culture one state was employed while
Constitution at Work, chapter 1 reordering state boundaries after World War I.
The Treaty of Versailles established a number
95. Ans: C of small, newly independent states.
Exp: Statement 3 is correct: The right to national
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Election self-determination has also been asserted by
Commission of India recognises the political national liberation movements in Asia as
parties as all India (National) or State well as in Africa when they were struggling
(Regional) Political Parties. The recognition against colonial domination. Nationalist
as a national or a State party ensures that their movements maintained that political
election symbol is not used by any other independence would provide dignity and
political entity in polls across India. recognition to the colonized people and also
Statement 2 is incorrect: The help them to protect the collective interests of
superintendence, direction and control of the their people.
preparation of the electoral rolls for the Reference: NCERT Class 11th Political
conduct of elections to Parliament, to the Theory, chapter 7
Legislature of every State, to the offices of
President and VicePresident is vested in the 97. Ans: A
Election Commission of India. Exp:
Statement 3 is incorrect: A Returning Officer The statement in option a is incorrect:
is responsible for overseeing the election in a Citizenship on a broader perspective, especially
constituency, or sometimes in two Indian Citizenship involves three kinds of
constituencies, as directed by the Election rights: civil, political, and social. Civil rights
Commission (EC). The EC appoints the protect an individual’s life, liberty, and
Returning Officer and Assistant Returning property. Political rights enable individuals
Officer for a constituency in consultation with to participate in the process of governance.
the governments of the State or Union Territory Social rights give individuals access to
as the case may be. All the nomination papers education and employment. Together, they
relating to the State Legislative election are make it possible for the citizen to lead a life of
submitted to the Returning Officer and dignity
scrutinized by him/her. The statement in Option b is correct: The
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Indian Indian Constitution adopted an essentially
Constitution at Work, chapter 3 democratic and inclusive notion of
citizenship. It facilitates the integration of
96. Ans: C outsiders by providing an easy and transparent
Exp: pathway to citizenship. In India, citizenship can
NATIONAL SELF-DETERMINATION: be acquired by birth, descent, registration,
It declares that peoples have the right to freely naturalisation, or inclusion of territory.
choose their sovereignty and international The statement in Option c is correct: There
political status without outside interference, is also a provision in the Indian Constitution
based on respect for the principle of equal rights that the state should not discriminate against
and equality of opportunity. citizens on grounds only of religion, race,
Statement 1 is correct: Nations seek the right caste, sex, place of birth, or any of them
to govern themselves and determine their future [Article 15(1) of the Indian Constitution under
development. In some cases it is also linked to Right to Equality]
the desire to form a state in which the culture of The statement in Option d is correct: One of
the group is protected. These claims were the rights granted to citizens in our country
frequently made in the nineteenth century in is freedom of movement. Article 19 (1) (d) of
Europe. The notion of one culture - one state Part III of the Indian Constitution deals with the
fundamental right to freedom of movement. It
27
entitles every citizen to move freely throughout violating the sanctity of individual life and
the territory of the country. liberty. The state may be the sovereign
Reference: Class 11 th NCERT, Political authority; the laws it makes may be enforced
Theory, Chapter 6, Citizenship. with force, but the sovereign state exists not for
its own sake but for the sake of the individual.
98. Ans: A Reference: NCERT Class 11th Political
Exp: Theory, chapter 5
Statement 1 is incorrect: Social justice is a
political and philosophical theory centered
around ensuring fairness in interactions 100. Ans: B
among individuals within a society, as well as Exp:
guaranteeing equitable access to wealth, Option B is correct: Social justice can be seen
opportunities, and social privileges for all through various views, such as patterned,
members of that society. Wealth distribution is historical, processual, procedural or entitlement
just one component of the broader concept of views.
social justice. Therefore, it is not solely focused Joe R. Feagin states: ‘Social justice requires
on ensuring the equal distribution of wealth resource equity, fairness, and respect for
among all citizens. diversity, as well as the eradication of existing
Statement 2 is incorrect: Dr. Ambedkar was forms of social oppression. Social justice
the chief architect of the Indian Constitution. entails a redistribution of resources from those
He was fully aware of the pattern and problems who have unjustly gained them to those who
of Indian society and the conflicting interests. justly deserve them, and it also means creating
Though social justice is not directly defined and ensuring the processes of truly democratic
in the Indian Constitution, the Preamble, the participation in decision-making’.
directive principles of state policy and the Providing preferential treatment to historically
fundamental rights clearly illustrate the marginalized communities to compensate for
philosophy of social justice. past injustices highlights the principle of
Statement 3 is correct: On 26 November 2007, affirmative action, where special measures are
the U.N General Assembly declared that, taken to uplift historically disadvantaged
starting from the sixty-third session of the groups. It recognizes the need to address
General Assembly, 20 February will be historical inequalities and promote social
celebrated annually as the World Day of equity.
Social Justice. The Constitution of India brings a renaissance
Reference: NCERT Class 11th Political in the concept of social justice when it weaves
Theory, chapter 4 the trinity of the Preamble, the fundamental
rights, and the directive principles of state
99. Ans: D policies. This trinity is the core of the
Exp: commitments to the social revolution.
Statement 1 is correct: Human Rights are Reference: NCERT Class 11th Political
inherent to individuals by virtue of being Theory, chapter 4
human. Every individual has the prerogative to
live a life imbued with dignity and humanity,
striving collectively for its realization. These
rights remain impervious to being withheld
based on factors such as caste, color, religion,
and gender.
Statement 2 is incorrect: These rights
encompass a wide range of civil, political,
economic, social, and cultural rights, aiming
to ensure that all individuals have a life of
dignity and respect.
Statement 3 is correct: The rights ensure that
the authority of the state is exercised without

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Prelims Wallah Test 2024

1. Civilisational continuity is an important explanation for Statement-I

feature of a national identity. (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is

2. Territorial connection of a population incorrect

5. Consider the following actions taken in 7. Consider the following statements:

6. With reference to the discretionary powers of

Executive? 1. He is elected by an electoral college

1. President consisting of the members of parliament

2. Vice president and state legislatures.

3. Prime Minister 2. He is elected for a term of five years.

4. Bureaucrats 3. He can be removed by the President of

5. Cabinet Minister India on recommendations of the Council

Select the correct answer using the code of Ministers.

given below 4. He acts as the president when a vacancy

(a) 1, 2, 3 only occurs by reason of death, resignation,

(b) 1, 2, 4 only removal by impeachment, or otherwise,

(c) 1, 2, 3, 5 only for the remaining term.

18. Consider the following statements with

25. Which one of the following statements is is/are incorrect?

29. Which one of the following best describes the

3. The power of the judiciary to examine the (a) 1 only

38. Consider the following statements:

42. Which of the following is not correct

44. Consider the following committees: provides for asymmetric federalism.

1. Balwant Rai Mehta Which one of the following is correct with

2. Ashok Mehta respect to the above statements?

3. P.K.Thungon (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

4. Punchhi Commission correct, and Statement-II is the correct

How many of the above are related to explanation for Statement-I.

panchayati raj? (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

(a) Only two correct, and Statement-II is not the

(b) Only three correct explanation for Statement-I.

(c) All four (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is

(d) None incorrect.

47. Consider the following statement regarding (a) Only one

Amendment Act. opportunity free education

2. Indian Constitution reflects a Negative 3. Equal Every adult citizen can

59. Which of the following statements 3. Concurrent List Forests, Trade

62. Which one of the following Articles of the

61. With reference to the Constitution of India,

2. No criminal law shall declare any action

(b) 2 only (a) Single set of Polity at the national level

(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Unwritten Constitution

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Independent Judiciary

65. Consider the following statements:

3. Improves the quality of decision-making 1. Mandamus is issued to an office holder

5. Allows room to correct mistakes. 2. In Quo Warranto, the court orders a

(a) Two only 3. Certiorari is issued when a person holds

(b) Three only an office he is not entitled to.

(c) Four only Which of the statements given above is/are

(d) All five correct?

3. Secularism is reflected in the 75. Which of the following is the correct

2. Habeas The court orders that the

How many of the above pairs are correctly (b) 2 only

matched? (c) Both 1 and 2

(b) Only two

86. Consider the following statements: (a) 1 only