Professional Documents
Culture Documents
(Main) : Computer Based Test (CBT)
(Main) : Computer Based Test (CBT)
2023
COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT)
Questions & Solutions
Date: 10 April, 2023 (SHIFT-2) | TIME : (3.00 p.m. to 06.00 p.m)
w
SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS
PART : MATHEMATICS
1. If the points P and Q are respectively the circumcenter and the orthocentre of a ABC, then
PA PB PC is equal to
(1) QP (2) 2PQ (3) PQ (4) 2QP
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. Let position vectors of vertices of ABC be A ( a ), B ( b ) and C ( c )
Now
a b c
centroid G
3
Now if circumcentre of & orthocentre of ABC are p and Qq then
2p q
G
3
2p q a b c
Now
3 3
2 p q a b c _______(1)
Now PA PB PC a p b p c p
= 2 p q 3 p q p PQ
1
2. If Sn = 4 + 11 + 21 + 34 + 50 + ……… to n terms, then (S29 – S9) is equal to
60
(A) 220 (2) 226 (3) 227 (4) 223
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
Sol. Sn = 4 + 11 + 21 + 34 + 50 ………
Difference 7 10 13 16
n 1
2 7 (n 1 1)3 = 3n 5n
2
So, Tn = 4
2 2
So, Sn =
1
Tn 3n2 5n
2
1 n(n 1)( 2n 1) n(n 1) n(n 1)(n 3)
= 3 5 =
2 6 2 2
So,
1
S29 S9
60
1 29.30.32 9.10.12
= = 223
60 2 2
This solution was download from Resonance JEE (Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 1
| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
5! 6! 7!
1
3. If A 6! 7! 8! , then |adj(adj)(2A))| is equal to
5! 6! 7!
7! 8! 9!
(1) 28 (2) 216 (3) 212 (4) 220
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
1 6 42
1
Sol. A 5!6!7! 1 7 56
5!6!7!
1 8 72
R2 → R2 –R1 & R3→ R3–R2
1 6 42
A 0 1 14 |A| = 2
0 1 16
n–12
|Adj (adj (2A)| = 2A = |2A|4 = 212|A|4 = 216
5. Eight persons are to be transported from city A to city B in three cars of different makes. If each car can
accommodate at most three persons, then the number of ways, in which they can be transported, is
(1) 1120 (2) 1680 (3) 3360 (4) 560
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (2)
8
8!
Sol. 3!
3! 3! 2!2!
3 3 2
= 1680
6. Let a circle of radius 4 be concentric to the ellipse 15x 2 + 19y2 = 285. Then the common tangents are
inclined to the minor axis of the ellipse at the angle
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 12 6 4
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
This solution was download from Resonance JEE (Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 2
| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
Sol.
x 2 y2
equation of ellipse is 1 …… (1)
19 15
and equation of circle is x2 + y2 = 16 ……. (2)
19m 2 15 1
=4m=
1 m2 3
=
6
required angle =
3
7. Let the number (22)2022 + (2022)22 leave the remainder when divided by 3 and when divided by 7 .
Then (2 + 2) is equal to :
(1) 5 (2) 20 (3) 10 (4) 13
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Sol. (22)2022 + (2022)22
(21 + 1)2022 + (2022)22
= 21+ 1 + 3= 1
Now (21 + 1)2022 + (2023 – 1)22
= 21 + 2023 +2 = 2
Now, 2 + 2 = 1 + 4 = 5
This solution was download from Resonance JEE (Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 3
| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
2z – 3i
8. Let S z x iy : is real number . Then which of the following is NOT correct ?
4z 2i
1 1 1 1
(1) ( x, y ) 0, – (2) y x 2 y 2 – (3) x = 0 (4) y – ,– – ,
2 4 2 2
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
2z – 3i 2x i2 y 3
Sol. …… (1)
4z 2i 4x i4 y 2
=
2x i2y 34x i4y 2 is a real number
16x 2 4 y 22
So – 2x(4y + 2) + 4x(2y– 3) = 0 x = 0
and 4y + 2 0
1 1
y ,
2 2
option (1) is not correct
x 2x e 2x x x
1x 1 e
n! and C is
1
9. For , if loge x dx = – C , where e =
e x e x
n 0
This solution was download from Resonance JEE (Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 4
| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
10. If the coefficients of x and x2 in (1 + x)p (1–x)q are 4 and –5 respectively, then 2p + 3q is equal to
(1) 69 (2) 60 (3) 66 (4) 63
pp – 1 q(q – 1)
= – p.q + = – 5 (p – q)2 – p – q = –10 p + q = 26 ……(2)
2 2
by (1) and (2) p = 15 and q = 11 2p + 3q = 63
11. Let A = {2, 3, 4} and B = {8, 9, 12}. Then the number of elements in the relation
R = {((a1, b1), (a2 , b2)) (A × B, A × B) : a1 divides b2 and a2 divides b1} is :
(1) 18 (2) 36 (3) 12 (4) 24
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
Case I
a1 = a2 = 2 b1, b2 {8, 12} 4 elements
Case II
a1 = a2 = 3 b1 ,b2 {9, 12} 4 elements
Case III
a1 = a2 = 4 b1 ,b2 {8, 12} 4 elements
Case IV
a1 = 2,a2 = 3 b1 9, 12} , b2 {8 , 12} 4 elements
Case V
a1 = 3,a2 = 2 b1 8, 12} , b2 {9 , 12} 4 elements
Case VI
a1 = 2,a2 = 4 b1 8, 12} , b2 {8 , 12} 4 elements
Case VII
a1 = 4,a2 = 2 b1 8, 12} , b2 {8 , 12} 4 elements
Case VIII
a1 = 3,a2 = 4 b1 8, 12} , b2 {9 , 12} 4 elements
Case IX
a1 = 4,a2 = 3 b1 9, 12} , b2 {8 , 12} 4 elements
Total elements = 4 × 9 = 36
This solution was download from Resonance JEE (Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 5
| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
12. Let µ be the mean and be the standard deviation of the distribution
xi 0 1 2 3 4 5
fi k+2 2k k2 –1 k2 –1 k2 +1 k–3
where f 62 . If [x] denotes the greatest integer x, then [µ
i
2 + 2] is equal to
(1) 8 (2) 7 (3) 6 (4) 9
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Sol. Fi = 3k2 + 4k – 2 = 62
3k2 + 4k – 64 = 0 k = (3k + 16) (k – 4) = 0 k
2
fi xi
2 2
fi
2
fi x i
2 2
fi
29k 2 27k 72 500
8.06
62 62
[2 + ] = 8
13. Let a 2î 7 ĵ – k̂, b 3 î 5k̂ and C î – ĵ 2k̂ . Let d be a vector which is perpendicular to both
a and b and c d = 12. Then (– î ĵ – k̂) .(c d) is equal to
(1) 48 (2) 42 (3) 44 (4) 24
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol.
d ab
c.d a b c 12
2 7 1
3 0
5 12 2 d 2 a b
1 1 2
Now c d 2 c a b 2 a c.b – bc.a
c d 2 47î 91ĵ 22k̂
î ĵ k̂ . c d 2 47 91 22 44
14. Let a die be rolled n times. Let the probability of getting odd numbers seven times be equal to the
k
probability of getting odd numbers nine times. If the probability of getting even numbers twice is ,
215
then k is equal to :
(1) 90 (2) B (3) 60 (4) 15
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
This solution was download from Resonance JEE (Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 6
| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
7 n 7 9 n 9
1 1 1 1
Sol. n
C 7 . = C9 .
n
2 2 2 2
So nC7 = nC9
So n = 16
16
1 K
So, Probability of getting even numbers twice = 16C2
2 215
So K = 16.
15. Let A be the point (1, 2) and B be any point on the curve x2 + y2 = 16. If the centre of the locus of the
point P, which divides the line segment AB in the ratio 3 : 2 is the point C (, ), then the length of the
line segment AC is
4 5 2 5 3 5 6 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5 5 5 5
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol.
3 2
12 cos 2 12 sin 4
h , k
5 5
5h 2 12 cos , 5 k 4 12 sin
locus of point P is
(5x – 2)2 + (5y – 4)2 = 144.
its centre : C (2/5, 4/5)
AC = 1 2 5 2 4 5 =
2 2 9 36 45 3
25 25 25 5
2 x
tan 3 , then 6 ( – 14)
1
Let S x – , : 91– tan x 9 tan x 10 and
2 2
2
16. is equal to
2 2 xs
(1) 8 (2) 16 (3) 32 (4) 64
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
2x 2x
Sol. 91tan 9 tan 10
9 2
y 10 (where 9 tan x y )
y
So, 9 + y2 = 10y
y2 –10y + 9 = 0
(y – 1)(y – 9) = 0
tan2 x tan2 x
So, 9 1 & 9 9
tan2x = 0 tan2x = 1
This solution was download from Resonance JEE (Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 7
| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
x=0 tan x = 1 tanx = –1
x x
4 4
tan
x 0
Now =
2
tan2 tan2 tan2
3 3 12 12
2
= 2 tan
12
= 22 3
2
=
274 3
1
= 14 – 8 3 ( – 14) 2 32
6
17. Let g(x) = f(x) + f(1–x) and f”(x) > 0, x (0, 1), If g is decreasing in the interval (0, ) and increasing in
1 1
the interval (, 1) then tan–1(2) + tan–1 tan–1 is equal to
3 3 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 2 4
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. g'(x) = f'(x) – f'(1–x)
If x > 1 – x
f' (x) > f’ (1 – x) f'(x) is strictly increasing
1
g'(x) > 0 so g(x) is increasing when x > 1 – x x >
2
1
=
2
similarly when x < 1 – x g(x) is decreeing
Now
1 1
tan-1 (2) + tan-1 tan 1
= tan-1 (1) + tan-1 (2) +tan-1 (3) = 1 + 2 + 3 = 1.2.3
This solution was download from Resonance JEE (Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 8
| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
t2 4 3 2
19. Let f be continuous function satisfying (f ( x ) x 2 ) dx t , t 0 . Then f is equal to
3 4
0
3 2 2 3
(1) 1 – (2) 2 1 – (3) – 2 1 (4) – 1
16 16 16 16
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
t2 4 3
(f ( x ) x )dx
2
Sol. t
0 3
Diff. on both sides
(f(t2) + t4) 2t = 4t2
f(t2) = 2t – t4
Put t = /2
4 4
f(2/4) = 2 × – =–
2 16 16
This solution was download from Resonance JEE (Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 9
| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
20. Let the image of the point P(1, 2, 6) in the plane passing through the points A(1, 2, 0), B(1, 4, 1) and
C (0, 5,1) be Q (, , ). Then (2 + + 2) is equal to
(1) 65 (2) 70 (3) 62 (4) 76
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Sol. equation of plane
x 1 y 2 z 0
1 1 4 2 1 0 0
0 1 5 2 1 0
x + y – 2z – 3= 0 ……… (1)
so image of P(1,2,6) about the plane (1)
1 2 6
1 1 2
12
= 2
6
= 5, = 6, = –2
+ = 65
2
21. In the figure, 1 + 2 = and 3 (BE) = 4(AB). If the area of CAB is 2 3 – 3 unit2, when is the
2 1
largest, then the perimeter (in unit) of CED is equal to ________.
This solution was download from Resonance JEE (Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 10
| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
4
So m1 + m2 = , m1 m2 = 1
3
1
m2 = 3 , m1
3
23. Le S be the set of values of , for which the system of equations 6x – 3y + 3z = 42, 2x + 6y + 4z = 1,
3x + 2y + 3z = has no solution. Then 12 | | is equal to _______.
S
| | = 12 3 3 1 24
2 1
for all value of given system of equations has no solution so 12
S
This solution was download from Resonance JEE (Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 11
| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
1
24. Let the tangent at any point P on a curve passing through the points (1,1) and ,100 , intersect
10
positive x-axis and y-axis at the point A and B respectively. If PA : PB = 1 : k and y = y(x) is the solution
dy
k
of the differential equation e dx kx , y(0) = k, then 4y(1) – 5 loge3 is equal to _______.
2
NTA Ans. (6)
Reso Ans. (5)
Sol.
B
P(x,y)
tangent at P(x,y)
Y – y = m (X – x)
y
point at x axis A x – ,0
m
point at y axis B(0, y – mx)
P(x,y) divides AB in the ratio 1 : K
y
K x –
So, m
x m+
ky
0
k 1 x
dy ky
0
dx x
Solution is xk y = C …..(1)
1
curve (1) is passing through (1, 1) and ,100
10
So, C = 1, K = 2
dy
k dy
Now differential equation e dx kx = ln(2x + 1)
2 dx
its solution is of the form
1
y (x) = x ln(2x + 1) – x + C
2
Now y (0) = C = K = 2
1
y (x) = x ln(2x + 1) – x + 2 4y(1) = 4 + 6ln3
2
Now 4y(1) – 5 ln3 = 4 + ln3
Approximate value = 5
This solution was download from Resonance JEE (Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 12
| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
25. Let the equation of two adjacent sides of a parallelogram ABCD be 2x – 3y = –23 and 5x + 4y = 23. If
the equation of its one diagonal AC is 3x + 7y = 23 and the distance of A from the other diagonal is d,
then 50 d2 is equal to _______.
NTA Ans. (529)
Reso Ans. (529)
Sol.
(-4, 5)
2x–3y=-23 M 1 , 7
2 2
(3, 2)
(-1, 7) 5x + 4y = 23
3x + 7y = 23
1 7
equation of other diagonal joining points (–1, 7) and , is 7x + y = 0
2 2
7 4 5
So distance of A from the other diagonal = d
50
50d2 = (23)2 = 529
26. The sum of all the four-digit numbers that can be formed using all the digits 2, 1, 2, 3 is equal to _____.
NTA Ans. (26664)
Reso Ans. (26664)
Sol. Sum of all 4 digit numbers
= sum of digit at unit place × 100
+ sum of digit at term place × 101
+ sum of digit at hundred place × 102
+ sum of digit at thousand place × 103
3! 3!
= 1 2 3!3 (100 +101 + 102 + 103)
2! 2!
= 24 × (1111)
= 26664
This solution was download from Resonance JEE (Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 13
| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
2x
27. If the domain of the function f(x) = sec–1 is [, ) U (, ], then |3 + 10(+ ) + 21| is equal to
5x 3
______.
NTA Ans. (24)
Reso Ans. (24)
2x 2x
Sol. 1 or 1
5x 3 5x 3
2x 2x
1 0 or 1 0
5x 3 5x 3
7x 3 3( x 1)
0 or 0 x [–1, –3/5) (–3/5, –3/7]
5x 3 5x 3
= –1, = –3/5, = –3/5, = –3/7
6 3
3( 1) 10 21 3 12 9 24
5 7
28. Let the quadratic curve passing through the point (–1, 0) and touching the line y = x at (1,1) be y = f(x).
Then the x-intercept of the normal to the curve at the point ( + 1) in the first quadrant is ______.
NTA Ans. (11)
Reso Ans. (11)
Sol. Let quadratic curve passing through (–1, 0) is y – (x + 1) (ax – b)
Þ y = ax2 + (a – b) x – b
dy
so 2ax a b }1,1
dx 1,1
= 3a – b = 1 …… (2)
and curve (1) is passing through (1,1) So 2(a – b) = 1 …… (3)
1 1
by (2) and (3) a = ,b=
4 4
1 2 1 1
So curve y = x + x ….. (4)
4 2 4
now point ( + 1) lies on curve (4) so = 3 (point ( + 1) in the first quadrant)
normal to the curve (4) at the point () x + 2y = 11
its x intercept = 11
29. Suppose a1, a2, 2, a3, a 4, be in an arithmetic co-geometric progression. If the common ratio of the
corresponding geometric progression is 2 and the sum of all 5 terms of the arithmetic co-geometric
49
progression is , then a4 is equal to ______.
2
NTA Ans. (16)
Reso Ans. (16)
This solution was download from Resonance JEE (Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 14
| JEE(Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | MATHEMATICS
Sol. a1 a2 2 a3 a4
a 2(a +d) 4(a + 2d) 8(a + 3d) 16(a + 4d)
So 4(a + 2d) = 2
2a + 4d = 1 ……(1)
Sum = a + 2a + 2d + 4a + 8d + 8a + 24d +16a + 64d
49
= 31 a + 98d = ……..(2)
2
1
by equation (1) and (2) a = 0 and d =
4
So, a4 = 16(a + 4d) = 16
30. If the area of the region {x, y : |x2 – 2| y x} is A, then 6A + 16 2 is equal to ______.
NTA Ans. (27)
Reso Ans. (27)
Sol. = |x2 – 2| y x
1 x
2 2 x2
x 1
x (2 – x )dx x (x
2 2
So Area 2 2
– 2) dx
1 2
2 2
x2 x3 x2 x3
= – 2x + – 2x
2 3
1 2 3 2
2 2 1 1 8 2 2
= 1 2 2 – – 2 + 2 4 – 1 – 2 2
3 2 3 3 3
4 2 7 10 4 2
=1– + –1–
3 6 3 3
9 8 2
A= – So 6A + 16 2 = 27
2 3
This solution was download from Resonance JEE (Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 15
Resonance Eduventures Ltd.
Reg. Office & Corp. Office : CG Tower, A-46 & 52, IPIA, Near City Mall, Jhalawar Road, Kota (Raj.) - 324005
Ph. No.: +91-744-2777777, 2777700 | FAX No. : +91-022-39167222
To Know more : sms RESO at 56677 | Website : www.resonance.ac.in | E-mail : contact@resonance.ac.in | CIN : U80302RJ2007PLC024029
7340010333
This solution was download from Resonance JEE (MAIN) 2023 Solution portal
Resonance Eduventures Ltd.
Reg. Office & Corp. Office : CG Tower, A-46 & 52, IPIA, Near City Mall, Jhalawar Road, Kota (Raj.) - 324005
Ph. No.: +91-744-2777777, 2777700 | FAX No. : +91-022-39167222
To Know more : sms RESO at 56677 | Website : www.resonance.ac.in | E-mail : contact@resonance.ac.in | CIN : U80302RJ2007PLC024029
7340010333
This solution was download from Resonance JEE (MAIN) 2023 Solution portal
JEE (Main)
PAPER-1 (B.E./B. TECH.)
2023
COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT)
Questions & Solutions
Date: 10 April, 2023 (SHIFT-2) | TIME : (3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m)
w
SUBJECT: PHYSICS
PART : PHYSICS
31. In a metallic conductor, under the effect of applied electric field, the free electrons of the conductor
(1) move in the straight line path in the same direction
(2) drift from higher potential to lower potential.
(3) move in the curved paths from lower potential to higher potential
(4) move with the uniform velocity throughout from lower potential to higher potential
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. Motion of electron is random as well as drift opposite to field i.e. from low potential to high potential.
32. In an experiment with vernier calipers of least count 0.1 mm, when two jaws are joined together the zero
of vernier scale lies right to the zero of the main scale and 6th division of vernier scale coincides with the
main scale division. While measuring the diameter of a spherical bob, the zero of vernier scale lies in
between 3.2 cm and 3.3 cm marks, and 4th division of vernier scale concides with the main scale division.
The diameter of bob is measured as
(1) 3.22 (2) 3.25 (3) 3.18 (4) 3.26
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. Zero error = 0 + 0.01 × 6 = 0.06 cm
Reading = 3.2 + 0.01 × 4 = 3.24 cm
Diameter = 3.24 – 0.06
= 3.18 cm
33. the distance between two plates of a capacitor is d and its capacitance is C 1 , when air is the
2d
medium between the plates. If a metal sheet of thickness and of the same area as plate is
3
C2
introduced between the plates, the capacitance of the capacitor becomes C2 . The ratio is
C1
This solution was download from Resonance JEE(Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 1
| JEE (Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | PHYSICS
34. The variation of stopping potential (V0) as a function of frequency (v) of the incident light for a metal is
shown in figure. The work function of the surface is
7
35. The half life of a radioactive substance is T. The time taken, for disintegrating th part of its
8
original mass will be
(1) T (2) 3T (3) 8T (4) 2T
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
1
Sol. th part will remain so 3 half life i.e. 3T time taken.
8
36. The amplitude of magnetic field in an electromagnetic wave propagating along y-axis is 6.0 10 7 T.
This solution was download from Resonance JEE(Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 2
| JEE (Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | PHYSICS
37. Two projectiles are projected at 30° and 60° with the horizontal with the same speed. The ratio of the
maximum height attained by the two projectiles respectively is :
u2 sin2 30
h1 1
2g
Sol. 2 2
h2 u sin 60 3
2g
38. Young's moduli of the material of wires A and B are in the ratio of 1:4, while its area of cross section are
in the ratio of 1:3. If the same amount of load is applied to both the wires, the amount of elongation
produced in the wires A and B will in the ratio of
[Assume length of wires A and B are same]
(1) 36: 1 (2) 1: 36 (3) 1:12 (4) 12: 1
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
F L
Sol. y
A L
L1 A 2 y 2 3 4
12
L 2 A1 y1 1 1
This solution was download from Resonance JEE(Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 3
| JEE (Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | PHYSICS
40. A person travels x distance with velocity v1 and then x distance with velocity v2 in the same direction. The
average velocity of the person is v, then the relation between v, v1 and v2 will be
2 1 1 1 1 1
(1) (2)
v v1 v 2 v v1 v 2
v1 v 2
(3) v v1 v 2 (4) v
2
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
2x 2v1v 2 2 1 1
Sol. v avg
x x v1 v 2 v avg v1 v 2
v1 v 2
41. A bar magnet is released from rest along the axis of a very long vertical copper tube. After some time the
magnet will
(1) move down with an acceleration equal to g
(2) oscillate inside the tube
(3) move down with almost constant speed
(4) move down with an acceleration greater than g
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. Because of negligible net force, bar magnet will move with almost constant speed as weight will almost
balance with large magnetic force due to induction.
42. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of oxygen and 4 moles of neon at temperature T. Neglecting all
vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the system will be,
(1) 11 RT (2) 4RT (3) 8RT (4) 16RT
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
5 3
Sol. U 2 RT 4 RT = 11RT
2 2
43. The ratio of intensities at two points P and Q on the screen in a Young's double slit experiment where
phase difference between two waves of same amplitude are and respectively are
3 2
(1) 3:1 (2) 1:3 (3) 3:2 (4) 2: 3
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
This solution was download from Resonance JEE(Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 4
| JEE (Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | PHYSICS
44. A gas is compressed adiabatically, which one of the follwing statement is NOT true.
(1) The change in the internal energy is equal to the work done on the gas
(2) The temperature of the gas increases
(3) There is no heat supplied to the system
(4) There is no change in the internal energy
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
Sol. Q = U + W
Q = 0
U = –W
gas is compressed so W is negative
and U will be positive so T will also be positive
gp= g0[1–2Rcos2]
This solution was download from Resonance JEE(Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 5
| JEE (Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | PHYSICS
A 2
1
/4
1
Phasor diagram
y = sint + sin t = 2 sint
2 4
47. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R
Assertion A : An electric fan continues to rotate for some time after the current is switched off.
Reason R : Fan continues to rotate due to inertia of motion.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(2) A is correct but R is not correct
(3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(4) A is not correct but R is correct
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. Fan will retard after current is switched off and stop after some time
48. A message signal of frequency 3kHz is used to modulate a carrier signal of frequency
1.5 MHz. The bandwidth of the amplitude modulated wave is
(1) 6 MHz (2) 6 kHz (3) 3 MHz (4) 3 kHz
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
Sol. band width = 2 fm = 2 × 3 = 6 kHz
This solution was download from Resonance JEE(Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 6
| JEE (Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | PHYSICS
49. If each diode has a forward bias resistance of 25 in the below circuit,
i3 = 0
i1 = i
i2 = i4 = i/2
i1 i
=2
i2 i
2
This solution was download from Resonance JEE(Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 7
| JEE (Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | PHYSICS
50. The time period of a satellite revolving above earth's surface at a height equal to R will be
(given g= 2 m/s2, R= radius of earth)
GM GM GM
Sol. V=
Rh RR 2R
3
4 2
T=
2[2R]
4R
2R = R3 / 2 4 2 R 2
V0 GM GM
gR2
T= 32 R
51. A square loop of side 2.0 cm is placed inside a long solenoid that has 50 turns per centimetre and carries
as sinusoidally varying current of amplitude 2.5A and angular frequency 700 rad s–1. The central axes of
the loop and selenoid coincide. The amplitude of the emf induced in the loop is x × 10–4 V .The value of
22
x is (Take, = )
7
NTA Ans. 44
Reso Ans. 44
Sol. = BA = 0ni A = 0nAi0sint
= 0ni0 Acost
22 50
0 = 0ni0 A = 4 107 2 2.5 700 4 104 = 44 × 10–4
7 10
52. A rectangular block of mass 5 kg attached to an horizontal spiral spring executes simple harmonic
motion of amplitude 1 m and time period 3.14s. The maximum force exerted by spring on block is
_____N.
NTA Ans. 20
Reso Ans. 20
Sol. Fmax = m2A
4 2
=5× × A = 20 N
T2
This solution was download from Resonance JEE(Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 8
| JEE (Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | PHYSICS
53. An electron revolves around an infinite cylindrical wire having uniform linear charge density 2×10–8Cm-1
in circular path under the influence of attractive electrostatic field as shown in the figure. The velocity of
electron with which it is revolving is _____ 106m s1 . Given mass of electron = 9 1031 kg
NTA Ans. 8
Reso Ans. 8
mv2 2k
Sol. e
r r
2ek
v = 8 × 106 m/s
m
54. Figure below shows a liquid being pushed out of the tube by a piston having area of cross section
2.0 cm2. The area of cross section at the oulet is 10 mm 2. If the piston is pushed at a speed of 4 cm s-1,
the speed of outgoing fluid is ______ cm s-1
NTA Ans. 80
Reso Ans. 80
Sol. A1V1 = A2V2
2 × 4 = (10×10–2)V2
V2 = 80 cm/sec.
55. If the maximum load carried by an elevator is 1400 kg (600 kg - Passengers + 800 kg- elevator), which
is moving up with a uniform speed of 3 ms-1 and the frictional force acting on it is 2000 N, then the
maximum power used by the motor is ____ kW (g=10 m/s 2)
NTA Ans. 48
Reso Ans. 48
This solution was download from Resonance JEE(Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 9
| JEE (Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | PHYSICS
Sol. F = Mg + f
= 14000 + 2000
= 16000
Power = FV
= 48 KW
56. A force of -P k̂ acts on the origin of the coordinate system. The torque about the point (2,3) is
P a î bĵ , The ratio of
a
b
x
is . The value of x is-
2
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. r F
a=3&b=2
a 3 x
x=3
b 2 2
57. A point object, 'O' is placed in front of two thin symmetrical coaxial convex lenses L 1 and L2 with focal
length 24 cm and 9 cm respectively. The distance between two lenses is 10 cm and the object is placed
6 cm away from lens L1 as shown in the figure. The distance between the object and the image formed
by the system of two lenses is _____ cm.
NTA Ans. 34
Reso Ans. 34
1 1 1
Sol. v1 = –8
v1 6 24
1 1 1
v2 = 18
v 2 18 9
This solution was download from Resonance JEE(Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 10
| JEE (Main) 2023 | DATE : 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | PAPER-1 | PHYSICS
58. A straight wire carrying of 14 A is bent into a semi-circular arc of radius 2.2 cm as shown in the figure.
The magnetic field produced by the current at the centre (O) of the arc is ____ × 10–4T
NTA Ans. 2
Reso Ans. 2
0i 22
Sol. B 4 10 7 14
4R 7
22
4 10 7 14
i 7
B 0
4R 4 2.2 10 2
= 2 × 10–4 T
59. If 917 Å be the lowest wavelength of Lyman series then the lowest wavelength of Balmer series will be
_______ Å
NTA Ans. 3668
Reso Ans. 3668
1 1 1
Sol. RZ2 2 2
917 1
1 1 1
RZ2 2 2
2
Solving = 3668 Å
3 107 1 102
Sol. R=
A 100 1 10 4
= 3 × 10–7
This solution was download from Resonance JEE(Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 11
Resonance Eduventures Ltd.
Reg. Office & Corp. Office : CG Tower, A-46 & 52, IPIA, Near City Mall, Jhalawar Road, Kota (Raj.) - 324005
Ph. No.: +91-744-2777777, 2777700 | FAX No. : +91-022-39167222
To Know more : sms RESO at 56677 | Website : www.resonance.ac.in | E-mail : contact@resonance.ac.in | CIN : U80302RJ2007PLC024029
7340010333
This solution was download from Resonance JEE (MAIN) 2023 Solution portal
JEE (Main)
PAPER-1 (B.E./B. TECH.)
2023
COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT)
Questions & Solutions
Date: 10 April, 2023 (SHIFT-2) | TIME : (3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m)
w
SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY
PART : CHEMISTRY
61. Incorrect method of preparation for alcohols from the following is:
(1) Hydroboration-oxidation of alkene.
(2) Reaction of Ketone with RMgBr followed by hydrolysis.
(3) Reaction of alkyl halide with aqueous NaOH.
(4) Ozonolysis of alkene.
Ans. NTA : (4)
Sol. In ozonolysis of alkene reaction aldehyde or ketones are formed as product.
62. The correct order of the number of unpaired electrons in the given complexes is
A. [Fe(CN)6]3–
B. [FeF6]3–
C. [CoF6]3–
D. [Cr(oxalate)3]3–
E. [Ni(CO)4]
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A < E < D < C < B (2) E < A < B < D < C
(3) E < A < D < C < B (4) A < E < C < B < D
Ans. NTA : (3)
Reso : (3)
Sol. E n = 0, A n = 1, D n = 3, C n = 4, B n = 5
63. The decreasing order of hydride affinity for following carbocations is:
This solution was download from Resonance JEE (Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 1
JEE (Main) 2023 | DATE: 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | OFFICIAL PAPER | PAPER-1 | CHEMISTRY
64. In Carius tube, an organic compound ‘X’ is treated with sodium peroxide to form a mineral acid ‘Y’.
The solution of BaCl2, is added to ‘Y’ to form a precipitate ‘Z’. ‘Z’ is used for the quantitative estimation of
an extra element. ‘X’ could be
(1) A nucleotide (2) Chioroxylenol (3) Methionine (4) Cytosine
Ans. NTA : (3)
Sol. Methionine has 'S', and 'S' with fuming HNO3 get oxidised to SO42– ion, which gives while ppt with BaCl2.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Ans. NTA : (4)
Reso : (4)
CH=CH2 –CH2–CH=CH–CH2–CH–CH2–
CH2=CH–CH=CH2 +
Sol.
1,3-butadiene n
styrene
This solution was download from Resonance JEE (Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 2
JEE (Main) 2023 | DATE: 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | OFFICIAL PAPER | PAPER-1 | CHEMISTRY
Sol. Li Be
Na Mg
K Ca Metallic
Rb Sr character
Cs Ba increases
Fr Ra
Metallic character
increases
This solution was download from Resonance JEE (Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 3
JEE (Main) 2023 | DATE: 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | OFFICIAL PAPER | PAPER-1 | CHEMISTRY
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
70. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: 3.1500g of hydrated oxalic acid dissolved in water to make 250.0 mL solution will result in
0.1 M oxalic acid solution.
Reason R: Molar mass of hydrated oxalic acid is 126 g mol–1
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) A is false but R is true
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(4) A is true but R is false
Ans. NTA : (3)
Sol. H2C2O4.2H2O
3.15 / 126
M= = 0.1 M
250 / 1000
71. Number of water molecules in washing soda and soda ash respectively are :
(1) 1 and 10 (2)1 and 0 (3) 10 and 1 (4) 10 and 0
Ans. NTA : (4)
Reso : (4)
Sol. Soda ash Na2CO3
Washing Soda Na2CO3 . 10H2O
This solution was download from Resonance JEE (Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 4
JEE (Main) 2023 | DATE: 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | OFFICIAL PAPER | PAPER-1 | CHEMISTRY
72. The major product ‘P’ formed in the given reaction is:
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. NTA : (4)
Reso : (4)
H3CO
Sol. H3CO Cl
anhy O 2N
AlCl3
O2N CH3
N
73. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: The energy required to form Mg2+ from Mg is much higher than that required to produce
Mg+
Reason R: Mg2+ is small ion and carry more charge than Mg+
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) A is true but R is false
(2) A is false but R is true
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Ans. NTA : (3)
Reso : (3)
IE1
Sol. Mg Mg+
IE1 IE2
Mg Mg+ Mg+2
The second ionization enthalpy will be higher than that of first ionization enthalpy. Due to it's small size,
it has more effective nuclear charge
This solution was download from Resonance JEE (Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 5
JEE (Main) 2023 | DATE: 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | OFFICIAL PAPER | PAPER-1 | CHEMISTRY
74. Gibbs energy vs T plot for the formation of oxides is given below.
75. The correct order for acidity of the following hydroxyl compound is:
This solution was download from Resonance JEE (Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 6
JEE (Main) 2023 | DATE: 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | OFFICIAL PAPER | PAPER-1 | CHEMISTRY
77. The correct relationships between unit cell edge length ‘a’ and radius of sphere ‘r’ for face-centred and
body-centred cubic structures respectively are:
(1) 2 2 r = a and 4r = 3a (2) r = 2 2 a and 3 r = 4a
(3) r = 2 2 a and 4r = 3a (4) 2 2 r = a and 3 r = 4a
Ans. NTA : (1)
Reso : (1)
4r
Sol. F.C.C. a 2 = 4r for BCC 3 a = 4r a 2 2r
2
78. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: Physical properties of isotopes of hydrogen are different.
Reason R: Mass difference between isotopes of hydrogen is very large.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A is false but R is true
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Ans. NTA : (4)
Reso : (4)
Sol. Isotopes of hydrogen differ in physical properties due to their large mass difference.
This solution was download from Resonance JEE (Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 7
JEE (Main) 2023 | DATE: 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | OFFICIAL PAPER | PAPER-1 | CHEMISTRY
This solution was download from Resonance JEE (Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 8
JEE (Main) 2023 | DATE: 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | OFFICIAL PAPER | PAPER-1 | CHEMISTRY
84. The specific conductance of 0.0025 M acetic acid is 5 × 10–5 S cm–1 at a certain temperature. The
dissociation constant of acetic acid is ___________ × 10–7. (Nearest integer)
Consider limiting molar conductivity of CH3COOH as 400 S cm2 mol–1
Ans. NTA : 66
Reso : 66
5
1000 x K 1000 x 5 x 10
Sol. m = = = 20 S cm2 mol–1
CM 0.0025
20 1
= =
400 20
C 2
Ka = = 66 x 10–7
1 2
85. For a metal ion, the calculated magnetic moment is 4.90 BM. This metal ion has __________ number of
unpaired electrons.
Ans. NTA : 4
Reso : 4
Sol. nn 2 = 4.9
Upon solving we get n = 4
86. An aqueous solution of volume 300 cm 3 contains 0.63 g of protein. The osmotic pressure of the solution
at 300 K is 1.29 mbar. The molar mass of the protein is __________ g mol–1
Given: R = 0.083 L bar K–1 mol–1
Ans. NTA : 40535
Reso : 40535
W /M
Sol. = RT
V
0.63 x0.083 x 300
or M =
1.29 x 103 x 300 x 103
or M = 40535 g/mol
87. The difference in the oxidation state of Xe between the oxidised product of Xe formed on complete
hydrolysis of XeF4 and XeF4 is __________
Ans. NTA : 2
Reso :2
4 6
Sol. Xe F4 + H2O Xe O 3 + Xe + HF + O2
This solution was download from Resonance JEE (Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 9
JEE (Main) 2023 | DATE: 10-04-2023 (SHIFT-2) | OFFICIAL PAPER | PAPER-1 | CHEMISTRY
88.
The electron in the nth orbit of Li2+ is excited to (n + 1) orbit using the radiation of energy 1.47 × 10–17 J
(as shown in the diagrarn). The value of n is __________
Given: RH = 2.18 × 10–18 J
Ans. NTA : 1
Reso : 1
1 1
Sol. E = RHZ2 2 2
n
1 n2
or
1 1
1.47 x 10–17 = 2.18 x 10–18 x 9 2
n (n 1)2
on solving n = 1
89. The number of molecules from the following which contain only two lone pair of electrons is __________
H2O, N2, CO, XeF4, NH3, NO, CO2, F2
Ans. NTA : (4)
Reso : (4)
Sol. H2O, CO, N2, XeF4
90. In alkaline medium, the reduction of permanganate anion involves a gain of electrons.
Ans. NTA : (3)
Reso : (3)
Sol. MnO 4 + 3e– + 2H2O MnO2 + 4OH–
This solution was download from Resonance JEE (Main) 2023 Solution portal PAGE # 10
Resonance Eduventures Ltd.
Reg. Office & Corp. Office : CG Tower, A-46 & 52, IPIA, Near City Mall, Jhalawar Road, Kota (Raj.) - 324005
Ph. No.: +91-744-2777777, 2777700 | FAX No. : +91-022-39167222
To Know more : sms RESO at 56677 | Website : www.resonance.ac.in | E-mail : contact@resonance.ac.in | CIN : U80302RJ2007PLC024029
7340010333
This solution was download from Resonance JEE (Main) 2023 Solution portal