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JEE (Main)

PAPER-1 (B.E./B. TECH.)

2023
COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT)
Questions & Solutions
Date: 10 April, 2023 (SHIFT-2) | TIME : (3.00 p.m. to 06.00 p.m)
w

Duration: 3 Hours | Max. Marks: 300

SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS

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PART : MATHEMATICS
1. If the points P and Q are respectively the circumcenter and the orthocentre of a ABC, then
PA  PB  PC is equal to
(1) QP (2) 2PQ (3) PQ (4) 2QP
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
  
Sol. Let position vectors of vertices of  ABC be A ( a ), B ( b ) and C ( c )
Now
  
 a b c 
centroid G  
 3 
 
 
Now if circumcentre of & orthocentre of  ABC are p  and Qq then
 2p  q 
G 
 3 
 
    
2p  q a  b  c
Now 
3 3
    
2 p  q  a  b  c _______(1)
     
Now PA  PB  PC  a  p  b  p  c  p
     
=  2 p  q   3 p  q  p  PQ
 

1
2. If Sn = 4 + 11 + 21 + 34 + 50 + ……… to n terms, then (S29 – S9) is equal to
60
(A) 220 (2) 226 (3) 227 (4) 223
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)

Sol. Sn = 4 + 11 + 21 + 34 + 50 ………
Difference  7 10 13 16
n 1
2  7  (n  1  1)3 = 3n  5n
2
So, Tn = 4 
2 2

So, Sn = 
1

Tn  3n2  5n
2

1  n(n  1)( 2n  1) n(n  1)  n(n  1)(n  3)
= 3  5  =
2 6 2  2

So,
1
S29  S9 
60
1  29.30.32 9.10.12 
=    = 223
60  2 2 

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5! 6! 7!
1  
3. If A  6! 7! 8! , then |adj(adj)(2A))| is equal to
5! 6! 7! 
7! 8! 9!
(1) 28 (2) 216 (3) 212 (4) 220
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
1 6 42
1
Sol. A   5!6!7! 1 7 56
5!6!7!
1 8 72
R2 → R2 –R1 & R3→ R3–R2
1 6 42
A  0 1 14  |A| = 2
0 1 16
n–12
|Adj (adj (2A)| = 2A = |2A|4 = 212|A|4 = 216

4. The statement ~ [p  (~ (p q))] is equivalent to


(1) ~ (p q) (2) ~ (p q) (3) (~ (p q))  q (4) (p q)  (~ p)
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
Sol. ~ p  ~ p  q
~ p  p  q

5. Eight persons are to be transported from city A to city B in three cars of different makes. If each car can
accommodate at most three persons, then the number of ways, in which they can be transported, is
(1) 1120 (2) 1680 (3) 3360 (4) 560
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (2)
8
8!
Sol. 3!
3! 3! 2!2!
3 3 2
= 1680

6. Let a circle of radius 4 be concentric to the ellipse 15x 2 + 19y2 = 285. Then the common tangents are
inclined to the minor axis of the ellipse at the angle
   
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 12 6 4
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)

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Sol.



x 2 y2
equation of ellipse is   1 …… (1)
19 15
and equation of circle is x2 + y2 = 16 ……. (2)

let common tangent be y = mx + 19m 2  15


It's also tangent of circle (2) So

19m 2  15 1
=4m=
1 m2 3


=
6

 required angle =
3

7. Let the number (22)2022 + (2022)22 leave the remainder  when divided by 3 and  when divided by 7 .
Then (2 + 2) is equal to :
(1) 5 (2) 20 (3) 10 (4) 13
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Sol. (22)2022 + (2022)22
(21 + 1)2022 + (2022)22
= 21+ 1 + 3= 1
Now (21 + 1)2022 + (2023 – 1)22
= 21 + 2023  +2   = 2
Now, 2 + 2 = 1 + 4 = 5

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 2z – 3i 
8. Let S  z  x  iy : is real number . Then which of the following is NOT correct ?
 4z  2i 
 1 1  1  1 
(1) ( x, y )   0, –  (2) y  x 2  y 2  – (3) x = 0 (4) y   – ,–    – ,  
 2 4  2  2 
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
2z – 3i 2x  i2 y  3
Sol.  …… (1)
4z  2i 4x  i4 y  2

=
2x  i2y  34x  i4y  2 is a real number
16x 2  4 y  22
So – 2x(4y + 2) + 4x(2y– 3) = 0  x = 0
and 4y + 2  0
 1  1 
 y         ,
 2  2 
option (1) is not correct

  x  2x  e  2x  x x 
1x 1 e 
  n! and C is
  1
9. For  , if      loge x dx =   –    C , where e =
 e   x   e x
 n 0

constant of integration, then  + 2 + 3 – 4 is equal to


(1) 4 (2) –4 (3) –8 (4) 1
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
x
x
Sol. Put    t
e
x
So, nt  x  n 
e
= xnx  1
dt
  nx dx
t
 2 1  dt
So,
 t  2 
 t  t
 1
=   t  t
3
dt

t 2 t 2
 C
2 2
=
2

 2 2
t t C 
1  x  e 
2x 2x x x
1x 1 e 
=         C =   –    C 
2  e   x   e x

  + 2 + 3 – 4

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10. If the coefficients of x and x2 in (1 + x)p (1–x)q are 4 and –5 respectively, then 2p + 3q is equal to
(1) 69 (2) 60 (3) 66 (4) 63

NTA Ans. (4)


Reso Ans. (4)
Sol. (1 + x)p (1 – x)q = (1 + PC1x + …..) (1 – qC1 x …….)
coefficient of x1 = pC1 – qC1 = p – q = 4 ……(1)
coefficient of x2 =– pC qC
1 1 + pC
2 + qC
2

pp – 1 q(q – 1)
= – p.q +  = – 5  (p – q)2 – p – q = –10 p + q = 26 ……(2)
2 2
by (1) and (2)  p = 15 and q = 11  2p + 3q = 63

11. Let A = {2, 3, 4} and B = {8, 9, 12}. Then the number of elements in the relation
R = {((a1, b1), (a2 , b2))  (A × B, A × B) : a1 divides b2 and a2 divides b1} is :
(1) 18 (2) 36 (3) 12 (4) 24
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
Case I
a1 = a2 = 2  b1, b2 {8, 12}  4 elements
Case II
a1 = a2 = 3  b1 ,b2 {9, 12}  4 elements
Case III
a1 = a2 = 4  b1 ,b2 {8, 12}  4 elements
Case IV
a1 = 2,a2 = 3  b1 9, 12} , b2  {8 , 12} 4 elements
Case V
a1 = 3,a2 = 2  b1 8, 12} , b2  {9 , 12} 4 elements
Case VI
a1 = 2,a2 = 4  b1 8, 12} , b2  {8 , 12} 4 elements
Case VII
a1 = 4,a2 = 2  b1 8, 12} , b2  {8 , 12} 4 elements
Case VIII
a1 = 3,a2 = 4  b1 8, 12} , b2  {9 , 12} 4 elements
Case IX
a1 = 4,a2 = 3  b1 9, 12} , b2  {8 , 12} 4 elements
Total elements = 4 × 9 = 36

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12. Let µ be the mean and  be the standard deviation of the distribution
xi 0 1 2 3 4 5
fi k+2 2k k2 –1 k2 –1 k2 +1 k–3
where  f  62 . If [x] denotes the greatest integer  x, then [µ
i
2 + 2] is equal to
(1) 8 (2) 7 (3) 6 (4) 9
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Sol. Fi = 3k2 + 4k – 2 = 62
3k2 + 4k – 64 = 0  k = (3k + 16) (k – 4) = 0 k
2
 fi xi
2   2
 fi
2
 fi x i
2   2 
 fi
29k 2  27k  72 500
   8.06
62 62
[2 + ] = 8
   
13. Let a  2î  7 ĵ – k̂, b  3 î  5k̂ and C  î – ĵ  2k̂ . Let d be a vector which is perpendicular to both
     
a and b and c  d = 12. Then (– î  ĵ – k̂) .(c  d) is equal to
(1) 48 (2) 42 (3) 44 (4) 24
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol.
  
d   ab  

 

 c.d   a b c  12
2 7 1
 3 0

 
 
5  12    2  d  2 a  b
1 1 2
 
     
      
Now c  d  2 c  a  b  2 a c.b – bc.a  
 
 
 c  d  2 47î  91ĵ  22k̂
  
 
  î  ĵ  k̂ . c  d  2 47  91  22  44

14. Let a die be rolled n times. Let the probability of getting odd numbers seven times be equal to the
k
probability of getting odd numbers nine times. If the probability of getting even numbers twice is ,
215
then k is equal to :
(1) 90 (2) B (3) 60 (4) 15
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)

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7 n 7 9 n 9
1 1 1 1
Sol. n
C 7   .  = C9   . 
n
2 2 2 2
So nC7 = nC9
So n = 16
16
1 K
So, Probability of getting even numbers twice = 16C2   
2 215
So K = 16.

15. Let A be the point (1, 2) and B be any point on the curve x2 + y2 = 16. If the centre of the locus of the
point P, which divides the line segment AB in the ratio 3 : 2 is the point C (, ), then the length of the
line segment AC is
4 5 2 5 3 5 6 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5 5 5 5
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol.
3 2

A (1,2) P(h,k) B (4cos, 4sin)

12 cos   2 12 sin   4
h , k
5 5
5h  2  12 cos , 5 k  4  12 sin 
locus of point P is
(5x – 2)2 + (5y – 4)2 = 144.
its centre : C (2/5, 4/5)

AC = 1  2 5   2  4 5  =
2 2 9 36 45 3
  
25 25 25 5

     2 x
 tan  3 , then 6 ( – 14)
1
Let S  x  – ,  : 91– tan x  9 tan x  10 and  
2 2
2
16. is equal to
  2 2  xs
(1) 8 (2) 16 (3) 32 (4) 64
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
2x 2x
Sol. 91tan  9 tan  10
9 2
  y  10 (where 9 tan x  y )
y
So, 9 + y2 = 10y
y2 –10y + 9 = 0
(y – 1)(y – 9) = 0
tan2 x tan2 x
So, 9 1 & 9 9
tan2x = 0 tan2x = 1

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x=0 tan x = 1 tanx = –1

 
 
x x
4 4
 
 tan
x 0
Now  =
2
 tan2  tan2  tan2
3 3 12 12
2 
= 2 tan
12

= 22 3 
2

= 
274 3 
1
= 14 – 8 3  ( – 14) 2  32
6

17. Let g(x) = f(x) + f(1–x) and f”(x) > 0, x  (0, 1), If g is decreasing in the interval (0, ) and increasing in
 1    1
the interval (, 1) then tan–1(2) + tan–1    tan–1  is equal to
   
3 3 5
(1) (2) (3)  (4)
4 2 4
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. g'(x) = f'(x) – f'(1–x)
If x > 1 – x
 f' (x) > f’ (1 – x)  f'(x) is strictly increasing
1
  g'(x) > 0 so g(x) is increasing when x > 1 – x  x >
2
1
 =
2
 similarly when x < 1 – x  g(x) is decreeing
Now
1   1
tan-1 (2) + tan-1    tan 1  

    
= tan-1 (1) + tan-1 (2) +tan-1 (3) = 1 + 2 + 3 = 1.2.3

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x 6– y z8 x–5 y–7 z2 x3 3– y z–6


18. Let the line   intersect the lines   and   at the
1 2 5 4 3 1 6 3 1
points A and B respectively. Then the distance of the mid-point of the line segment AB from the plane
2x – 2y + z = 14 is :
10 11
(1) 3 (2) (3) 4 (4)
3 3
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans.(3)
Sol. Let A (r, 6 – 2r, 5r – 8)
r  5 6  2r  7 5r  8  2
So   r=1
4 3 1
 A(1, 4 – 3)
 Similarly B (r, 6– 2r, 5r – 8)
r  3 2r  3 5r  14
  
6 3 1
 r = 3
 B(3, 0, 7)
mid-point of AB is M (2,2,2)
22  22  2  14
 Distance of M(2,2,2) from the plane 2x – 2y + z = 14 is equal to  =4
4  4 1

t2 4 3  2 
19. Let f be continuous function satisfying  (f ( x )  x 2 ) dx  t , t  0 . Then f  is equal to
3  4 
0  
 3    2    2   3 
(1) 1 – (2)  2 1 – (3) –  2 1  (4) – 1  
 16   16   16   16 
      
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
t2 4 3
 (f ( x )  x )dx 
2
Sol. t
0 3
Diff. on both sides
(f(t2) + t4) 2t = 4t2
f(t2) = 2t – t4
Put t = /2
 4 4
f(2/4) = 2 × – =–
2 16 16

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20. Let the image of the point P(1, 2, 6) in the plane passing through the points A(1, 2, 0), B(1, 4, 1) and
C (0, 5,1) be Q (, , ). Then (2 +  + 2) is equal to
(1) 65 (2) 70 (3) 62 (4) 76
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Sol. equation of plane
x 1 y  2 z  0
1 1 4  2 1 0  0
0 1 5  2 1  0
 x + y – 2z – 3= 0 ……… (1)
so image of P(1,2,6) about the plane (1)
 1   2   6
 
1 1 2
  12 
=  2 
 6 
 = 5,  = 6,  = –2
 +   = 65

 2
21. In the figure, 1 + 2 = and 3 (BE) = 4(AB). If the area of CAB is 2 3 – 3 unit2, when is the
2 1
largest, then the perimeter (in unit) of CED is equal to ________.

NTA Ans. (6)


Reso Ans. (6)
DE BE  AC
Sol. tan= 
CD AB
4 4
tan2 =  tan 1  tan 1  tan 2  ….. (1)
3 3

Now 1+2 =  tan 1 tan  2 = 1 …… (2)
2

Let tan1 = m1 and tan2 = m2 and 2 is the largest
1

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4
So m1 + m2 = , m1 m2 = 1
3
1
 m2 = 3 , m1
3

 Now area of CAB =


1
2

AB.AB tan30º = 3 2  3  AB = 3  3 
Now perimeter of CED = CD + DE + CE AB + AB tan 60+ AB Sec60º

= AB 1  3  2 
3  3 3  3  = 6
22. Let the foot of perpendicular from the point A (4,3,1) on the plane P : x – y + 2z + 3 = 0 be N.
If B(5, , ), ,  is a point on plane P such that the area of the triangle ABN is 3 2 , then 2 + 2 +
is equal to ______.
NTA Ans. (7)
Reso Ans. (7)
Sol. Distance of A(4,3,1) from the plane x – y +2z +3 = 0
43 23
is AN =  6
11 4
1
Area of ABN = AN. BN = 3 2
2
 BN = 2 3
 So AB = 6  12  3 2
 B(5, ) lies on x – y + 2z +3 = 0
  = 8+2 …… (1)
and AB = 3 2 
1 + (3 – )2 + (1–)2 = 18 …… (2)
by (1) and (2)
 = 2  = –3 (,  )
 2 + 2 + 

23. Le S be the set of values of , for which the system of equations 6x – 3y + 3z = 42, 2x + 6y + 4z = 1,
3x + 2y + 3z =  has no solution. Then 12 |  | is equal to _______.
S

NTA Ans. (24)


Reso Ans. (24)
6 3 3
Sol. D = 2 6 4  0  ( – 1) (3 + 2) (3+1) = 0
3 2 3
2 1
  = , ,1
3 3

|  | = 12 3  3  1  24
2 1
 for all value of  given system of equations has no solution so 12
S

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 1 
24. Let the tangent at any point P on a curve passing through the points (1,1) and  ,100 , intersect
 10 
positive x-axis and y-axis at the point A and B respectively. If PA : PB = 1 : k and y = y(x) is the solution
dy
k
of the differential equation e dx  kx  , y(0) = k, then 4y(1) – 5 loge3 is equal to _______.
2
NTA Ans. (6)
Reso Ans. (5)
Sol.

B
P(x,y)

tangent at P(x,y)
Y – y = m (X – x)
 y 
point at x axis A x – ,0 
 m 
point at y axis B(0, y – mx)
 P(x,y) divides AB in the ratio 1 : K
 y
K x – 
So,  m
x m+
ky
0
k 1 x
dy ky
  0
dx x
 Solution is xk y = C …..(1)
 1 
curve (1) is passing through (1, 1) and  ,100
 10 
So, C = 1, K = 2
dy
k dy
Now differential equation e dx  kx   = ln(2x + 1)
2 dx
 its solution is of the form
 1
y (x) =  x   ln(2x + 1) – x + C
 2
Now y (0) = C = K = 2
 1
 y (x) =  x   ln(2x + 1) – x + 2  4y(1) = 4 + 6ln3
 2
Now 4y(1) – 5 ln3 = 4 + ln3
Approximate value = 5

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25. Let the equation of two adjacent sides of a parallelogram ABCD be 2x – 3y = –23 and 5x + 4y = 23. If
the equation of its one diagonal AC is 3x + 7y = 23 and the distance of A from the other diagonal is d,
then 50 d2 is equal to _______.
NTA Ans. (529)
Reso Ans. (529)
Sol.

(-4, 5)

2x–3y=-23 M   1 , 7 
 2 2

(3, 2)
(-1, 7) 5x + 4y = 23

3x + 7y = 23

 1 7
equation of other diagonal joining points (–1, 7) and   ,  is 7x + y = 0
 2 2

7  4  5
So distance of A from the other diagonal = d 
50
 50d2 = (23)2 = 529

26. The sum of all the four-digit numbers that can be formed using all the digits 2, 1, 2, 3 is equal to _____.
NTA Ans. (26664)
Reso Ans. (26664)
Sol. Sum of all 4 digit numbers
= sum of digit at unit place × 100
+ sum of digit at term place × 101
+ sum of digit at hundred place × 102
+ sum of digit at thousand place × 103
 3! 3! 
= 1  2  3!3   (100 +101 + 102 + 103)
 2! 2! 
= 24 × (1111)
= 26664

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 2x 
27. If the domain of the function f(x) = sec–1   is [, ) U (, ], then |3 + 10(+ ) + 21| is equal to
 5x  3 
______.
NTA Ans. (24)
Reso Ans. (24)
2x 2x
Sol.  1 or 1
5x  3 5x  3
2x 2x
1 0 or 1 0
5x  3 5x  3
7x  3 3( x  1)
0 or  0  x  [–1, –3/5)  (–3/5, –3/7]
5x  3 5x  3
 = –1,  = –3/5,  = –3/5,  = –3/7
 6  3
3( 1)  10    21     3  12  9  24
 5  7
28. Let the quadratic curve passing through the point (–1, 0) and touching the line y = x at (1,1) be y = f(x).
Then the x-intercept of the normal to the curve at the point ( + 1) in the first quadrant is ______.
NTA Ans. (11)
Reso Ans. (11)
Sol. Let quadratic curve passing through (–1, 0) is y – (x + 1) (ax – b)
Þ y = ax2 + (a – b) x – b
 dy 
so    2ax  a  b }1,1
 dx  1,1
= 3a – b = 1 …… (2)
and curve (1) is passing through (1,1) So 2(a – b) = 1 …… (3)
1 1
by (2) and (3) a = ,b= 
4 4
1 2 1 1
So curve y = x + x  ….. (4)
4 2 4
now point ( + 1) lies on curve (4) so  = 3 (point ( + 1) in the first quadrant)
normal to the curve (4) at the point ()  x + 2y = 11
 its x intercept = 11

29. Suppose a1, a2, 2, a3, a 4, be in an arithmetic co-geometric progression. If the common ratio of the
corresponding geometric progression is 2 and the sum of all 5 terms of the arithmetic co-geometric
49
progression is , then a4 is equal to ______.
2
NTA Ans. (16)
Reso Ans. (16)

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Sol. a1 a2 2 a3 a4
        
a 2(a +d) 4(a + 2d) 8(a + 3d) 16(a + 4d)
So 4(a + 2d) = 2
2a + 4d = 1 ……(1)
Sum = a + 2a + 2d + 4a + 8d + 8a + 24d +16a + 64d
49
= 31 a + 98d = ……..(2)
2
1
by equation (1) and (2)  a = 0 and d =
4
So, a4 = 16(a + 4d) = 16

30. If the area of the region {x, y : |x2 – 2|  y  x} is A, then 6A + 16 2 is equal to ______.
NTA Ans. (27)
Reso Ans. (27)
Sol. = |x2 – 2|  y  x

1 x

 2  2 x2
x 1

 x  (2 – x )dx   x  (x 
2 2
So Area 2 2
– 2) dx
1 2
2 2
 x2 x3   x2 x3 
=  – 2x   +  –  2x 
 2 3 
1  2 3  2

 2 2   1 1  8   2 2 
= 1  2 2  –  – 2   +  2   4  – 1 – 2 2
 
3  2 3  3    3 
 
4 2 7 10 4 2
=1–  + –1–
3 6 3 3
9 8 2
A= – So 6A + 16 2 = 27
2 3

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JEE (Main)
PAPER-1 (B.E./B. TECH.)

2023
COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT)
Questions & Solutions
Date: 10 April, 2023 (SHIFT-2) | TIME : (3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m)
w

Duration: 3 Hours | Max. Marks: 300

SUBJECT: PHYSICS

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PART : PHYSICS
31. In a metallic conductor, under the effect of applied electric field, the free electrons of the conductor
(1) move in the straight line path in the same direction
(2) drift from higher potential to lower potential.
(3) move in the curved paths from lower potential to higher potential
(4) move with the uniform velocity throughout from lower potential to higher potential
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. Motion of electron is random as well as drift opposite to field i.e. from low potential to high potential.

32. In an experiment with vernier calipers of least count 0.1 mm, when two jaws are joined together the zero
of vernier scale lies right to the zero of the main scale and 6th division of vernier scale coincides with the
main scale division. While measuring the diameter of a spherical bob, the zero of vernier scale lies in
between 3.2 cm and 3.3 cm marks, and 4th division of vernier scale concides with the main scale division.
The diameter of bob is measured as
(1) 3.22 (2) 3.25 (3) 3.18 (4) 3.26
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. Zero error = 0 + 0.01 × 6 = 0.06 cm
Reading = 3.2 + 0.01 × 4 = 3.24 cm
Diameter = 3.24 – 0.06
= 3.18 cm

33. the distance between two plates of a capacitor is d and its capacitance is C 1 , when air is the
2d
medium between the plates. If a metal sheet of thickness and of the same area as plate is
3
C2
introduced between the plates, the capacitance of the capacitor becomes C2 . The ratio is
C1

(1) 4:1 (2) 2:1 (3) 3:1 (4) 1:1


NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
A 0
Sol. C1 =
d
A 0 A 0 3 A 0 C2
C2 =    3
t  2d  2d d C1
(d  t )  d  
K  3  3(  )

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34. The variation of stopping potential (V0) as a function of frequency (v) of the incident light for a metal is
shown in figure. The work function of the surface is

(1) 2.98 eV (2) 1.36 eV (3) 2.07 eV (4) 18.6 eV


NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)

6.63  1034  5  1014


Sol. W= eV
1.6  1019
= 2.07 eV

7
35. The half life of a radioactive substance is T. The time taken, for disintegrating th part of its
8
original mass will be
(1) T (2) 3T (3) 8T (4) 2T
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
1
Sol. th part will remain so 3 half life i.e. 3T time taken.
8

36. The amplitude of magnetic field in an electromagnetic wave propagating along y-axis is 6.0  10 7 T.

The maximum value of electric field in the electromagnetic wave is


(1) 180 Vm-1 (2) 2 × 1015 Vm-1 (3) 5×1014 Vm-1 (4) 6.0 × 10-7 Vm-1
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Sol. E = CB
= 3 × 108 × 6 × 10–7
= 180 V/m

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37. Two projectiles are projected at 30° and 60° with the horizontal with the same speed. The ratio of the
maximum height attained by the two projectiles respectively is :

(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1: 3 (3) 2: 3 (4) 3 :1

NTA Ans. (2)


Reso Ans. (2)

u2 sin2 30
h1 1
2g
Sol.  2 2

h2 u sin 60 3
2g

38. Young's moduli of the material of wires A and B are in the ratio of 1:4, while its area of cross section are
in the ratio of 1:3. If the same amount of load is applied to both the wires, the amount of elongation
produced in the wires A and B will in the ratio of
[Assume length of wires A and B are same]
(1) 36: 1 (2) 1: 36 (3) 1:12 (4) 12: 1
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
F  L 
Sol.  y 
A  L 

L1 A 2 y 2 3 4
     12
L 2 A1 y1 1 1

39. Given below are two statements :


Statement I : For diamagnetic substance, –1  < 0, where  is the magnetic susceptibility.
Statement II : Diamagnetic substances when placed in an external magnetic field, tend to move from
stronger to weaker part of the field.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are False
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
Sol. For diamagnetic substance, susceptibility is small and negative so they tend to move from stronger to
weaker part of field when placed in external magnetic field.

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40. A person travels x distance with velocity v1 and then x distance with velocity v2 in the same direction. The
average velocity of the person is v, then the relation between v, v1 and v2 will be
2 1 1 1 1 1
(1)   (2)  
v v1 v 2 v v1 v 2

v1  v 2
(3) v  v1  v 2 (4) v 
2
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
2x 2v1v 2 2 1 1
Sol. v avg     
x x v1  v 2 v avg v1 v 2

v1 v 2

41. A bar magnet is released from rest along the axis of a very long vertical copper tube. After some time the
magnet will
(1) move down with an acceleration equal to g
(2) oscillate inside the tube
(3) move down with almost constant speed
(4) move down with an acceleration greater than g
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. Because of negligible net force, bar magnet will move with almost constant speed as weight will almost
balance with large magnetic force due to induction.

42. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of oxygen and 4 moles of neon at temperature T. Neglecting all
vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the system will be,
(1) 11 RT (2) 4RT (3) 8RT (4) 16RT
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
5 3
Sol. U  2  RT   4  RT = 11RT
2 2

43. The ratio of intensities at two points P and Q on the screen in a Young's double slit experiment where
 
phase difference between two waves of same amplitude are and respectively are
3 2
(1) 3:1 (2) 1:3 (3) 3:2 (4) 2: 3
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)

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Sol. We know R = 1 + 2 + 2 1  2 cos 


A =  +  + 2.cos60° = 3
Similarly B =  +  + 2cos90° = 2
A 3
 
B 2

44. A gas is compressed adiabatically, which one of the follwing statement is NOT true.
(1) The change in the internal energy is equal to the work done on the gas
(2) The temperature of the gas increases
(3) There is no heat supplied to the system
(4) There is no change in the internal energy
NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)
Sol. Q = U + W
Q = 0
 U = –W
 gas is compressed so W is negative
and U will be positive so T will also be positive

45. Given below are two statement:


statement I : Rotation of the earth shows effect on the value of acceleration due to gravity (g)
statement II : The effect of rotation of the earth on the value of 'g' at the equator is minimum and that at
the pole is maximum.
In the light of the above statements , choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) Both statement I and statement II are false
(2) statement I and true but statement II is false
(3) Both statement I and statement II are true
(4) statement I is false but statement II is true
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
Sol.

gp= g0[1–2Rcos2]

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46. For a periodic motion represented by the equation


y = sin t + cos t
the amplitude of the motion is
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 0.5
NTA Ans. (1)
Reso Ans. (1)
Sol.

A 2

1
/4

1
Phasor diagram
   
y = sint + sin  t   = 2 sint  
 2  4

47. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R
Assertion A : An electric fan continues to rotate for some time after the current is switched off.
Reason R : Fan continues to rotate due to inertia of motion.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(2) A is correct but R is not correct
(3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(4) A is not correct but R is correct
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
Sol. Fan will retard after current is switched off and stop after some time

48. A message signal of frequency 3kHz is used to modulate a carrier signal of frequency
1.5 MHz. The bandwidth of the amplitude modulated wave is
(1) 6 MHz (2) 6 kHz (3) 3 MHz (4) 3 kHz
NTA Ans. (2)
Reso Ans. (2)
Sol. band width = 2 fm = 2 × 3 = 6 kHz

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49. If each diode has a forward bias resistance of 25 in the below circuit,

which of the following options is correct:


I2 I1 I3 I1
(1) 1 (2) 1 (3) 1 (4) 2
l3 l2 l4 l2

NTA Ans. (4)


Reso Ans. (4)
Sol.

i3 = 0
i1 = i
i2 = i4 = i/2
i1 i
  =2
i2 i
2

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50. The time period of a satellite revolving above earth's surface at a height equal to R will be
(given g= 2 m/s2, R= radius of earth)

(1) 4R (2) 2R (3) 8R (4) 32R


NTA Ans. (4)
Reso Ans. (4)

GM GM GM
Sol. V=  
Rh RR 2R
3
 4 2 
T=
2[2R]

4R
 2R =    R3 / 2  4 2  R 2
V0 GM  GM 
  gR2

T= 32 R

51. A square loop of side 2.0 cm is placed inside a long solenoid that has 50 turns per centimetre and carries
as sinusoidally varying current of amplitude 2.5A and angular frequency 700 rad s–1. The central axes of
the loop and selenoid coincide. The amplitude of the emf induced in the loop is x × 10–4 V .The value of
22
x is (Take,  = )
7
NTA Ans. 44
Reso Ans. 44
Sol.  = BA = 0ni A = 0nAi0sint
 = 0ni0 Acost
22 50
0 = 0ni0 A = 4   107  2  2.5  700  4  104 = 44 × 10–4
7 10

52. A rectangular block of mass 5 kg attached to an horizontal spiral spring executes simple harmonic
motion of amplitude 1 m and time period 3.14s. The maximum force exerted by spring on block is
_____N.
NTA Ans. 20
Reso Ans. 20
Sol. Fmax = m2A

4 2
=5× × A = 20 N
T2

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53. An electron revolves around an infinite cylindrical wire having uniform linear charge density 2×10–8Cm-1
in circular path under the influence of attractive electrostatic field as shown in the figure. The velocity of

electron with which it is revolving is _____ 106m s1 . Given mass of electron = 9 1031 kg

NTA Ans. 8
Reso Ans. 8

mv2 2k
Sol.  e
r r

2ek
v = 8 × 106 m/s
m

54. Figure below shows a liquid being pushed out of the tube by a piston having area of cross section
2.0 cm2. The area of cross section at the oulet is 10 mm 2. If the piston is pushed at a speed of 4 cm s-1,
the speed of outgoing fluid is ______ cm s-1

NTA Ans. 80
Reso Ans. 80
Sol. A1V1 = A2V2

2 × 4 = (10×10–2)V2
V2 = 80 cm/sec.

55. If the maximum load carried by an elevator is 1400 kg (600 kg - Passengers + 800 kg- elevator), which
is moving up with a uniform speed of 3 ms-1 and the frictional force acting on it is 2000 N, then the
maximum power used by the motor is ____ kW (g=10 m/s 2)
NTA Ans. 48
Reso Ans. 48

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Sol. F = Mg + f
= 14000 + 2000
= 16000
Power = FV
= 48 KW

56. A force of -P k̂ acts on the origin of the coordinate system. The torque about the point (2,3) is

 
P a î  bĵ , The ratio of
a
b
x
is . The value of x is-
2
NTA Ans. (3)
Reso Ans. (3)
  
Sol.   r F

 (2î  3 ĵ)  [pk̂]  [2 ĵ  3 î ] p

Comparing with p[a î  b ĵ]

a=3&b=2
a 3 x
   x=3
b 2 2

57. A point object, 'O' is placed in front of two thin symmetrical coaxial convex lenses L 1 and L2 with focal
length 24 cm and 9 cm respectively. The distance between two lenses is 10 cm and the object is placed
6 cm away from lens L1 as shown in the figure. The distance between the object and the image formed
by the system of two lenses is _____ cm.

NTA Ans. 34
Reso Ans. 34
1 1 1
Sol.    v1 = –8
v1  6 24

1 1 1
   v2 = 18
v 2  18 9

So distance between object and image is 34.

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58. A straight wire carrying of 14 A is bent into a semi-circular arc of radius 2.2 cm as shown in the figure.
The magnetic field produced by the current at the centre (O) of the arc is ____ × 10–4T

NTA Ans. 2
Reso Ans. 2
 0i 22
Sol. B  4  10 7  14
4R 7
22
4  10 7  14
 i 7
B 0 
4R 4  2.2  10  2
= 2 × 10–4 T

59. If 917 Å be the lowest wavelength of Lyman series then the lowest wavelength of Balmer series will be
_______ Å
NTA Ans. 3668
Reso Ans. 3668
1 1 1 
Sol.  RZ2  2  2 
917 1  

1  1 1 
 RZ2  2  2 
 2  
Solving  = 3668 Å

60. A rectangular parallelopiped is measured as 1 cm × 1 cm × 100 cm. If its specific resistance is


3 × 10-7 m then the resistance between its two opposite rectangular faces will be _____ ×10 -7 
NTA Ans. 3
Reso Ans. 3

 3  107  1 102
Sol. R= 
A 100  1 10 4
= 3 × 10–7

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JEE (Main)
PAPER-1 (B.E./B. TECH.)

2023
COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT)
Questions & Solutions
Date: 10 April, 2023 (SHIFT-2) | TIME : (3.00 p.m. to 6.00 p.m)
w

Duration: 3 Hours | Max. Marks: 300

SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY

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PART : CHEMISTRY
61. Incorrect method of preparation for alcohols from the following is:
(1) Hydroboration-oxidation of alkene.
(2) Reaction of Ketone with RMgBr followed by hydrolysis.
(3) Reaction of alkyl halide with aqueous NaOH.
(4) Ozonolysis of alkene.
Ans. NTA : (4)
Sol. In ozonolysis of alkene reaction aldehyde or ketones are formed as product.

62. The correct order of the number of unpaired electrons in the given complexes is
A. [Fe(CN)6]3–
B. [FeF6]3–
C. [CoF6]3–
D. [Cr(oxalate)3]3–
E. [Ni(CO)4]
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A < E < D < C < B (2) E < A < B < D < C
(3) E < A < D < C < B (4) A < E < C < B < D
Ans. NTA : (3)
Reso : (3)
Sol. E  n = 0, A  n = 1, D  n = 3, C  n = 4, B  n = 5

63. The decreasing order of hydride affinity for following carbocations is:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(1) C, A, D, B
(2) A, C, D, B
(3) C, A, B, D
(4) A, C, B, D
Ans. NTA : (3)
Reso : (3)
Sol. Greater the hydride affinity, lesser the stability of carbocation.

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64. In Carius tube, an organic compound ‘X’ is treated with sodium peroxide to form a mineral acid ‘Y’.
The solution of BaCl2, is added to ‘Y’ to form a precipitate ‘Z’. ‘Z’ is used for the quantitative estimation of
an extra element. ‘X’ could be
(1) A nucleotide (2) Chioroxylenol (3) Methionine (4) Cytosine
Ans. NTA : (3)
Sol. Methionine has 'S', and 'S' with fuming HNO3 get oxidised to SO42– ion, which gives while ppt with BaCl2.

H3C –S – CH2 – CH2 –CH – COO–


+
NH3
Methionine
65. The reaction used for preparation of soap from fat is :
(1) reduction reaction (2) an addition reaction
(3) alkaline hydrolysis reaction (4) an oxidation reaction
Ans. NTA : (3)
Reso : (3)
Sol. Formation of soap by the alkaline hydrolysis of fat is called saponification.

66. Buna-S can be represented as:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
Ans. NTA : (4)
Reso : (4)
CH=CH2 –CH2–CH=CH–CH2–CH–CH2–

CH2=CH–CH=CH2 +
Sol.
1,3-butadiene n
styrene

67. The correct order of metallic character is


(1) Be > Ca > K (2) Ca > K > Be (3) K > Ca > Be (4) K > Be > Ca
Ans. NTA : (3)
Reso : (3)

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Sol. Li Be
Na Mg
K Ca Metallic
Rb Sr character
Cs Ba increases
Fr Ra
Metallic character
increases

68. Match List I with List II


List I List II
Complex Crystal Field Splitting energy (0)
A. [Ti(H2O)6]2+ I. – 1.2
B. [V(H2O)6]2+ II. – 0.6
C. [Mn(H2O)6]3+ III. 0
D. [Fe(H2O)6]3+ IV. – 0.8
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
Ans. NTA : (2)
Reso : (2)
Sol. [Ti(H2O)6]2+
ON of Ti = +2
Ti+2 = 3d2 ( t12,1g,0 , e0g,0 )
C.F.S.E = - 0.8 o
[V(H2O)6]2+
ON of V = +2
V+2 = 3d3 ( t12,1g,1 , e0g,0 )
C.F.S.E = - 1.2 o
[Mn(H2O)6]3+
ON of Mn = +3
Mn+3 = 3d4 (W.F.L)
t12,1g,1 , e0g,0
C.F.S.E = (- 1.2 + 0.6) o
= - 0.6 o
[Fe(H2O)6]3+
ON of Fe = +3 (W.F.L)  3d5
t12,1g,1 , e1g,1
C.F.S.E = 0

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69. In the reaction given below :

The Product ‘X’ is:

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

Ans. NTA : (2)


Reso : (2)
O
H2N LiAlH4 H2N
Sol.
O H3O+ OH
LiAlH4 reduced amide to amine and ketone to alcohol.

70. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: 3.1500g of hydrated oxalic acid dissolved in water to make 250.0 mL solution will result in
0.1 M oxalic acid solution.
Reason R: Molar mass of hydrated oxalic acid is 126 g mol–1
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) A is false but R is true
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(4) A is true but R is false
Ans. NTA : (3)
Sol. H2C2O4.2H2O
3.15 / 126
M= = 0.1 M
250 / 1000

71. Number of water molecules in washing soda and soda ash respectively are :
(1) 1 and 10 (2)1 and 0 (3) 10 and 1 (4) 10 and 0
Ans. NTA : (4)
Reso : (4)
Sol. Soda ash  Na2CO3
Washing Soda  Na2CO3 . 10H2O

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72. The major product ‘P’ formed in the given reaction is:

(1) (2)

(3) (4)
Ans. NTA : (4)
Reso : (4)
H3CO
Sol. H3CO Cl
anhy O 2N
AlCl3
O2N CH3
N
73. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: The energy required to form Mg2+ from Mg is much higher than that required to produce
Mg+
Reason R: Mg2+ is small ion and carry more charge than Mg+
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) A is true but R is false
(2) A is false but R is true
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
Ans. NTA : (3)
Reso : (3)
IE1
Sol. Mg   Mg+
IE1 IE2
Mg   Mg+   Mg+2
The second ionization enthalpy will be higher than that of first ionization enthalpy. Due to it's small size,
it has more effective nuclear charge

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74. Gibbs energy vs T plot for the formation of oxides is given below.

For the given diagram, the correct statement is -


(1) At 600 °C, CO cannot reduce FeO (2) At 600°C, C can reduce FeO
(3) At 600 °C, C can reduce ZnO (4) At 600 °C, CO can reduce ZnO
Ans. NTA : (2)
Reso : (2)
Sol. At 600oC
FeO + C  Fe + CO2

75. The correct order for acidity of the following hydroxyl compound is:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


(1) C > E > D > B > A (2) D > E > C > A > B (3) E > D > C > B > A (4) E > C > D > A > B
Ans. NTA : (4)
Reso : (4)
Sol. Greater the stability of conjugate base, greater the acidity. For phenols, –M group (–NO2) present at para
position stabilize the conjugate base, whereas hyperconjugation of –CH3 decreases the stability.

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76. Match List I with List II


List I List II
A. 16 g of CH4 (g) I. Weight 28g
B. 1 g of H2 (g) II. 60.2 × 1023 electrons
C. 1 mole of N2 (g) III. Weighs 32 g
D. 0.5 mol of SO2 (g) IV. Occupies 11.4 L volume at STP
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Ans. NTA : (3)
Reso : (3)
Sol. (A) 16 g or 1 mol CH4 or 6.02 x 1023 x 10 electrons
(B) 1 g H2 or ½ mol H2 or 11.35 L volume at STP
(C) 1 mol N2 = 28 g N2
(D) 0.5 mol SO2 = 32g SO2

77. The correct relationships between unit cell edge length ‘a’ and radius of sphere ‘r’ for face-centred and
body-centred cubic structures respectively are:
(1) 2 2 r = a and 4r = 3a (2) r = 2 2 a and 3 r = 4a
(3) r = 2 2 a and 4r = 3a (4) 2 2 r = a and 3 r = 4a
Ans. NTA : (1)
Reso : (1)
4r
Sol. F.C.C. a 2 = 4r for BCC 3 a = 4r a  2 2r
2

78. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: Physical properties of isotopes of hydrogen are different.
Reason R: Mass difference between isotopes of hydrogen is very large.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A is false but R is true
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Ans. NTA : (4)
Reso : (4)
Sol. Isotopes of hydrogen differ in physical properties due to their large mass difference.

79. Ferric chloride is applied to stop bleeding because -


(1) Fe3+ ions coagulate blood which is a negatively charged sol.
(2) FeCl3 reacts with the constituents of blood which is a positively charged sol.
(3) Blood absorbs FeCl3 and forms a complex.
(4) Cl– ions cause coagulation of blood.
Ans. NTA : (1)
Reso : (1)
Sol. Blood is a negative charge colloid hence cation of FeCl3 is Fe+3 will act as coagulation agent

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80. The delicate balance of CO2 and O2 is NOT disturbed by


(1) Burning of Coal (2) Burning of petroleum
(3) Deforestation (4) Respiration
Ans. NTA : (4)
Reso : (4)
Sol. It is fact (Respiration is a natural phenomenon).

81. A(g) 2B(g) + C(g)


For the given reaction, if the initial pressure is 450 mm Hg and the pressure at time t is 720 mm Hg at a
constant temperature T and constant volume V. The fraction of A(g) decomposed under these conditions
is x × 10–1. The value of x is (nearest integer)
Ans. NTA : 3
Reso : 3
Sol. A(g) 2B(g) + C(g)
t=0 450 0 0
t=t 450-x 2x x
720 = 450 – x + 2x + x
or x = 135
135
= 0.3 = 3 x 10–1
450

82. The number of incorrect statement/s from the following is _____________


A. The successive half lives of zero order reactions decreases with time.
B. A substance appearing as reactant in the chemical equation may not affect the rate of reaction
C. Order and molecularity of a chemical reaction can be a fractional number
D. The rate constant units of zero and second order reaction are mol L–1 s–1 and mol–1 L s–1 respectively
Ans. NTA : (1)
Reso : (1)
Sol. (C)  incorrect, order can be fractional but molecularity cannot

83. The number of endothermic process/es from the following is ____________


A. 2 (g)  2(g)
B. HCl (g)  H(g) + Cl (g)
C. H2O(l)  H2O (g)
D. C(s) + O2 (g)  CO2 (g)
E. Dissolution of ammonium chloride in water
Ans. NTA : (4)
Reso : (4)
Sol. except D

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84. The specific conductance of 0.0025 M acetic acid is 5 × 10–5 S cm–1 at a certain temperature. The
dissociation constant of acetic acid is ___________ × 10–7. (Nearest integer)
Consider limiting molar conductivity of CH3COOH as 400 S cm2 mol–1
Ans. NTA : 66
Reso : 66
5
1000 x K 1000 x 5 x 10
Sol. m = = = 20 S cm2 mol–1
CM 0.0025

20 1
= =
400 20
C 2
Ka = = 66 x 10–7
1 2

85. For a metal ion, the calculated magnetic moment is 4.90 BM. This metal ion has __________ number of
unpaired electrons.
Ans. NTA : 4
Reso : 4
Sol. nn  2 = 4.9
Upon solving we get n = 4

86. An aqueous solution of volume 300 cm 3 contains 0.63 g of protein. The osmotic pressure of the solution
at 300 K is 1.29 mbar. The molar mass of the protein is __________ g mol–1
Given: R = 0.083 L bar K–1 mol–1
Ans. NTA : 40535
Reso : 40535
W /M
Sol. = RT
V
0.63 x0.083 x 300
or M =
1.29 x 103 x 300 x 103
or M = 40535 g/mol

87. The difference in the oxidation state of Xe between the oxidised product of Xe formed on complete
hydrolysis of XeF4 and XeF4 is __________
Ans. NTA : 2
Reso :2
4 6
Sol. Xe F4 + H2O  Xe O 3 + Xe + HF + O2

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88.

The electron in the nth orbit of Li2+ is excited to (n + 1) orbit using the radiation of energy 1.47 × 10–17 J
(as shown in the diagrarn). The value of n is __________
Given: RH = 2.18 × 10–18 J
Ans. NTA : 1
Reso : 1
 1 1
Sol. E = RHZ2  2  2 
n 
 1 n2 
or
 1 1 
1.47 x 10–17 = 2.18 x 10–18 x 9  2 
n (n  1)2 
on solving n = 1

89. The number of molecules from the following which contain only two lone pair of electrons is __________
H2O, N2, CO, XeF4, NH3, NO, CO2, F2
Ans. NTA : (4)
Reso : (4)
Sol. H2O, CO, N2, XeF4

90. In alkaline medium, the reduction of permanganate anion involves a gain of electrons.
Ans. NTA : (3)
Reso : (3)
Sol. MnO 4 + 3e– + 2H2O  MnO2 + 4OH–

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