All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test-1 (Code-F)

6. Which of the following sets of forces cannot give the 11. Figure shows two cars A and B moving in x-y plane
zero resultant? with velocity vA and vB. The cars move such that B
(1) 3N, 4N, 5N (2) 9N, 7N, 6N vA
(3) 16N, 5N, 14N (4) 40N, 30N, 5N always remains to south of A. The ratio is equal
vB
7. A body is projected horizontally with speed u from a to
tower of height H. The magnitude of velocity with
H
which body crosses the height will be (g is
2
acceleration due to gravity)

(1) u 2 + gH (2) u + gH

(3) u 2 + 2gH (4) u + 2gH

8. The equation of trajectory of a projectile is given by
40 2
y = 4x − x , where y is vertically upwards. If R
39
is range and  is angle of projection from horizontal,
then value of R tan is (x and y are in m) 1
(1) 3.9 m (2) 15.6 m (1) 2 (2)
2
(3) 11.7 m (4) 14.2 m
9. A projectile is projected with speed 20 m/s making 3 2
(3) (4)
an angle 30° with the vertical. The speed when its 2 3
direction of motion makes an angle 30° with the
12. An object is projected from the ground with speed u
horizontal is (g = 10 m/s2)
at an angle  with the horizontal. The radius of
20 10 curvature of its trajectory at maximum height is R1
(1) m/s (2) m/s
3 3 R 
and at the point of projection is R2. The ratio  1 
(3) 10 3 m/s (4) 20 3 m/s R
 2 
10. A particle is thrown from ground with speed u at an is
angle  with horizontal. The average velocity of the
(1) cos3
T
particle in the time interval t = 0 to t = , where T
2 (2) sin3
is time of flight of projectile, is
sin2 
(3)
(1) u cos (2) u 1 + cos2  cos 

u u cos2 
(3) 1 + sin2  (4) 1 + 3cos2  (4)
2 2 sin 
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13. A person P throws a ball vertically upwards which is 16. A particle is moving such that its position co-
on a trolley moving with constant speed u as shown ordinates (x, y), with time t are as given in the table
in the figure. Another person Q standing on the
S. No. Position co-ordinates (x, y ) Time (t )
ground observes the whole process. Then choose
the correct statement. (i) (2 m,4 m) 0s
(ii) (8 m,20 m) 4s
(iii) (11m,13 m) 6s
(iv) (14 m,16 m) 7s

(1) Ball will appear to move in straight line for

Average velocity (v avg ) of the particle from time
person P and Q both t = 0 to t = 6 s is
(2) Ball will appear to move in parabolic path for (1) 3 ( iˆ + ˆj ) m/s
person P and Q both
(3) Ball will appear to move in straight line for (2) 2 ( iˆ + ˆj ) m/s
person P and in parabolic path for person Q
(4) Ball will appear to move in straight line for (3) ( i + j ) m/s
3 ˆ ˆ
2
person Q and in parabolic path for person P.
14. A particle starts moving along a circle of radius (4) ( 2i + 4 ˆj ) m/s
1 ˆ
3
 40 
  m with a constant tangential acceleration. If 17. A particle moves so that its position vector is given
  
the velocity of the particle is 120 m/s at the end of (0 0 )
by r = r cos t iˆ + r sin t jˆ m, where  and r are 0
the second revolution after the motion has begun, constants and t is time in second. Choose the
the tangential acceleration is correct statement.
(1) 40 m/s2 (1) Velocity is perpendicular to r and acceleration
(2) 35 m/s2 is directed towards the origin
(3) 45 m/s2 (2) Acceleration and velocity both are
(4) 50 m/s2 perpendicular to r
15. A person reaches exactly opposite point on the (3) Acceleration and velocity both are parallel to r
bank of a river if he starts swimming with a speed of
(4) Acceleration is perpendicular to r and velocity
9 kmph at an angle 120° with the direction of flow of
is directed towards the origin
the water stream. The speed of water in the stream
is 18. A projectile is thrown from ground with speed
20 m/s at angle  with horizontal. It is found that
(1) 2.5 m/s
projectile is at same height at 0.5 s and 1.5 s. The
(2) 9 m/s angle of projection is
(3) 4.5 m/s (1) 30° (2) 60°
(4) 1.25 m/s (3) 37° (4) 45°
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19. An aeroplane flying horizontally with a velocity of 24. A train is moving towards east at a speed of 20 m/s.
216 km h–1, drops a food packet while flying at a A bullet fired westward with a velocity of 180 m/s,
height of 980 m. The total horizontal distance crosses the train in 1.5 s. The length of train is
travelled by the packet is (g = 9.8 m/s2) (1) 300 m
(1) 600 m (2) 600 2 m (2) 240 m
(3) 216 m (4) 432 2 m (3) 200 m
20. The position of a particle is given by (4) 270 m
r = ( 3tiˆ − 2t 2 jˆ + 1kˆ ) m, where t is time in second and 25. A particle is dropped from a balloon rising at
20 m s–1 at a time when the balloon is 80 m above
the coefficients have the proper unit for r to be in the ground. If g = 10 m s–2, then the particle reaches
metre. The acceleration of the particle (in m/s2) at the ground approximately in
t = 2 s is
(1) 5.6 s
(1) 2 ˆj (2) −2 ˆj (2) 6.5 s
(3) 3iˆ − 2 ˆj (4) −4 jˆ (3) 4.5 s
21. The resultant of two vectors of magnitudes 3A and (4) 4 s
2A is R. If the first vector is doubled, then the 26. A packet dropped from the 16th storey of a multi-
magnitude of resultant is also doubled. The angle storeyed building reaches the ground in 4 second.
between two vectors is In the first second of its free fall, it passes through
(1) 60° (2) 120° m storeys, the value of m is equal to (g = 10 m/s2)
(3) 90° (4) 180° (1) 1 (2) 2
22. Four bodies A, B, C, and D are projected from the (3) 3 (4) 4
ground, with same speed at angles 39°, 43°, 52° 27. The acceleration (a) – time (t) graph for a particle
and 46° with the horizontal respectively. The correct moving along x-axis is shown in the figure. If the
relation for their horizontal range are initial velocity of the particle is –20 m/s, the velocity
(1) RD > RB > RA > RC at t = 4 s is

(2) RA > RB > RC > RD

(3) RD > RB = RA > RC
(4) RD < RB < RC = RA
23. A motorboat is racing towards north at 36 km/h w.r.t.
water and the speed of water current in that region
is 10 km/h towards east. The resultant speed of the
boat is nearly
(1) 37 m/s (2) 37 km/h (1) 10 m/s (2) –10 m/s
(3) 46 km/h (4) 26 km/h (3) –14 m/s (4) Zero
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28. A bus is moving with a uniform speed of 20 m/s on 32. A particle covers one fifth of total distance with
a straight road. A police jeep wishes to catch the speed 12 m/s and rest of distance with 8 m/s. Its
bus in exact 50 s. If the bus is at a distance 500 m average speed during the complete journey is
ahead of police jeep. With what constant speed the
60
jeep should move to chase the bus? (1) 10 m/s (2) m/s
7
(1) 25 m/s (2) 30 m/s
50
(3) 40 m/s (4) 35 m/s (3) m/s (4) 8.5 m/s
7
29. The velocity (v) of a particle moving along z-axis,
33. The position (x) of a particle moving along x-axis, is
varies with its position z as shown in the figure. The
given by x = 12t2 – 4t3, where x is in metre and time
magnitude of acceleration at position z = 1 m is
t is in second. The position of the particle when it
achieves maximum speed along positive
x-direction, is
(1) 16 m (2) 4 m
(3) 8 m (4) 2 m
34. A substance having density 1200.0 g/cm3, occupies
a volume 1.00 cm3. The mass of the substance with
(1) 9 m/s2 (2) 3 m/s2
correct significant figures is
(3) –6 m/s2 (4) –18 m/s2
(1) 1200.0 g (2) 1.200 × 103 g

30. The value of  4 cos 2 d  is equal to (3) 1200 g (4) 1.20 × 103 g
0 35. The potential energy U of a particle varies with
(1) 4 (2) 2 x 3/2
distance x from origin as U = , where  and
(3) –2 (4) Zero  + x3
31. Which of the following velocity (v) – time (t) graph is  are dimensional constants, then dimensional
physically possible?  
formula of   is

(1) [ML1/2T–2]
(1) (2)
(2) [M0L0T–2]
(3) [ML7/2T–2]
(4) [ML3/2T–2]
36. Three measurements are made as 7.5, 2.71 and
4.732. The number of significant figures in addition
(3) (4) of these three measurements are
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
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37. If the dimensional formula of a physical quantity is 41. The fundamental forces having infinite range are
given by [MxLyTz], then the physical quantity will be (1) Electromagnetic force and strong nuclear force
(1) Torque, if x = 1, y = 2 and z = 2 (2) Electromagnetic force and gravitational force
(2) Surface tension, if x = 1, y = 0 and z = –2 (3) Strong nuclear force and weak nuclear force
(3) Work, if x = 1, y = 1 and z = –2 (4) Gravitational force and weak nuclear force
(4) Velocity, if x = 0, y = 1 and z = 2
R 2C
38. If percentage errors in calculation of tension in the 42. The dimensional formula of , where R is
L
wire, mass and length of wire are 2%, 1% and 1% resistance, C is capacitance and L is inductance,
respectively, then maximum percentage error in will be
calculation of velocity of transverse wave
(1) [M0L2T1]
 TL 
v =  produced in the wire will be (2) [M0L0T1]
 M 
(3) [M0L0T–1]
(1) 2%
(4) [M0L0T0]
(2) 1%
43. The value of measurement of a physical quantity in
(3) 1.5%
five trials are found as 1.50, 1.52, 1.53, 1.51 and
(4) 2.5% 1.54, then
39. If B is magnetic field and 0 is permeability of free (1) Mean absolute error is 0.01
2 (2) Relative error is 0.001
B
space, then the dimensional formula of
2 0 (3) Percentage error is 0.1%
(1) [ML2T–2] (4) Percentage error is 0.2%

(2) [MLT–2] 44. The order of magnitude of 179 is

(3) [M–1LT–2] (1) 2

(4) [ML–1T–2] (2) 3

40. Choose the incorrect statement (3) 1

(1) Strong nuclear force is mediated by the particle (4) Zero

‘-meson’ 45. Which of the following is the most precise
instrument for measuring the length?
(2) Sir C.V. Raman won the Nobel Prize for study
of scattering of light by molecules (1) Metre rod of least count 1 mm
(3) Strong nuclear force is 1013 times stronger than (2) Vernier callipers of least count 0.1 mm
electrostatic force (3) Screw gauge of least count 0.01 mm
(4) Gravitational force is a central force (4) Screw gauge of least count 0.02 mm
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[CHEMISTRY]
46. The ratio of the energy required to remove electron 52. The species having bond order 2.5 is
from second orbit and third orbit of He+ ion is
(1) O2+ (2) O2−
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 1
(3) C2+ (4) CO
(3) 9 : 4 (4) 4 : 1
47. Which among the following is an incorrect 53. Which among the following is an electron deficient
statement? molecule?
(1) NH3 (2) CHCl3
(1) Sigma () molecular orbitals are symmetrical
around the bond-axis (3) B2H6 (4) PCl5
(2) He2 does not exist 54. The incorrect match among the following is
(3) F2 contains ten electrons in bonding molecular Molecule/ion Shape
orbital (1) IF5 Square pyramidal

(4) C2 contains one  and one -bond (2) BF3 Trigonal planar

48. Intramolecular hydrogen bond is present in (3) NH2 Bent

(1) o-nitrophenol (4) I3+ Linear
(2) H2O
55. 400 ml of 2 M NaOH solution is mixed with 600 ml
(3) CHCl3 of 1 M NaOH solution. The final molarity of the
solution becomes
(4) p-nitrophenol
(1) 1.2 M (2) 1.4 M
49. On conversion of N2 to N2− the electron enters in (3) 1.6 M (4) 1.5 M
which of the following molecular orbital? 56. The element with highest electronegativity belongs
(1)  (2) * to
(1) Period 3, group 16
(3)  (4) *
(2) Period 3, group 17
50. The compound having highest boiling point among
(3) Period 2, group 16
the following is
(4) Period 2, group 17
(1) HF (2) HCl
57. If the radius of the first orbit of hydrogen atom is a Å
(3) HBr (4) HI then the radius of the second orbit of Li2+ ion will be
51. The species which contains highest number of non- 4 1
bonding electrons is (1) aÅ (2) aÅ
3 3
(1) ClF3 (2) XeF4
2
(3) aÅ (4) 2a Å
(3) PCl5 (4) XeO3 3

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58. Maximum number of spectral lines obtained when 63. An element X exist in three isotopic forms. If
electrons in H-atom sample de-excite from fourth percentage composition of 150X, 148X and 151X are
excited state to ground state is 40%, 20% and 40% respectively then, the average
(1) 15 (2) 10 atomic weight of X will be
(1) 150.0 u
(3) 8 (4) 6
(2) 149.5 u
59. Which of the following species has electronic
configuration [Ar]3d4? [Atomic number of V = 23, (3) 150.4 u
Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26] (4) 150.6 u
(1) V2+ (2) Cr+ 64. If mass percentage of Co2+ in a biomolecule
is 0.59% then the minimum molecular weight
(3) Mn3+ (4) Fe3+
of the biomolecule will be (molar mass of
60. If uncertainty in momentum of a moving particle is Co = 59 g mol–1)
twice than the uncertainty in position then
(1) 100 (2) 1000
uncertainty in the velocity will be
(3) 10000 (4) 40000
1 h
(1) 65. 100 ml of 0.2 M NaCl is mixed with 50 ml of
m 2 0.5 M AgNO3 solution. Mole of silver chloride
1 h formed in the reaction is
(2)
m 4 (1) 0.2 (2) 0.02
(3) 0.25 (4) 0.025
1 h
(3) 66. If the mass percentage of methyl alcohol in aqueous
m 8
solution is 16% then molality of the solution will be
1 h (1) 7.25 m (2) 3.15 m
(4)
m 10 (3) 8.23 m (4) 5.95 m
61. Li+ is isoelectronic with 67. The hybridisation of sulphur in SF6, SF4 and H2SO3
(1) H (2) He respectively are
(3) Be+ (4) B2+ (1) sp3d2, sp3d and sp3
62. Wavelength of light emitted when an electron from (2) sp3d3, sp3d2 and sp3
the fourth orbit of He+ falls to the ground state level (3) sp3d2, sp3d and sp3d
is (R = Rydberg constant)
(4) sp3d, sp3d and sp2
16 4 68. Number of bonding electrons in O2 molecule on the
(1) (2)
15R 15R basis of molecular orbital theory is
4 3 (1) 4 (2) 10
(3) (4)
3R 4R (3) 8 (4) 6
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69. Which among the following is linear in shape? 76. Correct order of ionic radii of the given species is
(1) C2H4 (2) BeCl2 (1) N3– > O2– > F– > Na+
(3) SO2 (4) H2O2 (2) Na+ > F– > O2– > N3–
70. Which among the following molecules has highest (3) F– > O2– > N3– > Na+
dipole moment? (4) N3– > F– > O2– > Na+
(1) PCl5 (2) NH3
77. Correct decreasing order of covalent character of
(3) H2S (4) NF3 the given compounds is
71. Total number of atomic orbitals in fifth shell of an (1) LiI > LiBr > LiCl > LiF
atom is (2) LiF > LiCl > LiBr > LiI
(1) 16 (2) 25
(3) LiBr > Lil > LiCl > LiF
(3) 9 (4) 18
(4) LiI > LiF > LiCl > LiBr
72. A particle of mass 1 mg is moving with a velocity of
200 m/s. The wavelength associated with the 78. Which among the following is a diamagnetic
particle is (h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js) species?

(1) 3.3 × 10–27 m (2) 3.3 × 10–30 m (1) NO+ (2) O2+
(3) 3.3 × 10–36 m (4) 3.3 × 10–31 m
(3) O2− (4) B2
73. Incorrect statement among the following is
(1) Particle nature of electromagnetic radiation is 79. In which of the following pairs, species are
manifested in photoelectric effect isostructural?
(2) An electron beam undergoes diffraction 
(1) NH3 and NH4
(3) Energy of 2p-orbital of hydrogen atom is greater
than 2s-orbital (2) SO3 and BCl3
(4) The region where probability density function
(3) SO24− and NO3−
reduces to zero is called node
74. The incorrect order for the indicated property is (4) ClF3 and I3−
(1) F > Cl > Br > I (Decreasing electron affinity)
80. Number of -bonds and -electrons in the given
(2) C > B > Be > Li (Decreasing electronegativity) structure respectively are
(3) B > C > N > O (Decreasing atomic radii)
(4) Li > Na > K > Rb (Decreasing ionization
enthalpy)
75. An element (X) with atomic number 35 belongs to
(1) s-block (2) p-block (1) 13 and 6 (2) 14 and 6
(3) d-block (4) f-block (3) 15 and 3 (4) 13 and 3

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81. The hybridization of central atom and shape of 85. Which quantum number gives information about
XeO2F2 respectively are spatial orientation of the orbital with respect to
standard set of co-ordinate axes?
(1) dsp2, square planar
(1) Principal quantum number
(2) sp3d, T-shape
(2) Azimuthal quantum number
(3) sp3d, see-saw
(4) sp3d2, square-pyramidal (3) Magnetic orbital quantum number

82. Correct order of bond length among the following (4) Spin quantum number
species is 86. The orbital angular momentum of an electron in 4s-
orbital is
(1) N2 > N2− > N22−
(1) 20 (2)
(2) N22− > N2− > N2
(3) Zero (4) 6
(3) N2− > N22− > N2
87. Energy of a photon of electromagnetic radiation
(4) N22− > N2 > N2− having wavelength 600 Å is (h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js,
speed of light = 3 × 108 ms–1)
83. Which of the following molecules does not contain
-bond? (1) 3.3 × 10–18 J (2) 3.3 × 10–15 J
(1) C2H2 (3) 6.6 × 10–19 J (4) 1.5 × 103 J

(2) H2SO4 88. Which among the following has maximum number
of molecules?
(3) HNO3
(1) 22 g CO2 (2) 40 g SO3
(4) H2S
(3) 10 g CH4 (4) 20 g NO2
84. Which among the following is not a permissible set
of quantum numbers for an electron in an atom? 89. 4 g of Mg is reacted with 8 g of O 2. Mole of MgO
produced in the reaction is
n l m s
1 1 1
(1) 3 2 –1 + (1) (2)
2 4 8

1 1 1
(2) 2 1 –1 − (3) (4)
2 6 3

1 90. If the mass ratio of He to N2 in a container is

(3) 4 3 –2 + 2 : 1 then the ratio of their moles will be
2
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 4 : 1
1
(4) 3 3 –1 +
2 (3) 7 : 1 (4) 14 : 1

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[BIOLOGY]
91. The correctly written scientific name of potato is 97. Mitosis does not
(1) Solanum tuberosum Linn (1) Help in repair of worn out cells
(2) Solanum tuberosum Linn (2) Help to restore nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio
(3) Solanum Tuberosum Linn (3) Occur in haploid cells
(4) Solanum tuberosum Linn (4) Bring variation in progeny
98. The exchange of genetic material between non-
92. Out of the following taxa which one represents the
highest rank in taxonomic hierarchy? sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
takes place in
(1) Poales
(1) Zygotene (2) Leptotene
(2) Anacardiaceae
(3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene
(3) Monocotyledonae 99. The phenomenon absent in an animal cell during
(4) Polymoniales interkinesis phase is
93. Which of the given is not an exclusive feature of (1) RNA synthesis (2) Replication of DNA
living beings? (3) Protein synthesis (4) Centriole duplication
(1) Metabolism (2) Consciousness 100. Metaphase I is different from metaphase II as in
(3) Growth (4) Reproduction former
94. All of the following taxonomical aids are used for (1) Bivalents align at equator
identification of animals, except (2) Each chromosome is attached to the spindle
(1) Museum (2) Key fibres from both the poles
(3) Single equatorial plate is formed
(3) Zoological park (4) Flora
(4) Each chromosome has single chromatid
95. Which of the following pairs of taxa do not have
similar category in hierarchy? 101. Identify the wrongly matched pair.

(1) Solanaceae, Anacardiaceae (1) Recombination nodule – Pachytene

(2) Formation of X-shaped structure – Diplotene
(2) Primata, Insecta
(3) Nuclear envelope disintegrates – Diakinesis
(3) Hominidae, Muscidae
(4) Synaptonemal complex dissolves – Zygotene
(4) Poaceae, Felidae
102. A pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is
96. Amitosis known as
(1) Occurs in prokaryotes only (1) Bivalent
(2) Involves spindle fibres formation (2) Chiasmata
(3) Occurs during gamete formation (3) Monad
(4) Produces two similar daughter cells (4) Monovalent
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103. How many of the following structures/events can be 108. In all of the given phases, amount of DNA in a cell
observed in a meristematic tissue? is double but the chromosome number is same,
(a) Bivalents except

(b) Chiasmata (1) Post mitotic gap phase

(c) Spindle fibres (2) Synthesis phase
(d) Metaphasic plate (3) Pre mitotic gap phase
(e) Condensation of chromatin material (4) Prophase
(1) 3 (2) 2 109. How many of the following features are common in
(3) 4 (4) 1 both G1 and G2 stages of interphase?

104. Cytokinesis of plant cells differs from animal cells as
the former
(1) Occurs by formation of furrow
(2) Starts at periphery
(3) Occurs by formation of cell plate
(4) Occurs before karyokinesis
105. Choose the odd one for metaphase.
(1) Each chromosome has two chromatids
(2) Attachment of spindle fibres to kinetochore
110. ‘A student observed a plant cell under microscope
(3) Splitting of centromere
(4) Alignment of chromosome at equator
106. A meiocyte had 15 bivalents at prophase I. How
many chromosomes and chromatids respectively
will be there in each daughter cell after completion
of meiosis?
(1) 15, 30 (2) 15, 15
(3) 30, 15 (4) 30, 30
(a) Duplication of cell organelles
(b) Synthesis of tubulin proteins
(c) Deoxyribonucleotide synthesis
(d) ATP synthesis
(1) (a) and (c) only
(2) (a) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (a), (c) and (d)
containing more than two complete sets of
chromosomes’. What would be the possible reason
of above phenomenon?
(1) Non disjunction of chromosomes
(2) Failure of cytokinesis after karyokinesis
(3) Absence of cell plate formation
(4) Both (2) and (3)

107. Microtubules which radiate out of centrosome are 111. Membranous extensions that contain
called photosynthetic pigments in some prokaryotes are
(1) Kinetochore (1) Mesosomes
(2) Asters (2) Chromatophores
(3) Interzonal fibres (3) Grana
(4) Phragmoplast (4) Plastids
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112. The 9 + 2 organisation of microtubules is present in 117. The chromosome in which centromere is present
(1) Cilia of eukaryotes very close to one end is called
(1) Metacentric chromosome
(2) Flagella of prokaryotes
(2) Submetacentric chromosome
(3) Centrioles
(3) Acrocentric chromosome
(4) Basal body of eukaryotic flagella
(4) Telocentric chromosome
113. A. Nucleolus is the site for ribosome synthesis.
118. Which of the given is not an essential structure of
B. Nucleoli are larger and more numerous in cells all the chromosomes?
actively involved in protein synthesis.
(1) Telomere
(1) Only A is correct
(2) Centromere
(2) Only B is correct (3) Satellite
(3) Both A and B are correct (4) Chromatid
(4) Both A and B are incorrect 119. Chromatin is composed of all, except
114. Choose the odd one w.r.t. surface structures of (1) DNA
prokaryotic cells. (2) RNA
(1) Flagella (3) Basic proteins
(2) Pili (4) Ribosomes
(3) Fimbriae 120. Microtubules are absent in
(4) Cilia (1) Axoneme of cilia
115. The cell structure that is involved in storage as well (2) Astral rays
as synthesis of fats is (3) Centrosome
(1) SER (4) Centromere
(2) Sphaerosome 121. A polysome contains
(3) Glyoxysome (1) Many mRNAs
(4) Peroxisome (2) Many ribosomes
116. Which of the following is not a feature of polytene (3) Many DNA molecules
chromosomes? (4) Single ribosome
(1) Large number of chromonemata per 122. Among the following cell organelles which one lacks
chromosome nucleic acid?
(2) Somatic pairing (1) Nucleus
(3) Chiasmata formation (2) Plastid
(4) Repeated DNA replication without their (3) Ribosome
separation (4) Golgi apparatus
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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test-1 (Code-F)

123. Match the columns and select the correct option. 127. Lysosomes
Column I Column II (1) Are double membrane bound
i. Leucoplast (a) Rich in carotenoids (2) Have hydrolytic enzymes active at acidic pH
ii. Chromoplast (b) Store fats (3) Are formed by SER only
iii. Chloroplast (c) Synthesis of (4) Function in coordination with chloroplast
carbohydrates 128. Which of the given statements is/are true for
iv. Elaioplast (d) Colourless plastid endoplasmic reticulum?
(a) Cisternae are usually attached with 50S subunit
i ii iii iv
of 80S ribosomes
(1) (c) (a) (d) (b)
(b) Ribosomes present on RER are involved in
(2) (b) (d) (a) (c) protein synthesis
(3) (b) (c) (d) (a) (c) Synthesis as well as processing and packaging
(4) (d) (a) (c) (b) of lipids is performed by SER.
124. Oxysomes or F0-F1 particles are present on/in (1) (a) only (2) (a) and (b)
(3) (b) only (4) (a) and (c)
(1) Stroma
129. Select the wrongly matched pair
(2) Cristae
(1) Plasmodesmata – Connects cytoplasm of
(3) Matrix neighbouring cells
(4) Outer membrane of mitochondria (2) SER – Detoxification of drugs
125. Mitochondria and chloroplast, both are considered (3) RER – Continuous with outer
as semi-autonomous cell organelles. How many of membrane of nucleus
the given features is/are exclusive to mitochondria? (4) Primary cell wall – Incapable of growth
(a) Presence of dsDNA 130. In a plant tissue, adjacent cells are held together by
(b) Oxidation of carbohydrates (1) Middle lamella
(c) Presence of ETS (2) Secondary cell wall
(d) Surrounded by double membrane (3) Primary cell wall
(e) ATP synthesis (4) Pits
(1) 2 (2) 3 131. Choose the incorrect statement for plasma
(3) 1 (4) 4 membrane.
(1) It is freely permeable for polar molecules
126. Membraneless vacuole is
(2) It is involved in the formation of intercellular
(1) Autophagic vacuole
junctions
(2) Sap vacuole
(3) The lipid components are quasi fluid in nature
(3) Gas vacuole (4) Na+ and K+ ions move across it with help of
(4) Contractile vacuole energy.
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 Test-1 (Code-F) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

132. Which of the given cannot be a component of 138. Select the incorrect feature w.r.t. crypts of
plasma membrane? Lieberkuhn.
(1) Phospholipid (1) Present in small intestine
(2) Cholesterol (2) Paneth cells in them secrete lysozyme
(3) Carbohydrate (3) Secretions from certain cells found in these
(4) Pectin crypts contribute to succus entericus
(4) Zymogen cells are exclusively located in these
133. The structure which allows bacterium to hide from
submucosal crypts
host’s immune system is
(1) Cell wall 139. Carbohydrate dominant in milk is digested in which
part of human gut?
(2) Capsule
(1) Mouth (2) Oesophagus
(3) Plasma membrane
(3) Stomach (4) Small intestine
(4) Fimbriae
140. The specialized phagocytic cells of liver are called
134. All of the following are features of prokaryotic cells,
except that (1) Histiocytes (2) Clasmatocytes
(1) Their genomic DNA is linear (3) Kupffer cells (4) Neutrophils
(2) Their extrachromosomal DNA is circular 141. Select the incorrect option w.r.t. digestion of food
(3) Their genetic material is naked in humans.
(4) They have 70S ribosomes (1) Maltose ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Maltase
→ Glucose + Glucose
135. The non-membrane bound cell organelle which
(2) Nucleoside ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Nucleosidase
→ Nitrogenous + Sugar
helps in cell division is Base
(1) Ribosome
(3) Lactose ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Lactase
→ Galactose + Fructose
(2) Centriole
(3) Nucleolus (4) Proteins ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Pepsin
→ Proteoses + Peptones
(4) Vacuole 142. Chylomicrons are large globules of fats covered by
136. Deficiency of which of the following vitamins causes proteins formed in (A) and get absorbed in
pernicious anaemia?
(B) . Select the option which fills the blanks
(1) Vitamin C (2) Vitamin D
correctly.
(3) Vitamin B12 (4) Vitamin B3
(A) (B)
137. A condition characterised by failure of cardiac
(1) Lumen of intestine Blood capillaries
sphincter to relax completely on swallowing,
causing food accumulation in oesophagus is (2) Enterocytes Blood capillaries

(1) Heart burn (2) Achalasia cardia (3) Lumen of intestine Lacteals

(3) Inguinal hernia (4) Haemorrhoids (4) Enterocytes Lacteals

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test-1 (Code-F)

143. Ileocaecal valve is present between 148. The abnormal frequency of bowel movement and
(1) Oesophagus and stomach increased liquidity of the faecal discharge is best
described as
(2) Stomach and small intestine
(1) Constipation
(3) Small intestine and rectum
(2) Diarrhoea
(4) Small intestine and caecum
(3) Indigestion
144. Match column I with column II and find the correct
match w.r.t. human digestive system. (4) Vomiting
Column I Column II 149. How many enzymes given in the box are pancreatic
enzymes?
a. Sphincter of Boyden (i) Hepatopancreatic
duct Trypsinogen, Pepsinogen, Enterokinase,
b. Cystic duct (ii) Common bile duct Amylopsin, Nucleases, Nucleotidases,
Steapsin, Lactase, Dipeptidase
c. Hepatic lobule (iii) Gall bladder
d. Ampulla of Vater (iv) Glisson’s capsule (1) Five
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (2) Four
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (3) Nine
145. If the symptoms of a disease include edema, (4) Six
stunted growth and protruded belly in a child of 3 150. Read the following statements carefully and choose
years, it is most likely a case of the correct option w.r.t. true (T) and false (F)
(1) Scurvy (2) Beri-beri statements.
(3) Marasmus (4) Kwashiorkar a. Secretin promotes release of bicarbonates in
146. Number of teeth in the upper jaw of a 14 years old the pancreatic juice and increases the secretion
child is generally of bile.
(1) 28 (2) 14 b. Secretion of chief cells in gastric mucosa help in
erythropoiesis.
(3) 16 (4) 20
c. Physiological value of carbohydrates, fats and
147. The correct sequence of layers from outer to inner
proteins are 4 kcal/g, 4 kcal/g and 9 kcal/g
side in the wall of human alimentary canal is
respectively.
(1) Serosa, circular muscles, longitudinal muscles,
d. Duocrinin stimulates the Brunner’s gland
submucosa, mucosa
located in submucosal layer to release mucus.
(2) Serosa, longitudinal muscles, circular muscles,
sub mucosa, mucosa a b c d

(3) Serosa, circular muscles, sub mucosa, (1) T F F T

muscularis externa, mucosa (2) T T F F
(4) Serosa, longitudinal muscles, mucosa, sub- (3) T T T F
mucosa, circular muscles (4) F T T T
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 Test-1 (Code-F) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

151. Match column I with column II and choose the 154. Read the following statements carefully and choose
correct match w.r.t. general site of absorption. the correct option.
Column I Column II (1) Ribozymes and Ribonuclease P are DNA based
a. Mouth (i) Alcohol enzymes
b. Stomach (ii) Glucose
(2) Fructose is a polymer of inulin
c. Small intestine (iii) Drugs
(3) Apoenzyme is the non-proteinaceous part of
d. Large intestine (iv) Minerals
enzymes
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(4) Zn2+ acts as an inorganic cofactor for
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
carboxypeptidase.
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(4) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) 155. An enzyme that catalyses the breakdown of sucrose
into glucose and fructose is a
152. Term that does not describe human dentition is
(1) Ligase
(1) Thecodont
(2) Lyase
(2) Pleurodont
(3) Hydrolase
(3) Diphyodont
(4) Dehydrogenase
(4) Heterodont
156. The structural level which enables the monomeric
153. The given diagram is related to anatomical regions
enzymatic proteins to function optimally is
of human stomach. Choose the option which
(1) Primary level
denotes the correct labelling.
(2) Secondary level
(3) Tertiary level
(4) Quaternary level
157. ATP is a
(1) Nucleotide
(2) Nucleoside
(3) Purine
(4) Pyrimidine
158. Prostaglandins are derived from _____. Choose the
option which fills the blank correctly.
(1) X = cardiac, V = oesophagus
(1) Palmitic acid
(2) X = fundus, Z = body (2) Oleic acid
(3) Y = Pyloric, Z = cardiac (3) Arachidic acid
(4) W = Pyloric, Y = body (4) Arachidonic acid
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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test-1 (Code-F)

159. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option.
Statement I : The living state is a non-equilibrium
steady state to be able to perform work.
Statement II : Enzymes lower the activation energy
barrier required for a reaction.
(1) Both the statements are correct
(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is incorrect
163. Competitive inhibition of enzyme activity is shown in
the case of inhibition of
(1) Hexokinase by glucose-6-phosphate
(2) Threonine deaminase by isoleucine
(3) Synthesis of folic acid in bacteria by sulpha
drugs
(4) The activity of cytochrome oxidase by cyanide.
164. Given below is a list of carbohydrates.
(a) Glycogen (b) Starch
(c) Cellulose (d) Isomaltose

160. Which of the following is an incorrect description of (e) Lactose (f) Maltose
the given biomolecules? How many of them are polysaccharides having
(1) Glycerol – Found in phospholipid like lecithin (1, 4) glycosidic bonds?

(2) Monellin – A protein of an African berry plant (1) Two

(3) GLUT4 – Transports glucose into hepatocytes (2) Three

(3) Four
(4) Sucrose – Reducing disaccharide
(4) Five
161. Receptors for hormones are biochemically similar
to ______ . Select the option which fills the blank 165. The substance present in retentate fraction after
correctly. homogenisation of animal tissue is

(1) Adenosine (1) Galactose

(2) Antibodies (2) Adenine

(3) Exoskeleton of arthropods (3) Myoglobin

(4) Cotton fibres (4) Glycine

162. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. B-DNA.
(1) At each step of ascent, the strand turns 36°
(2) The pitch of helix is 34 Å.
(3) The rise per base pair is 3.4 nm
(4) There are three hydrogen bonds between
guanine and cytosine on opposite strands of
DNA.
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166. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. category of
secondary metabolites and corresponding
examples
(1) Alkaloids : Morphine and codeine
(2) Toxin : Abrin and concanavalin A
(3) Drugs : Vinblastin and curcumin
(4) Pigments : Carotenoids and anthocyanins

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 Test-1 (Code-F) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020

167. Which one of the following correctly represents the 169. Read the following statements carefully and choose
structural formula of a basic amino acid? how many statements are correct.
(i) Transitional epithelium lines inner surface of the
urinary bladder and ureters.
(1) (ii) Areolar and adipose tissue are dense
connective tissue.
(iii) Ligaments connect bone to bone.
(iv) Haversian canal is a feature of only short
mammalian bones.

(2) (v) Patella is a sesamoid bone.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five
170. The cell junction which joins epithelial cells to the
basal lamina is
(1) Desmosome
(2) Tight junction
(3) Hemidesmosome
(3) (4) Gap junction
171. The smooth muscle fibres in humans are
responsible for contraction of
(1) Triceps
(2) Biceps
(4)
(3) Cardiac muscles
(4) Wall of intestine

168. On hydrolysis, uridine will yield 172. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. cardiac
muscle fibres.
(1) Phosphate
(1) Found in heart
(2) Ribose sugar
(2) Multinucleated in appearance
(3) Dicyclic nitrogenous base (3) Involuntary in action
(4) Deoxyribose sugar (4) Branching is observed
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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2020 Test-1 (Code-F)

173. The neurons found in olfactory epithelium and retina 176. Which of the following is not present in blood?
of eye are (1) Matrix (2) Basophils
(1) Unipolar neurons (3) Collagen fibres (4) Proteins
(2) Bipolar neurons 177. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. endothelium
(3) Apolar neurons (1) A single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular
(4) Pseudounipolar neurons boundaries.
174. Match column I with column II and select the (2) Cells are tightly packed with little intercellular
correct option w.r.t. cartilage. matrix
Column I Column II (3) It rests on a non-cellular basement membrane
a. Hyaline cartilage (i) Between vertebrae (4) The cells have abundant blood supply and are
highly vascular
b. Elastic cartilage (ii) Nasal septum
178. Solid and pliable connective tissue characterized by
c. White fibrous (iii) Pubis of pelvic girdle
lacunae which lacks canaliculi is
cartilage of frog
(1) Cartilage (2) Bone
d. Calcified cartilage (iv) Epiglottis
(3) Adipose (4) Areolar
(1) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
179. Which of the following is a secretion of unicellular
(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) glands?
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (1) Saliva (2) Sweat
(4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (3) Growth hormone (4) Mucus
175. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. neural tissue. 180. The columnar cells of _____ have microvilli which
(1) Neuron – An excitable cell increase the surface area for absorption. Select the
(2) Oligodendrocytes – Ectodermal in origin option which fills the blank correctly.

(3) Schwann cells – Form insulating lipid (1) Proximal convoluted tubule
sheath around axons in (2) Small intestine
CNS (3) Fallopian tube
(4) Microglial cells – Phagocytic in nature (4) Smaller bronchioles

❑ ❑ ❑

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