NEET 2021 Exam Paper

Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

3.
Physics - Section A Column- I gives certain physical terms associated with
1. flow of current through a metallic conductor.
Polar molecules are the molecules: Column-II gives some mathematical relations involving
1. acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic field is electrical quantities.
absent. Match Column-I and Column-II with appropriate
2. having a permanent electric dipole moment. relations.

3. having zero dipole moment. Column-I Column -II

4. acquire a dipole moment only in the presence of (A) Drift Velocity (P) ne
m

2
ρ

electric field due to displacement of charges.

(B) Electrical Resistivity (Q) nev d

(C) Relaxation Period (R) eE

m
τ

2.
(D) Current Density (S) E

A particle is released from height S from the surface of J

the earth. At a certain height, its kinetic energy is three 1. (A)-(R), (B)-(P), (C)-(S), (D)-(Q)
times its potential energy. The height from the surface of
the earth and the speed of the particle at that instant are 2. (A)-(R), (B)-(Q), (C)-(S), (D)-(P)
respectively: 3. (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q)

1. S
,
√3 gS
4. (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(Q), (D)-(P)
2 2

3 gS
2. S

4
, √
2

4.
3 gS
3. S
,
4 2 If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are chosen as
√3 gS
the fundamental physical quantities. Find the dimensions
4.
S

4
,
2
of energy.

1. [F][A][T-1]

2. [F][A-1][T]
3. [F][A][T]

4. [F][A][T2]

5.
The escape velocity from the Earth's surface is v. The
escape velocity from the surface of another planet having
a radius, four times that of Earth and same mass density
is :
1. 3v
2. 4v
3. v
4. 2v

Page: 1
 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
6. 8.
A small block slides down on a smooth inclined plane A thick current-carrying cable of radius 'R' carries current
starting from rest at time t=0. Let Sn be the distance 'I' uniformly distributed across its cross-section. The
travelled by the block in the interval t= n-1 to t=n. Then variation of magnetic field B(r) due to the cable with the
Sn distance 'r' from the axis of the cable is represented by :
the ratio is:
Sn + 1

1.
2n +1

2n−1

2. 2n−1
2n

3.
2n −1

2n

4.
2n −1

2n+1

1.
7.
The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density d,
when dropped in a container filled with glycerine
becomes constant after some time. If the density of
glycerine is , then the viscous force acting on the ball
d

will be :
1. 3

2
Mg

2. 2Mg
Mg
2.
3. 2

4. Mg

3.

4.

Page: 2
 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
9. 12.
Find the value of the angle of emergence from the prism. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s to
The refractive index of the glass is √3. operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional force are
10% of the input energy. How much power is generated
by the turbine? (g = 10 m/s ) 2

1. 12.3 kW
2. 7.0 kW
3. 10.2 kW
4. 8.1 kW
1. 45°
2. 90°
13.
3. 60°
A convex lens 'A' of focal length 20 cm and a concave
4. 30° lens 'B' of focal length 5 cm are kept along the same axis
with a distance 'd' between them. If a parallel beam of
light falling on 'A' leaves 'B' as a parallel beam, then the
10. distance 'd ' in cm will be:

A screw gauge gives the following readings when used to 1. 50

measure the diameter of a wire. 2. 30
Main scale reading: 0 mm 3. 25
Circular scale reading: 52 divisions 4. 15
Given that 1 mm on the main scale corresponds to 100
divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of the wire
from the above data is: 14.
1. 0.26 cm A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best
2. 0.052 cm suited as an objective of an astronomical telescope since:

3. 0.52 cm 1. a large aperture contributes to the quality and visibility

of the images.
4. 0.026
2. a large area of the objective ensures better light-
gathering power.

11. 3. a large aperture provides a better resolution.

A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into fragments 4. all of the above.
each of mass number 120, the binding energy per
nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6 MeV while that of
fragments is 8.5 MeV. The total gain in the Binding
Energy in the process is:
1. 804 MeV
2. 216 MeV
3. 0.9 MeV
4. 9.4 MeV

Page: 3
 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
15. 18.
The electron concentration in an n-type semiconductor is In a potentiometer circuit, a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives a
the same as hole concentration in a p-type semiconductor. balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another cell of
An external field (electric) is applied across each of EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at what length of
them. Compare the currents in them. the wire, the balance point occurs?
1. Current in n-type > current in p-type. 1. 64 cm
2. No current will flow in p-type, current will only flow 2. 62 cm
in n-type.
3. 60 cm
3. Current in n-type = current in p-type.
4. 21.6 cm
4. Current in p-type > current in n-type.

19.
16.
The effective resistance of a parallel connection that
A body is executing simple harmonic motion with consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of cross-
frequency 'n', the frequency of its potential energy is: section and same material is 0. 25Ω . What will be the
effective resistance if they are connected in series?
1. 3n
1. 1Ω
2. 4n
2. 4 Ω
3. n
3. 0.25 Ω
4. 2n
4. 0.5 Ω

17.
20.
A cup of coffee cools from 90° to 80°C in t minutes,
when the room temperature is 20°C. The time taken by a A radioactive nucleus X undergoes spontaneous decay
A

similar cup of coffee to cool from 80° to 60°C at room in the sequence X → A
B → C →
z−1 z−3D, where
z−2
temperature same at 20°C is : Z

Z is the atomic number of element X. The possible decay

1. 10
t
particles in the sequence are :
13

1. β +
, α, β
−

2. 5

13
t

2. β −
, α, β
+

3.
13
t
10
3. α, β
−
, β
+

4.
13

5
t
4. α, β
+
, β
−

Page: 4
 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
21. 23.
A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In which The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown in
direction will it move? the figure is:

1. C/2
1. towards the left as its potential energy will decrease.
2. 3C/2
2. towards the right as its potential energy will increase.
3. 3C
3. towards the left as its potential energy will increase.
4. 2C
4. towards the right as its potential energy will decrease.

24.
22.
An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of capacitance C
and a resistor of resistance 'R' are connected in series to
an ac source of potential difference 'V' volts as shown in
fig.
Potential difference across L, C and R is 40 V, 10 V and
40V, respectively. The amplitude of the current flowing
through LCR series circuit is 10√2A. The impedance of
the circuit:
Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and
identify the correct answer.
A. A zener diode is connected in reverse bias when used
as a voltage regulator.
B. The potential barrier of p-n junction lies between 0.2
V to 0.3 V.
1. (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect.
2. (A) is incorrect and (B) is correct.
3. (A) and (B) both are correct.
4. (A) and (B) both are incorrect.

1. 4 Ω
25.
2. 5Ω

For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in the x-

3. 4√2Ω direction, which one of the following combinations gives
4. 5/√2 Ω the correct possible directions for the electric field (E)
and magnetic field (B) respectively?

(1) ˆ
ĵ + k,
ˆ
− ĵ − k

(2) − ĵ ˆ
+ k,
ˆ
− ĵ + k

(3) ĵ + k̂, ĵ + k̂

(4) − ĵ ˆ
+ k,
ˆ
− ĵ − k

Page: 5
 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
26. 29.
The number of photons per second on an average emitted Two charged spherical conductors of radius R and R
1 2

by the source of monochromatic light of wavelength 600 are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of surface charge
nm, when it delivers the power of 3. 3 × 10 watt will
−3
densities of the spheres (σ /σ ) is:1 2

be: (h = 6. 6 × 10 Js)
−34

1. √(
R1
)
1. 10 16
R2

2. 10 15

2.
R
2
1

2
R
2

3. 10 18

3.
R1

4. 10 17
R2

4. R2

R1

27.
→
A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field ' E ' 30.
in the space between the plates. If the distance between An electromagnetic wave of wavelength 'λ' is incident
the plates is 'd' and the area of each plate is 'A', the on a photosensitive surface of negligible work function.
energy stored in the capacitor is: If 'm' is mass of photoelectron emitted from the surface
(ε = permittivity of free space)
0
has de-Broglie wavelength λ , then: d

1.
1 2
ε0 E Ad
1. λ =(
2mc 2
2
)λd
h
2

2. E Ad

ε0
2. λ =( 2h

mc
)λd
2

3.
1 2
ε0 E
2

3. λ =(
2m 2
)λd
4. ε 0 EAd
hc

4. λ d
=(
2mc

h
)λ
2

28.
A capacitor of capacitance 'C' is connected across an ac
31.
source of voltage V, given by
A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The time
V = V sinωt 0
period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg is
The displacement current between the plates of the suspended by it is:
capacitor would then be given by:
1. 3.14 s
V0
1. I d =
ωC
sinωt
2. 0.628 s
2. I d = V0 ωCsinωt 3. 0.0628 s
3. I d = V0 ωCcosωt 4. 6.28 s
V0
4. I d
=
ωC
cosωt

Page: 6
 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
32. 34.
An infinitely long straight conductor carries a current of Match column - I and column - II and choose the correct
5 A as shown. An electron is moving with a speed of 10 5
match from the given choices.
m/s parallel to the conductor. The perpendicular distance
between the electron and the conductor is 20 cm at an Column Column
instant. Calculate the magnitude of the force experienced -I - II
by the electron at that instant. Root
mean
square
(A) (P)
1 2
nmv̄

Electron v = 10
5
m/s
speed of 3

gas
molecules
Pressure
exerted
(B) (Q) √
3RT

by ideal M

gas
Average
kinetic
(C) energy (R)
5
RT
2

1. 4π × 10 −20
N of a
molecule
2. 8 × 10 −20
N
Total
3. 4 × 10 −20
N
internal
energy
4. 8π × 10 −20
N of 1
(D) (S)
3
kB T
mole of 2

a
diatomic
33.
gas
The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 hours. The
fraction of original activity that will remain after 150 1. (A) - (Q), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (R)
hours would be: 2. (A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (P), (D) - (S)
1. 2

3
3. (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q)

2. 2 4. (A) - (Q), (B) - (R), (C) - (S), (D) - (P)

3√2

3. 1/2
35.
4. 1

2√2
If E and G respectively denote energy and gravitational
constant, then has the dimensions of:
E

1. [M][L 0
][T
0
]

2. [M 2
][L
−2
][T
−1
]

3. [M 2
][L
−1
][T
0
]

4. [M][L −1
][T
−1
]

Page: 7
 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
39.
Physics - Section B A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10 m,
36. strikes the ground and rebounds to the same height. The
From a circular ring of mass 'M' and radius 'R' an arc magnitude of impulse imparted to the ball is
corresponding to a 90° sector is removed. The moment (g = 10 m/s ) nearly:
2

of inertia of the remaining part of the ring about an axis

passing through the centre of the ring and perpendicular 1. 2.1 kg m/s
to the plane of the ring is 'K' times ' MR '. Then the
2
2. 1.4 kg m/s
value of 'K' is:
3. 0 kg m/s
1. 1

4
4. 4.2 kg m/s
2. 1

3.
3

4 40.
4.
7
A step down transformer connected to an ac mains
8
supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44 W lamp.
Ignoring power losses in the transformer, what is the
current in the primary circuit?
37.
1. 2 A
A uniform conducting wire of length 12a and resistance
'R' is wound up as a current carrying coil in the shape of, 2. 4 A

(i) an equilateral triangle of side 'a' 3. 0.2 A

(ii) a square of side 'a' 4. 0.4 A

The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each case

respectively are:
41.
1. 3 Ia 2
and 4 Ia
2

Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at 220 V

2. 4 Ia 2
and 3 Ia
2
each. They combine to form a bigger drop. Calculate the
potential of the bigger drop.
3. √3 Ia 2
and 3 Ia
2

1. 1520 V
4. 3 Ia 2
and Ia
2

2. 1980 V
3. 660 V
38. 4. 1320 V
Two conducting circular loops of radii R and R are
1 2

placed in the same plane with their centres coinciding. If

R >> R , the mutual inductance M between them will
1 2

be directly proportional to:

2
R

1. R2
1

2
R
2. R1
2

3.
R1

R2

4.
R2

R1

Page: 8
 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
42. 43.
For the given circuit, the input digital signals are applied A particle of mass 'm' is projected with a velocity
at the terminals A, B and C. What would be the output at v = kV (k < 1) from the surface of the earth.
e

the terminal y?
(Ve = escape velocity)

The maximum height above the surface reached by the

particle is:
2

1. R k

1+k

2.
Rk

2
1−k

3. R( k

1−k
)

4. R( k

1+k
)

44.
A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 m/s . At t =
2

4s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a person sitting

in the car. What is the velocity and acceleration of the
ball at t = 6 s?

(Take g = 10 m/s2)
1. 20√2 m/s, 0

2. 20√2 m/s, 10 m/s

2

3. 20 m/s, 5 m/s
2

4. 20 m/s, 0
1.

45.
2.
A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, 80 μF
capacitor and 40 Ω resistor is connected to 230 V
3. variable frequency ac source. The angular frequencies of
the source at which power transferred to the circuit is half
the power at the resonant angular frequency are likely to
be:
4.
1. 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s
2. 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s
3. 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s
4. 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s

Page: 9
 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
46. 48.
A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a uniform A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a
speed takes a time T to complete one revolution. convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane mirror were
put perpendicular to the principal axis of the lens and at a
If this particle were projected with the same speed at an distance of 40 cm from it, the final image would be
angle 'θ' to the horizontal, the maximum height attained formed at a distance of:
by it equals 4R. The angle of projection, θ, is then given
by:
2
1/2

1. θ = sin −1 π R
( )
2
gT

2 1/2
2gT
2. θ = sin −1
( 2
π R
)

2 1/2
gT
3. θ = cos −1
(
2
π R
)

2
1/2
1. 30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual
4. θ = cos −1
(
π R

2
)
image
gT

2. 20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual

image
47.
3. 20 cm from the lens, it would be a real image
Three resistors having resistances r , r and r1 2 3 are
4. 30 cm from the lens, it would be a real image
connected as shown in the given circuit. The ratio
i3

i1
of
currents in terms of resistances used in the circuit is:
49.
A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is
balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A mass of 2
kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm and another
unknown mass 'm' is suspended from the rod at 160 cm
mark as shown in the figure. Find the value of 'm' such
that the rod is in equilibrium. (g=10 m/s2)
1. r1

r1 +r2

2.
r2

r1 +r3

3.
r1

r2 +r3

4. r2

r2 +r3

1. 1

6
kg

2. 1

12
kg

3.
1
kg
2

4.
1
kg
3

Page: 10
 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
50. 52.
In the product The correct structure of 2,6-Dimethyl-dec-4-ene is :
→ →
→
F = q( v × B )

→
ˆ
= q v ×(B î + B ĵ + B0 k)

→
ˆ
F or q = 1 and v = 2 î + 4 ĵ + 6k 1.
→
ˆ
F = 4 î − 20 ĵ + 12k

→
What will be the complete expression for B ?

1. 8 î + 8 ĵ − 6k̂ 2.

2. 6 î ˆ
+ 6 ĵ − 8k

3. −8 î ˆ
− 8 ĵ − 6k

4. −6 î − 6 ĵ − 8k̂
3.

Chemistry - Section A
51. 4.
The compound which shows metamerism is:
1. C3H6O
53.
2. C4H10O The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of 'C-X' bond is
3. C5H12 1. CH3-F< CH3-Cl> CH3-Br >CH3-I
4. C3H8O 2. CH3-Cl> CH3-F> CH3-Br > CH3-I

3. CH3-F< CH3-Cl < CH3-Br < CH3-I

4. CH3-F> C3-Cl> CH3-Br > CH3-I

54.
Zr (Z=40) and Hf (Z=72) have similar atomic and ionic
radii because of:
1. lanthanoid contraction
2. having similar chemical properties
3. belonging to same group
4. diagonal relationship

Page: 11
 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
55. 59.
Right option for the number of tetrahedral and octahedral Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is :
voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell are:
1. Bidentate ligand with two "N" donor atoms
1. 2, 1
2. Tridentate ligand with three "N" donor
2. 12,6
3. Hexadentate ligand with four "O" and two atoms "N''
3. 8,4 donor atoms
4. 6, 12 4. Unidentate ligand

56. 60.
BF3 is planar and electron deficient compound. What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound
Hybridization and number of electrons around the central formed in the following chemical reaction ?
atom, respectively are (i)C H5 MgBr, dry Ether
Acetone
2

(ii) H2 O, H
+
Product
1. Sp2 and 6
1. pentan-3-ol
2. sp2 and 8
2. 2-methyl butan-2-ol
3. sp3and 4 3. 2-methyl propan-2-ol
4. sp3 and 6 4. pentan-2-ol

57. 61.
The following solutions were prepared by dissolving The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation
10gof glucose (C6H12O6) in 250 ml of water (P1). 10g of reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This product
urea (CH4N2O) in 250 ml of water (P2) and 10 g of formation is based on ?
sucrose (C12H22O11) in 250 ml of water (P3). The right 1. Hofmann Rule
option for the decreasing order of osmotic pressure of
these solutions is: 2. Huckel's Rule

1. P > P3 > P1
3. Saytzeff's Rule
2

2. P3 > P1 > P2
4. Hund's Rule

3. P 2 > P1 > P3

4. P 1
> P2 > P3 62.
Which of the following reactions is the metal
displacement reaction? Choose the right option.
58.
1. Fe + 2HCl → FeCl 2 + H2 ↑

Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits which

of the following particles? 2. 2 Pb (NO 3
)
2
→ 2PbO + 4 NO2 + O2 ↑

1. Gamma (γ) 3. 2 KClO

Δ

→ 2KCl + 3O2
3

2. Neutron (n) Δ

4. Cr 2 O3 + 2Al → Al2 O3 + 2 Cr
3. Beta (β −
)

4. Alpha (α)

Page: 12
 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
63. 67.
Which one among the following is the correct option for Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane is :
right relationship between Cp and CV for one mole of
1. 60°
ideal gas ?
2. 0°
1. C P = RCV

3. 120°
2. C V = RCP

4. 180°
3. C P + CV = R

4. C P
− CV = R

68.
Match List - I with List - II
64.
List - I List - II
The RBC deficiency is deficiency disease of:
Square
(a) PCl5 (i)
1. Vitamin B1 pyramidal
Trigonal
2. Vitamin B1 (b) SF6 (ii)
planar
3. Vitamin B12 (c) BrF5 (iii) Octahedral
Trigonal
4. Vitamin B6 (d) BF3 (iv)
bipyramidal
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)

65. 2. (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)

Which one of the following polymers is prepared by 3. (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
addition polymerisation? 4. (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
1. Novolac
2. Dacron
3. Teflon
4. Nylon-66

66.
An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon and
remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right option for
the empirical formula of this compound is: [Atomic wt.
of C is 12, H is 1]
1. CH3

2. CH4

3. CH
4. CH2

Page: 13
 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
69. 71.
The major product of the following chemical reaction is: Identify the compound that will react with Hinsberg's
reagent to give a solid which dissolves in alkali.

1.

1.

2.

2.
3.

3.
4.
4.

72.
Statement I:
Acid strength increases in the order given as HF << HCl
<< HBr << HI.
Statement II:
70.
As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br, I increases down the
Which one of the following methods can be used to group, the bond strength of HF, HCI, HBr and HI
obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room decreases and so the acid strength increases.
temperature?
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
1. Distillation answer from the options given below.
2. Zone refining 1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
3. Electrolysis 2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
4. Chromatography 3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

Page: 14
 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
73. 77.
The pKb of dimethylamine and pkb of acetic acid are Choose the correct option for graphical representation of
3.27 and 4.77 respectivelya at T (K). The correct option Boyle's law, which shows a graph of pressure vs volume
for the pH of dimethylammonium acetate at solution is: of a gas at different temperatures :

1. 7.75
2. 6.25
3. 8.50
4. 5.50

74.
The molar conductance of NaCl, HCI and CH3COONa at 1.
infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and 91.0 S cm mol-1
respectively. The molar conductance of CH3COOH at
infinite dilution is. Choose the right option for your
answer.

1. 698.28 S cm2 mol-1

2. 540.48 S cm2 mol-1

3. 201.28 S cm2 mol-1

2.
4. 390.71 S cm2 mol-1

75.
The right option for the statement "Tyndall effect is
exhibited by", is:
1. Starch solution
3.
2. Urea solution
3. NaCl solution
4. Glucose solution

76.
The correct option for the number of body centred unit
cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit cells is :
1. 2 4.
2. 3
3. 7
4. 5

Page: 15
 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
78. 80.
The incorrect statement among the following is : For a reaction A→B, enthalpy of reaction is
−4. 2 kJ mol
−1
and enthalpy of activation is
1. Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and
electricity. 9. 6 kJ mol
−1
. The correct potential energy profile for
the reaction is shown in option
2. Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially when
finely divided.
3. Actinoid contraction is greater for element to element
than Lanthanoid contraction.
4. Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are colorless in
the solid state.

1.
79.
Noble gases are named because of their inertness towards
reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement about them.
1. Noble gases have weak dispersion forces.
2. Noble gases have large positive values of electron gain
enthalpy.
3. Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water.
4. Noble gases have very high melting and boiling points. 2.

3.

4.

Page: 16
 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
81. 84.
Among the following alkaline earth metal halides, one The structures of beryllium chloride in solid state and
which is covalent and soluble in organic solvents is: vapour phase, are :
1. Magnesium chloride 1. Dimer and Linear, respectively
2. Beryllium chloride 2. Chain in both
3. Calcium chloride 3. Chain and dimer, respectively
4. Strontium chloride 4. Linear in both

82. 85.
The maximum temperature that can be achieved in blast A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi,
furnace is : broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz). The
wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation emitted by
1. Upto 1900 K
the transmitter is : [speed of light, c = 3. 0 × 10 ms ]
8 −1

2. Upto 5000 K
1. 2192 m
3. Upto 1200 K
2. 21.92 cm
4. Uptio 2200 K
3. 219.3 m
4. 219.2 m
83.
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Chemistry - Section B
86.
Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of narcotic
analgesics. In which one of the following arrangements the given
sequence is not strictly according to the properties
Statement II :
indicated against it?
Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics.
1. NH3<PH3<AsH3<SbH3 : Increasing acidic character
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below. 2. CO2<SiO2<SnO2<PbO2 : Increasing oxidizing power

1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false. 3. HF<HCl<HBr<HI : Increasing acidic strength

2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true. 4. H2O<H2S<H2Se<H2Te : Increasing pKa values
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
87.
For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under
isothermal condition, the correct option is :
1. ΔU = 0, Δ Stotal ≠ 0

2. ΔU ≠ 0, Δ Stotal = 0

3. ΔU = 0, Δ Stotal = 0

4. ΔU ≠ 0, Δ Stotal ≠ 0

Page: 17
 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
88. 91.
From the following pairs of ions which one is not an iso- Match List-I with List-II
electronic pair?
List-I List-II
1. Mn2+, Fe3+ (a) [Fe (CN) ]
3−
(i) 5.92 BM
6

3, Fe2+, Mn2+
3+
(b) [Fe (H 2 O)6 ]
(ii) 0 BM
4−

4. O2-, F- (c) [Fe (CN) 6

] (iii) 4.90 BM
2+
(d) [Fe (H (iv) 1.73 BM
4. Na+, Mg2+ 2 O)6 ]

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
89.
NaOH, + ?
2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
− +
CH3 CH2 COO Na −−−−−→ CH3 CH3 + Na2 CO3
Heat 3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
Consider the above reaction and identify the missing 4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
reagent/chemical.
1. CaO
92.
2. DIBAL-H
The correct option for the value of vapour pressure of a
3. B2H6 solution at 45°C with benzene to octane in molar ratio 3 :
4. Red Phosphorus 2 is :
[At 45°C vapour pressure of benzene is 280 mm Hg and
that of octane is 420 mm Hg. Assume Ideal gas]
90. 1. 336 mm of Hg
Which of the following molecules is non-polar in nature? 2. 350 mm of Hg
1. SbCl5 3. 160 mm of Hg
2. NO2 4. 168 mm of Hg

3. POCl3

4. CH2O

Page: 18
 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
93. 94.
The reagent 'R' in the given sequence of chemical Match List-I with List-II.
reaction is :
List-I List-II

(i) Hell-
(a) Volhard-
Zelinsky
CO, HCl

−−−−−−−−−−−→ reaction
1. HI Anhyd. AlCl3 / CuCl

2. CuCN/KCN
3. H2O
(b) (ii)
O
4. CH3CH2OH Gattermann-
|| Koch
R − C − CH3 + NaOX → reaction

(c)
R − CH2 − OH + R'COOH
(iii)
Conc. H2 SO4
Haloform
−−−−−−−→
reaction

(d)
R − CH2 COOH
(iv)
(i) X2 / Red P
Esterification
−−−−−−−→
(ii) H2 O

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
2. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

Page: 19
 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
95. 98.
The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is 20 S The product formed in the following chemical reaction is
cm2 mol-1. What is the dissociation constant of acetic :
acid? Choose the correct option.
2 −1
[Λ°H+ = 350 S cm mol ]

2 −1
[Λ° − = 50 S cm mol ]
CH3 COO

1. 1. 75 × 10 −5
mol L-1

2. 2. 50 × 10 −5
mol L-1

3. 1. 75 × 10 −4
mol L-1

4. 2. 50 × 10 −4
mol L-1

96.
1.
Choose the correct option for the total pressure (in atm.)
in a mixture of 4 g O2 and 2 g H2 confined in a total
volume of one litre at 0°C is :

[Given R=0.082 L atm mol-1 K-1, T=273 K]

1. 25.18
2. 26.02 2.
3. 2.518
3. 2.602

97.
The slope of Arrhenius Plot (ln k v/s 1
) of firse order
T
3.
reaction is −5 × 10 K. The value of Ea of the reaction
3

is. Choose the correct option for your answer.

[Given R=8.314 JK-1 mol-1]

1. 166 kJ mol-1

2. -83 kJ mol-1

3. 41.5 kJ mol-1 4.

4. 83.0 kJ mol-1

Page: 20
 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
99. 100.
Match List-1 with List-II The intermediate compound 'X' in the following chemical
reaction is :
List-I List-II
(a) 2 SO 2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2 SO3 (g) (i) Acid rain
hv

(b) HOCl(g) → OH + Cl (ii) Smog

(c) (iii) Ozone

CaCO3 + H2 SO4 →

CaSO4 + H2 O + CO2
depletion

(iv)
hv

(d) NO 2 (g) → NO(g) + O(g)

Tropospheric
pollution
1.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
3. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
2.

3.

4.

Biology - 1 - Section A
101.
When the centromere is situated in the middle of two
equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is referred
as:
(1) Sub-metacentric
(2) Acrocentric
(3) metacentric
(4) Telocentric

Page: 21
 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
102. 104.
In the equation GPP - R = NPP Which of the following stages of meiosis involves
division of centromere?
R represents
(1) Anaphase II
(1) Environment factor
(2) Telophase II
(2) Respiration losses
(3) Metaphase I
(3) Radiant energy
(4) Metaphase II
(4) Retardation factor

105.
103.
Match List - I with List - II
Match List I with List II
List -I List - II
List - I List - II
(i) Primary
(a) Cells constriction
with active (i) Vascular (a) Cristae
in
cell division tissues chromosome
capacity
(ii) Disc-
(b) Tissue (b) shaped sacs
having all (ii) Thylakoids in Golgi
cells similar Meristematic apparatus
in structure tissue
(iii)
and function (c)
Infoldings in
(c) Tissue Centromere
mitochondria
having (iii)
(iv) Flattened
different Sclereids
membranous
types of cells (d)
sacs in
(d) Dead Cisternae
stroma of
cells with plastids
highly
(iv) Simple
thickened Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
tissue
walls and
narrow (a) (b) (c) (d)
lumen (1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Select the correct answer from the options given below. (2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(a) (b) (c) (d) (3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
106.
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Diadelphous stamens are found in:
(1) Pea
(2) China rose and citrus
(3) China rose
(4) Citrus

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 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
107. 111.
The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers Which of the following are not secondary metabolites in
of one plant to stigma of a different plant which during plants?
pollination, brings genetically different types of pollen
grains to stigma, is: (1) Vinblastin, curcumin

(1) Chasmogamy (2) Rubber, gums

(2) Cleistogamy (3) Morphine, codeine

(3) Xenogamy (4) Amino acids, glucose

(4) Geitonogamy
112.

108. Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which

mechanism the competing species might have evolved
The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field is: for their survival?
(1) 2, 4-D (1) Mutualism
(2) IBA (2) Predation
(3) IAA (3) Resource partitioning
(4) NAA (4) Competitive release

109. 113.
Which of the following algae contains mannitol as Amensalism can be represented as:
reserve food material?
(1) Species A (-) : Species B (-)
(1) Volvox
(2) Species A (+) : Species B (0)
(2) Ulothrix
(3) Species A (-) : Species B (0)
(3) Ectocarpus
(4) Species A (+) : Species B (+)
(4) Gracilaria

114.
110.
A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is:
DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide
when viewed under UV radiation, appear as: (1) 7-nucleate and 7-celled

(1) Dark red bands (2) 8-nucleate and 8-celled

(2) Bright blue bands (3) 8-nucleate and 7-celled

(3) Yellow bands (4) 7-nucleate and 8-celled

(4) Bright orange bands

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 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
115. 118.
The first stable product of CO2 fixation in sorghum is: Which of the following is not an application of PCR
(Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
(1) Succinic acid
(1) Purification of isolated protein
(2) Phosphoglyceric acid
(2) Detection of gene mutation
(3) Pyruvic acid
(3) Molecular diagnosis
(4) Oxaloacetic acid
(4) Gene amplification

116.
119.
Plants follow different pathways in response to
environment or phases of life to form different kinds of Which of the following algae produce Carrageen?
structures. This ability is called: (1) Red algae
(1) Plasticity (2) Blue-green algae
(2) Maturity (3) Green algae
(3) Elasticity (4) Brown algae
(4) Flexibility

120.
117. The production of gametes by the parents, formation of
Match List - I with List - II zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be understood from a
diagram called:
List - I List - II
(a) Protoplast (i) (1) Punnett square
fusion Totipotency (2) Net square
(b) Plant tissue
(ii) Pomato (3) Bullet square
culture
(c) Meristem (iii) (4) Punch square
culture Somaclones
(d) (iv) Virus
Micropropagation free plants
121.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) The perinuclear space forms a barrier between the
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) materials present inside the nucleus and that of the
cytoplasm.
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and RNA
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
molecules in both directions between nucleus and
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) cytoplasm.
(3) Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous
nucleus and usual cytoplasmic organelles.
(4) Microbodies are present both in plant and animal
cells.

Page: 24
 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
122. 126.
Gemmae are present in: Mutations in plant cells can be induced by:
(1) Some Gymnosperms 1. Gamma rays
(2) Some Liverworts 2. Zeatin
(3) Mosses 3. Kinetin
(4) Pteridophytes 4. Infrared rays

123. 127.
Complete the flow chart on central dogma Which of the following statements is not correct?
1. Pyramid of energy is always upright.
(b) (c)

(a) → mRN A → (d) 2. Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is

upright.
(1) (a) - Replication; (b) - Transcription; 3. Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.
(c) - Translation; (d) - Protein 4. Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright.
(2) (a) - Transduction; (b) - Translation;
(c) - Replication; (d) - Protein
128.
(3) (a) - Replication; (b) - Transcription;
Match List-I with List-II.
(c) - Transduction; (d) - Protein
List -I List-I
(4) (a) - Transcription; (b) - Replication; (a)Lenticels (i) Phellogen
(c) - Transcription; (d) - Transduction (b)Cork cambium (ii) Suberin deposition
(c) Secondary cortex (iii) Exchange of gases
(d)Cork (iv) Phelloderm

124. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps in a (a) (b) (c) (d)
PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
1. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(1) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
2. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(2) Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
3. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(3) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
4. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing

129.
125.
The site of perception of light in plants during
During the purification process for recombinant DNA photoperiodism is:
technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out:
1. Axillary bud
(1) Histones
2. Leaf
(2) Polysaccharides
3. Shoot apex
(3) RNA
4. Stem
(4) DNA

Page: 25
 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
130. 133.
The factor that leads to Founder effect in a population is: When gene targetting involving gene amplification is
attempted in an individual's tissue to treat disease, it is
1. Mutation known as:
2. Genetic drift 1. Molecular diagnosis
3. Natural selection 2. Safety testing
4. Genetic recombination 3. Biopiracy
4. Gene therapy
131.
The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, 134.
phosphorus, and calcium present in the soil at any given
time, is referred as: Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two kinds
of spores. Such plants are known as
1. Standing state
1. Homosporous
2. Standing crop
2. Heterosporous
3. Climax
3. Homosorus
4. Climax community
4. Heterosorus

132.
135.
Match List - I with List-II.
Which of the following plants is monoecious?
List-I List-II
1. Marchantia polymorpha
(a) Cohesion (i) More attraction in liquid phase
(b) Adhesion (ii)Mutual attraction among water 2. Cycas circinalis
(c) Surface molecules 3. Carica papaya
tension (iii)Water loss in liquid phase
(d) Guttation (iv) Attraction towards polar surfaces 4. Chara

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(a) (b) (c) (d)
Biology - 1 - Section B
1. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) 136.
2. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of
3. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) transcription in eukaryotes?

4. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 1. Transcribes precursor of mRNA

2. Transcribes only snRNAs
3. Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
4. Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA

Page: 26
 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
137. 140.
Which of the following statements is correct? Match Column-I with Column-II
1. Organisms that depend on living plants are called
saprophytes. Column-I Column-II

2. Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in

specialized cells called sheath cells.
a i Brassicacea
3. The fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy.
4. Fusion of protoplasms between two motile on non-
motile gametes is called plasmogamy.
b ii Liliaceae

138.
Match Column-I with Column- II.
c iii Fabaceae
Column I Column II
(a)
Nitrococcus
(i) Denitrification
(b) d iv Solanaceae
(ii) Conversion of Jammonia to nitrite
Rhizobium
(iii) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate
(c)
(iv) Conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to
Thiobacillus Select the correct answer from the options given below.
ammonia
(a)
Nitrobactèr (a) (b) (c) (d)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. 1. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(a) (b) (c) (d) 2. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
1. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) 3. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
2. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 4. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
3. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
4. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 141.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
139. 1. ATP is synthesized through complex V.
Plasmid pBR322 has a PstI restriction enzyme site within 2. Oxidation-reduction reactions produce proton gradient
gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance. If this in respiration.
enzyme is used for inserting a gene for β-galactoside 3. During aerobic respiration, the role of oxygen is
production and the recombinant plasmid is inserted in an limited to the terminal stage.
E.coli strain
4. In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule of
1. it will lead to the lysis of host cells.
NADH+H+ gives rise to 2ATP molecules, and one
2. it will be able to produce a novel protein with dual FADH2 gives rise to 3 ATP molecules.
abilities. it will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance
to the host cell.
3. the transformed cells will have the ability
4. to resist ampicillin as well as produce β-galactoside.

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 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
142. 145.
Match List -I with List - II. Identify the correct statement.
List-I List-Ii 1. The coding strand in a transcription unit is copied to an
(a) Protein Unsaturated I. C-C double bonds mRNA.
(b) fatty acid II. Phosphodiester bonds 2. Split gene arrangement is characteristic of prokaryotes.
(c) Nucleic acid III. Glycosidic bonds
(d)Polysaccharidee IV. Peptide bonds 3. In capping, methylguanosine triphosphate is added to
the 3' end of hnRNA.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
4. RNA polymerase binds with the Rho factor to
(a) (b) (c) (d) terminate the process of transcription in bacteria.
1. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
2. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
146.
3. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Select the correct pair.
4. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
1. Cells of medullary rays that form part of a cambial
ring - Interfascicular cambium
2. Loose parenchyma cells rupturing the epidermis and
forming a lens-shaped opening in the bark - Spongy
143. parenchyma
DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in 3. Large colorless empty cells in the epidermis of grass
some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as leaves - Subsidiary cells
1. Single nucleotides 4. In dicot leaves, vascular bundles are surrounded tissue
by large thick-walled cells - Conjunctive tissue
2. Polymorphic DNA
3. Satellite DNA
4. Repetitive DNA 147.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
1. Grana lamellae have both PSIand PS II.
144.
2. Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PSI and PS
Match List-I with List-II I.
List-I List-II
3. Both ATP and NADPH+H+ are non-cyclic synthesized
(a) S phase I. Proteins are synthesized during photophosphorylation.
(b) G2 phase II. Inactive phase
(c) Quiescent III. Interval between mitosis and initiation of 4. Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP
stage DNA replication reductase.
(d) phase IV. DNA replication

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
2. (iii) (iv) (iii) (i)
3. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

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 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
148.
Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated gene
Biology - 2 - Section A
causing cancer by allowing the radioactive probe to 151.
hybridise its complementary DNA in clone of cells, Match List - I with List - II
followed by its detection using autoradiography because:
List - I List - II
1. mutated gene does not appear on a photographic film
(a) Aspergillus Niger (i) Acetic Acid
as the probe has no complementarity with it.
(b) Acetobacter aceti (ii) Lactic Acid
2. mutated gene does not appear on photographic film as (c) Clostridium butylicum (iii) Citric Acid
the probe has complementarity with it. (d) Lactobacillus (iv) Butyric Acid
3. mutated gene partially appears on a photographic film.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
4. mutated gene completely and clearly appears on a
photographic film. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
149.
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
In the exponential growth equation Nt =N0ert, e
represents
152.
1. The base of natural logarithms
If Adrenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what will
2. The base of geometric logarithms be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine in
it?
3. The base of number logarithms
(1) T:30 ; G:20 ; C:20
4. The base of exponential logarithms
(2) T:20 ; G:25 ; C:25
(3) T:20 ; G:30 ; C:20
150.
(4) T:20 ; G:20 ; C:30
In some members of which of the following pairs of
families, pollen grains retain their viability for months
after release?
153.
1. Poaceae; Solanaceae
Which one of the following is an example of Hormone
2. Rosaceae; Leguminosae releasing IUD?
3. Poaceae; Rosaceae (1) Cu 7
4. Poaceae; Leguminosae (2) Multiload 375
(3) CuT
(4) LNG 20

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 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
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154. 157.
Which one of the following characteristic is incorrect Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro muscular
with respect to cockroach? junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of
skeletal muscle is called as:
(1) In females, 7th - 9th sterna together form a genital
pouch. (1) Myasthenia gravis
(2) Gout
(2) 10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a pair of
anal cerci. (3) Arthritis
(3) A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction of (4) Muscular dystrophy
midgut and hind gut.
(4) Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by the
mouth parts. 158.
With regard to insulin choose correct options.

155. (a) C-peptide is not present in mature inculin.

Identify the incorrect pair. (b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-
peptide.
(1) Lectins - Concanavalin A
(c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide.
(2) Drugs - Ricin
(d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are interconnected
(3) Alkaloids - Codeine by disulphide bridges.
(4) Toxin - Abrin Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) (a), (c) and (d) only

156. (2) (a) and (d) Only

Veneral diseases can spread through: (3) (b) and (d) only

(a) Using sterile needles (4) (b) and (c) only

(b) Transfusion of blood from infected person

(c) Infected mother to foetus 159.
(d) Kissing Which of the following statements wrongly represents
the nature of smooth muscle?
(e) Inheritance
(1) Communication among the cells is performed by
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
intercalated discs
(1) (b) and (c) only
(2) These muscles are present in the wall of blood vessels
(2) (a) and (c) only
(3) These muscle have no striations
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) They are involuntary muscles
(4) (b), (c) and (d)

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 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
160. 164.
The centriole undergoes duplication during: Match List - I with List - II
(1) Metaphase List - I List - II
(2) G2 phase (a) (i)
Metamerism Coelenterata
(3) S-phase
(b) Canal
(4) Prophase (ii) Ctenophora
system
(c) Comb
(iii) Annelida
Plates
161. (d)
(iv) Porifera
Dobson units are used to measure thickness of: Cnidoblasts

(1) Ozone Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(2) Troposphere (a) (b) (c) (d)

(3) CFCs (1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(4) Stratosphere (2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
162.
The organelles that are included in the endomembrane
system are: 165.
(1) Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Which stage of meiotic prophase shows terminalisation
Lysosomes of chiasmata as its distincitve feature?
(2) Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulus, Mitochondria (1) Diakinesis
and Lysosomes
(2) Pachytene
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, Ribosomes
and Lysosomes (3) Leptotene
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, Lysosomes (4) Zygotene
and Vacuoles

166.
163.
Persons with 'AB' blood group are called as "Universal
Which of the following RNAs is not required for the recipients". This is due to:
synthesis of protein?
(1) Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on RBCs
(1) rRNA
(2) Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in plasma
(2) siRNA
(3) Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBCs
(3) mRNA
(4) Absence of antigens A and B in plasma
(4) tRNA

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 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
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167. 171.
The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O2) and In a cross between a male and female, both heterozygous
carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of diffusion) are for sickle cell anaemia gene, what percentage of the
: progeny will be diseased?

1. pO2=95 and pCO2 = 40 1. 25%

2. 100%
2. pO2 = 159 and pCO2 =0.3
3. 50%
3. pO2 = 104 and pCO2=40
4. 75%
4. pO2 = 40 and pCO2=45

172.
168. Read the following statements.
Succus entericus is referred to as: (a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
1. Gastricjuice Chyme (b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals.
2. Chyme (c) Round worms have organ-system level of body
3. Pancreaticjuice organization

4. Intestinal juice (d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion.

(e) Water vascular system is characteristic of
Echinoderms.
169. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present on: 1. (a), (d) and (e) are correct
1. Perivitelline space 2. (b), (c) and (e) are correct
2. Zona pellucida 3. (c), (d) and (e) are correct
3. Corona radiata 4. (a), (b) and (c) are correct
4. Vitelline membrane

173.
170. Sphincter of oddi is present at :
Match the following 1. Gastro-oesophageal junction
List-I List-II 2. Junction of jejunum and duodenum
(a) Physalia I. Pearl oyster
(b) Limulus II. Portuguese Man of War 3. Ileo-caecal junction
(c) Ancylostoma III. Living fossil 4. Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and duodenum
(d) Pinctada IV. Hookworm
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
2. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
3. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
4. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

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 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
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174. 178.
Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of A specific recognition sequence identified by
inactive fibrinogens to fibrins? endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within
the DNA is:
1. Epinephrine
1. Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
2. Thrombokinase
2. Poly(A) tail sequences
3. Thrombin
3. Degenerate primer sequence
4. Renin
4. Okazaki sequences

175.
179.
Which one of the following belongs to the family
Muscidae? Match List-I with List-II
1. Cockroach List-I List-II
2. House fly I. Entry of sperm
(a) Vaults
3. Fire fly through the Cervix is blocked
4. Grasshopper II. Removal
(b) IUDs
of Vas deferens
III. Phagocytosis of sperms
(c) Vasectomy
176. within the Uterus
The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During IV. Removal of the
(d) Tubectomy
the interphase of Mitosis if the number of chromosomes fallopian tube
at G1 phase is 8, what would be the number of
chromosomes after the S phase? Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1. 4 (a) (b) (c) (d)
2. 32 1. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
3. 8 2. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
4. 16 3. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
4. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
177.
Which of the following is not an objective of 180.
Biofortification in crops?
For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis and
1. Improve vitamin content understanding its pathophysiology is very important.
2. Improve micronutrient and mineral content Which of the following molecular diagnostic techniques
is very useful for early detection?
3. Improve protein content
1. ELISA Technique
4. Improve resistance to diseases
2. Hybridization Technique
3. Western Blotting Technique
4. Southern Blotting'Technique

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 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
181. 185.
Select the favorable conditions required for the formation Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C.
of oxyhemoglobin at the alveoli. formation is produced by:

1. High pO2, high pCO2, less H+, higher temperature
2. Low pO2, low pCO2, more H+, higher temperature
3. High pO2, low pCO2, less H+, lower temperature
4. Low pO2 high pCO2 more H+, higher temperature
1. The cells of bone marrow
2. Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
3. Alpha cells of the pancreas
4. The cells of the rostral adenohypophysis

182.
Biology - 2 - Section B
186.
During the process of gene amplification using PCR, Which of the following secretes the hormone, relaxin,
very high temperature is not maintained in the beginning, during the later phase of pregnancy?
then which of the following PCR will be affected first?
1. Foetus
1. Denaturation
2. Uterus
2. Ligation
3. Graafian follicle
3. Annealing
4. Corpus luteum
4. Extension

187.
183.
The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into:
Which is the "Only enzyme" that has "Capability to
catalyze Initiation, Elongation, and Termination in the 1. Digestive disorder
process of transcription in prokaryotes?
2. Addison's disease
1. DNA Ligase
3. Dysfunction of Immune system
2. DNase
4. Parkinson's disease
3. DNA dependent DNA polymerase
4. DNA dependent RNA polymerase
188.
Which of these is not an important component of
184. initiation of parturition in humans?
Which one of the following organisms bears hollow and 1. Release of Oxytocin
pneumatic long bones?
2. Release of Prolactin
1. Macropus
3. Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
2. Ornithorhynchus
4. Synthesis of prostaglandins
3. Neophron
4. Hemidactylus

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 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
189. 192.
Which one of the following statements about Histones is Following are the statements about prostomium of
wrong? earthworm.
1. Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine and Arginine. (a) It serves as a covering for mouth.
2. Histones carry a positive charge in the side chain. (b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which it can
crawl.
3. Histones are organized to form a unit of 8 molecules.
(c) It is one of the sensory structures.
4. The pH of histones is slightly acidic.
(d) It is the first body segment.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
190.
1. (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct
Statement I: The codon 'AUG codes for methionine and
phenylalanine. 2. (b) and (c) are correct

Statement II: AAA' and 'AAG are both codons that code
for the amino acid lysine. In the light of the above
statements, choose the correct answer from the options
given below.
1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
3. (a), (b) and (c) are correct
4. (a), (b) and (d) are correct
193.
Which of the following is not a step in Multiple
Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET)?

4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
191.
Following are the statements with reference to 'lipids'.
1. Cow is fertilized by artificial insemination
2. Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate mothers at
8-32 cell stage
3. Cow is administered hormone having LH like activity
for super ovulation

(a) Lipids having only single bonds are called 4. Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time
unsaturated fatty acids.
(b) Lecithin is a phospholipid.
194.
(c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol.
Match List-I with List-II
(d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including carboxyl
carbon. List-I List-II
(a) Allen's Rule (i) Kangaroo rat
(e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms.
(b) Physiological adaptation (ii) Desert lizard
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. (c) Behavioural adaptation (iii) Marine fish at depth
1. (b) and (c) only (d) Biochemical adaptation (iv) Polar seal

2. (b) and (e) only Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

3. (a) and (b) only (a) (b) (c) (d)

1. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
4. (c) and (d) only
2. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
3. (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
4. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

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 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
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195. 197.
Match List-I with List-II Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II List-I List-II
(a) Scapula (i) Cartilaginous joints (a) Filariasis (i) Haemophilus influenzae
(b) Cranium (ii) Flat bone (b) Amoebiasis (ii) Trichophyton
(c) Sternum (iii) Fibrous joints (c) Pneumonia (iii) Wuchereria bancrofti
(d) Vertebral column (iv) Triangular flat bone (d) Ringworm (iv) Entamoeba histolytica
Choose the correct answer from the options given below. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) 1. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
2. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 2. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
3. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) 3. (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
4. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) 4. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

196.
Assertion (A) :
A person goes to high altitude and experiences 'altitude
sickness' with symptoms like breathing difficulty and
heart palpitations.
Reason (R) :
Due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitude, the
body does not get sufficient oxygen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below.
1. (A) is true but (R) is false
2. (A) is false but (R) is true
3. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
4. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
198.
Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop the
leakage of the substances across a tissue and facilitation
of communication with neighbouring cells via rapid
transfer of ions and molecules.
1. Adhering junctions and Tight junctions, respectively.
2. Adhering junctions and Gap junctions, respectively.
3. Gap junctions and Adhering junctions, respectively.
4. Tight junctions and Gap junctions, respectively.
199.
During muscular contraction which of the following
events occur?
(a) 'H' zone disappears
(b) 'A' band widens
(c) 'I' band reduces in width
(d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and Pi
(e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1. (b), (c), (d), (e) only
2. (b), (d), (e), (a) only
3. (a), (c), (d), (e) only
4. (a), (b), (c), (d) only

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 NEET 2021 Exam Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
200.
Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
(i) Selection of resistant varieties due to
(a) Adaptive
excessive use of herbicides and
radiation
pesticides
(b) Convergent (ii) Bones of forelimbs in Man and
evolution Whale
(c) Divergent
(iii) Wings of Butterfly and Bird
evolution
(d) Evolution by
anthropogenic (iv) Darwin Finches
action
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
2. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
3. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
4. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

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