FINAL COACHING
PSYCHOLOGICAL ASSESSMENT
August 2023 Board Licensure Examination of Psychometrician
NAME:
“FIRST TAKER AKO, AT LAST TAKE KO NA ‘TO!
1. A psychologist decides to test who is more likely to help a
stranger in need; males or females. A confederate asks both
male and female passers-by for 50p for a parking meter, as he
has accidentally dropped his change down the street drain.
The researcher is observing to see who will help and records a
tick for every male who helps, and a tick for every female who
helps. At the end of the research, the total number of ticks in
each category are added up for comparison. What kind of
DATA has been collected?
A. Ordinal data
B. Nominal data
C. Interval data
D. Ratio Data
2. What is the purpose of an inferential statistical test?
A. To see if your results are accurate
B. To check the probability of your results applying to
the wider population
C. To make sure you have not made a mistake in your
data collection
D. To confirm the purpose of the research
3 .A psychologist decides to test who is more likely to help a
stranger in need; males or females. A confederate asks both
male and female passers -by for 50p for a parking meter, as he
has accidentally dropped his change down the street drain.
The researcher is observing to see who will help and records a
tick for every male who helps, and a tick for every female who
helps. At the end of the research, the total number of ticks in
each category are added up for comparison. What kind of
research DESIGN has been used?
A. Matched participants
B. Independent groups
C. Repeated measures
D. Correlational groups
4. A psychologist decides to test who is more likely to help a
stranger in need; males or females. A confederate asks both
male and female passers-by for 50p for a parking meter, as he
has accidentally dropped his change down the street drain.
The researcher is observing to see who will help and records a
tick for every male who helps, and a tick for every female who
helps. At the end of the research, the total number of ticks in
each category are added up for comparison. Based on the
information you have here, which is the most appropriate
inferential statistical test to use?
A. Mann Whitney
B. Chi-Squared
C. Wilcoxon Matched
D. Anova
5. Which of the following are examples is not an ordinal data?
A. The number of friends that participants have on
Facebook
B. The type of breakfast cereal that people prefer
C. The number of questions correctly answered in a test
D. The number of albums each person has on their I-Pod
DATE: SCORE: _____
6. A psychology student is running an inferential statistical test
on her data. What level of statistical significance should she
accept?
A. 0%
B. 5%
C. 10%
d. 1%
7. What is meant by a Type 1 error?
A. Rejecting a null hypothesis that is true
B. Retaining a null hypothesis that is false
C. Inputting your data inaccurately in a statistical test
D. computed value is greater than tabular value
8. Which type of inferential statistical test is suitable for
correlational data?
A. Mann Whitney
B. Spearmans Rho
C. Chi-Squared
D. ANOVA
9. A psychology student has conducted a Mann Whitney test
on his data. The results show that the observed value is less
than the critical value. What should this student do?
A. Accept the null hypothesis and reject the experimental
hypothesis
B. Reject the null hypothesis and accept the experimental
hypothesis
C. Re-write the hypothesis
D. identify the level of the significance
10. Which of the following is a null hypothesis?
A. There will be a difference between the length of time
taken to complete a test online and the time taken to
complete a test on paper.
B. Tests completed online will be completed faster than
tests completed on paper.
C. There will be no difference between the length of time
taken to complete tests online and tests completed on
paper, and if there is it is due to chance.
D. Relationship exists between two variables
11. Imagine you are a researcher interested in sex differences
in student’s attitudes toward homosexuals. Specifically, you
want to test the idea that women are more accepting of
homosexuals and thus have more positive attitudes toward
homosexuals than do men. You collect data from 10 men and
10 women using a scale that measures homophobia.
Which of the following tests would you use to test your
hypothesis?
A. Pearson’s Correlation Coefficient (r)
B. Regression Analysis
C. t-test for Independent Samples
D. t-test for Paired Data
12. A researcher believes that recall of verbal material differs
with the level of processing. He divided his subjects into three
groups. In the low processing group, participants read each
word and were instructed to count the number of letters in the
word. In the medium processing group, participants were
asked to read each word and think of a word that rhymed. In
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the high processing group, participants were asked to read Republicans and Democrats in your sample accordingly. What's
each word and try to memorize it for later recall. Each group your level of measurement?
was allowed to read the list of 30 words three times, then they a. Interval.
were asked to recall as many of the words on the list as b. Ordinal.
possible. If the researcher wants to know whether the three c. Nominal.
groups have different amounts of recall, what type of statistical d. Ratio.
test should be used? 19. If the standard deviation of a distribution is exactly zero,
A. Regression Analysis which one of the following statements must be true?
B. t-test for Independent Samples
C. One-way ANOVA a. All the scores are negative.
D. F test b. All the scores are zero.
13. A psychologist wants to investigate the relationship c. The scores below the mean precisely balance
between stress and mental health during the first year of the scores above the mean.
college. The researcher developed scales that measure 1) the d. All the scores are exactly the same.
frequency of stressful events, 2) the perceived importance of 20. If you score at the 40th percentile in a test, it means
these events, 3) the desirability of such events, and 4) the that...
impact of these events of the student. The researcher had 150 a. Your test score was 40%.
first year college students fill out this questionnaire as well as a b. Your test score was 60%.
Symptom Checklist, which is designed to assess the presence c. 40% of people had the same score, or a
or absence of psychological disorders. What statistical higher score, than yours.
procedure would help this researcher discover if psychological d. 40% of people had the same score, or a
disorders can be predicted from the different aspects of stress lower score, than yours.
that have been measured? 21. If you subtract the mean from every score in a set of
A. Multiple Regression scores, then square each of the resultant deviation scores, add
B. One-way ANOVA them up, and divide by the number of scores, what have you
C. Chi-square test of independence calculated?
D. Correlation (r) a. The variance.
14. A psychologist is interested in the relationship between job b. The mean.
satisfaction and stress. Within a large corporation, the c. The standard error.
psychologist asked a random sample of workers two questions. d. The standard deviation.
The first question asked workers to rate their overall 22. A distribution that has tails thicker than in the case of a
satisfaction with their job on a scale from 1 to 50. The second normal distribution is described as being...
question asked the workers to rate their stress level during the a. Rectangular.
past week on a scale from 1 to 50. What type of statistical test b. Kurtotic.
best assesses the relationship between job satisfaction and c. Skewed.
level of stress? d. Normal.
A. Spearman Rho 23. Which most accurately describes a correlational method?
B. One-way ANOVA a. It aims to determine the probability of a
C. Mann Whitney particular future outcome.
D. Wilcoxon Sign-Ranked b. It analyses the differences between groups.
15. An institutional researcher at a large university wants to c. It seeks to uncover causal relationships.
compare the mathematical abilities of its male and female d. It looks at the relationship or association
students. A researcher selects 100 men and 100 women at between variables.
random from each of the four classes, and administers a 24. What is the level of measurement of the Celsius
standardized mathematics test. The men average 500 on the temperature scale?
test, with a standard deviation of 120. The women average a. Nominal.
450 on the test, with a standard deviation of 110. What test b. Ordinal.
would be appropriate to determine whether the difference c. Interval.
between men and women is real or due to chance variation? d. Ratio.
A. Pearson Correlation (r) 25. A measure which is capable of differentiating between one
B. Regression analysis group of participants from another group of participants on a
C. t-test for independent samples particular construct may have good what?
D. t-test for paired data (dependent t) A. Discriminant validity.
16. A psychologist is interested in attitudes towards the B. Predictive validity.
disabled. She believes that contact with someone who is C. Known-groups validity.
disabled might have an effect on peoples’ attitudes. To test her D. Convergent validity.
hypothesis, she measured attitudes toward the disabled both 26. Internal reliability is:
before and after contact with an individual in a wheelchair. A. about how a single individual's scores remain
What type of statistical test should she use to determine if identical.
contact with a disabled person changes peoples’ attitudes B. about the consistency of a measure taken at two
toward the disabled? different points in time.
A. Pearson Correlation (r) C. about how consistently all of the items in a scale
B. t-test for independent samples measure the concept in question.
C. t-test for paired data (dependent t) D. about the increase or decrease in scores over time.
D. Mann Whitney 27. Which one of these characteristics would you expect not to
17. A psychologist is interested in whether or not handedness give high test-retest reliability?
is related to gender. Specifically she wants to know if the A. Attention.
percentage left-handed men in the population is different from B. Dyslexia.
the percentage of left-handed women. She collected data on C. Intelligence.
handedness for 200 men and 200 women. What type of D. Religious beliefs.
statistical test would be appropriate? 28. The better the internal reliability then:
a. Person R A. the higher the correlation between that measure
b. t-test for paired data and other variables.
c. Chi-square B. the more likely the test is measuring what it is
d. Phi Coefficient intended to measure.
18. You are interested in whether Republican or Democratic C. the lower the maximum correlation of that test
voters are more likely to be able to swim. You have two with any other variable.
categories, swimmer and non-swimmer, and you allocate the D. none of these.
29. Cronbach's alpha reliability is:

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 A. an average of all possible split-half reliabilities.
B. the correlation of half of the items with the total
participants.
C. the correlation of each item with the sum of the
items.
D. none of these.
30. Correlating between different versions of a test is known
as what?
a. Test-retest reliability.
b. Objectivity.
c. Split-half reliability.
d. Alternate forms reliability.
31. If a lecturer wanted to replace your current examinations
on research methods with this multiple choice test, the lecturer
could correlate your multiple choice scores with your marks
from the written exam also sat by you today. If the two sets of
scores correlated well the lecturer could be fairly confident that
this multiple choice test had good what?
a. Concurrent validity.
b. Content validity.
c. Face validity.
d. Predictive validity.
32. A measure which is capable of differentiating between one
group of participants from another group of participants on a
particular construct may have good what?
a. Known-groups validity.
b. Convergent validity.
c. Discriminant validity.
d. Predictive validity.
33. Using different methods of collecting data, different
sources of evidence, different tests and in some cases different
interviewers, is known as what?
a. Convergent validity.
b. Triangulation.
c. Transferability.
d. Reliability.
34 Choose the incorrect statement.
a. Creating a new measure using
item-analysis procedures would
usually be followed by
assessing the reliability
and validity of the measure.
b. Reliability and validity are not
inherent characteristics of
measures.
c. Reliability and validity should not be
affected by the context and
purpose of the measure.
d. A measure that is valid for one
purpose may not be valid for
another purpose.
35. Why should tests used in clinical settings have higher
levels of reliability and validity than those used in research
studies?
a. Ideally the measures should have
the same reliability and validity.
b. Because they are used to assess
individuals.
c. Because there are smaller samples
used in clinical settings.
d. Because measures in research
settings are less valuable and useful
than those in clinical
settings.
36. Which of the following variables does NOT have ratio scale
properties?
a. job satisfaction rating
b. reaction time to respond when a
stimulus is presented
c. distance (in inches) that two people
stand from each other when
conversing
d. weight of the garbage
37. Nominal scales of measurement have no quantitative
properties.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Cant be determined
38. My measure allows me to successfully predict future
behavioral outcomes. My measure has:
A. Criterion validity
B. Face validity
C. Construct Validity
D. Content validity
39. Whenever you divide people into groups, you probably
using a nominal scale level of measurement.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Cant be determined
40. A researcher developed a measure of shyness and is now
asking whether this measure does in fact measure a person's
true state of shyness. This is a question of:
A. reactivity.
B. construct validity.
C. reliability.
D. Criterion validity
41. An indicator of reliability based on the correlations of each
item in a measure with every other item is called:
A. Test-retest reliability
B. Cronbach's alpha
C. Split-half reliability
D. Parallel reliability
42. Scores on a final exam are related to student grade point
average, the amount of time spent studying for the exam, and
class attendance. What type of validity is demonstrated in this
case?
A. convergent validity.
B. discriminant validity.
C. criterion validity.
D. Concurrent validity
43. When gathering information using assessments,
counselors:
a. only use standardized tests
b. administer tests in groups rather than on
an individual basis
c. gather samples of behavior and infer
meanings from those behaviors
d. only use instruments published in the
Mental Measurements Yearbooks
44. Assessments can not only be used to identify client
problems, but to also identify client:
a. strengths.
b.ability to complete counseling.
c.likelihood to develop additional problems.
d.propensity to seek counseling in the
future.
45. An instrument that has fixed directions for the
administration and scoring said to be:
a. standardized
b. valid
c. reliable
d. norm-referenced
46. An individually-administered instrument, as compared to a
group-administered instrument, ha the advantage of:
a. being easier to administer
b. allowing the administrator to observe
nonverbal behaviors
c. taking less time to administer
d. gives accurate information
47. In categorizing instruments as either speed versus power,
a power test means:
a. the examinee’s shared “power” is
measured by the number of items answered
correctly.
b.the instruments measure the more difficult
achievement areas.
c.the instruments highly rated by experts
in the assessment field.
d. the items vary in difficulty, and more
credit may be given for more difficult items.
48. Nonverbal instruments have been developed primarily in an
attempt to:
a.assess skill related to mathematics.This
b. control for the influences of language and
culture.
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 c.measure children’s pre-reading skills.
d.assess issues that individuals cannot
verbalize.
49. If a test requires individuals to manipulate objects, then it
would be considered a(n):
a. performance test
b. objective test
c. projective technique
d. computational technique
50. Cognitive testing is to affective testing, as __________ is
to __________.
a. structured; projective
b. achievement; aptitude
c. speed; power
d. intelligence; personality
51. The basic theory underlying projective measures is that:
a. the examinee’s responses are projections
of the individual’s latent traits
b. they provide more accurate client
information than structured personality instruments
c. they are easier for the examinee to fake
d. they provide more information on people’s
true personality
52. As compared to objective measures, subjective
instruments require the administrator to:
A receive advanced graduate training in
order to administer them correctly.
B use predetermined methods to score the
assessment, without having to rely on
professional judgment.
c. score whether the examinee’s responses
are correct or incorrect.
d. make professional judgments when
scoring the assessment
53. .he person credited with launching the testing movement
is:
a.Frank Parsons
b. Sir Francis Galton
c.Binet
d.Thurstone
54. In constructing his test of cognitive ability, which of these
functions would not be considered important by Binet?
a.Judgment
b.Reasoning
c. Perceptual speed
d.Comprehension
55. The move from written essay examination resource
CourseHero large-scale standardized assessment to measure
student achievement was prompted by:
a. a need for a more cost-effective means of
measuring student achievement.
b. a desire for more objectivity in testing,
due to inconsistencies in grading essay items.
c. a federal mandate to create a universal
mechanism for allocating funds and
educational resources.
d. a desire to compare the achievement of
students within and between states.
56. During the 1960s and 1970s, there was a lot of
examination and evaluation of the use of tests and assessment
instruments. There was significant scrutiny over:
a. minimal use of assessment instruments.
b. development of projective techniques in
personality assessment.
c. ethnic bias, fairness, and accuracy.
d. people being assessed without their
knowledge or permission..
57. What are two potential issues and trends while looking
ahead to the future of assessment?
a. Having too many personality assessments
available for counselors to choose from
b. Technology and the Internet and
multicultural issues
c. Assessment instruments becoming
increasingly difficult to score
d. Increased time and difficulty to administer
assessment instruments
58. One of the major achievements of psychology in the
twentieth century was
a. the application of tests during the
First World War
b. the development of the deviation
IQ
c. the development of projective
techniques
d. the development of psychological
tests
59. A psychological test is
A. a measure of personality or ability
B. an objective procedure for sampling and
quantifying human behaviour
C. a set of questions or items whose answers
can be tallied to yield a total score
D. a method of tapping into someone’s
unconscious
60. A test designed to decide whether or not students have
mastered the ability to multiply two three-digit numbers
together would be referred to as
A. a norm referenced test
B. a criterion referenced test
C. standardized test
D. self-report test
61. Select the norm referenced test from the following list:
A. Driving test
B. Random breath test
C. Pregnancy test
D. Personality test
62. The main advantage of psychological tests over personal
judgement is:
A. Psychological tests use standardised procedures
and materials
B. Psychological tests are infallible
C. Psychological tests allow the evaluation of
behaviour
D. Psychological tests provide deeper insights into
personal problems
63. Compared to psychological testing, psychological
assessment usually
A. uses manipulative tasks as part of the process
B. refers to clinical situations only
C. takes less sessions to complete
D. answers hypotheses about the client’s condition
64. .The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale is an example of
a(n) _____ administered and_____ referenced test
a. individual, norm
b. group; norm
c. computer; norm
d. individual; criterion
65. Which of the following is not a major psychological
construct appropriate for psychological testing?
a. reaction time
b. emotions
c. psychological disorders
d. personality
66. If we found that the correlation between self-esteem and
risk-taking behaviour was negative, we would infer that
a. people with high-self-esteem tend
to be high risk-takers
b. people with low-self-esteem tend to
be high risk-takers
c. people who are low risk-takers tend
to have low self-esteem
d. The two constructs are unrelated
67. Scores from psychological tests
A. should never be released
B. always reveal the true nature of the person
being assessed
C. should always be interpreted with allowance
for measurement error
D. are always better interpreted by a computer
68. Transforming scores on psychological tests is done
primarily to
a. make use of z-scores
b. aid interpretation of the scores
c. make the scores available for
research
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 d. make use of the normal curve
69. A T score transformation
A. gives rise to a distribution of scores with a
mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 10
B. gives rise to a distribution of scores with a
mean of 0 and a standard deviation of 1
C. is a non-linear transformation
D. is named after Terman, who was the first to
use the transformation
70. A percentile
a. is only used for non-normal
distributions
b. expresses a score in relation to the
whole distribution of scores
c. expresses a score in relation to the
normal curve
d. are linear transformations
71. .What percentile corresponds to a z score of -1.13?
a. 10th percentile
b. 50th percentile
c. 13th percentile
d. 37th percentile
72. Julie scored 80 on her English test (where the class mean
= 66 and sd = 6) whereas John scored 76 on his Math’s test
(where class mean = 56 and sd = 7). Who has done better in
relation to their class?
a. Julie
b. John
c. Both are equivalent
d. Impossible to tell
73. Wechsler, in developing the norms for his first test of
intelligence, used a stratified sampling plan because
a. the factors on which he stratified
were known to relate to intelligence
b. this was all that was available to
him at the time
c. intelligence was thought to be
normally distributed
d. sample size was known to be an
issue
74. A sten score of 9.5
a. represents a transformation of z =
.95
b. corresponds to a percentile of 84
c. is equivalent to a z-score of 2
d. is obtained by more than 95% of
test takers
75. Because normalised standard scores follow a normal
distribution, they
a. preserve the differences among the
original raw scores
b. are more easily understood
c. are attractive to test constructors
d. do not require the use of the
normal curve for interpretation
76. According to classical test score theory, a test score is
made up of
a. true score variance and error
variance
b. observed score variance and true
score variance
c. observed score variance and error
variance
d. observed score variance and
systematic variance
77. Systematic error in a test exerts what kind of effect on test
scores?
a. random
b. consistent
c. unknowable
d. inconsistent
78. The domain sampling model as originally conceived, could
not deal well with
a. split-half reliability
b. internal reliability
c. equivalent forms reliability
d. test-retest reliability
79. The reliability of ratings from a panel of judges could be
determined by
a. correlating their judgements over a
number of instances
b. counting the frequency of
judgements in which they disagree
c. finding the proportion of
judgements that were wrong
d. correlating the number of correct
judgements with their true scores
80. Research has proven that the Best Achievement Test in
America had poor internal consistency. What does that mean?
a. The test, when split and half and
compared, does not produce the
same results.
b. The test items do not repeatedly
measure what they say they
measure.
c. The different versions of the test do
not produce the same responses.
d. The test is not produce the same
results across time.
81. Mr. Jones, the classroom teacher, administers a test to
Joey in September and then again in October. Joey’s scores are
one point off. This test could be said to have
a. Alternate forms reliability
b. Split half-reliability
c. Test-retest reliability
d. Interrater reliability
82. This formula is used to check consistency across items of
an instrument with right/wrong responses.
a. Standard Error of Measurement
b. Product Moment
c. Coefficient Alpha
d. Kuder-Richardson 20
83. Mrs. Morgan reviews an assessment that has a correlation
coefficient of .45. Should Mrs. Morgan use this test? Why?
a. No; the correlation coefficient is too
low.
b. No; a correlation coefficient must
be at .80 to be considered reliable.
c. Yes; the correlation coefficient is
considered adequate.
d. Yes; if the test was published, it
must be reliable to use.
84. Test A has a standard error of measurement of 4.3 and
Test B has a standard error of measurement of 1.3. Which test
should be administered to ensure the best obtained score as
possible?
a. Either test would be reasonable to
give.
b. Neither.
c. Test A.
d. Test B.
85. Suppose you created a new measure of reading
comprehension and you wanted to test its validity. Therefore
you compare the results of your new measure to existing
validated measures of reading comprehension and find that
your measure compares well with these other measures. We
could then say that your new measure has good____. Bonus
a. concurrent validity
b. corvergent validity
c. discriminant validity
d. criterion-related validity
86. Increased exercise is likely to lead to a loss of weight is
what type of correlation?
a. Negative correlation
b. Weak correlation
c. Positive correlation
d. Strong correlation
87. r = 00 is best described as
a. A positive correlation.
b. a perfect correlation.
c. A weak correlation.
d. no correlation.
88. Speed of the car is measured on which kind of scale?
a. Ratio
b. Interval
c. Nominal
d. Ordinal
89. Percentiles represent which kind of scale?
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 a. Ratio tells you that he wants you to release the results of the testing
b. Interval (raw data, not only the report). Which of the following is NOT
c. Ordinal an ethical issue that you should consider before making a
d. Nominal decision about whether or not to release this information?
90. Aggregating students by demographic data such as A. Whether your client has signed a release
race/ethnicity and gender relies on which kind of scale? to give the data to his lawyer
A. Ordinal B. Whether there is a court order to release
B. Nominal this information
C. Ratio C. Whether the psychologist who did the
D. Interval testing agrees to release the information
91. Grade equivalents represent which kind of scale? D. All of the above are ethical issues that
a. Ordinal you should consider
b. Ratio 103. Which of the following are the most basic elements
c. Interval necessary to include when obtaining informed consent for
d. Nominal participation in psychological assessment?
92. Standard scores are represented on which kind of scale? A. Role of the assessor, purpose of the assessment,
a. Ratio and specific uses for the results
b. Nominal B. Purpose of the assessment and where the
c. Interval information will go
d. Ordinal C. Role of the assessor, purpose of the assessment,
93. What type of score is determined when a national sample what the results mean
of students of the same age or grade attempts the same items D. All of the above are basis elements of informed
on an assessment? consent
a. Norm-referenced 104. Generally, how long after a test is revised can you
b. Derived score continue to use the earlier version?
c. Standard deviation A. You should absolutely use the revised version
d. Standard immediately
94. Tests designed to compare an individual student’s scores B. Six months
with national averages are called ___. C. One year
a. curriculum-based measurement D. Three years
b. norm-referenced tests 105. As demonstrated by the exercises that you completed
c. criterion-referenced assessment during Dr. Adelizzi’s lecture, all of the following would likely
d. measurement-based assessment have an impact on one’s performance on psychological tests
95. Which of the following is NOT a derived score? EXCEPT:
a. Language quotient A. Being timed
b. Percentile rank B. Being in a classroom
c. Raw score C. Distraction from extraneous noise
d. Age or grade equivalent D. Being scored on tasks you have never
96. Tests designed to compare an individual student’s scores seen before
with national averages are called ___. 106. Neuropsychological assessment differs from psychological
a. curriculum-based measurement assessment in which of the following ways:
b. norm-referenced tests A. Neuropsychological assessment includes
c. criterion-referenced assessment tests of achievement
d. curriculum-based assessment B. Neuropsychological assessment includes
97. Statistics used to organize and describe data are called tests of personality
_____. C. Neuropsychological assessment is more
a. demographics interested in performance in different aspects of
b. descriptive statistics cognitive functioning
c. mean D. Neuropsychological assessment and
d. measure of central tendency psychological assessment differ in name only
98. This measure helps determine how much distance from the 107. If a person has a non-verbal learning disability, they
mean is typical and how much is considered significant. would likely have more difficulty engaging in tasks that
a. Percentiles employ:
b. Range A. Crystallized intelligence
c. Standard deviation B. Fluid intelligence
d. Variance C. Creative intelligence
99. This measure describes how spread out the scores in a D. None of the above
distribution are from the mean. 108. Practice effects should be considered if the same test is
a. Frequency polygon administered a second time
b. Standard deviation A. After a month of the first testing
c. Range B. After a year of the first testing
d. Variance C. After two years of the first testing
100. On a normal curve, approximately what percentage of D. Ever again
scores is found within 2 standard deviations above and below 109. You have a client who has a documented non-verbal
the mean? learning disability. On which index of the WAIS-IV would you
a. 68% expect your client to do poorest?
b. 48% A. Verbal Comprehension Index
c. 50% B. Processing Speed Index
d. 95% C. Perceptual Reasoning Index
101. How is the following score being expressed? Score = +2 D. Working Memory Index
standard deviations 110. Which of the following describes the Flynn Effect?
a. raw score A. IQ scores have increased across the
b. z-score general population over generations
c. T-score B. IQ have decreased across the general
d. percentile rank population over generation
102. You are the counselor for a court-involved client. You C. The notion of intelligence has expanded
referred the client for a psychological evaluation, and the to include creative and practical intelligence
results (report and raw data) of the evaluation were sent to D. IQ scores differ by geographical area
you after it was completed. Your client’s attorney calls you and across the world

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111. All of the following are assumptions of intellectual testing
EXCEPT?
A. It is susceptible to cultural influence
B. It is a measure of a person’s current level
of functioning
C. Intellectual abilities are static and should
not change over time
D. Results should be considered in the
context of other information about the person
112. Which of the following is an example of a good referral
question?
A. Psychological assessment is requested.
B. Please evaluate for intellectual deficits.
C. Psychological assessment is requested as part of
an ongoing assessment to determine Sammy’s
risk for future violent acts and involvement in criminal
activity.
D. Psychological assessment of Sammy’s personality
structure is requested.
113. If you develop a test to measure good study skills and
when evaluated, it is determined that it actually measures
good study skills, the test is said to be
a. valid
b. standardized
c. reliable
d. objective
114. Garner argued that conventional views of intelligence
were limiting, and should include the idea that there are
__________ intelligences
A. single
B. multiple
C. general
D. functional
115. According to Spearman, our ability to perform any and all
cognitive tasks is most dependent on
A. crystallized intelligence
B. fluid intellgence
C. s factor
D. g factor
116. In Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence, the ability
to use one’s capability in a specific situation is ________
intelligence, while the ability to apply information one has
learned from the world is ________ intelligence.
A. componential; experiential
B. experiential; contextual
C. contextual; experiential
D. experiential; componential
117. If genetic factors have a stronger influence on
intelligence than environmental factors, then the best response
would be to
A. abandon any useless efforts to change
someone’s intelligence
B. modify the environment so each person
reaches his or her maximum potential
C. create separate environments for people of
different levels of intelligence
D. none of these
118. What has happened to IQ scores worldwide during
recent decades?
A. they have decreased significantly.
B. they have not changed significantly
C. they have increased significantly
D. they initially increased and are now
decreasing significantly
119. If intelligence is a normally distributed characteristic,
then you would expect to find it
A. to be different abilities in different people
B. to be spread throughout the population, but
with most people clustered near the middle
of the range
C. to a significant degree only in people whose
IQ scores are above 100
D. to be determined entirely by hereditary
factors
120. The problem with the original IQ formula is that it gave a
distorted picture of the intellectual abilities of
A. adults
B. children
C. retarded persons
D. gifted persons
121. You have tested a 12-year old child and found that she
has a mental age of 15. Using the original IQ formula, what is
her IQ?
A. 75
B. 100
C. 115
D. 125
122. One of Binet’s great ideas was that of mental age, which
was defined as:
A. the average age at which normal individuals
achieve a particular score on an intelligence
test.
B. an individual’s biological age plus the score
he/she achieves on a mental test
C. an individual’s level of emotional maturity, as
judged by the examiner
D. the variability of scores seen when an
individual is tested repeatedly.
123. The psychometrician used what type of validation
process?
a. concurrent
b. predictive
c. discriminant
d. convergent
124. Which of the following statements is correct
a. the test is valid
d. the test is not valid
c. the test could be valid for research
purposes only
d. the test is both valid and not valid
depending on its purposes.
125. What the first thing to do in assessment?
A. Identifying the reason for referral/stated concern
with the child
B. Gathering background information- can be
developmental history, medical records, or anecdotal
information on how client acts
C. Conducting observations of client- can happen in
classroom setting or testing setting-
nothing to do with the score, just
observations on how student acts
D. Build rapport
126. The following are the purpose of assessment except:
a.Screening: use of something more brief
and efficient to help find a child that needs help
b.Diagnosis and Eligibility: what we use
assessment for the most- see who needs what
services or what is ailing a certain person
c.Make accurate predictions: Taking an SAT
or GRE to predict how well you would do in college
or graduate school
d.Progress Monitoring and Outcome
Assessment: Show how some children have been
successful or not successful over a certain
time period- seeing if child has become better
or worse at something.
127. Compared to psychological testing, psychological
assessment is usually
A- undertaken to answer more complex referral
questions
B- undertaken in two sessions
C- cheaper
D- less time consuming
128. Which of the following statements is correct?
A- ethics is the same as morality
B- unlike laws, codes of ethics are readily amended
C- ethics is something that cannot be taught
D- psychologists who are not members of the PAP are
not bound by its code of ethics
129. A psychological report should
A- directly and adequately answer the referral
question
B- be at least 10 pages long
C- use jargon
D- be read only by the client
130. Which statement is true:
A- only novice test users make errors in scoring
psychological tests
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 B- only experienced test users make errors in scoring A. vocabulary
psychological tests B. verbal reasoning
C- both novice and experienced test make errors in C. delayed free recall of new material
scoring psychological tests D. all of the above
D- none of the above 143. According to Piaget, a form of cognitive structure or
131. Failure to ensure that all the materials required for a organization is referred to as:
psychological testing session are in the test kit and that the a. a construct
test materials are intact can result in b. a set
A- a waste of time for the psychologist and client c. a pattern
B- a shorter testing time d. a schema
C- higher testing fees 144. Crystallized intelligence includes ________.
D- the need to use more tests a. application of general knowledge
132. Before administering a psychological test, a psychologist b. nonverbal abilities
should ensure that c. sensory abilities
A- the test has local norms d. all of the above
B- the test does not have any copyright restrictions 145. A school psychologist assesses your child's intelligence
C- the test has been reviewed in the Mental and explains that your child's cognitive ability to you in terms
Measurements Yearbook of the manner in which she processes information and solves
D- the test is appropriate for use with the particular problems. This school psychologist is employing which theory
client in terms of his/her Demographics of intelligence?
133. Psychological testing is _____ as part of psychological a. Galton's sensory ability
assessment b. information-processing
A- rarely used c. multiple-factor-analytic
B- always used d. Wechsler's verbal/performance
C- over-used 146. Experts recommend that the first draft of a test include
D- used, if appropriate, AT LEAST how many items compared with the final version?
134 The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory - 2 is an a. three times the number of the final version
example of a _____ test b. the same number as the final version
A- criterion-referenced c. twice the number of the final version
B- performance d. one-quarter the number of the final version
C- self-report 147. Which does not represent a type of question to be raised
D- self-scoring and answered during the test conceptualization stage of test
135. The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale is an example of development?
a(n) _____ test A. how valid are the items on the test?
A individual-administered B. what types of responses will be required of
B group-administered the test-taker?
C computer-administered C. what is the objective of the test?
D criterion-referenced D. is there a need for the test?
136 Psychological tests are better than other means of 148. Which of the following would be an example of a
psychological assessment because they correlational strategy of academic research?
A- are cheaper a. testing a hypothesis with an experimental group
B- have norms b. having a group fill out questionnaires
C- have face validity c. using the scientific method
D- are suitable for measuring all psychological d. a clinician diagnosing his/her patient
constructs e. using the electric shock method to illustrate
137. _____ is a subprocess of _____ classical conditioning
A- psychological testing; observation 149. In analysing data, measurements are sometimes
B- psychological testing; interviewing categorical, for example "verbal" or "non verbal". This type of
C- interviewing; psychological assessment measurement is called
D- psychological assessment; observation a. qualitative measurement
138. Sergio handles real world situations easily; he MOST likely b. quantitative measurement
has high _____. c. reliability
a. practical intelligence d. validity
b. analytical intelligence e. psychometrics
c. creative intelligence 150. If you had a correlation of positive one, the related items
d. performance components would be:
139. Maria is very good at math and she won first place in a a. completely unrelated
math competition at her school. She MOST likely has _____. b. moderately correlated
a. high analytical intelligence c. very highly correlated
b. high practical intelligence d. identical
c. high creative intelligence e. lowly correlated
d. low practical intelligence 151.Which of the following examples is most likely to have a
140. A primary use of group intelligence tests is ________. negative correlation?
A. determining educational placement a. Number of hours spent studying and test scores
B. job placement b. Amount of violent television viewed and number of
C. diagnosis aggressive acts committed
D. screening c. How many times the subject smiles per day and
141. Which is true of the WPPSI? their unhappiness level
a. It was originally developed in the late 1960's, d. Weight and height
because of a growing interest in early identification of e. Your test scores and the Russian economy in 1994
exceptional children
b. It did not include a representative number of 152. What correlation coefficient value would most likely
minority children in the standardization sample represent a completely inverse proportionality between a
c. It was originally developed, because of widespread behavior and a trait?
dissatisfaction with the Stanford-Binet for assessing young a. 1.0
children b. 0.25
d. all of the above c. 0.0
142. Which of the following abilities tend to decline in d. -0.5
individuals in old age? e. -1.0

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153. Which strategy IMPROVES the reliability of a research B) randomly selecting three classrooms and
design? including all the students in those classrooms in the sample
a. make the test shorter C) randomly selecting students from a listing of
b. standardize all circumstances under which the test every student in the university
is administered, including instructions. D) randomly selecting students from the
c. delete all items from the test that do not correlate incoming class
with the other items. 163. Psychological tests are used to
d. b and c only A promote self-understanding
e. a, b, and c are correct B measure psychological constructs
154. Positive correlations (from 0.01 to 1.00) indicate that, as C. Accurately describe the behaviour
one factor goes ________, the other factor goes __________. D. A and B
a. down, up E. all of the above
b. up, down 164. Spearman’s g refers to
c. up, up A. a method of factor analysis devised by Spearman
d. both a and b B Spearman’s theory of intelligence
e. All of the above C a statistic devised by Spearman as an index of
155. The more hot and humid the weather, the less clothing a intelligence
person wears is an example of: D the common element in all cognitive tests
a. moderate correlation 165. Wechsler based his concept of verbal and performance
b. low correlation scales on
c. negative correlation A the Army Alpha and Beta
d. high positive correlation B subscales from the Stanford-Binet test
e. no relationship C the ideas of mental age and chronological age
156. If a researcher calculated a correlation coefficient of r = D Spearman’s theory of intelligence
1.27 between two variables, you would conclude that there is 166. The Deviation IQ is based on the notion of
a(n): A delinquency as a factor affecting the development
a. very low correlation. of intelligence
b. high correlation. B mental age versus chronological age
c. moderately low positive correlation. C a z-score
d. error in the calculation D verbal versus performance scores
157. How can causality be demonstrated? 167. The first self-report test of personality was developed by
A) through correlation A McElwain
B) through an experiment B Simon
C) through inferential statistics C Terman
D) None of the answers are correct D Woodworth
158. Statistical significance refers to 168. The MMPI was designed to:
A) the probability that a research finding A screen soldiers during the Second World War
happened by chance B discriminate between normal and patient groups
B) the mean. with particular diagnoses
C) the measure of central tendency. C assess personality in normal adults
D) the measure of dispersion. D assess Multiphasic Personality Disorder
159. All of the following need to be considered when 169. ‘Empirical keying’ refers to
constructing a survey except A scoring a test based on its ability to discriminate
A) people do not always know themselves well between certain identifiable groups of people
enough to answer the questions. B scoring a test based on the theory of what is being
B) people may answer in a way that makes measured
them look good instead of honestly. C scoring a test using a scoring key made out of
C) making sure questions are clearly worded. cardboard in which small holes reveal the correct
D) generalizability of your one respondent to answers
your overall population. D empirically validating test scores via research
160. A researcher has found that students who sleep more in 170. Objective tests are objective because
class get lower grades on their exams. This is an example of A they are scored in a simple, straightforward manner
a(n) B scoring is heavily dependent on the judgment of the
A) positive correlation. scorer
B) independent variable. C different scorers are likely to produce the same test
C) negative correlation. score from the same test performance
D) dependent variable. D they are based on responses to ambiguous stimuli
161. A researcher has designed a study to test the effects of 171. Projective tests are not objective because
different types of individual psychotherapy on people's levels of A they are scored in a simple, straightforward manner
depression. She has randomly assigned people to one of three B scoring is heavily dependent on the judgment of the
groups: a cognitive-behavioral treatment group, a scorer
psychodynamic treatment group, or a no-treatment control C different scorers are likely to produce the same test
group. She then measures people's level of depression after score from the same test performance
the treatment. Which of the following statements is TRUE? D they are based on responses to ambiguous stimuli
A) The treatment group is the dependent 172. The Rorschach ink blot test was originally designed to
variable; depression is the independent variable. identify
B) Depression is the dependent variable; the A Freudian unconscious motivation
treatment group is the independent variable. B artistic ability
C) Depression is the dependent C schizophrenia
variable; cognitive-behavioral treatment is the D Jungian psychological types
independent variable. 173. Psychological assessment refers to
D) Cognitive-behavioral treatment is the A mental testing
dependent variable; depression is the B testing people using psychological tests
independent variable. C the high-level reasoning process involved in the
162. If a researcher is interested in the population of college application of psychological procedures
students at a large state university, which of the following D writing reports based on psychological test scores
would provide him or her with a random sample? 174. A teacher has found that students who listen more in
A) randomly approaching students in the class get higher grades on their quizzes. This is an example of
student union a(n)

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 A) positive correlation. d. going to see a reduction in quality.
B) independent variable. 186. If a police applicant is asked questions about her favorite
C) negative correlation. hobbies and religious beliefs, she may feel the test is not valid.
D) dependent variable. In this case, her impression demonstrates the importance of
175. .Conducting an in-depth interview of a single person with _________ validity.
a rare illness is an example of a. face
A) a correlational design. b. criterion
B) an experiment. c. construct
C) a survey. d. concurrent
D) a case study. 187. If test takers do not believe that items on a test measure
176. In the language of psychological testing and assessment, what they are supposed to measure then the test probably
scoring refers to assigning evaluative numbers, codes or lacks:
statements to performance on a. concurrent validity.
A. tests. b. construct validity.
B. tasks. c. criterion validity.
C. interviews. d. face validity.
D. All of these 188. The Taylor-Russell tables provide an estimate of the
177. Detailed information regarding how a particular test was ________ if an organization uses a test.
developed is typically found in: a. liability
A. a review of the test published in a journal. b. legal risk
B. the current test catalogue distributed by the test's c. percentage of successful employees
publisher. d. amount of money saved
C. the Standards for Educational and Psychological 189. A test predicts performance for one group of applicants
Tests. (e.g., men), but does not predict performance for another
D. the test manual. group of applicants (e.g., women). This exemplifies:
178. As used in the vocabulary of assessment professionals, a. utility.
protocol typically refers to b. differential validity.
A. the extent to which rapport has been established. c. known-group validity.
B. test forms. d. single-group validity.
C. how an assessor greets an assessee. 190. A test predicts performance for two different groups of
D. test fees. applicants (e.g., men and women); however, the test predicts
179. _____ refers to the degree to which an experimental the performance significantly better for men than it does for
design reflects the real-world issues it was meant to address. women. This exemplifies:
A) External validity a. differential validity.
B) Internal validity b. known-group validity.
C) Experimenter bias c. utility.
D) Operational definition d. single-group validity.
180. Researchers interested in health behavior postulate that 191. A review of a new personality test is published in a
people's decisions about their health are based on attitudes, journal. In that review, it would be reasonable to expect to find
subjective norms, and intentions. This is an example of information about:
A) a theory. A. the intelligence range of prospective test-takers.
B) a hypothesis. B. the psychometric soundness of the test
C) a correlational research design. C. what prompted the publisher to publish this test.
D) naturalistic observation. D. All of these
181. There are three major ways to determine whether a test 192. Which typically provides the most objective evaluation of
is reliable. With the __________ method, several people each a test?
take the same test twice. A. a published review of the test in a journal
a. dual reliability B. the publisher's test catalogue
b. test-retest reliability C. the Standards for Educational and Psychological
c. alternate forms reliability Tests
d. repeat reliability D. a manual of use for the test itself
182. When computing internal reliability, ________ is used for 193. A psychologist writing a journal article is looking for a
dichotomous items and ________ is used for interval and ratio critical review of an intelligence test that was published 4 years
items. ago. Which of the following sources would be BEST to consult?
a. K-R 20 / Spearman-Brown A. The Mental Measurements Yearbook
b. coefficient alpha / K-R 20 B. Tests inPrint
c. Spearman-Brown / coefficient alpha C. Psychological Assessment
d. K-R 20 / coefficient alpha D. Men's Health
183. __________ is the degree to which inferences from 194. A student taking a course entitled "Ancient History" is
scores on tests or assessments are justified by the evidence. administered a history test. Years later, data from this test is
a. Structural stability reviewed by assessment professionals who are preparing a
b. Validity case study on the test taker. In their report, the "Ancient
c. Reliability History" test is referred to as
d. Hypothesis A. a school ability test.
184.. A typing test was administered to 50 data-entry clerks at B. a school aptitude test.
a particular organization. There was a strong correlation C. a school achievement test.
between their scores on the typing test and their performance D. ancient history
as data-entry clerks. This type of correlational analysis refers 195. Of the following parties to the assessment enterprise,
most specifically to establishing: which group would be LEAST likely to have read the Standards
a. concurrent validity. A. test developers
b. criterion validity. B. test users
c. content validity. C. test takers
d. construct validity. D. test publishers
185. If a small police department uses a cognitive ability test 196. A psychological interview requires:
because a meta-analysis indicated cognitive ability is the best A. a face-to-face talk.
predictor of performance in the police academy, it is: B. direct, reciprocal communication.
a. using the Taylor-Russell method. C. the assessment of nonverbal behavior.
b. using validity generalization. D. meaningful eye contact
c. breaking the law. 197. Two tests purporting to measure personality may

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 A. contain entirely different kinds of items. C total scores need to be calculated from the sum of
B. differ in terms of demands on the test-taker. raw scores
C. be based on entirely different definitions of D item response theory suggests that many items
"personality." should be used
D. All of these 210. General aptitude tests are good measures of _____
198. A researcher is using a series of psychological tests to abilities, whereas general achievement tests are good
explore levels of perceived stress and loneliness in a retirement measures of _____ abilities
home for airline professionals. This research could best be A crystallised; fluid
described as a B fluid; crystallized
A. behavioral observation study. C cognitive; developmental
B. case study. D developmental; cognitive
C. quality of life study. 211. A take-home exam is a good example of
D. senior pilot study A aptitude assessment
199. Psychometrics may BEST be defined as B summative assessment
A. the science of test development. C achievement assessment
B. the science of psychological measurement. D formative assessment
C. the study and use of correlational techniques. 212. Local norms refer to
D. the study of psychic phenomena. A parent’s attitudes towards testing
200. A test is described as "paper-and-pencil." This is a B test norms developed for particular geographical
reference to regions
A. the tools needed for the evaluation. C local government policy on testing and assessment
B. a blueprint for the assessment procedure. D tests designed by a teacher for use in a particular
C. the format of the test. class
D. the test's item content 213. John received a z score of 0.5 on an exam. Peter
201. As used with reference to psychological tests, format received a T score of 60. What can we say about their relative
refers to performance on the exam?
A. the arrangement of test items. A. There is not enough information to compare John's
B. whether it can be administered by computer. and Peter's exam scores
C. the procedures used to obtain data. B. Peter received a higher raw score than John on the
D. All of these exam
202. Psychological testing C. John received a higher raw score than Peter on the
A. is typically lengthier than assessment. exam
B. may be one component of the process of D. The two test takers actually received the same
assessment. score on the exam
C. is characteristically broader in scope than 214. Age norms are synonymous with:
assessment. A. age-derived scores
D. tends to be less accurate than assessment B. standard scores
203. Psychological tests share commonalities. For example, C. none are correct
they all D. age-equivalent scores
A. include an analysis of a sample of behavior. 215. The type of sample that is convenient or available for use
B. include a naturally occurring behavior. is referred to as:
C. include paper-and-pencil and oral responses. A. ? a coincidental sample
D. All of these B. ? an incidental sample
204. The term psychometric soundness refers to the C. ? a random sample
A. the general psychiatric health of an assessee. D. ? a stratified sample
B. mental status of an individual during assessment. 216. Percentiles divide a distribution into ____________ equal
C. technical quality of a test or other tool of parts.
assessment. A. ? one hundred
D. competence of a defendant to stand trial. B. ? one thousand
205. A psychological test can become obsolete when C. ? ten
A psychological theory develops to render the basis of D. ? five
the test obsolete 217. A perfect correlation would be indicated by:
B society changes to render the content of items less A. ? + 1.00 or - 1.00
appropriate B. ? 0.00
C society changes to render the tests norms obsolete C. ? + 1.00
D all of the above D. ? - 1.00
206. Tests used as a sign of behaviour require 218. When assessing people with disabling conditions, an
A an inference from the observed behaviour to the examiner must do all of the following EXCEPT:
existence of an underlying disposition A. ? obtain certification in administering the test
B the direct performance of the behaviour of interest to members of a particular group
C a large sample of individual items B. ? transform the responses so they are
D the use of multiple symbols scorable
207. Human judgment is influenced by C. ? transform the test into a form that can be
A personal bias taken
B halo effects D. ? create an appropriate setting for the test
C errors of central tendency administration
D all of the above 219. A correlation coefficient equal to -.98 would indicate:
208. Contributed the concept of test reliability. A. ? a weak inverse relationship between the two
A Spearman variables
B Galton B. ? a weak direct relationship between the two
C Thompson variables
D Pearson C. ? a strong direct relationship between the two
209. Psychological tests are usually composed of a large variables
number of items because D. ? a strong inverse relationship between the two
A. any one item is usually influenced by a host of variables
factors apart from the psychological construct of interest
B it is better to measure many traits rather than just a 220. Which of the following is true of age norms? Age norms
few enjoy wide acceptance:

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 A. ? in the teen years, but decline in popularity with 230. Interpretations of criterion-referenced tests are typically
age made with respect to:
B. ? for both physical and psychological characteristics A. ? the material the examinee evidenced mastery of
C. ? for physical, but not psychological characteristics B. ? a comparison of the examinee's performance with
D. ? psychological, but not physical characteristics that of others who took the test
221. What is the relationship between the coefficient of C. ? the total number of items the examinee passed or
determination and the correlation coefficient? failed
A. ? the coefficient of determination is used to D. ? the total number of items the examinee
determine the coefficient of correlation responded to
B. ? the larger the correlation coefficient, the larger 231. Which is NOT an assumption that should be met in order
the coefficient of determination to use KR-21?
C. ? the larger the correlation coefficient, the more A. ? items should be dichotomous
variance can be attributed to error or chance B. ? items should be homogeneous
D. ? the larger the correlation coefficient, the smaller C. ? items should be of equal difficulty
the coefficient of determination D. ? items should be scored by the same scorer
222. A test is considered "standardized" if the test includes: 232. What type of reliability estimate is obtained by correlating
A. ? clearly specified procedures for scoring pairs of scores from the same person (or people) on two
B. ? clearly specified procedures for administration different administrations of the same test?
C. ? normative data A. ? parallel forms
D. ? all are correct B. ? none are correct
223. The actual raw score difference between the 50th and C. ? split-half
55th percentiles compared with the 90th and 95th percentiles D. ? test-retest
is likely to be: 233. Which of the following factors may influence a split-half
A. X cannot determine reliability estimate?
B. :-) smaller A. ? all are correct
C. ? the same B. ? anxiety
D. ? larger C. ? fatigue
224. The 20th percentile represents: D. ? item difficulty
A. ? the score at or below which 80% of the scores in 234. The standard error of measurement of a particular test of
the distribution fall anxiety is 8. A student earns a score of 60. What is the
B. ? that the examinees correctly answered 20% of confidence interval for this test score at the 95% confidence
the questions on the test level?
C. ? that the examinee correctly answered 80% of the A. ? 36-84
questions on the test B. ? 52-68
D. ? the score at or below which 20% of the scores in C. ? 44-76
the distribution fall D. ? 40-68
225. If the correlation coefficient is equal to .30, the 235. Test-retest reliability estimates would be least appropriate
coefficient of determination is equal to: for:
A. ? the sum of the deviations about the mean A. ? IQ tests
squared B. ? tests that measure moment-to-moment mood(s)
B. ? the square root of 3% C. ? tests that measure art aptitude
C. ? none are correct D. ? academic achievement tests on topics, such as
D. ? .30 ancient history
226. Which of the following is true of systematic error?
Systematic error: 236. Interpretations of criterion-referenced tests are typically
A. ? increases the reliability of a measure made with respect to:
B. ? insignificantly lowers the reliability of a measure A. ? the total number of items the examinee responded
C. ? has no effect on the reliability of a measure to
D. ? significantly lowers the reliability of a measure B. :-) the material the examinee evidenced mastery of
227. If the standard deviations of two tests are identical, but C. X the total number of items the examinee passed or
the reliability is lower for Test A as compared to Test B, then failed
the standard error of measurement will be ____________ for D. X a comparison of the examinee's performance with that
Test A as compared with Test B. of others who took the test
A. ? higher 237. Poorly worded items that cause students to differentially
B. ? the same respond to the same questions contribute to what type of error
C. ? lower or the same variance?
D. ? lower A. ? test-scoring and interpretation variance
B. ? content sampling
228. Christopher De Leon did not read and study Chapter 1 in C. ? content sampling and test-scoring and
the text until the night before an exam was given over interpretation variance
Chapters 1-5. Christopher amazed himself (and others) by D. ? test administration error
getting 90% of the items on the exam correct. As a budding 238. Computer-scorable items have virtually eliminated error
expert in tests and measurement, you might best explain variance, because of:
Christopher's success with reference to: A. ? item sampling
A. ? the concept of item sampling, especially as it B. ? test-takers' reactions to environmental variables
relates to whoever wrote the exam C. ? content sampling
B. ? all are correct D. ? scorer differences
C. ? the concept of error, especially as it relates to 239. Error variance for measures of inter-item consistency
whoever scored Christopher's exam comes from:
D. ? the concept of norming, especially as it relates to A. ? fatigue
members of the normative sample B. ? a test-taker practice effect
229. If items from a test are measuring the same trait, then C. ? heterogeneity of the content
estimates of reliability yielded from split-half methods will D. ? motivation
typically be ____________ compared with KR-20. 240. If a time limit is long enough to allow test-takers to
A. ? similar attempt all items, and if some items are so difficult that no
B. ? lower test-taker is able to obtain a perfect score, then the test is
C. ? higher referred to as a ____________ test.
D. ? exactly the same A. ? power
B. ? speed

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 C. ? valid 252. You administer a 100-item achievement test to 20
D. ? reliable students in which students earn 1 point for each correct
241. Which BEST conveys the meaning of an inter-scorer answer. You note one extreme score of 95. All the other
reliability estimate of .90? students score between 20 and 30. What measure of central
A. 90% of the variance in the scores assigned by the tendency would be most advisable to use?
scorers was attributed to true differences and 10% to A. ? average deviation
error B. ? the median
B. ? the test is stable C. ? the mode
C. ? 90% of the scores obtained are reliable D. ? the standard deviation
D. ? 10% of the variance in the scores assigned by the 253. What is the formula for the arithmetic mean computed
scorers was attributed to true differences and 90% to from a frequency distribution?
error A. ? “summation of fx” divided by N
242. A coefficient of correlation is calculated between Jerwin’s B. ? “summation of the absolute deviations” divided by
score on a test ofpsychopathy and a clinician's rating of Jerwin N
on the variable of pscyhopathy. This coefficient of correlation C. ? “summation of x” divided by N
might also be referred to as: D. ? none are correct
A. ? an index of reliability 254. T score is to 50 as:
B. ? a validity coefficient A. ? z score is to 10
C. ? an index of psychopathy B. ? percentile is to 100
D. ? none are correct C. ? stanine is to 5
243. Loss of appetite, sleep disturbance, and pessimism would D. ? stanine is to 9
likely be categories or items of the: 255. If a distribution of scores has a few extremely low scores
A) Schizotypal Personality Questionnaire and no corresponding high scores, which of the following
B) Beck Depression Inventory would be true?
C) Ego strength scale of the MMPI A. ? The mean would be smaller than the median
D) Hostility scale of the SCL-90 R B. ? The mean would be larger than the median
244. Raw scores may be converted to norms: C. ? The mean and the median would be equal
A. ? none are correct D. ? None are true—cannot be determined based on
B. ? all of the above information presented
C. ? so that the scores are more easily interpreted and 256. If the standard deviation of a set of test scores is equal
communicated to others to 3 , the variance is equal to:
D. ? so that scores from members of different groups A. ? 16
may be evaluated fairly B. ? 12
245. Deciles divide a distribution into ________ equal parts. C. ? 49
A. ? one hundred D. ? 9
B. ? five 257. If the results of an examination are positively skewed, the
C. ? none are correct exam questions were likely:
D. ? ten A. ? easy
246. The correlation coefficient that is frequently used when B. ? difficult
both sets of measurements are in rank-order form and when C. ? biased
fewer than 30 pairs of measurements are involved is called: D. ? It is impossible to know
A. ? the Chi Square 258. Arithmetic mean is to ________ as median is to
B. ? the ANOVA ________.
C. ? the Spearman rho A. ? semi-interquartile range; standard deviation
D. ? the Pearson r B. ? standard deviation; semi-interquartile range
247. Which of the following is true of multiple regression? C. ? variance; standard deviation
Multiple regression: D. ? dispersion; variance
259. Which of the following is TRUE of kurtosis?
A. ? is a technique that consistently will yield two or A. ? Computer programs provide an index of skewness
more regression lines between –2 and +3
B. ? always involves one IV and two or more DVs B. ? Computer program provide an index of skewness
C. ? is a technique that consistently will contain more between –1 and +1
error than simple regression C. ? Measurement specialists have not agreed on the
D. ? always involves one DV and two or more IVs measurement and interpretation of this concept
248. If you measured the number of children in each family in D. ? none are true
your research, which type of scale would you be using? 260. Approximately what percentage of scores in a normal
A. ? continuous distribution falls between the mean and 1 standard deviation
B. ? discrete above and below the mean?
C. ? interval A. ? 34%
D. ? none are correct B. ? 68%
249. Which is the most common type of scale used in C. ? 95%
psychological tests? D. ? none are correct
A. ? continuous 261. What is an advantage of T scores over z scores?
B. ? discrete A. ? z scores have no negative numbers
C. ? ratio B. ? T scores have no negative numbers
D. ? none are correct C. ? T scores are more precise
250. The type of scaling exemplified in the measurement of D. ? all are correct
temperature with a Fahrenheit thermometer is: 262. What is the primary advantage of normalization of a
A. ? continuous skewed distribution?
B. ? discrete A. ? greater validity
C. ? ratio B. ? easier comparability to other scales
D. ? interval C. ? greater reliability
251. In a grouped frequency distribution, D. ? eliminates negative numbers
A. ? the total of the frequency column is equal to the 263. The amount of time that passes between the presentation
total number of scores in the distribution of a word on a computer screen and the reading of a word by
B. ? test-score intervals replace the actual test scores a test taker involves measurement on which type of scale?
C. ? each test score must fall in only one test-score A. ? ordinal
interval B. ? ratio
D. ? all are correct C. ? interval

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 D. ? nominal
264. Psychological assessment instruments often employ an
ordinal scale because:
A. ? it can quantify categories such as ethnicity, sex,
and medical diagnoses
B. ? it contains equal intervals between numbers
C. ? it has an absolute zero point
D. ? it permits rank-ordering of scores
265. Intelligence test scores are required as interval-level
measurement, in part because:
A. ? the derived scores do not result from equal
intervals
B. ? the scores represent a precise unit of
measurement
C. ? it is not possible to receive a score of zero
D. ? a score of zero does not represent an absence of
intelligence
266. If the mean of a distribution is 7 and the standard
deviation is 2, what is the z score that is equivalent to a raw
score of 3?
A. 2 D. ? a test indicates that a client is not schizophrenic
B. -2
C. 3 277. A "construct" may be characterized as:
D. -6
267. If you were a personnel director working for Microsoft,
then which claim by a test publisher might persuade you to
purchase and use a new selection test?
A. ? the test improves the hit rate
B. ? the test identifies a large base rate
C. ? the test significantly improves workers' interest,
motivation, and output
D. ? the test identifies a large number of false
positives
268. Relating scores obtained on a tests to other test scores or
data from other assessment procedures is typically the kind of
evidence collected in an effort to establish the __________
validity of a test.
A. ? criterion-related
B. ? face
C. ? content
D. ? none are correct
269. What is the selection ratio for a position that has 100
applicants and 5 openings?
A. ? .05
B. ? .50
C. ? none are correct
D. ? .005
270. What type of validity evidence best sheds light on
whether a college admissions test is valid for selecting students
who will complete the program within four years?
A. ? predictive criterion-related
B. ? construct
C. ? concurrent criterion-related
D. ? content
271. In an expectancy table, the percentage of employees who
are currently successful in a position provides some indication
of:
A. ? the base rate of the proposed selection measure
B. ? the reliability of the proposed selection measure
C. ? the percent successful using current methods of
selection
D. ? the validity of the proposed selection measure
272. What factor is perhaps the most prominent in keeping
decision theory from being widely used in employee hiring?
A. ? the complexity of the process
B. ? the validity of the measures typically used
C. ? all are correct
D. ? the lack of demonstrated utility of decision theory
273. The form of criterion-related validity that reflects the
degree to which a test score relates to a criterion measure
obtained at the same time is known as:
A. ? concurrent validity
B. ? content validity
C. ? construct validity
D. ? predictive validity
274. An investigation of a test's construct validity may yield
evidence that:
A. ? the test does not correlate significantly with
another test purporting to measure the same
construct
B. ? all are correct
C. ? test scores increase as a function of age
D. ? the test is measuring a single construct
275. If a newly developed test that attempts to measure
morality correlates with other tests of morality , but not with
tests of agression this is referred to as ____________ and
____________ evidence of validity, respectively.
A. ? discriminant; convergent
B. ? homogeneous; concurrent
C. ? convergent; discriminant
D. ? concurrent; homogeneous
276. Which is an example of a false negative?
A. ? a normal individual feigns schizophrenia in order
to receive disability compensation
B. ? a test identifies a client as schizophrenic when the
client is not
C. ? a test correctly identifies a client as schizophrenic
when he or she is
A. ? something that is presupposed to exist
B. ? unobservable
C. ? something that describes behavior
D. All of the above
278. Which of the following affects the magnitude of a
validity coefficient?
A. ? attrition of the sample
B. ? inflation of range
C. ? restriction of range
D. ? all are correct
279. Dr. Jen announces that an exam will cover the topics of
reliability and validity. Frazier boasts that he will read and
study only the material on reliability. In fact, all the test
questions are only on reliability. You might best conclude that:
A. ? the exam lacked content validity
B. ? it is worth getting to know Frazier better
C. ? the exam lacked face validity
D. ? the exam lacked criterion-related validity
280. The form of criterion-related validity that reflects the
degree to which a test score relates to a criterion measure
obtained subsequently is known as:
A. ? construct validity
B. ? content validity
C. ? concurrent validity
D. ? predictive validity
281. A test identifies an individual as being incapable of
successfully performing a particular job when, in fact, the
individual would have been successful in the job. This
exemplifies what is meant by a:
A. ? false-negative
B. ? hit
C. ? false-positive
D. ? base rate
282. Which is NOT a method of evaluating the validity of a
test?
A. ? examining the test's content
B. ? relating test scores to the framework of a
theoretical construct
C. ? relating test scores to scores obtained on other
tests
D. ? examining the percentage of passing and failing
grades
283. Before constructing the final exam, your instructor
reviews the objectives of the course, the text, and lecture
notes. Your instructor is making an effort to maximize the
____________ validity of the exam.
A. ? predictive
B. ? content
C. ? none are correct
D. ? criterion-related
284. An index of utility can be distinguished from an index of
reliability and an index of validity in that an index of utility can
tell us something about:
A. ? none of these
B. ? how consistently a test measures what it
measures in a particular context
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 C. ? the practical value of the information derived from
what a test measures
D. ? whether a test measures what it purports to
measure in a particular context
285. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding cut
scores?
A. ? An instructor who assigns an “A” to the top 10%
of students in a class is using a fixed cut score
B. ? In multiple hurdle selection, there will be a cut
score for each predictor used in the selection process
C. ? Absolute cut scores are preferred when applicants
must demonstrate a minimum level of competence
D. ? The setting of cut scores impact utility though the
accuracy of decisions made based on test scores
286. Using a cut score of 50 on a predictor test a researcher
finds a base rate of 1.00. This means that when a cut score of
50 is used:
A. ? 50% of applicants will perform successfully on a
criterion measure
B. ? 100% of applicants will fail on a criterion measure
C. ? 50% of applicants will fail on a criterion measure
D. ? 100% of applicants will perform successfully on a
criterion measure
287. Which of the following is NOT an assumption of utility
analysis?
A. ? the value of people and their performance can be
estimated
B. ? large amounts of information can be integrated to
make good decisions
C. ? the performance of people in organizations can
affect organizational viability
D. ? psychological tests are always preferred over
other means of assessment
288. In what situation does an item-difficulty index of 1
occur?
A. ? all examinees evenly respond to the item correctly
and incorrectly
B. ? none are correct
C. ? all examinees answer the item correctly
D. ? all examinees answer the item incorrectly
289. The higher the item-reliability index,:
A. ? the higher the internal consistency of the test
B. ? the more likely the test-taker is to miss the item
C. ? the more likely the test developer is to eliminate
the item
D. ? the lower the internal consistency of the test
290. An item-difficulty index can range from ____________ to
____________.
A. ? .25; .75
B. ? 0; 1
C. ? 0; 100
D. ? .10; .99
291. When analyzing an item's discriminative abilities, the
test developer should compare:
A. ? the highest and lowest scorers on the test
B. ? the highest and middle scores on the test
C. ? the responses of people of different ages to the
item
D. ? the responses from various minority groups to the
item
292. If you were interested in developing a test for adapting
well to a college fraternity or sorority, and you began by
interviewing those who had graduated from college after
having been a member of a fraternity or sorority for at least
two years, then which stage of test development process
would this represent?
A. ? test construction
B. ? validity study
C. ? pilot work
D. ? standardization
293. Having a large number of items available in the item pool
during test revision is:
A. ? none are correct
B. ? often a waste of time, because many of the items
are eventually deleted
C. ? an advantage, because poor items can be deleted
in favor of the good items
D. ? a disadvantage due to the great expense of item
development
294. In comparing 3 or more groups regarding their scores,
which of the following statistical test should be used?
a. T-test
b. ANOVA
c. Pearson R
d. Multiple regression
295. Factor analysis can help the test developer:
A. ? none are correct
B. ? to eliminate or revise items that do not load on
the predicted factor
C. ? all are correct
D. ? to identify whether test items appear to be
measuring the same construct
296. Which best describes a "good" test item?
A. ? almost all test-takers respond correctly indicating
the item is well written
B. ? the item distinguishes high scorers from low
scorers
C. ? the correct answer cannot be guessed
D. ? almost all test-takers respond incorrectly,
indicating the item is a challenging item
297. A professor who asks a colleague to regrade a set of
essay questions is most likely attempting to address concerns
about:
A. ? content validity
B. ? test-retest reliability
C. ? rater reliability
D. ? criterion-related validity
298. Item Response Theory is a stricter model for test
construction than classical true score theory in that it
A specifies the parameters of the trace line
B requires more of the items in the test to conform to
the model
C uses a steeper trace line
D includes classical true score theory as a special case
10
299. The biserial correlation
A is another name for the point biserial correlation
B is a type of product moment correlation
C can be estimated from the item discrimination index
D can be estimated from the item reliability index
300. Which of the following is not true of individuals in the
control condition of an experiment?
A. They receive, or might receive, no treatment
B. They receive, or might receive, neutral treatment
C.They receive, or might receive, the experimental
treatment
D. They receive, or might receive, a placebo.
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