Open Mock Test-2 (Code-B)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

All India Aakash Test Series for NEET – 2022

OPEN MOCK TEST - 2 (Code-B)

Test Date : 19/06/2022

ANSWERS
1. (3) 41. (1) 81. (1) 121. (3) 161. (3)
2. (1) 42. (2) 82. (1) 122. (3) 162. (2)
3. (4) 43. (2) 83. (2) 123. (1) 163. (4)
4. (1) 44. (3) 84. (2) 124. (3) 164. (2)
5. (2) 45. (1) 85. (3) 125. (2) 165. (3)
6. (4) 46. (2) 86. (1) 126. (2) 166. (2)
7. (3) 47. (3) 87. (1) 127. (4) 167. (3)
8. (4) 48. (4) 88. (3) 128. (3) 168. (4)
9. (2) 49. (2) 89. (2) 129. (2) 169. (3)
10. (2) 50. (1) 90. (2) 130. (2) 170. (2)
11. (4) 51. (1) 91. (2) 131. (4) 171. (3)
12. (1) 52. (3) 92. (3) 132. (3) 172. (4)
13. (1) 53. (4) 93. (2) 133. (3) 173. (3)
14. (4) 54. (4) 94. (3) 134. (1) 174. (4)
15. (2) 55. (3) 95. (2) 135. (3) 175. (4)
16. (1) 56. (3) 96. (2) 136. (4) 176. (2)
17. (4) 57. (3) 97. (4) 137. (2) 177. (2)
18. (2) 58. (4) 98. (3) 138. (1) 178. (3)
19. (3) 59. (1) 99. (3) 139. (2) 179. (3)
20. (2) 60. (2) 100. (4) 140. (2) 180. (3)
21. (4) 61. (3) 101. (4) 141. (2) 181. (2)
22. (3) 62. (3) 102. (2) 142. (1) 182. (1)
23. (1) 63. (4) 103. (3) 143. (3) 183. (4)
24. (3) 64. (2) 104. (4) 144. (4) 184. (3)
25. (4) 65. (4) 105. (3) 145. (2) 185. (2)
26. (1) 66. (2) 106. (2) 146. (2) 186. (2)
27. (4) 67. (1) 107. (2) 147. (1) 187. (1)
28. (3) 68. (2) 108. (4) 148. (4) 188. (3)
29. (2) 69. (1) 109. (3) 149. (2) 189. (1)
30. (2) 70. (3) 110. (3) 150. (3) 190. (3)
31. (1) 71. (4) 111. (2) 151. (4) 191. (3)
32. (4) 72. (2) 112. (2) 152. (1) 192. (2)
33. (2) 73. (3) 113. (3) 153. (2) 193. (2)
34. (3) 74. (3) 114. (4) 154. (2) 194. (3)
35. (1) 75. (1) 115. (3) 155. (2) 195. (1)
36. (1) 76. (3) 116. (2) 156. (3) 196. (3)
37. (2) 77. (3) 117. (3) 157. (2) 197. (3)
38. (4) 78. (2) 118. (1) 158. (1) 198. (2)
39. (3) 79. (3) 119. (2) 159. (3) 199. (4)
40. (1) 80. (3) 120. (3) 160. (3) 200. (3)
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Open Mock Test-2 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

[PHYSICS]
 
SECTION-A | A × B=| AB sin θ
1. Answer (3)  
|A⋅B|
Hint & Sol.: Power = Intensity × Area Sol.: cos θ =
AB
= 15 × 4 = 60 W  
|A×B|
2. Answer (1) sin θ =
AB
Hint & Sol.: The band gap in germanium and
So, given expression is
silicon in eV are 0.7 and 1.1 respectively.
sin2θ + cos2θ = 1
3. Answer (4)
6. Answer (4)
N0
Hint: N =
2n Hint & Sol.: 29.68 → as digit to be dropped is
greater than five. Thus the preceding digit is
n : number of half lives
increased by one.
N0 N0
Sol.: =
N = 3.762 → as digit to be dropped is less than five.
23 8
Thus the preceding digit is left unchanged.
N0 – N
Decayed fraction : So numbers are reported as 29.7 and 3.76
N0
7. Answer (3)
N0
N0 – (F /A)
= 8 Hint: Y =
N0 ( ∆l /l )

7 1
= Energy = stress × strain × volume
8 2

4. Answer (1) Stress Stress Mg

Sol.:
= Y ⇒ Strain = =
Strain Y AY
Hint: For closed organ pipe
nv 1 Mg Mg
f = ⇒ Energy = × × × Al
nth harmonic 4l 2 A AY

For open organ pipe M 2g 2l

=
nv 2 AY
f =
nth harmonic 2l 8. Answer (4)
Sol.: Second overtone of open pipe is equal to ∆Q kA∆T
third harmonic Hint: =
∆t L
v 3v
so, =  ∆Q   ∆Q 
4l 2l0 Sol.:   = 
 ∆t C → A  ∆t B → C
⇒ l0 = 6l
kA (TC – 20) kA (100 – TC )
5. Answer (2) ⇒ =
  3L L
Hint: | A ⋅ =
B | AB cos θ
⇒ TC = 80°C

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 Open Mock Test-2 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

9. Answer (2) 15. Answer (2)

Hint & Sol.: For adiabatic compression nλD
Hint: ymax =
∆Q = 0, ∆W < 0 d
Also ∆Q = ∆U + ∆W λD
ymin = (n – 1/2)
⇒ ∆U = – ∆W > 0 d

10. Answer (2) λD

Sol.: yI max =
Hint: As per Kepler’s law T2 ∝ R3 d

Sol.: T2 ∝ R3  1  λ D 5λ D
=
yIII min =3– 
 2 d 2d
T′2 ∝ (2R)3
T ′  3/2 5λ D λ D 3λ D
⇒ = (=
2) 2 2 =∆y = –
T  2d d 2d
 
11. Answer (4) 3 × λ (2D )  3λ D 
∆y ′ = =4   = 4 ∆y
Hint: Use equation of continuity 2(d /2)  2d 
Sol.: A1v1 + A2v2 = A3v3 16. Answer (1)
⇒ 2A + 5 × (2A) = v(3A)  A + δm 
sin  
⇒ v = 4 m/s Hint: µ =  2 
A
12. Answer (1) sin  
2
Z2
Hint: T.E. = −13.6  60° + δm 
n2 sin  
 2 
Sol.: For 1st excited state of singly ionised He- Sol.: 2=
sin (60°/2)
atom
(n = 2, Z = 2) On solving, δm = 30°
⇒ T.E. = –13.6 eV = E Also, δm = 2i – A = 2i – 60° = 30°
U ⇒ i = 45°
Also T.E. = = −K.E.
2
17. Answer (4)
⇒ K.E. = –E and U = 2E
Hint & Sol.: Inside a uniformly charged spherical
13. Answer (1) shell, the electric field is zero in electrostatic
P P condition.
=
Hint: I =
area 4πr 2 18. Answer (2)
16π Hint: a = µg
Sol.: I =
4π(100)2 Sol.: a = µg = 0.2 × g = 2 m/s2
= 4 × 10–4 W/m2 Final speed of block = 10 m/s
14. Answer (4) 10 = 2 × t ⇒ t = 5 s
dW Distance travelled w.r.t. ground
Hint: Power =
dt
1 2 1
= at = × (2)(5)2 =
25 m
dW d (4t 2 ) 2 2
Sol.:=
P =
dt dt 19. Answer (3)
⇒ P = 8t
1
At t = 2 s, P = 16 W Hint: < u >= ε E2
2 0 rms

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Open Mock Test-2 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)

2 Sol.: At height h = R
1  20 
Sol.: < u >= ε0  
2  2 g g
=g′ =
2 4
(1 + R /R )
8.85 × 10 –12
= × 200 mg ′ 1
2 = ⇒ mg =4 × mg ′
mg 4
= 8.85 × 10–10 J/m3
= 960 N
20. Answer (2)
25. Answer (4)
Vrms
Hint: irms = Hint & Sol.: In case of motion of charged particle
Z
in magnetic field, kinetic energy remain same. The
Sol.:
= Z R 2 + ( X L – XC )2 velocity and linear momentum, however keeps on
changing.
Z=22 + (4 – 2)2 =
2 2Ω 26. Answer (1)
1  1 1 
220/ 2 220 Hint & Sol.: P = = (µ − 1)  − 
⇒ i= = = 55 A f
rms
2 2 4  R1 R2 

21. Answer (4) • R1 and R2 remains unchanged when cut along

principal axis.
Hint & Sol.: This is an OR gate
• When biconvex lens is cut perpendicular to
A B Y principal axis radius of curvature becomes
infinity on the surface which is cut.
0 0 0
27. Answer (4)
0 1 1
13.6 nh
Hint: En =
− eV and L =
1 0 1 2 2π
n
1 1 1 –13.6
Sol.: −3.4 = ⇒ n2 = 4 ⇒ n = 2
n2
22. Answer (3)
nh h 3h
B ⇒ L= = =
Hint: tanδ = V 2π π 3 π
BH
28. Answer (3)
B 3 Hint: Use current division rule in parallel
Sol.: tan(37°) = V ⇒ Bv = 0.2 ×
0.2 4 combination of resistors
3 Sol.: Simplified circuit diagram.
⇒ B=
v = 0.15 G
20
23. Answer (1)
Hint & Sol.: For each degree of freedom, average
1
thermal kinetic energy is equal to kBT
2
(irrespective of atomicity)
inet = 2 A + 2 A = 4 A
24. Answer (3)
3
g Rnet = 2 + 1 + = 4.5 Ω
Hint: g ′ = 2
(1 + h /R )2
V = inet Rnet = 4 × 4.5 = 18 V

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 Open Mock Test-2 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

29. Answer (2) 34. Answer (3)

Hint: Parallel and series combination of capacitors. Hint: Galileo law of old numbers.

Sol.: Three 3 µF capacitors are in series and their Sol.: h1 : h2 : h3 = 1 : 3 : 5

equivalent combination is in parallel to 1 µF ⇒ h1 = x, h2 = 3x, h3 = 5x

capacitor h
Given, h1 + h2 = h ⇒ 4x = h ⇒ x =
4
3
Cnet = + 1 = 2 µF 5h
3 ⇒ 3 5=
h= x = 1.25h
4
30. Answer (2)
35. Answer (1)
Hint: At centre of mass, moment of inertia is
∆V ∆r
minimum. Hint: = 3×
V r
Sol.: I = 8x2 – 4x + 2
4 3
Sol.: V= πr
For minimum moment of inertia, 3
dI ∆V ∆r
= 16=x–4 0 =3
dx V r
1 ∆V
⇒ x= = 0.25 m × 100 =3 × 1.5 =4.5%
4 V
31. Answer (1) SECTION-B

l 36. Answer (1)

Hint: T = 2π Hint & Sol.: ∆v = area of a-t graph
g eff
1
v −0 = × 20 × 2
l 2
Sol.: Case 1: T = 2π
g v = 20 m/s
37. Answer (2)
l 2  l 
Case 2: T ′ =
2π =  2π  Hint: P = σAT4
g – g /4 3 g 
4 4
P2  T2   273 + 273 
2 2 =
Sol.: =   
∴ T ′= T= × 6= 4 3 s P1  T1   273 
3 3
= 24 = 16
= 6.93 s
⇒ P2 = 16P
32. Answer (4)
38. Answer (4)
Hint & Sol: A vector can be resolved into infinite Hint & Sol.: Vertical height of water column
number of components. remains same.
33. Answer (2) l sin37° = h = 6

d 2x d 2y 5
⇒ I =6× =10 cm
Hint: ax
= = and ay 3
dt 2 dt 2
39. Answer (3)
d 2 (4t 2 ) d  d (4t 2 )  2 2
=
Sol.: ax = =  8 m/s Hint: I = mR 2
dt 2 
dt  dt   5
2
d 2 (8t ) d  d (8t )  m1R12
=ay = =  0 I1 5
dt 2 dt  dt  Sol.: =
I2 2
m R2
So, a = 8 m/s2 5 2 2

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Open Mock Test-2 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)

m1R12 1
= dnet = d1 + d2 = g (0.72 + 0.32 )
2
m2R22
= 2.9 m
4 
δ  π R13  R12 43. Answer (2)
3
=  
Hint & Sol.
4 3 2
δ  πR2  R2
3  • Diode and half wave rectifier will trim half of
the current
5
R  1
⇒  1 =
R
 2 x5
40. Answer (1)
 
Hint: W
= ∫F ⋅d r

r dxiˆ + dyjˆ
Sol.: d= T I

Irms  0 to  = 0
(0, 2)  2 2
=W ∫ ( xy 2dx + yx 2dy )
T 
(1, 2) Irms  toT  = 0
2 
(0, 2) 0, 2
d(x2y 2 )  x2y 2  2
= = ∫ 2  
 2 1, 2
 I0 
  +0
2
(1, 2)
⇒ Irms (0 to T ) =  2
=0–2=–2J 2
41. Answer (1) I0
=
dx dv 2
Hint:
= v = ,a
dt dt • Full wave rectifier and resistor will not trim the
F = ma I
current so, Irms = 0 .
2
dx
Sol.: =
v = 3t 2 – 24
dt 44. Answer (3)

dv kQ
Now,=
a = 6t Hint: E =
dt r2
F = ma = 4 × 6t = 24t 9 × 109 × Q
Sol.: E
= = 4
At t = 2 s 0.42
F = 24 × 2 = 48 N ⇒ Q = 7.11 × 10–11 C
42. Answer (2) 45. Answer (1)
Hint: Motion under gravity Hint: Series and parallel combination of
Sol.: resistances
2 × 6 12 3
Sol.: RAB= = = Ω
2+6 8 2

4×4
RAC= = 2Ω
4+4

RAB 3
∴ = = :2 3:4
RAC 2

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 Open Mock Test-2 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

46. Answer (2) 49. Answer (2)

2πm 12.27
Hint & Sol.: T = Hint: For electron λ = Å
qB V
Thus T ∝ v0 Sol.: Initial Energy of electron is 120 eV,
47. Answer (3) i.e. accelerated through a potential difference of
120 V.
Ldi
Hint: e =
dt 12.27 12.27
=λ =
120 + 49 169
(6 – (–2))
Sol.: 2= L ×
10 12.27
= = 0.94 Å
8 13
⇒ 2= L ×
10 50. Answer (1)
20 Hint & Sol.: From color coding of carbon resistors
⇒ =
L = 2.5 H
8
Red → 2
48. Answer (4)
Green → 5
f
Hint & Sol.: For a lens, m = Blue → 6
f +u
Silver → 10%
10
⇒ −2 =
10 + u So, R = 25 × 106 Ω ± 10%

⇒ 10 + u = – 5 ⇒ u = – 15 cm = 2.5 × 107 Ω ± 10%

[CHEMISTRY]
SECTION-A S has 4 bond pairs and 1 lone pair in SCl4
therefore, shape of SCl4 molecule is see-saw
51. Answer (1)
● BrF3
Hint: Shape of molecule depends on total number
of electron pairs present on central atom.
Sol.:
● PCl3

Br has 3 bond pairs and 2 lone pairs in BrF3

therefore, shape of BrF3 molecule is bent
T-shaped
P has 3 bond pairs and 1 lone pair in PCl3 ● XeF4
therefore, shape of PCl3 molecule is pyramidal
● SCl4

Xe has 4 bond pairs and 2 lone pairs in XeF4

therefore, shape of XeF4 molecule is square
planar

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Open Mock Test-2 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)

52. Answer (3) 57. Answer (3)

Hint: Tensile strength of fibres are very high Hint: Only primary amines give carbylamine
Sol.: reaction

● Polythene, polystyrene and polyvinyl chloride Sol.: Carbylamine reaction:

are thermoplastic polymer ● R – NH2 + CHCl3 + 3KOH →
● Polyester (terylene) is a fibre R – NC + 3KCl + 3H2O
53. Answer (4) ● (CH3)3C – NH2 + CHCl3 + 3KOH→
Hint: In XX3′ , the oxidation state of larger halogen (CH3)3C – NC + 3KCl + 3H2O
(i.e. X) is +3 while of smaller halogen (i.e. X′) is –1 58. Answer (4)

Sol.: XX3′ + 2H2O → 3HX′ + HXO2 Hint: Zone refining is used when impurities are
Halous more soluble in the melt than in the solid state of
acid
the metal.
54. Answer (4) Sol.:
nC 1 (VCO2 )STP ● Distillation is useful for low boiling metals like
Hint: = ×
nH 2 (VH2O )STP Zn and Hg
● Zone refining is useful for producing high
nC 11.2 1
Sol.:  = × purity semiconductor and other metals
nH 16.8 2
● Chromatography is very useful for purification
1 of the elements which are available in minute
=
3 quantities

∴ Empirical formula of hydrocarbon is ● Electrolytic refining can be used for Zn and Cu

C1H3 or CH3 59. Answer (1)
55. Answer (3) Hint: SCN– ion is an ambidentate ligand
Hint: Angle of rotation about C – C bond is known Sol.:
as torsional or dihedral angle. ● SCN– ion can coordinate through either
Sol.: Of all conformations of ethane, the staggered sulphur or nitrogen atom.
form has maximum torsional angle and eclipsed
●
form has least torsional angle.
Order of torsional angle : Staggered > Skew >
Eclipsed
56. Answer (3) (EDTA) ion is hexadentate ligand
Hint: All alkaline earth metal nitrate decompose on ● NO2– can coordinate through nitrogen or
heating to give NO2 gas
oxygen atom
Sol.:
∆
● 4LiNO3  → 2Li2O + 4NO2 + O2
● , is didentate ligand.
∆
● 2Ca(NO3 )2 → 2CaO + 4NO2 + O2
∆
● 2Ba(NO3 )2  → 2BaO + 4NO2 + O2 60. Answer (2)
∆ 1 Hint & Sol: Chloramphenicol is a broad spectrum
● KNO3  → KNO2 + O2
2 antibiotic while penicillin G has a narrow spectrum.

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 Open Mock Test-2 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

61. Answer (3) 65. Answer (4)

Hint: Reduction and oxidation of same species Hint: Higher temperature range of blast furnace is
simultaneously is known as disproportionation 900-1500 K.
reaction.
Sol.:
–1 −2 0
Sol.: H2 O2 → H2 O + O2 ● At 500-800 K (lower temperature range in the
blast furnace)
62. Answer (3)
Hint: Alkoxides are strong bases along with strong
3Fe2O3 + CO → 2Fe3 O4 + CO2
nucleophile. Fe3 O4 + 4CO → 3Fe + 4CO2
Sol.: The major product of the given reaction is
2-Methylprop-1-ene. Elimination reaction Fe2O3 + CO → 2FeO + CO2
predominates over substitution
● At 900-1500 K (Higher temperature range in
the blast furnace)
C + CO2 → 2CO

FeO + CO → Fe + CO2
63. Answer (4) 66. Answer (2)
Hint: Alcohols and ethers are functional group Hint: In end-centred unit cell, constituent particles
isomers of each other are present at all the corners and at centre of any
Sol.: two opposite faces.
 CH4 O : CH3OH only Sol.: Orthorhombic and monoclinic systems
contain end-centred unit cells.
 C4 H10 O :
67. Answer (1)
C2H5 – O – C2H5, C4H9 – OH
Hint: ∆Tf = iKf.m
 C3H8 O :
0.1 4
C2H5 – O – CH3, C3H7 – OH Sol.: ( ∆Tf )NaCl =2 × K f × × 1000 = K f
250 5
 C2H6 O :
0.1 6
( ∆Tf )CaCl2 =3 × K f × × 1000 = K f
CH3 – O – CH3, C2H5 – OH 250 5
64. Answer (2)
0.1
( ∆Tf )Ca3 (PO4 )2 =5 × K f × × 1000 =2K f
Hint: ∆H = (Ea)f – (Ea)b 250
Sol.: ∆H = 4.2 – 6.4 = –2.2 kJ mol–1
4
T1 =
(Tf )NaCl =
–( ∆Tf )NaCl =
– Kf
 Given reaction is exothermic 5
∴ In exothermic reaction, potential energy of –6
T2 =
(Tf )CaCl2 =
–( ∆Tf )CaCl2 = Kf
reactant will be greater than potential energy 5
of product
T3 =
(Tf )Ca3 (PO4 )2 =
–( ∆Tf )Ca3 (PO4 )2 =
–2K f

Freezing point order : T1 > T2 > T3

68. Answer (2)
Hint: For the salt of weak acid and weak base
pK b pK a
=pH 7 – +
2 2

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Open Mock Test-2 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)

Sol.: pKa = 3.74, pKb = 4.75 74. Answer (3)

4.75 3.74 1 °
pH
= 7– + = 6.49 Hint: Λ°mCH3COOH = Λm (CH3COO)2 Ca
2 2 2
69. Answer (1) 1 °
– Λm (CaCl2 ) + Λ°m (HCl)
c 2
Hint: ν =
λ Sol.: Using Kohlrausch’s Law
Sol.: λ = 5800 Å = 5800 × 10 –10
m 200.8 271.6
Λ°mCH3COOH= – + 426.16
c 3 × 108 ms –1 2 2
ν= = = 5.172 × 1014 s –1
λ 5800 × 10 –10 m = 390.76 S cm2 mol–1
= 5.172 × 1014 Hz 75. Answer (1)
70. Answer (3) Hint: Cheilosis is fissuring at corners of mouth and
Hint: Halogenation of alkanes is supposed to lips.
proceed via free radical mechanism. Sol.: Cheilosis is caused due to deficiency of
Sol.: Rate of reaction of alkanes with halogens is vitamin B2.
F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 76. Answer (3)
71. Answer (4) Hint: Methyl ketones in presence of dilute alkali
Hint: Numbering should be done in such a way undergoes aldol condensation.
that double bond and substituents get lowest Sol.:
number possible

Sol.:

2,6- Dimethyldec -3-ene

72. Answer (2)
Hint: Cl2 water on standing forms HCl and HOCl
Sol.:
● Due to the conversion of Cl2 into HCl and
HOCl, it loses its yellow colour.
77. Answer (3)
 HOCl so formed gives nascent oxygen which
is responsible for bleaching properties of Cl2. Hint: At 1200 K, BeCl2 exists as a linear monomer.
73. Answer (3) Sol.: In BeCl2, Hybridisation of Be is sp and
number of electrons around Be is 4
Hint: Lanthanoids and actinoids are metallic in
nature. Cl – Be – Cl
Sol.: 78. Answer (2)
● Due to metallic nature, lanthanoid hydroxides Hint: Alkanes on heating with a regulated supply
are basic in nature. of dioxygen at high pressure and in presence of
 Actinoids are highly reactive metals. suitable catalyst gives various oxidation products.
● Due to high reactivity, lanthanoids reacts Mo O
Sol: CH4 + O2 
2 3
∆
→ HCHO+ H2O
Methanal
rapidly in air.
 Ce4+/Ce3+ can oxidise water but the reaction 79. Answer (3)
rate is very slow hence Ce(IV) is a good Hint & Sol: Terrestrial hydrogen contains
analytical reagent. 0.0156% of deuterium in the form of HD

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80. Answer (3) Sol.:

Hint: B2H6.2NH3 can be written as ● R – X + R′ONa → R – O – R′
[BH2(NH3)2]+[BH4]– (Williamson synthesis)

Sol.: 3B2H6 + 6NH3 → 3[BH2(NH3)2]+[BH4]–

●
Heat
→ 2B3N3H6 + 12H2
81. Answer (1)
Hint: H = U + PV
Sol.:  H = U + PV ●

H = U + nRT [ PV = nRT]
87. Answer (1)
∴ ∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT
82. Answer (1) Hint: k = Ae –Ea /RT

Hint: Tyndall effect is shown by colloidal solutions. Sol.: k = Ae –Ea /RT

Sol.: Among the given options except urea all are Ea  1 
Ink
= InA −
colloidal solutions therefore urea solution being a R  T 
true solution does not show Tyndall effect. Y = C + mX
83. Answer (2) –Ea 1
∴ slope m = for plot of In k vs
Hint: At constant pressure, V ∝ T R T
Sol.: According to Charles’ law 88. Answer (3)
Hint: In vigorous oxidation of alkyl benzene with
nR
V = KT where K is proportionality constant = alkaline potassium permanganate, the entire chain
P is oxidised to the carboxylic group
Therefore lesser is the pressure, greater is the
slope of V-T graph Sol.:
84. Answer (2)
Hint: Mn+ has 4s13d5 outer electronic
configuration.
Sol.: Conversion of Mn+ into Mn2+ involves
removal of electron from 4s1 therefore exchange
energy remains same in Mn+ and Mn2+ ions. 89. Answer (2)
85. Answer (3) Hint: Protection of -NH2 group is done by
Hint: Ratio of number of atoms in closed packed acetylation reaction
lattice to tetrahedral voids = 1 : 2.
Sol.: Each HCP unit cell contains 6 atoms Sol.:
therefore, number of tetrahedral voids will be 12.

SECTION-B

86. Answer (1)

NaOH
Hint: RCOONa 
CaO
→R − H
∆

Decarboxylation reaction

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Open Mock Test-2 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)

90. Answer (2) ● Excess nitrate (> 50 ppm) in drinking water

Hint: For isoelectronic ionic species, ionic radii can cause methemoglobinemia
decreases with increase in atomic numbers. ● Excess fluorides (> 2 ppm) in drinking water
can causes brown mottling of teeth
Sol.: Ionic radii : O2− > F – > Mg2+ > Al3 +
95. Answer (2)
Greater the negative charge, larger is the ionic
1
radii. Hint: Bond order = (nBMO – nABMO )
2
91. Answer (2)
Sol.:
o
Hint: PA = PA x A  π 2 p  π* 2 p
2 1
● O2+ (15e− ) =
σ1s 2 , σ* 1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ* 2s 2 , σ2 pz2  x2  * x0
PB = PBo xB π2 p yπ 2p
 y

Sol.: P= PAo x= P= PBo xB 1

A A B BO = (10 – 5) = 2.5
2
x A PBo
=
( )  π2 p  π 2 p 2 1
● O2 16e – =
*
σ1s 2 , σ* 1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ* 2s 2 , σ2 pz2  x2  * 1x
xB PAo  π 2 py
 π 2 py

nA PBo 100 2 1
= = = BO = (10 – 6) = 2
nB PAo 250 5 2

92. Answer (3)  π2 p  π 2 p 2 * 2

● O2– (17e− ) =
σ1s 2 ,σ* 1s 2 ,σ2s 2 ,σ* 2s 2 ,σ2 pz2  x2  * 1x
π 2 py π 2 py
 
Hint: pSO2 = PTotal .x SO2
1
BO = (10 – 7) = 1.5
w w 2
=
Sol.: nSO2 = , nCH4
64 16
● O22– (18e− ) =  π2 p  π 2 p
2 * 2
σ1s 2 , σ* 1s 2 , σ2s 2 , σ* 2s 2 , σ2 pz2  x2  * x2
w π2 p π 2p
y  y

nSO2 64 1
x SO2
= = = 1
nSO2 + nCH4 w w 5 BO = (10 – 8) = 1
+ 2
64 16
96. Answer (2)
1
pSO2 = PTotal .x SO2 = 10 × = 2atm Hint: Given reaction is iodoform reaction
5
93. Answer (2) Sol.:
0.0591 [Mg2+ ]
Hint: Ecell = Eocell – log
2 [Cu2+ ] 97. Answer (4)

0.0591 (0.001) Hint: H-X bond dissociation enthalpy decreases

Sol.: Ecell = 2.7 – log = 2.729 down the group in hydrogen halide.
2 (0.01)
Sol.: Weaker is the H-X bond, stronger is the
J 2.73 V
acidic character.
94. Answer (3) Acidic character order : HF < HCl < HBr < HI
Hint: Methemoglobinemia is blue baby syndrome 98. Answer (3)
Sol.: Hint: NaBH4 cannot reduce ester group to alcohol
● Excessive sulphate (> 500 ppm) in drinking Sol.:
water causes laxative effect
● Excess lead (> 500 ppb) in drinking water can
cause kidney damage

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 Open Mock Test-2 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

99. Answer (3)

Hint: [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O is a hydrate isomer of
[Cr(H2O)6]Cl3
Sol.:
● Square planar complexes of formula MX2L2 (X
and L are unidentate ligands) show cis and
trans isomerism ● [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br are
ionisation isomers of each other
100. Answer (4)
Hint: For spontaneous process ∆G should be
negative.
● Octahedral complexes of formula [Ma3b3] can
Sol.: If ∆H < 0 and ∆S < 0 then ∆G will be negative
show facial and meridional isomerism
only at low temperature.

[BOTANY]
SECTION-A 104. Answer (4)
Hint: Middle layers are ephemeral.
101. Answer (4)
Sol.: Tapetum provides nourishment to
Hint: Colourblindness and haemophilia are X- developing pollen grains.
linked recessive disorders. 105. Answer (3)
Sol.: Hint: Hydra reproduces mainly through budding.
Sol.: Penicillium reproduces through conidia
Xh X
formation.
Xc XcXh XcX 106. Answer (2)
Hint: Life span of crocodile is 60 years.
Y XhY XY
Sol.: Life span of crow is 15 years.
XcXh – Carrier female for both disorders 107. Answer (2)
XcX – Carrier female for colourblindness Hint: In monoecious plants, ethylene may change
X Y – Haemophilic son
h the sex of developing flowers.
Sol.: Ethylene promotes the female flowers in
XY – Normal son
cucumber.
102. Answer (2) 108. Answer (4)
Hint: Phenylketonuria, colourblindness and Hint: ABA is also known as stress hormone.
thalassemia are Mendelian disorders. Sol.: ABA induces the closure of stomata.
Sol.: ABO blood group exemplifies multiple 109. Answer (3)
allelism and co-dominance both. Hint: OAA is a 4 carbon compound.
103. Answer (3) Sol.: First stable product in C4 plant i.e.,
sugarcane is OAA.
Hint: During eutrophication, DO level of water
110. Answer (3)
decreases.
Hint: 6 CO2 molecules are required to form 1
Sol.: Due to nutrient enrichment in water, ageing glucose molecule.
of lake occurs and process is called
Sol.: For production of 6 glucose molecules, 36
eutrophication. CO2 molecules will be used.

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Open Mock Test-2 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)

111. Answer (2) 118. Answer (1)

Hint.: Jan Ingenhousz showed that in presence of Hint: Pollen grains are found in gymnosperms and
sunlight it is only the green parts of the plants that angiosperms.
could release oxygen. Sol.: All gymnosperms and angiosperms have
Sol.: Jan Ingenhousz through his experiments diplontic life cycle. Fucus also shows diplontic life
showed that sunlight is essential for the plant cycle.
process that helps to somehow purify the air fouled
119. Answer (2)
by breathing mouse and burning candle.
Sol.: Selaginella is a member of class Lycopsida.
112. Answer (2)
120. Answer (3)
Hint: Cytochrome ‘C’ oxidase is complex IV.
Hint: Chlorophyceae has chl a and b as major
Sol.: Oxygen receives the electrons from complex
pigments.
IV and combines with protons to form metabolic
water. Sol.: Members of Rhodophyceae store food in the
form of floridean starch.
113. Answer (3)
121. Answer (3)
Hint: NADH + H+ is formed during conversion of
isocitrate to oxalosuccinic acid. Hint: Phellogen is called cork cambium.
Sol.: GTP is formed during the conversion of Sol.: Secondary cortex is also known as
Succinyl-CoA to succinic acid. phelloderm.
114. Answer (4) 122. Answer (3)
Hint: Rhizobium forms nodules in leguminous Hint: Parenchyma forms major part of various
plants organs in plants.
Sol.: Frankia forms nodules in non-legume plants Sol.: Companion cells are present in
such as Alnus. angiosperms.
115. Answer (3) 123. Answer (1)
Hint: Rhizobium is a nitrogen fixing bacteria. Hint: Parenchyma helps in photosynthesis,
Sol.: storage and secretion.
• Nitrosomonas/Nitrococcus oxidises ammonia Sol.: Sclerenchyma consists of long and narrow
to nitrites. cells with thick and lignified cell wall.
• Nitrobacter/Nitrocystis oxidises nitrite to 124. Answer (3)
nitrate. Hint: Scutellum is a large, shield shaped
116. Answer (2) cotyledon.
Hint: Breakdown of detritus by detritivores into Sol.: Scutellum is mainly seen in monocot seeds.
smaller particles is known as fragmentation. 125. Answer (2)
Sol.: Catabolism is carried out by saprotrophic Hint: Leaves in guava arise in pair at each node
bacteria and fungi. They secrete digestive and lie opposite to each other.
enzymes over the fragmented detritus. The
enzyme change complex organic compound into Sol.: China rose and mustard show alternate
simple compound. phyllotaxy.

117. Answer (3) 126. Answer (2)

Hint: Facilitated diffusion requires special Hint: Herbarium is used as quick referral system
membrane proteins. for plants.

Sol.: Facilitated diffusion occurs along the Sol.: Museum has collection of preserved plants
concentration gradient. and animals.

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 Open Mock Test-2 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)
127. Answer (4)
Hint: Sapindales is the order which includes the
members of family Anacardiaceae.
Sol.: Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae
included in order Polymoniales.
128. Answer (3)
Hint: Deuteromycetes are known as ‘imperfect
fungi’.
Sol.: Puccinia and Ustilago belong to
basidiomycetes. Claviceps is a sac-fungi.
Trichoderma is a member of deuteromycetes.
129. Answer (2)
Hint: Diatoms are chief producers of oceans.
Sol.: Cell wall of diatoms is impregnated with
silica.
130. Answer (2)
Hint: Habitat loss and fragmentation is the major
cause driving animals and plants to extinction.
Sol.: Passenger pigeon became extinct mainly
due to overexploitation.
131. Answer (4)
Hint: Bt toxin is produced by Bacillus
thuringiensis.
Sol.: B. thuringiensis is of insecticidal application.
132. Answer (3)
Hint: During Metaphase-I, bivalent chromosomes
align themselves on the equatorial plates.
Sol.: Double metaphasic plates are formed in
Metaphase-I.
133. Answer (3)
Hint: Mitochondria is double membrane bound
organelle and it is found in eukaryotes.
Sol.: Oxysomes are present in mitochondria. SER
helps in steroid synthesis.
134. Answer (1)
Hint: Topoisomerase is an enzyme, employed
during replication of DNA.
Sol.: 5SrRNA is synthesied by RNA polymerase
III.
135. Answer (3)
Hint: Constricted pod is a recessive trait.
Sol.: Recessive traits express only in homozygous
condition.
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SECTION-B
136. Answer (4)
are Hint: Good ozone is present in upper part of the
atmosphere.
Sol.: Ozone present in troposphere is a secondary
pollutant and is called bad ozone.
Snow-blindness is inflammation of cornea and it is
caused due to high dose of UV-B.
137. Answer (2)
Hint: Embryo sac of angiosperms is 7 celled and
8 nucleate structure.
Sol.: Female gametophyte contains three celled
egg apparatus and three antipodals at chalazal
end.
138. Answer (1)
Hint: Plants trap 1% of solar energy and only 10%
of the energy of previous trophic level is received
by next trophic level.
Sol.:
Producers → Grasshopper → Birds → man
1000 kcal → 100 kcal → 10 kcal → 1 kcal
139. Answer (2)
Sol.: Iron activates the catalase enzyme.
140. Answer (2)
Hint: In competition, both of the interacting
species are affected.
Sol.: In parasitism and Predation, one of the
interacting species is benefitted.
141. Answer (2)
Hint: Regulators are able to maintain homeostasis
by physiological as well as behavioural means
which ensure constant body temperature and
constant osmotic concentration
Sol.: Rat, human and crow are regulators.
142. Answer (1)
Sol.: Mycoplasma is the smallest living cell known
and they lack cell wall.
143. Answer (3)
Sol.: Thylacine got recently extinct from Australia.
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Open Mock Test-2 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)

144. Answer (4) 147. Answer (1)

Hint: Reproduction is not seen in sterile organisms Hint: Poly A tail is added to 3′ end of hnRNA
like worker bees. during post-transcriptional modification in
eukaryotes.
Sol.: Reproduction is a characteristic feature of
Sol.: Poly A polymerase catalyses addition of
living organism. adenylate residues at 3′ end of hnRNA.
145. Answer (2) 148. Answer (4)
Hint: Karan Rai is a disease resistant variety of Hint: Endomembrane system includes ER, Golgi
Brassica. bodies, lysosomes and vacuole.
Sol.: Mitochondria is involved in ETS.
Sol.: Himgiri is a disease resistant variety of
149. Answer (2)
wheat.
Hint: Two bases are held together by hydrogen
Pusa Shubhra and Pusa Komal are disease bonds.
resistant varieties of cauliflower and cowpea, Sol.: N-Glycosidic bond holds together the
respectively. pentose sugar and nitrogenous base.
146. Answer (2) 150. Answer (3)

Hint: Streptokinase has been commercialised as Hint: SER synthesizes the lipids and steroidal
hormones.
‘clot buster’
Sol.: Nucleolus is the main site for rRNA
Sol.: Streptokinase is produced by Streptococcus. synthesis.

[ZOOLOGY]
SECTION-A 153. Answer (2)
Hint: It lifts up the ribs and sternum.
151. Answer (4)
Sol.: During inspiration:
Hint: Stroke volume is the volume of blood
pumped by each ventricle during a cardiac cycle. – Diaphragm contracts, leading to an increase in
Sol.: Stroke volume = End diastolic volume – End the volume of thoracic chamber in
antero-posterior axis.
systolic volume
SV = 130 – 80 = 50 mL – External intercostal muscles contract, leading
to an increase in the volume of thoracic
Cardiac output = stroke volume × heart rate
chamber in dorso-ventral axis.
(per minute)
154. Answer (2)
5500 = 50 × heart rate
Hint: Succus entericus contains dipeptidases
5500 which acts on the product of reaction catalysed
Heart beat=
rate = 110 / minute.
50 by carboxypeptidases
152. Answer (1) Sol.: Proteins, proteoses and peptones present in
Hint: Partial pressure of O2 in alveoli is higher than chyme reaching the intestine are acted upon by
that in oxygenated blood. the enzymes in pancreatic juice.
Sol.: pO2 in alveoli – 104 mm Hg
pO2 in oxygenated blood – 95 mm Hg
pCO2 in deoxygenated blood – 45 mm Hg
pCO2 in oxygenated blood – 40 mm Hg

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 Open Mock Test-2 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

Enzymes in succus entericus digest dipeptides 159. Answer (3)

into amino acids.
Hint: Lectin
Dipeptidases
Dipeptides 
→ Amino acids Sol.: Primary metabolites have identifiable
155. Answer (2) functions and play known roles in normal
Hint: They contain liver cells. physiological processes, e.g. glucose, tryptophan
(amino acid), glycerol etc.
Sol.: Hepatic lobules are the structural and
functional units of liver containing hepatic cells Secondary metabolites functions are not properly
arranged in the form of cords. Glisson's capsule known. Some of them are ecologically important
is a thin connective tissue sheath which cover and some are useful to human welfare, e.g.
each lobule. cellulose is a polymeric substance, concanavalin
Kupffer cells are phagocytic cells present in the A is a lectin.
liver. 160. Answer (3)
156. Answer (3) Hint: Majority of neural tissue is constituted by
Hint: Nucleic acids are broken down by enzymes neuroglial cells.
present in the pancreatic juice.
Sol.: Neuroglial cells constitute more than one half
Sol.: Nucleases are present in pancreatic juice the volume of neural tissue in human body. Their
and catalyse the following reaction:
main function is to protect and support neurons.
Nucleases
→ Nucleotides → Nucleosides
Nucleic acid  161. Answer (3)
Nucleotidases and nucleosidases are present in Hint: These junctions help in keeping the
succus entericus which catalyze the following neighbouring cells together.
reaction:
Sol.: Tight junctions – Help to stop substances
Nucleotidases
Nucleotides  → Nucleosides from leaking across a tissue.
Nucleosidases
 → Sugars + Bases Adhering junctions – Perform cementing to keep
157. Answer (2) neighbouring cells together.
Hint: Lectin Gap junctions – Facilitate the cells to communicate
Sol.: with each other by connecting the cytoplasm of
adjoining cells.
162. Answer (2)
Hint: Air bladder is present in Osteichthyes.
Sol.: Pleurobrachia is a ctenophore which shows
the property of bioluminescence (property of a
Metal ions act as co-factors for some enzymes.
living organism to emit light).
Co-factors play a crucial role in the action of
enzymes, so enzymes loose catalytic activity Obelia is a coelenterate which exhibits alternation
when the co-factor is removed. of generation (metagenesis).
158. Answer (1) Pila is a mollusc, whose body is unsegmented with
Hint: Only one type of helices are observed. a distinct head, muscular foot and visceral hump.

Sol.: In proteins, only right handed helices are Carcharodon (great white shark) belongs to class
observed. Example – keratin protein present in Chondrichthyes, having placoid scales and air
hair. bladder is absent.

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163. Answer (4)
Hint: Ammocoete larva undergoes
metamorphosis in freshwater.
Sol.: Cyclostomes are ectoparasites on some
fishes, have an elongated body bearing 6-15 pairs
of gill slits for respiration. They are marine, but
migrate for spawning to freshwater and die within
few days after spawning. Their larvae, after
metamorphosis, return to the ocean.
164. Answer (2)
Hint: Hemichordates have proboscis gland as
their excretory organ.
Sol.: Chelone (Turtle): Reptile; kidneys are
excretory structures.
Ophiura: Echinoderm; excretory system is absent.
Dentalium: Mollusc; feather like gills perform
respiratory and excretory functions.
Balanoglossus and Saccoglossus:
Hemichordates; proboscis gland acts as an
excretory organ.
165. Answer (3)
Hint: The enzyme convert the colourless substrate
into coloured product.
Sol.: RNase – It is a type of nuclease that
degrades RNA.
Ribozymes – They are nucleic acids that act as
enzymes.
Alkaline phosphatase – It is an enzyme conjugated
with antibody in ELISA, which yields a yellow
product when p-nitrophenyl phosphate (most
common substrate for ALP) is added in the
microtitre plate.
166. Answer (2)
Hint: Adenosine deaminase is crucial for the
functioning of immune system.
Sol.: ADA deficiency is caused due to deletion of
the gene for adenosine deaminase. In some
children, ADA deficiency can be cured by bone
marrow transplantation and in others it can be
treated by enzyme replacement therapy.
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Open Mock Test-2 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)
167. Answer (3)
Hint: Insect gut pH is similar to human intestinal
pH.
Sol.: Once the insect ingests, the plant containing
inactive Bt protoxins, the alkaline pH of insect gut
solubilises the crystals and convert inactive
protoxin to active toxin, which binds to midgut
epithelial cells. It creates pores that cause swelling
and lysis and eventually causes death of the
insect.
168. Answer (4)
Hint: Inactivation of selectable marker
Sol.: Heat shock method – Bacterial cells are
incubated with rDNA on ice, followed by placing
them briefly at 42°C and then putting them back on
ice. This enables bacteria to take up the rDNA.
Microinjection is mainly used in animal cells, and
gene gun method is mainly used for plant cells.
Insertional inactivation is a method to differentiate
recombinants from non-recombinants on the basis
of their ability to produce colour in the presence of
a chromogenic substrate.
169. Answer (3)
Hint: A heterologous host is the organism in which
such a gene is expressed that is not naturally
present.
Sol.: Expressed sequence tags – It is an approach
in which we focus on identifying all the genes that
are expressed as RNA.
Gene expression – In this, a gene forms a copy of
functional mRNA and then a functional protein.
170. Answer (2)
Hint: Hormone FSH induces superovulation.
Sol.: In MOET (multiple ovulation embryo transfer
technology), female animal is administered
hormones with FSH-like activity which induce
superovulation and produce 6-8 eggs. The
fertilised eggs at 8-32 cells stages, are recovered
non-surgically and transferred to surrogate
mothers.
171. Answer (3)
Hint: They prefer larger, slow moving bodies of
freshwater, with soft muddy bottoms.
 Open Mock Test-2 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

Sol.: Freshwater fishes – Catla, Rohu and Sol.:

common carp.
Marine Fishes – Hilsa, Sardines, Mackerel and
Pomfrets.
172. Answer (4)
Hint: HIV is a retrovirus.
Sol.: HIV is a retrovirus, having an envelope
enclosing two identical molecules of ssRNA
genome and two copies of enzyme reverse
transcriptase.
HIV uses CD4 receptors to gain entry into helper
T–lymphocytes. HIV infection can spread from
infected mother to the unborn child through
placenta.
173. Answer (3)
Hint: Ionizing radiations have enough energy to
176. Answer (2)
remove an electron from an atom and can cause
chemical changes in cells. Hint: Many varieties of finches were found on the
same island.
Sol.: Carcinogens are physical, chemical or
Sol.: The process of evolution of different species
biological agents that can cause transformation of
in a given geographical area starting from a point
normal cells into cancerous neoplastic cells.
and literally radiating to other areas of geography
Physical carcinogens: Ionizing radiations like (habitats) is called adaptive radiation.
X-rays and gamma rays and non-ionising The founder’s effect is the reduction in genetic
radiations like UV rays. variations that results when a small subset of a
Biological carcinogens: Several genes called large population establishes a new colony.
oncogenes or proto-oncogenes in normal cells Darwin's finches are great examples of adaptive
which, when activated under certain conditions, radiation and founder's effect.
could lead to oncogenic transformation of cells. The original ancestors of Darwin's finches were
174. Answer (4) seed eating.

Hint: Neanderthal man lived around 1,00,000- 177. Answer (2)

40,000 years ago Hint: In this, fertilisation occurs in vivo.
Sol.: Neanderthal man: Had a brain size of around Sol.: ZIFT (zygote intra fallopian transfer) – In this,
1400 cc, lived near east and central Asia between the zygote or early embryos (up to 8 blastomeres)
1,00,000 – 40,000 years back. are transferred into the fallopian tube.

Australopithecines: Probably lived in East African AI (artificial insemination) – In this, semen

grasslands, hunted with stone weapons, but
essentially ate fruits.
175. Answer (4)
Hint: They develop from Pelycosaurs (extinct).
collected from husband or a healthy donor is
artificially introduced in the vagina or uterus of
female and is used in infertility cases in which male
has very low sperm count or inability of male
partner to inseminate female.

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Open Mock Test-2 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)

ICSI (intra cytoplasmic sperm injection) – Sperm is 182. Answer (1)

directly injected into the ovum. Hint: The first sign of a growing foetus may be
IUT (intra uterine transfer) – Embryos with more noticed by listening to the heart sound.
than 8 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus.
Sol.:
178. Answer (3)
First movements of foetus – Fifth month
Hint: Natural method of contraception not included
Foetus develops limbs – End of second
Sol.: Complications associated with STIs due to
and digits month
delay in treatment – infertility, ectopic pregnancy,
abortion, still birth, cancer of reproductive tract. Embryo's heart is formed – End of first month
Periodic abstinence – It is a natural method of Foetus’ body is covered – End of second
contraception. with fine hair, eye-lids trimester
MTP (medical termination of pregnancy) – It is the separate and eyelashes
intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy are formed
before full term.
183. Answer (4)
179. Answer (3) Hint: It is a non-reducing disaccharide.
Hint: Mechanism of action is similar to Sol.: The male sex accessory glands are: seminal
progestasert. vesicles, prostate gland and bulbourethral glands.
Sol.: Hormone releasing IUDs like progestasert, Secretions of these glands constitute seminal
LNG-20 increase phagocytosis of sperms, make plasma, which is rich in fructose, calcium and
the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the certain enzymes.
cervix hostile to the sperms. 184. Answer (3)
Non-medicated IUDs like Lippes loop increase Hint: In reptiles, males have copulatory organ.
phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.
Sol.: Organisms that exhibit external fertilisation,
Copper releasing IUDs like CuT, Cu7 and show great synchrony between the sexes and
Multiload 375 release Cu ions which suppress release a large number of gametes into the
sperm motility and the fertilizing capacity of surrounding medium (water) in order to enhance
sperms. the chances of syngamy, e.g., bony fishes and
180. Answer (3) frogs. Reptiles, birds and mammals exhibit internal
fertilisation.
Hint: LH and FSH are secreted by pituitary gland.
185. Answer (2)
Sol.: During follicular phase of menstrual cycle,
the granulosa cells of growing follicles secrete Hint: It is a multi-layered structure.
estrogen. Increased secretion of oestrogen Sol.: During unfavorable conditions, Amoeba,
induces production of GnRH by hypothalamus. withdraws its pseudopodia and secretes a three-
This in turn induces secretion of LH from pituitary, layered hard covering or cyst around itself. This
leading to LH surge and rupture of Graafian follicle phenomenon is termed as encystation.
to release secondary oocyte (ovulation).
SECTION-B
181. Answer (2)
186. Answer (2)
Hint: Hormone synthesized from both ovary and
placenta. Hint: Syphillis is caused by a bacteria.
Sol.: The maximum concentration of estrogen is Sol.:
during puberty. Later on it shows a cyclic rise and Syphilis – Treponema pallidum
fall during menstrual cycle. It helps in growth and Trichomoniasis – Trichomonas vaginalis
maturation of follicles. Prolactin is also released in
Chancroid – Haemophilus ducreyi
non-pregnant females. hCG, hPL and relaxin are
released only during pregnancy. Genital warts – Human Papilloma virus

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 Open Mock Test-2 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

187. Answer (1) Cortisol produces anti-inflammatory reactions and

Hint: Disease caused by alteration in suppresses the immune response.
carbohydrate metabolism. 192. Answer (2)
Sol.: Addison’s disease is caused by under Hint: It is a fat soluble hormone.
production of hormones by adrenal cortex that Sol.: Steroid hormones like cortisol, testosterone,
alters carbohydrate metabolism causing acute estrogen can easily pass through the cell
weakness and fatigue. membrane and interact with intracellular
Hypothyroidism during pregnancy causes receptors.
defective development and maturation of growing
Protein, peptide or polypeptide hormones like
baby leading to stunted growth that is, cretinism.
insulin, glucagon, pituitary hormone (ACTH) and
Hyperthyroidism causes Graves’ disease. amino acid derivatives (epinephrine) interact with
Excessive secretion of GH in adults result in membrane bound receptors.
severe disfigurement called acromegaly. 193. Answer (2)
188. Answer (3) Hint: During darkness, Na+ channels in
Hint: It is the chief neurotransmitter of para photoreceptor cells remain open.
sympathetic nervous system. Sol.:
Sol.: Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter essential
During darkness During light stimulus
for memory and learning. It is decreased in
concentration in patients with Alzheimer’s disease. ↓ ↓
Parkinson’s disease is due to low dopamine. Na+ channels in Na+ channels in
Schizophrenia is due to increase in dopamine. photoreceptor cells photoreceptor cells
remain open close
189. Answer (1)
↓ ↓
Hint: This layer also forms crypts of Lieberkuhn.
Continuous influx of No influx of Na+ and
Sol.: Serosa- Outermost layer, made up of thin
Na+ into K+ ions are
mesothelium.
photoreceptor cells continuously coming
Muscularis- Formed by smooth muscles. out via K+ channels
↓
Sub-mucosa- Formed by loose connective tissue
Depolarisation of ↓
containing nerves, blood vessels and lymph
vessels. cells Leading to
hyperpolarisation of
190. Answer (3)
cells
Hint: It is also present in most polysaccharides.
194. Answer (3)
Sol.: H-bond is present between nitrogenous
bases of two nucleotides of opposite strands. The Hint: Midbrain consists of more than 2 but less
nucleoside combines with a phosphate group by than 6 optic lobes.
an phosphoester bond to form a nucleotide. Sol.: The dorsal portion of the midbrain consists of
Phosphodiester bond connects two nucleotides on mainly four round swellings (lobes) called corpora
the same strand of a dsDNA molecule. quadrigemina.
191. Answer (3) Association areas are present in cerebral cortex
Hint: It is one of the functions of aldosterone. and are responsible for complex functions like
Sol.: Mineralocorticoids regulate the balance of intersensory associations, memory and
water & electrolytes in our body, e.g. aldosterone communication.
is the main mineralocorticoid in our body. Cerebral aqueduct is a canal present in midbrain.

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Open Mock Test-2 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)

195. Answer (1) 198. Answer (2)

Hint: They do not have dendrites. Hint: Aldosterone also acts on this segment for
Sol.: Unipolar neurons: Cell body with one axon reabsorption of Na+ and water.
only and are usually found in embryonic stages. Sol.: Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water
Pseudounipolar neurons: Usually found in dorsal takes place in DCT. In PCT, nearly all essential
root ganglia of spinal nerves. nutrients and 70-80 percent of electrolytes are
Bipolar neurons: Commonly found in the retina of reabsorbed. Reabsorption is minimum in the
eye. ascending limb of Henle’s loop.
Multipolar neurons: Commonly found in the 199. Answer (4)
cerebral cortex.
Hint: Frog is ureotelic.
196. Answer (3)
Sol.: Ammonotelic: Bony fishes, aquatic
Hint: They also play a role in breathing.
amphibians and aquatic insects.
Sol.: 1st-7th pairs of ribs – Vertebrosternal ribs,
Ureotelic: Mammals, terrestrial amphibians and
dorsally attached to vertebrae and ventrally
marine fishes.
attached to sternum.
8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs – Vertebrochondral Uricotelic: Reptiles, birds, land snails and insects.
ribs, dorsally attached to vertebrae and ventrally 200. Answer (3)
attached to 7th pairs of ribs. Hint: Individuals with blood group B would have
11th and 12th pairs of ribs – Vertebral ribs or floating antigen B on his/her RBCs.
ribs, only dorsally attached to vertebrae.
Sol.:
197. Answer (3)
Individual with Can donate blood to
Hint: Myosin filaments remain same in size.
blood group individuals with
Sol.: During muscle contraction : blood group (s)
– Actin and myosin filaments do not shorten.
A A, AB
– A band contains myosin filaments, which do
B B, AB
not decrease in size, rather remain same.
AB AB
– H zone is the central part of thick filament, not
overlapped by thin filaments, also decreases O A, B, O and AB
in size.

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