CONTENTS UNIT — VI REPRODUCTION CHAPTER -I SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS CHAPTER -2 HUMAN REPRODUCTION CHAPTER -3 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH, UNIT -VII. GENETICS CHAPTER ~4 PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATION CHAPTER -5 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE CHAPTER- 6 EVOLUTION UNIT -VII BIOLOGY IN HU MAN WELFARE CHAPTER -7 HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE CHAPTER CHAPTER-8 MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE UNIT -IX BIOTECHNOGY CHAPTER -9 BIOTECHNOLOGY PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES CHAPTER -10 BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS APPLICATIONS UNIT -X ECOLOGY CHAPTER -I ORGANISMS AND POPULATION CHAPTER- 12 ECOSYSTEM CHAPTER -13 BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION (© scaned with one SconecHapteR 1 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants One Mark Questions 1. What is the function of filiform apparatus in an angiospermic embryo sac? (a) Brings about opening of the pollen tube (b) Guides the pollen tube into a synergid (c)__ Prevents entry of more than one pollen tube into a synergid (4) None of these Both chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers are present in (a) Helianthus (b) Commelina (©) Rosa (@) Gossypium ‘Male and female flowers are present on different plants (dioecious) to ensure xenogamy, in (a) papaya (b) bottle gourd (©) maize (all of these. Plants with ovaries having only one or a few ovules are generally pollinated by (a) bees (b) _ butterflies (ec) birds (@) wind ‘The female gametophyte of a typical dicot at the time of fertilisation is (a) 8—celled (b) 7-celled (©) 6~celled (d) 5—celled During microsporogenesis, meiosis occurs in (a) endothecium (b) microspore mother cells (©) microspore tetrads (d) pollen grains Polyembryony commonly occurs in (a) banana (b) tomato (c) potato (d) citrus. ‘The innermost layer of anther is tapetum whose function is (a) dehiscence (6) mechanical (c) nutrition (d)__ protection. ai © seamed with one scamerce n of one of the male gametes with egg nucleus is referred to as (a) generative fertilisation (b) syngamy (c) vegetative fertilisation (d)__ both (a) and (b) 10. What is the function of germ pore ? (a) Emergence of radicle (b) Absorption of water for seed germination (©) Initiation of pollen tube (@)_ Allofthese 11, One of the most resistant biological material present in the exine of pollen grai (a) pecto-cellulose (b) sporopollenin (c)_ suberin (d)__ cellulose. 12, Endosperm is completely consumed by the developing embryo in (a) pea and groundnut (b) maize and castor (©) castor and groundnut (@) maize and pea. 13. Coleoptile and coleorhiza are the protective sheaths covering and respectively. (a) plumule, epicotyl (b) _ radicle, plumule (©) plumule, radicle @ le, hypocotyl 14, is not an endospermic seed. (a) Pea (b) Castor (©) Maize (4) Wheat Two Mark Questions 1 Pollen grain is the male gametophyte; it has pollen wall and Pollen cells. ¥ Pollen wall is two layered structure containing outer exine and inner intine. Exine is hard layer, made up of most resistant organic material called as sporopollenin. vy Exine has prominent apertures called germ pores. Intine is inner wall, which isa thin and continuous layer made up of cellulose and pecti Mature Pollen grain contains two cells v vv Vegetative cell and Generative cells Vegetative cell is bigger with large irregularly shaped nucleus; generative cell is small with small nucleus. v a, © seamed with one scamerce 2 Differentiate albuminous and non — albuminous seeds with an example for each. Ans: Albuminous seeds Non —albuminous seed “Angiosperm seeds which contains endosperm ‘Angiosperm seeds which do not contains ‘even at maturity are called albuminous seeds, endosperm at maturity are called non - albuminous seeds. Example = Maizel wheat Example : Bean/ground nut 3. How does pollination achieved in Vallisneria and sea grasses? Ans: In Vallisneria the female flower reaches the surface of water by the long stalk and the male flower or pollen grains are released on the surface of water. They are carried by water current and reach the stigma and achieve pollination. In Sea grasses female flower remain submerged in water and pollen grains are released inside the water. Some of them reach the stigma through water and achieve pollination, 4. Whatis pollination? Mention any four feature of wind pollinated flowers. Ans: Transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of a pistilis termed pollination. Features of wind pollinated flowers > The flowers produce enormous amount of pollen grai ovules available for pollination, when compared to the number of The pollen grainsare light weight and non-sticky The flower often possesses well-exposed stamens. Stigma is large and feathery. Wind pollinated flowers often have asingle ovule in each ovary. vyvvyy Numerous flowers packed into an inflorescence. 5. Whatis parthenocarpic fruit? Mention a plant which naturally produces parthenocarpic fruit. Ans: Seedless fruits formed by the process of parthenogenesis are called parthenocarpic fruits. Banana aplant which naturally produces parthenocarpic fruit. 6. Differentiate between homogametes (isogametes) and heterogametes (anisogametes). Ans: Homogametes (Isogametes ) Heterogametes (anisogametes ) jametes where sperm and egg are “Type of gametes where sperm and eyg are ‘morphologically similar ina species are called | morphologically dissimilar in a species are calle d isogametes or homogametes anisogametes or heterogametes. Examples: Cladophora (an alga e) Examples: Fucus (an alga) /Human beings ai ——— * © scaned thon Seamerce 7. Whatis polyembryony? Mention two examples of the plants where polyembryony is observed. Ans: The phenomenon of development of more than one embryo in seed is called as polyembryony. Examples: Mango and Citrus. 8 Mention the four stages of embryogeny ina dicotyledonous embryo. Ans: a) Pro-embryo b) Globular embryo ©) Heart shaped embryo d) Matured embryo 9 Differentiate between perisperm and pericarp. Ans: Perisperm, Pericarp ‘thin rudimentary layer of persistent nucellus The complete wall of the fit scaled pericarp. sill remaining in seed even after fertilisation is ex : Banana called perispem ex : Black Pepper Three Mark Questions 1. Whatare cleistogamous flowers? Write their significance. Ans. Cleistogamous flowers which do not open at all leads to compulsory self pollination. ignificance of cleistogamy. > — Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous as there is no chance of allogamy. > — Cleistogamous flowers produce assured seed-set even in the absence of pollinators. 2. Write three advantages offered by the seeds to angiosperm, Ans. Seeds offer several advantages to angiosperms. > Since reproductive processes such as pollination and fertilisation are independent of water, seed formation is more dependable. > Seeds have better adaptive strategies for dispersal to new habitats and help the species to colonise in other areas. > Seeds have sufficient food reserves, young seedlings are nourished until they are capable of photosynthesis on their own. > — Thehard seed coat provides protection to the youngembryo. > Being produets of sexual reproduction, they generate new genetic combinations leading to variations. »® — Seed is the basis of our agriculture. ai, © scaned thon Seamerce 3 Define Autogamy. Write the two different kinds of flowers that exhibit autogamy. Ans: Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same flower. ‘Two different kinds of flowers that exhibit autogamy are chasmogamous flowers and cleistogamous flowers. 4. Whatis artificial hybridization? By which technique itis achieved? Ans: Crossing different species to combine desirable characters to produce commercially ‘superior varieties, ‘Techniques : Emasculation and bagging. 5.4) What is apomixis? Mention its significance. Ans: The process of development of seed without fertilisati is called apomixis. Significance : Apomixis is useful in production of hybrid seeds and hence it is significant in hybrid seed industry. B) Name the plant whieh produce tallest flower. Ans: Amorphophallus +> or, — ? © seamed with one scamerFive Mark Questions 1 Describe the structure of mature embryo sac of An; Ans: Mature Embryo sac is the female gametophyte of Angiosperm. » — Atchalazal end it contains three antipodal cells. » — At middle it contains two polar nuclei or secondary nuclei. > — At micropylar end it has egg apparatus which includes an egg surrounded by two synergid cells. > At the base of synergid cell finger like structures called as Filiform apparatus, helps for pollen tube entry into embryo sac. >» — Thus mature embryo sac is 7 celled and 8 nucleated structure. perm. 2 Write the characteristic features of insect pollinated flowers. Ans: Characteristics o} The flowers are large, conspicuous, coloured and showy. ‘When flowers are small, they aggregate in the form of an inflorescence. The flowers have a fragrance and sweet nectar. Pollen grains are rough and surrounded by sticky substance called pollen kit. Flowers are very good places for the insects to lay their eggs. vvvVVY the events of development of female gametophyte (embryo sac) in correct order. Inside the ovule initially Megaspore mother cell divide by meiosis to form 4 haploid cells called as megaspores, out of these megaspores 3 cells disintegrate, only one functional megaspore is retained. Nucleus of this functional megaspore under goes three round of mitosis to form 8 nuclei This structure with 8 nucleated condition is called as embryo sac or female gametophyte. va Ans: v > — Out of 8 nuclei 3 goes to chalazal end to form 3 antipodal cells, two remains at center to form secondary nuclei, 3 nuclei goes to micropyle end, middle one become egg, on both side they formsynergid cells. > — Thusembryosacis 7 celled /8 nucleated structure 4, Explain the transverse section of young anther with a labeled diagram, Ans: > Young anther is generally surrounded by four wall layers the epidermis, endothecium, middle layers and the tapetum. > The outer three wall layers perform the function of protection and help in dehiscence pollen. > — The innermost wall layer is the tapetum. It nourishes the developing pollen grains. When the anther is young, a group of compactly arranged homogenous cells called the sporogenous tissue occupies the centre of each microsporangium. ai, v © © scaned thon Seamer5s Ans:a) Funicle : Itis the stalk of the ovule, attaching to the wall 6. Ans: > Ans: b) Explain the structure of megasporangium (Ovule) ofthe ovary. with funicle. Hilum : It is the region where body of the ovule fuses ©) Chalaza: It is a basal part of ovule. Opposite end of the chalazais called as micropylar end. d) Integuments : These are ovule membranes, later they become seed coat. At micropylar end they forms a hole like structure called as micropyle, which helps for entry of the pollen tube. e) Nucellus: Itisthe tissue provides nutrients to the developing embryo sac. £) Embryo Sac: Embryo sac single embryo sac formed from a megaspore. also called as female gametophyte. An ovule generally has Describe the structure of dicot embryo with the help of a labelled diagram and two cotyledons, > The portion of embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons is the epicotyl, which terminates with the plumule or stem tip. > The cylindrical portion below the level of cotyledons is hypocotyl that terminates at its lower end in the radical or root tip. > The root tip is covered with a root eap. Mention fie differences between microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis. A ypical dicotyledonous embryo consists of an embryonal axis Microsporogenesis Megasporogenesis It is the process of formation of haploid microspores or pollen grains from pollen mother cells, It is the process of formation of haploid megaspores from megaspore mother cells Ttoccurs in microsporangiuim or anther. Tt occurs in megasporangium or ovule. During this process all cells of sporogenous tissue develops into large number of pollen mother cells During this process only one cell of nucelius| develops into a single megaspore mother cel. ‘The process produces large number of microspores or pollen grains. ‘The process produces only four number ‘of megaspocres out of which three will degenerate This process leads to the development of male gametophyte, This process leads to the development of female gametophyte, This process is nourished by cells of tapetum This process is nourished by cells of nucellus. a, © seamed with one scamer8 Describe the structure ofa mature male gametophyte OR Pollen grain, ce Ans: The pollen grains are the spherical shaped structure formed in the pollen sac by microsporogenesis. Pollen grains represent male gametophyte. In majority of plants pollen grains released at two celled stage which are haploid. > vvyv ‘The larger cell is called vegetative cell which produce pollen tube on germination, The smaller cell is generative cell which floats in the cytoplasm of vegetative cell. Generative cell produce two male gametes by mytosis. Vecetaive va Bie nine Vegetative cell is covered by a plasma membrane. Over the plasma membrane there are two layers of cell walls. The outer cell wall is called exine which is thick, tough and made up of highly resistant biochemical called sporopollenin, Exine gives protection to the internal parts as it is resistant to heat, acidsand alkalis. Exine is followed by an inner thin delicate cell wall called intine which is made up of cellulose and pectin. On the surface of exine there are some thin, weak areas called germpores where sporopollenin is not deposited. Through these germ pores pollen tube from pollen grain will germinate. 9 Explain the structure of a typical monocot embryo witha labelled diagram. Ans: The monocotyledon embryo consists of a single cotyledon. This cotyledon in grasses is called scutellum which stores reserve food. > Scutellum is situated towards the one side of the embryonal axis. The embryonal axis at is lower end has root primordial tissue called radical which is going to develop into root system after germination. The radical along with its root cap is covered by a sheath of tissue called coleothiza. The portion of embryonal axis above the level of attachmentto scutellum is called epicotyl. Epicoty! has a shoot primordial tissue which is going to cnorese develop into shoot system after germination. This shoot apex is covered by a leafy sheath called coleoptile. ai, © scaned thon Seamerce 10, Whatisautogamy? Explain the devices that the plants have developed to prevent this. Ans: The type of pollination where pollen grains are transferred from the anthers to the stigma of a same flower is called as autogamy or self-pollination. Following are the devices developed in flowering plants to prevent self- pollination, Unisexuality or Divecy: It is a condition where flowers are unisexual ic. will contain cither androecium or gynoecium so that there is no scope for self-pollination. Examples: caster, maize and Papaya. Self-Sterility or Self Incompatibility: An adaptive condition where if the pollen grain from the anther is deposited on the stigma of the same flower will fail to germinate is called self-sterility or self incompatibility. Therefore, in these plants cross pollination is the only option. Dichogamy: Itrefers to a condition where anthers, pollen grains of androecium and ovary, stigma ofthe gynoecium will mature at different time and thus avoid self-pollination, There are two types of dichogamy which include protandry and protogyny. A condition where anthers ripen or mature before ovary and stigma is called protandry. Whereas, a condition where ovary and stigma ripen or mature before anthers is called protogyny. Herkogamy: A condition where anthers and stigma of the same flower are isolated by some mechanical barrier is called herkogamy. In such flowers there may be a covering on the stigma or stamens and style may move away from each other to favour cross pollination, Heterostyly: Itis a condition where the lengths of stamen and styles will be extremely different, There may be long styles and short stamens or short styles and long stamens. Explain the process of double fert : When pollen grain germinates on stigma, it produce pollen tube growing through style which also carries two sperms formed by generative cell. When finally pollen tube enters into embryo sac of ovule the sperms are released here. During this lytic enzymes seereted by pollen tube will help to dissolve the integuments and filiform processes of synergids will help and guide the penetration of pollen tube. After the entry of sperms into embryo sae, one sperm which is haploid will fuse with egg which is also haploid to form a diploid cell called zygote (2n) which is the main fertilization or syngamy. The other sperm will move towards central cell and fuse with to polar nuclei of it to form a triploid cell called ary endosperm nucleus (PEN) (3n). After fertilization zygote develops into embryo while PEN develops anutritive tissue called endosperm which takes up the function of nourishing embryo. Since there is fertilisation of two cells by two sperms i-e., one egg by one sperm and polar nuclei of central cell by another sperm the process is called double fertilisation. It is also called triple fusion because PEN is formed by the fusion of three haploid nuclei ie.,2 polar nuclei and | sperm nucleus ¢ ¢ © scaned thon SeamercHapTeR 2 Human Reproduction One Mark Questions 1. Ovulation in the human female normally takes place during the menstrual cycle (a) atthe mid secretory phase (b) just before the end of the secretory phase (c) atthebeginning of the proliferative phase (d) at the end of the proliferative phase. Immediately after ovulation, the mammalian egg is covered by a membrane known as (a) chorion (b) zona pellucida (c) corona radiata (d)_vitelline membrane. A human female reaches menopause aroung the age of (a) 50 years (b) 15 years (©) 70 years (a) 25 years. Areaction of granules content which harden the zona pellucida and ensures sure block to polyspermy is (a) acrosomal reaction {b) cortical reaction (©) acrosin reaction (@) bindin reaction Acrosomal reaction of the sperm occurs due to (a) its contact with zona pellucida of the ova (b) reactions within the uterine environment of the female (c) reactions within the epididymal environment of the male (d) androgens produced in the uterus. Which one of the following is not a male accessory gland ? (a) Seminal vesicle (b) Ampulla (c) Prostate (@) Bulbourethral gland Urethral meatus refers to the (a) urinogenital duet (b) opening of vas deferens into urethra (©) external opening of the urinogenital duct (d) muscles surrounding the urinogenial duct. ‘The nutritive cells found in seminiferous tubules are (a) Leydig’s cells, (b) atretic follicular cells (©) Sertoli cells (d) chromaffin cells. ai. © seamed with one scamer9 Seminal plasma in humans is rich in (a) fructose and calcium but has no enzymes (b) glucose and certain enzymes but has no calcium (c) fructose and certain enzymes but poor in calcium (d) fructose, calcium and certain enzymes. 10. After birth, colostrum is released from mammary glands which is rich in (a) fat and low in proteins (b) proteins and low in fat (d) proteins, fat and low in antibodies. 11. The process of release of spermatozoa from Sertoli cells into cavity of the seminiferous tubulesis called (a)_ spermiogenesis (b) spermatogenesis (c)_ spermatocytogenesis (@) spermiation 12. Layers of an ovum from outside to inside is (a) corona radiata, zona pellucida and vitelline membrane (b) zona pellucida, corona rodiata and vitelline membrane (©) vitelline membrane, zona pellucida and corona radiata (d) zona pellucida, vitelline membrane and corona radiata, 13. The solid mass of 8-16 cells formed from zygote after successive mitotic divisions is called (a) blastula (b) gastrula (©) morula (@) none ofthese. 14. Urine test during pregnancy determines the presence of (a) human chorionic gonadotropin hormone —_(b) estrogen (©) progesterone (d) luteinising hormone, 15, The first movements of the fetus and appearance of hair on its head are usually observed during which month of pregnancy ? (a) Fourth month —(b) ‘Fifth month (e)_Sixthmonth (4) Third month 16. Delivery of developed fetus is scientifically called (a) parturition (b) oviposition (c) abortion (d) ovulation 17. During the development of embryo, which of the following occurs first? (a) Differentiation of organ (b) Differentiation of tissue (0) Differentiation of organ system (@) Differentiation of cells 18 In the event of pregnancy, the corpus luteum persists under the influence of (a) LH (b) FSH (©) chorionic gonadotropin (d) progesterone. i _ © seamed with one scameree 19 Which of the following hormones is not a seeretory product of human placenta ? (a) Human chorionic gonadotropin (b) Prolactin (c) Estrogen (d) Progesterone 20. Implantation takes place after of fertilisation (a) 5 days (b) 6 days (©) 7 days (d) 8 days ‘Two Mark Questions 1. List any four hormones secreted by placenta Ans: > Human Chrionie Gonadotropin (hCG) > Human Placental Lactogen (hPL) Estrogen Progestogens Relaxin v vvY 2. Placenta is the structural and functional unit between foetus and maternal body. Substantiate the statement. Ans: > The chorionic villi and uterine tissue become interdigitated to form the structure/placenta, > Placenta facilitates the supply of oxygen and nutrients to the embryo and removal of carbon dioxide and excretory/waste materials produced by the embryo. 3. Mention the accessory duets of male reproductive system. Ans: > Rete testis > Vasa efferentia > Epididymis > Vas deference 4, What are stem cells? Where do you find it? Ans: The cells which have the potency to give rise to all the tissues and organs. These are present in the inner mass cells of blastocyst. 5. Mention the role of accessory glands in human male reproductive system. Ans: > Secretion of male accessory glands constitutes seminal plasma which is rich in fructose, calcium and certain enzyme. > Secretion of bulbourethral glands aet as lubricant during coitus. 6. Name the hormones secreted by leydig cells and corpus luteum, Ans: Leydig cells ~ Testosterone or androgens Corpus luteum - Progesterone © seamed with one scamer7. Give two differences between spermatogenesis and oogenesi an Spermatogenesis Ongenesis a. Ttoccurs in seminiferous tubules of testis, a ltoccwsinthe follicles of ovary. ‘b. Four fictional sperms are formed from b. One functional ovumis produced fromeach cach primary gpm rimmy one 8 Name two gonadotropins Ans: LH and FSH 9, What is corpus luteum? Under what condition does it undergo degeration? : In the ovary, after ovulation, the remaining parts of ruptured graffian follicle transforms as corpus luteum, IF fertilisation not takes place corpus luteum degenerates into corpus albicans. Five Mark Questions 1. Draw a neat labelled diagram of human sperm, Ans: 2. What is spermatogenesis? Explain the process of spermatogenesis. Ans: Spematagnia MAGE = Lil] forme y J ¢ ¢ © seamed with one scamer3. Ans: 4. Ans: 5. Ans: od ee Spermatogenesis is the formation of sperms from immature germ cells or spermatogonial cells. The spermatogonia present on the division and increase in numbers. Each spermatogonium is diploid and contains 46 chromosomes. Some of the apermatogonia increase in in size by active growth and are called primary spermatocytes. Each primary spermatocyte by meiosis I give rise to two haploid secondary spermatocytes. Each haploid secondary spermatocyte by meiosis II give rise to two haploid spermatids. The spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa(sperms) by the process called spermiogenesis. le wall of seminiferous tubules multiply by mitotic Draw a neat labelled diagram of sectional view of human female reproduetivesystem. Draw a neat labelled diagram of human male reproductive system. Draw a neat labelled diagram of sectional view of human mammary mz Lp seca gland. od © scaned thon SeamerAns: Crvomosomes number | | mos anerentaton per cot _ “6 2 es Cogenesis in humen female showing formation of ovum ‘Oogenesis is the process in which there is the formation and the development of an oocyte or ovum. It isthe part of gametogenesis and the female gamete that is formed is called an ovum. This occurs in the primary sex organ ovary and isa discontinuous process. ‘Oogenesis : Oogenesis is the process in which there is the formation and the development of an oocyte or ovum. It is the part of gametogenesis and the female gamete that is formed is called an ovum, It occurs in the female ovary. The ovary is called the sex organ in females in which the gamete (ovum) is formed, Formation of an ovum from a primordial germ cell is called oogenesis, it is a discontinuous process and ineludes the following steps: > — Multiplication phase-in this mitosis occurs and primordial germ cells develop into oogonia. > — Growth phase- inthis oogonia develops into a primary oocyte. > Maturation phase- meiosis occurs. Primary oocyte forms Ist polar body and secondary oocyte. After sperm penetration, the secondary oocyte forms 2nd polar body and an ovum. Throughout the whole process, the oocytes get surrounded by a layer of granulosa cells called the follicle, In the end, the tertiary follicle of the secondary oocyte gets converted to a graafian follicle which ruptures and releases a secondary oocyte called ovulation. Secondary oocyte forms a haploid ovum and haploid second polar body. i, © scaned thon Seameree 7. _ Explain the steps involved in menstrual eycle. Menstrual eyele involves four phases. A) Menstrual phase The cycle starts with the menstrual phase, when menstrual flow occurs and its last for 3-5 days. The menstrual flow results due to breakdown of endometrial lining of the uterus and its blood and its blood vessels which forms liquid that comes out through vagina, B) F Itlast for 6— 13 days during this phase, the primary follicles in the ovary grow to becomea fully mature graffian follicle and simultaneously endometrium of uterus regenerates through proliferation. These changes takesplace in the ovary due to gradual increase in the levels of pituitary hormones(LH and FSH) and ovarian hormones. ieular phase ©) Ovulatory phase Both LH and FSH attains peak level in the middle of cycle (about 14th day). Rapid secretion of LH leading to its maximum level during the mid eyele is called LH surge induces rupture of graffian follicle and thereby release of ovum (ovulation). D) Luteal phase During which the remaining part of the graffian follicle transforms as the corpus luteum. The corpus luteum secrets large amount of progesterone which is essential for maintainance of endometrium. If fertilisation takesplace that leads to pregnancy all events of menstrual cycle stop and there is no menstruation. In the absence of pregnancy corpus luteum degenerates this caus disintegration of the endometrium lea menstruation. ai. —__———-* © scaned thon SeamercHapteR 3 Reproductive Health One Mark Questions Incase of a couple where the male is having a very low sperm count, which technique wi be suitable for fertilization A. Artificial insemination B, Intrauterine transfer C. Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer‘, None of theabove Which of the following isa hormone releasing 1UD? A. LippesLoop B. Multiload 375 Cc. Cw7 D. LNG20 In context of amniocentesis, which of the following statements is INCORRECT? A. Usually done when the woman is between 14-16 weeks pregnant B. Can beused to detect Down Syndrome C. Can be used for prenatal sex determination D, ). Can be used for the detection of cleft palate Which of the following is nota sexually transmitted disease? B. Syphilis C. AIDS D. Gonorrhea A. Encephi Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foctus by amniocentesis? A, Jaundice B. Down'ssyndrome C. Klinefelter’s syndrome D. Sex ofthe foetus Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to in vitro fertilization is transferred into__ A. Fallopian tube B. Fimbriac C. Cervix D. Uterus Ahysterectomy is the surgical removal of A. Mammary glands B. Vas deferens C. Uterus D. Prostate gland ai, © seamed with one scameree ‘Two Mark Questions 1. Define tubectomy and vasectomy Ans: > Sterilisation procedure in the female is called tubectomy a small part of the fallopian two is removed or tied up through asmall incision in the abdomen > sterilisation procedure in the male is called vasectomy a small part of the vasdeferens is removed or tied up on the scrotum. 2. Whatare contraceptives? Ans: All the techniques or devices which are used to prevent pregnancy are called as contraceptives. 3. Name acontraceptive device that inhibits ovulation and implantation, Ans: Oral contraceptive pills/progesterone or estrogen and progesterone releasing implants. 4. Mention any four characteristics of ideal contraceptives. Intra uterine devices are ideal contraceptives for females who want to delay pregnancy. Justify with four reasons. Ans; Following are the characteristics of ideal contraceptives Itshould be user friendly. > Itshould be easily available, > Itshould be effectiveand reversible with no or least side effects. > Itshould inno way interfere with the sexual drive, desire and the sexual act of the user. Three Mark Questions 1. Whatis infertility? Give reasons forinfertility in humans, Ans: Infertility is the inability to produce children in spite of unprotected sexual c sexual intercourse. Reasons for infertility : Physical/Congenital/Disease/Drugs/Immunological / Psychological. 2. List the measures to prevent Sexually Transmitted Ans; (i) Avoid sex with unknown partners/multiple partners. (ii) Always use condoms during coitus. (iii) In case of doubt, go to a qualified doctor for early detection and get complete treatment if diagnosed with disease. any three reasons for population explosion Ans: 1) Arapid declinein death rate, Maternal mortality rate (MMR) 2) Decline in Infant mortality rate (IMR). 3) _ Increase in number of people in reproductive age ai, —————* © seamed with one scameree 4, Write three simple principles to prevent STD's. Ans: Simple principles to prevent sexually transmitted diseases; (i) Avoidsex with unknown partners/multiple partners. (ii) Alwaysuse condoms during coitus. (iii) In case of doubt, go to a qualified doctor for early detection and get complete treatment if diagnosed with disease. 5. Mention the natural methods of contraception. Ans: Periodic abstinence Withdrawal or coitus interruptus Lactational amenorrhea 6. Define venereal disease. Mention any two modes of transmission of HIV or Hepatitis B virus. Ans: Diseases which are transmitted from one person to other through sexual intercourse are called \s sexually transmitted diseases or venereal diseases. Following are the two modes of transmission of HIV/Hepatitis B. > Through sexual intercourse with infected person. > _ Bysharing of injection needles, surgical instruments, etc. wi > Bytransfusion of blood from infected person. > Froman infected mother to the foetus. infected persons. Five Mark Questions 1. What are IUDs? Mention any two types with an example for each. How do IUDs help in preventing conception? Ans: These are the mechanical devices which are basically introduced into the uterus with the help of medical practitioners which will obstruct fertilization by avoiding the entry of sperms into fallopian tube or by preventing implantation as they cover the endometrium. ‘Types of IUDs: Following are the types of IUDs > Non medicated IUDs: Example: Lippes loop > Copper releasing IUDs: CuT, Cu7, multiload 375 > Hormone releasing IUDs : LNG 20 & Progestasert Working of 1UDs : IUDs help in following way to prevent conception > IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus and the Cu ions released suppress sperm motility and the fertilising capacity of sperms. > The hormone releasing IUDs, in addition, make the uterus unsuitable for implantation and. the cervix hostile to the sperms. ai, ——* © scaned thon Seameree Explain five measures that can be taken to build up a socially responsible and reproductively healthy society? Ans: Following are some general strategies to tackle reproductive problems, Family planning: Planning and executing the rate of births by individuals in a controlled way not to add to population explosion of the country is called as family planning, Plans and programmes in this regard were laid down and guided to the people of the country for the first time by family planning association of India. At present family planning programs are conducted under Reproduetive and Child Health Care (RCH) programmes. Awareness about reproductive problems: Campaign programmes are undertaken by Government and Non-Governmental Organisations (NGO) through both print and audio visual aids to educate the people about reproductive problems and to know the means to overcome the same. Introducing sex education: The myths, misconceptions and superstitions prevailing in public more particularly in teenagers is a problem leading to reproductive disorders. Therefore, Government has taken measures to educate the people on sex related issues. To target teens in this regard Government is introducing sex education at school and college levels. Educating people of marriageable age group: Marriage at early age will increase the rate of births. Therefore, Government has undertaken measure to educate people about appropriate age for marriage, birth control options, pre and postnatal care to ensure reproductive health. Adequate infrastructure and medical facilities: To attend the needs like contraception, pregnancy, delivery, abortion, infertility control and treatment of sexually transmitted diseases the government is providing adequate infrastructure and medical experts, tools, techniques to ensure reproductive health, Promoting research: Intense research to improve and discover reproductive health devices and modules is encouraged by government. 'Saheli’ — a weekly oral contraceptive pill is one such outcome, Stringent laws: Stringent laws such as banning child marriage, banning amniocentesis (to avoid female foeticide) ete. are imposed by government to achieve reproductive health, 3. Whatare contraceptives? Explain four different non-surgical contraceptive methods. Ans: Contraceptives are methods or devices which help prevent unwanted pregnancies. Non- surgical contraceptive methods: 1) Natural methods : work on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum and sperms meeting. Example: Periodic abstinence, Withdrawal or coitus interruptus / Lactational amenorrhea, 2) Barrier methods: These act as mechanical obstructers and prevent the entry of semen in to the fallopian tube. Example: Condom, Diaphragm, Cervical caps, Vaults. ai, © scaned thon Seameree 3) Intra-uterine devices (TUDs): Intra uterine device is a small flexible plastic or rubber of copper object which is inserted into uterus. These Intra Uterine Devices are presently available as the non-medicated IUDs (¢.g., Lippes loop), copper releasing IUDs (CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375) and the hormone releasing IUDs (Progestasert, LNG-20) They bring about contraception by different ways, 4) Oral contraception (Hormonal methods): This is a contraceptive method in which ‘Pills” are taken orally by females. These pills contain progestogen or progestogen- estrogen combinations that inhibit the secretion of FSH and LH and thus prevent the maturation of graafian follicle and ovulation. 5) Implants and Injectables: These are progestogen or progestogen-estrogen combinations that are used under the skin by females. Their function is similar to that of Oral contraceptives. 4, _ Explain any Five types of assisted reproductive technology. Ans: In vitro fertilization and embryo transfer (IVF-ET) In this method, popularly known as test tube baby programme, ova from the wife / donor (female) and sperms from the husband/donor (male) are collected and are induced to form zygote under simulated conditions in the laboratory. ZAFT [Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer] Thezygote or very early embryosare transferred into the fallopian tubes. IUT- [Intra Uterine Transfer] The embryos more than & cells are transferred into uterus to complete their further development. GIFT [Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer] ‘Transfer of an ovum from a donor to a female who cannot produce the ovum, but can provide a suitable environment for the further growth. AI- [Artificial Insemination] Ifa male partner is incapable of inseminating or suffering from azoospermia or oligospermia then AI technique is employed. The semen is collected by her husband or from the semen bank where donors name isnot disclosed and introduced into the vagina or uterus, ICSI- [Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection] When the envelops of secondary oocytes are rigid under such conditions sperms are directly introduced into the cytoplasm of the ovum, Itis a micromanipulation technique. IUI- [Intra uteri The semen collected from the husband or a healthy donor is artificially introduced into the vagina or into the uterus. EE © seamed with one scamercHapTerR 4 Principles of Inheritance and Variation One Mark Questions 1 A disorder characterized by trisomy of 21 is, (a) Down syndrome (6) haemophili (©) thalassemia (d)_ cystic fibrosis who among the following scientist had no contribution in the development of the double helix model for the structure of DNA. (a) Rosaland Franklin (b) Maurice Wilkins (c) Erwin Chargaft (@) Meselsonand Stahl Extra X chromosome is present in one of the following cases. (a) Downsyndrome (b) Klinifelter syndrome (c) Tumer'ssyndrome (d)_criduchat syndrome IF a genetic disease is transferred from a phenotypically normal but carrier female to only some of the male progeny, the disease is. (a) Autosomal dominant (b) autosomal recessive (c) sex dominant (@) sexlinked recessive Monohybrid test cross ratio is (a) Ii (b) 3:1 (©) 1:2:1 (@) 9:3:3:1 Genes which codes fora pair of contrasting traits are known as (a) Dominant genes (b) Alleles (c) Linked genes (@)_ None ofthe above ‘The amino acid attaches to the (RNA at its (a) Send (b) 3%end (c) Anticodon site (d) DHUloop In the F, generation of a Mendelian dihybrid cross the number of phenotypes and genotypes are. (a) phenotypes-4: genotypes-16 (b)_phenotypes-9; genotypes-4 (c) phenotypes-4: genotypes-8 (@)_ phenotypes-4; genotypes-9 Chargaff’s rule is applicableto (a) Single stranded RNA (b) Double stranded DNA (c) singlestranded RNA and DNA (@)_ Single stranded DNA TE © seamed with one scameree 10 2n-1 represents (a) Monosomy (b) Trisomy (©) Nullisomy, (d)_Tetrasomy 11 The following are Mendelian disorders. (a) Cystic fibrosis and thalassemia (b) Haemophilia and Down syndrome (©) KlinifeltersyndromeandTurnerssyndrome — (a) Down syndrome and Turners syndrome 12 Which one of the followingis an example of polygenie inheritance? (a) Skin colour in humans. (6) Flowercolourin Mirabilis jalapa (c) production of male honey bee (d)_podshapein garden pea. 13. Cross between tall plant from F2 with dwarf plantis (a) back cross (b) dihybrid cross (©) test cross (d)_ monohybrid cross 14 The disorder, Phenylketonuria isan example for (a) Polygenic inheritance (b) Pleiotropy (c) Multiple alleslism (d) Co-dominance 15 Muscular dystrophy is an example for. (a) sexelinked recessive (b)_sexclinked dominant (©) autosomal dominant (d) autosomal recessive 16 trait shows transmission from carrier female to male progeny. (a) X-linked dominant (b) X-linked recessive (c. Yelinked recessive (d)_ autosomal dominant ‘Two Mark Questions 1 Whatis test cross? Mention its significance. Ans: Itis a kind of back cross where F | plant is crossed with its recessive parent. Ithelps in finding genotype of F | Plant whether F1 ishomozygous orheterozygous. 2 Mention two symptoms of Turner's syndrome. Females are sterile as ovaries are rudimentary. » Females lack secondary sexual characters. 3 Whatare the conclusions drawn by T. H. Morgan from crossing experiment in Drosophila melanogaster with respect to linkage, hysical association of two genes is called linkage and nonparental combination is recombination. When genes are loosely linked, show higher recombination and When genes are tightly linked, show low recombination. | Ans: © seamed with one scameree 4 The shape of RBC's of sickle cell anaemia patients change to clongated sickle like structure. Give reason. Ans: Sickle cell anaemia is caused by mutant haemoglobin gene leads to substitution of Glutamic acid (Glu) by Valine (Val) at the sixth position of the beta globin chain of the haemoglobin molecule,The mutant haemoglobin molecule undergoes polymerisation under low oxygen tension causing the change in the shape of the RBC from biconcave disc to elongated sickle like structure, 5 Mention the possible genotypes of A and B blood group individual. Ans:'A'blood group :SPI'i 'B'blood group : PP /T"i 6 — Whyhas THMorgan selected fruit fly for his genetical experiment? Ans: > Fruit fly can be grown on simple synthetic medium in the laboratory. Complete their life cycle in about two weeks Single mating could produce a large number of progeny flies. Clear differentiation of the sexes Many types of hereditary variation & vv 7 Write four symptoms of Down's Syndrome. Ans: Short statured - Flat back of head - Broad flat face - Small round head - Furrowed tongue - Partially open mouth - Congenital heart Disease - Many “loops” on finger tips Palm is broad = characteristic palm crease - Physical, psychomotorand mental development is retarded. 8 Write four symptoms of Down's Syndrome. Ans: Short statured - Flat back of head - Broad flat face - Small round head - Furrowed tongue - Partially open mouth - Congenital heart Disease - Many “loops” on finger tips - Palm is broad - characteristic palm crease - Physical, psychomotor and mental developmentis retarded 9 Whatis incomplete dominance? Give an example. Ans: Incomplete dominance is a phenomenon in which the F1 had a phenotype that did not resemble either of the two parents and was in between the two. OR Incomplete dominance is a phenomenon in which heterozygous condition produces intermediate phenotype/character. Example: The inheritance of flower colour in the dog flower (snapdragon or Antirthinum sp.) OR Starch grain size considered as phenotype in Pea seeds of intermediate size. ai, © scaned thon Seameree 10 What are Mendelian disorders? Give two examples. Ans: Mendelian disorders are mainly caused by alteration or mutation in the single gene. Examples: Haemophilia, Cystic fibrosis, Sickle-cell anaemia, Colour blindness, Phenylketonuria, Thalessemia 11. Distinguish between homozygous and heterozygous plants. Ans: ‘Homozygous plants Heterozygous plants ‘They show similar pair of alleles for a character “They show dissimilar pair of alleles fora character “Homozygous plants produces one type of gamete “Heterozygous plants produces more than one type fora character cof gametes for a character Define point mutation, Give an example for point mutation. Point mutation isthe change in a single base pair of DNA or gene Example: Sickle cell anaemia. 13 Whatare the conclusions drawn with respect to Linkage. ina dihybrid cross two genes present on a chromosome tend to remain together and the proportion of parental combination is much higher than the non-parental type. Even when the genes are grouped on the same chromosome, some genes are tightly linked (show very low recombination) and some are loosely linked (show higher recombination). ‘T H Morgan from the crossing experiments in Drosophila 14 Write the karyotype and mention any two symptoms of Klinefelter's syndrome. Ans: Karyotype of 44A+XXY=47 > Individual has overall masculine development > The feminine development (development of breast, ic., Gynaecomastia) is also expressed > Malesterile. Mention the genotype of the parents when their children are with A, B, AB, O blood groups. Parents have the genotype as Ii and I'i. Three Mark Questions 1 Mention the causes and effects of Phenylketonuria (PKU). Ans: Phenylketonuria is caused due to mutation in autosomal recessive gene. Inbornerrormetabolism leads to lacks an enzyme that converts the amino acid phenylalanine into tyrosine. Effects of Phenylketonuria > Phenylalanine is accumulated and converted into phenylpyruvic acid > Accumulation of phenylpyruvic acid in brain results in mental retardation. > Phenylpyruvicacid exereted through urine because of its poor absorption by kidney. > EE © scaned thon Seamer2 Whatis male heterogamety? Explain sex determination in humans, Ans: Male heterogamety is sex determination mechanism in which males produce two different types of gametes. > — Thesex determining mechanism in case ofhumansis XY and XO type. > During spermatogenesis among males, two types of gametes are produced 50 per cent of the total sperm produced carry the Xchromosome and the rest 50 per cent has Y-chromosome besides the autosomes. Females, however, produce only one type of ovum with an Xchromosome. > Incase the ovum fertlizes with a sperm carrying X-chromosome the zygote develops into a female (XX) and the fertilisation of ovum with Y-chromosome carrying sperm results into a male (XY) offspring, 3 Whatisaneuploidy? Write any four symptoms of Down's syndrome. Ans: Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle results in the gain or loss of a, chromosome(s), called aneuploidy. Foursymptoms of Down's syndrome; Shortstatured - Flatback ofhead - Broad flat face ~ Small round head - Furrowed tongue = Partially ‘open mouth - Congenital heart Disease - Many “loops” on finger tips - Palm is broad - characteristic palm crease - Physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded. 4 Write the karyotype of following syndromes i) Down'ssyndrome ii) Klinefelter's syndrome iii) Turner's syndrome i) Down's syndrome-45A+XX or 454+XY=47 ii) Klinefelter's syndrome -44A+XXY=47 iii) Tumer’s syndrome-44A+X0=45 Ans: 'B' and 5 Explain the Homozygous Genotype of" Ans: Homozygous Genotype of 'A’, - I'I* Homozygous Genotype of 'B - I'l? Homozygous Genotype of '0'— ii or PI” Blood groups. 6. Briefly explain sex determination in human being. ‘The sex determining mechanism in case of humans is XY type. > Out of 23 paits of chromosomes present, 22 pairs are exactly same in both males and females; these ate the autosomes. > Pair of X-chromosomes is present in the female, whereas the presence of an X and Y chromosome are determinant of the male characteristic > During spermatogenesis among males, two types of gametes are produced 50 per cent of the total sperm produced carry the Xchromosome and the rest 50 per cent has Ychromosome besides the autosomes. Females, however, produce only one type of ovum with an X- chromosome. > © scaned thon Seameree > Incase the ovum fertilizes with a sperm carrying X-chromosome the zygote develops into a female (XX). > The fertilisation of ovum with Y-chromosome carrying sperm results into a male (XY) offspring. 7. Descibe Haplodiploid sex determination system in Honey Bees. Ans: Sex determination in Honey bee > Sex determination in Honey bee is depends on | = Female th number of sets of chromosome, this method is ote ae called Haplodiploid method of sex determination. | Gases 4g) vy - 6 > Chromosome number in Diploid Honey bee is | , ? : 2n=32. 5 “ aa > Offsprings formed by the union of sperm(n=16) and egg (n=16) develops into female [Queen/Worker]. Later queen lays haploid eggs by meiosis. > Unfertile eggs develop into male honey bee by parthenogenesis, 8. Writeanoteon Colour blindness. Ans: > It is a sex linked recessive gene disorder due to defect in either red or green cone of eye > > resulting in failure to discriminate between red and green colour. This defect is due to mutation in certain genes present in the X chromosome. Ttoccurs in about 8% of males and only about 0.4% of females 9, Explain the mechanism of XO — type of sex determination in insects. Ans: In this type, the females are homogametic and have 'XX' chromosomes and produce only one type of egg carrying 'X’ chromosomes, while the males are heterogametic and have only one ' chromosomes without the partner. Hence they produce two types of sperms where 50% of the sperms carry 'X' chromosome with autosomes (A+X) and other 50% of the sperms carry only autosomes but no allosomes (A+0). Parents Female Male AA+XX AA+XO Gametes A+X A+X A+O Offspring AA+XX AA+XO Female Male ai © scaned thon Seameree the cause and the symptoms of phenyl ketonuria, 10. What is phenylketonuria? Writ Ans: Phenyl ketonuria is inborn error of metabolism, which fails to convert Phenylalanine into Tyrosine. Cause - Lacks an enzyme that converts the amino acid phenylalanine into tyrosine/ Autosomalm recessive trait. Symptoms - Accumulation of phenylalanine in brain results in mental retardation, Five Mark Questions 11. Write the schematic representation of Dihybrid cross and mention the result Ans: anced | Yoon | Ye! | Yor 12. State the law of independent assortment? Write schematic representation of Dihybrid cross. Ans: Mendel’s Law of Independent Assortment states that 'when two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation of one pair of characters is independent of the other pair of characters’. For schematic representation of dihybrid cross. Explanation: Resim, Mendel worked with pea plants by considering two characters, shape and colour of the seed. In the dihybrid cross the phenotypes round yellow, wrinkled yellow, round green and wrinkled green appeared in theratio9:3:3:1. ‘The Punett square can be used to understand the independent segregation of the two pairs of genes during meiosis and the production of eggsand pollen inthe F1 Rr¥y plant > EE * © scaned thon Seameree Consider the segregation of one pair of genes R and r, SOpercent of the gametes have the gene R and the other 50 percent haver. The segregation of SOpercent R and 50 Percent ris independent from the segregation of 50 percent ¥ and 50 percent y. Therefore 50 percent of the r bearing gametes has Y and the other 50 percent has y. Thus there are four genotypes of gametes. The four types are RY, Ry, rY and ry each witha frequency of 25 percent 13. Whatisincomplete dominance? Expl fh reference to flower colourin Snapdragon. Ans: Incomplete dominance is a phenomenon in which heterozygous condition produces intermediate character. Parents Female X Mate Phenotype: | Read White Gomotype: Tene + ameter, CQ CD Nee Fy teybriet: Re (Pinky Parents Femalc 2X Male Phenotype: Pink Pinte Phenotypic Ratio ~ Red: Pink: White te2t Explanation: > — InSnapdragon, when homozygous red flowered (RR) plant was crossed homozygous white flowered (Rr) plant, they produced intermediate character like Pink flowered (Rr) in the Fi generation. > — When FI was self pollinated the F2 resulted in the following Phenotypic ratio - | Red: 2 Pink: I White, genotypic ratio | RR: 2Rr: rt. a, © scaned thon SeamercHapTeR 5 Molecular Basis of inheritance One Mark Questions During transcription, the DNA site at which RNA polymerase binds is called (a) promoter () regulator (©) receptor (@) enhancer Which of the following has additional roles such as adopter, structural and catalytic role ? (@) DNA (6) protein (©) RNA (d)_ lipids Haploid content of human DNA is (a) 6.6x10°bp (b) 4.6x10°bp (0) 48502bp @)_3.3x10°bp Among the following purine is represented by (a) Adenine (6) Cytosine (©) Uracil (4) Thymine Who showed that ratio between purines and pyrimidines in DNAjs constant and equals one? (a) Meischer (6) Wilkins (c) Franklin (@)_ Erwin Chargaft's Each nucleoside consists of (a) Abase and a sugar (b) A base and a phosphate (c) Asugar and a phosphate (@)_Abase, a sugar and a phosphate Ina double stranded DNA which has 15% Adenine, there will be (1) 15% cytosine 2) 35% cytosine (3) 85% cytosine (4) 30% cytosine ‘The region of euchromatin is (1) Loosely packed and darkly stained (2) Loosely packed and lightly stained (3) Densely packed and darkly stained (4) Densely packed and lightly stained A typical nucleosome of a DNA molecule contains (1) 160 base pairs (2) 180 base pairs (3) 200 base pairs (4) 220 base pairs oo * © seamed with one scamer10 R 1B 14 15 16 18 19 21 —“e Information transfer from DNA to RNA is (1). Replication (2) Translation (3) Transcription (4). Reverse transcription ee In eukaryotes, genes are split because of (1) Polyeistronic DNA (2) Monocistronic DNA (3) Exons inturrupted by introns (4) _Introns interrupted by operons During transcription, eapping refers to the addition of (1) Adenylate residues at 3" end (2) Adenylate residues at 5' end (3) Methyl guanosine triphosphateat3'end (4) Methyl guanosine triphosphate at s' end ‘The most striking example of point mutation is found in a disease is called (1) sickle cell anaemia (2) Nightblindness (3) Down'ssyndrome (4) Turmer'ssyndrome ‘The regulatory gene 'i' in lac-Operon of Escherichia coli codes for (1) Betagalactosidase (2) Lactose permease (3) Repressor protein (4) Thiogalactoside transacetylase The technique of DNA analysis whichis used in forensic science is (1) Agarose gel electrophoresis (2) Polymerase chain reaction (3) DNAfingerprinting (4) ELISA A technology which has found immense usein solving cases of disputed parentage is (1) Polymerase chain reaction (2) DNA finger printing (3) Monoclonal antibody production (4) Recombinant DNA technology ‘The human genome contains nucleotide bases. (1) 3164.7 million (2) 2968 million (3) 14million (4) 2.4million The enzyme that is primaril galactose in Escherichia coli is y responsible for the hydrolysis of lactose into glucose and (1) B-galaetosidase (2) Lactose permease (3) Lactose dehydrogenase (4) Thiogalactoside transacetylase According to Operon concept’ of gene action, a regulator sequence forms (1) Aninducer Q) Arepressor molecule (3) 3promoterpeptide (4) Ageneral inhibitor One of the followingisa major requirement for DNA finger printing; (1) Elution (2) ELISA (3) Electrophoresis (4). Splicing i _ © seamed with one scamerce ‘Two Mark Questions 1 Mention the chemical linkages between the components of DNA. Ans: Hydrogen bond, Glycosidic bond, Phospho diester bond. 2 Differentiate Euchromatin from Heterochromatin. Ans: ® Euchromatin: Loosely packed, lightly stained and transcriptionally active region of chrom: > Heterochromatin : Densely packed, Darkly-stained and transcriptionally inactive region of chromatin. 3 Codons AUG has dual function. Give reason. Ans: » AUG-Codes for Methionine > —AUG-Actsasinitiator codon. 4 Name thescientist who found out DNA and what was the name given by him? Ans: DNA was first identified by Friedrich Meischer, He named itas 'Nuclein’ Three Mark Questions 1 Mention the three goals of HGP. (K) Goals of HGP > Identify all the estimated genes in human DNA. > Determine the sequences of the 3 billion chemical base pairs that make up human DNA. > Store this information in databases. > Improve tools for data analysis. > Transferrelated technologies to other sectors. Address the ethical, legal and social issues (ELSI) that may a from the project 2 Mention thecriteria fora molecule that acts as a genetic material. Ans: Criteria of DNA actas a genetic material : a) Itshould beable to generate its replica (Replication). b) _Itshould chemically and structurally be stable. ¢) _Itshould provide the scope for slow changes (mutation) that are required for evolution 4) Itshould be able to express itself in the form of Mendelian Characters’. (Any Three) 3. Explain biochemical characterization of transforming principle of Oswald Avery. Ans: ® Oswald Avery, Colin Macleod & Maclyn McCarty worked to determine the biochemical nature of transforming principle' in Griffith's experiment. > They purified biochemicals (proteins, DNA, RNA etc.) from heat killed $ cells using suitable enzymes. They discovered that, > Digestion of protein and RNA (using Proteases and RNases) did not affect transformation. So, the transforming substance was nota protein or RNA. > Digestion of DNA with DNase inhibited transformation. It means that DNA caused transformation of R cells to S cells, i.e. DNA was the transforming principle. EE © scaned thon Seameree 4 DNAisthe better genetic material than RNA. Justify the statement with three comparative reasons, DNA is more stable because even if the two complementary strands are separated by factors like heat, they can come together again. But RNA is more labile and easily degradable because of an additional-OH group in the 2'” position of ribose in every nucleotide. > DNA doesnotactas enzyme. Butsome RNA molecule acts asenzyme and therefore, is more reactive. > DNAhas Thymine which gives additional stability. RNA molecule does not have Thymine > BothDNAand RNA can mutate, But RNA mutate ata faster rateas itis less table. (Any three) Five Mark Questions Explain the structure of double helical DNA as proposed by Watson and Crick. (U) » Friedrich Meischer (1869): Identified DNA and named it as'Nuclein’, James Watson & Francis Crick (1953) proposed double helix model of DNA. Itwas based on X-ray diffraction data produced by Maurice Wilkins & Rosalind Frant DNAismade of 2 polynucleotide chains coiled ina right handed fashion, In each strand, sugar & phosphate are alternatively arranged & forms backbone of the DNA. The nitrogenous bases get attached to the sugar units. ‘The 2 chains have anti-parallel polarity, ie. one chain has the polarity $'3'and the otherhas 3 vvvv v Vv ‘The pairing of nitrogen bases are always between a specific purines and specific Pyrimidines i.c., between A and T, Gand C and vice versa, This type of base pairing is called complementary base pairing > The nitrogenous bases in 2 strands are paired through H-bonds forming base pairs (bp). Adenine pairs with thymine by 2 weak hydrogen bonds (A=T) & Guanine pairs with Cytosine by 3 weak hydrogen bonds (G=C). > Purine comes opposite to a pyrimidine, This generates uniform distance between the 2 strands. > Erwin Chargaff’s rule: Purines & Pyrimidine occur in equal amounts, . [A] +[G]=[T] + [C] Or In DNA. the proportion ofA is equal toT and the proportion of Gis equal to C. or [A] + [G]/[T]+[C]=1 > Thepitch of the helix is 3.4nm or 34 A & thereare roughly 10bp ineach turn > Each turn/gyre has a deep major groove of 22 Ao (2.2nm) and a shallow minor groove of 12 Ao(1.2nm) along its length. » Double stranded DNA molecule has a diameter of 20A and distance between two successive base pairs is 0.34nm (3.4 A). © seamed with one scamervvvvvy v Draw the diagram of nucleosome and explain the packas ee 1g of DNA in eukaryotes. (U) In prokaryotes (E.g. E. coli), the DNA is not scattered throughout the cell, DNA, being negatively charged, is held with some positively charged proteins and form 'nucleoid’. In eukaryotes, there isa set of positively charged, basic proteins called hist cs. Histonesare rich in positively charged basic amino acid residues lysines and arginines. 8 histones form histone octamer. Negatively charged DNA is wrapped around histone octamer to give nucleosome. Atypical nucleosome contains 200 bp. ‘Therefore, the total number of nucleosomes in human = 6.6x 109bp /200: 3x 107 Nucleosomes constitute the repeating unit to form chromatin, cia Chromatin is the thread-like stained bodies, Tr ‘Nucleosomes in chromatin="beads-on-string’ Chromatin is packaged — chromatin fibres —> coiled and “a condensed at metaphase stage — chromosomes. : Higher level packaging of chromatin requires non-histone | covalhinmewaicaiey chromosomal (NHC) proteins. Chromatins include Euchromatin : Loosely packed, lightly stained and transcriptionally active region of chromati Heterochromatin : Densely packed, Darkly-stained and transcriptionally inactive region of chromatin, 3. Explain Griffith's transformation experiment which proved that DNA is the genetic material. (U) Ans: > > Griffith used mice & Streptococcus pneumoniae, Streptococcus pneumoniae has? strains- ‘Smooth (S) strain (Virulent): > Has polysaccharide mucus coat. (Hence they produce smooth colonies on culture plate). > Cause pneumonia 2. Rough (R) strain (Non-virulent): > Nomucus oat. (hence they produce rough colonies) > Doesnot cause Pneumonia. Experiment: vv vv S-strain > Inject into mice > Mice die R-strain— Inject into mice > Mice live S-strain (Heat killed) + Inject into mice Mice live S-strain (Hk) + R-strain (live) —* Inject + Heconcluded that some'transforming principle’, transferred from heat-killed S-strain to R-strain, + Itenabled R-strain to synthesize smooth polysaccharide coat and become virulent. This must be due to the transfer of genetic material > EE © scaned thon Seameree 4 Describe the experiment of Hershey—Chase which proves that DNA is the genetic material, (U) Ans: Hershey-Chase Experiment (Blender Experiment). > — Hershey & Chase grew some bacteriophage viruses on a medium containing radioactive phosphorus(_ ) and some others on medium containing radioactive sulphur (S35). Viruses grown in P32 got radioactive DNA because only DNA contains phosphorus. Viruses grown in $35 got radioactive protein because protein contains sulphur. ‘These preparations were used separately to infect E. coli. During this bacteriophage first attaches to bacterial cell wall and then insert its genetical material into the bacterial cell. The viral genetic material became the integral part of the genome and manufactures more virus particles using host machinery. > After infection, the B. coli cells were gently agitated in a blender to remove the virus particles from the bacteria. > — Then theculture was centrifuged to separate lighter virus particles from heavier bacterial cells. Bacteria infected with viruses having radioactive DNA were radioactive. i.e., DNA had passed from the virus to bacteria, > Bacteria infected with viruses having radioactive proteins were not radioactive. ie., proteins did not > — enterthe bacteria from the viruses. This proves that DNA is the genetic material. vvvy wr w 5. Describe the experiment of Messelson and Stahl that proves that replication of DNA is semiconservative.(U) Messelson & Stahl's Experiment: > — They cultured E. coli in a medium containing SNH4CL (15N: heavy isotope of N). 15N was incorporated into both strands of bacterial DNA and the DNA became heavier. > Another preparation containing N salts labeled with 14N is also made. 14N was incorporated in both strands of DNA and became lighter. » — These 2 types of DNA can be separated by centrifugation in a CsCl density gradient. > — They took E.coli cells from ISN medium and transferred to 14N medium, > After one generation (ic. after 20 minutes), they isolated and centrifuged the DNA. lis densi ‘was intermediate (hybrid) between ISN DNAand 14N DNA. > This shows that the newly formed DNA one strand is old (1SN type) and one strand is new (I4N type). This confirms semi-conservative replication. > After II generation (i.e. after 40 minutes), there was equal amounts of hybrid DNA and light DNA. © scaned thon Seameree + & colleagues (1958) performed similar experiments on Vicia faba (faba beans) using radioactive thymidine to detect distribution of newly synthesized DNA in the chromosomes. > > Itproved that the DNA in chromosomes also replicate semi-conservatively. 6 Explain semi-conservative replication of DNA with a diagram, (U) Ans: The process of replication is proved qualitatively by J.Herbert Tayler and quantitatively by Meselson and Stahl. > — DNAreplication starts ata point called origin (ori). > — Aunitofreplication with one origin is called a replicon, > — During replication, the 2 strands unwind and separate by breaking H-bonds in presence of an enzyme, Helicase. > — Unwinding ofthe DNA molecule ata point forms a'Y'-shaped structure called replication fork. > The separated strands act as templates for the synthesis of new strands. > — DNAreplicatesin the S'>3' direction. > — Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (dATP, dGTP, dCTP & dTTP) act as substrate and provide energy for polymerization, > Firstly, a small RNA primer is synthesized in presence of an enzyme, primase. > Inthe presence of an enzyme, DNA dependent DNA polymerase, many nucleotides join with ‘one another to primer strand and form a polynucleotide chain (new strand) > — The DNA polymerase forms one new strand (leading strand) in a continuous stretch in the 5'3' direction (Continuous synthesis). » The other new strand is formed in small stretches (Okazaki fragments) in 5’ 3 direction (Discontinuous synthesis). > The Okazaki fragments are then joined together to form a new strand by an enzyme, DNA. ligase. This new strand is called lagging strand. v Ifa wrong base is introduced in the new strand, DNA polymerase can do proof reading. E.coli completes replication within 38 minutes. i.e. 2000 bp persecond. Ineukaryotes, the replication of DNA takes place at $ — phase of the cell cycle Failure in cell division after DNA replication results in polyploidy. vvyv so Template DNA (parental strands) © scaned thon Seameree 7. Explain thestructure of transcription unit with a labeled diagram. (U) Ans: Transcription Unit > Itisthe segment of DNA between the sites of initiation and termination of transcription. > — Itconsists of 3 regions: 1. Apromoter (Transcription start site): Binding site for RNA polymerase. Located at Send (upstream) of coding strand. Structural gene : The region between promoter and terminator where transcription takes place 3. Aterminator: The site where transcription stops. Located at 3’end (downstream) of coding gene. > The DNA- dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes the polymerization only in 5 3'direction > 3! >5'acts as template strand & 5'>3" acts as coding strand. ‘Transcription start site ‘Schematic structure of a transcription unit 8 Describe the process of transcription in bacteria with a labeled diagram. (U) Ans: Steps of Transcription in Prokaryotes > Initiation: Here, the enzyme RNA polymerase binds at the promoter site of DNA. This causes the local unwinding of the DNA double helix. An initiation factor (6 factor) present in RNA polymerase initiates the RNA synthesis. > Elongation: RNA chain is synthesized in 5-3" direction. In this process, activated ribonucleoside triphosphates (ATP, GTP, and UTP & CTP) are added. This is complementary to the base sequence in the DNA template. > Termination: A termination factor (p factor) binds to the RNA polymerase and terminates the transcription. > In bacteria (Prokaryotes), transcription and translation can be coupled (Translation can begin before mRNA is fully transcribed) because ¥ m-RNA requires no processing to become active. Y Transcription and translation take place in the same compartment (no separation ofcytosol and nucleus) ai, © scaned thon Seameree 9, Describe the process of transcription in eukaryotes with a labeled diagram. (U) Ans: IN EUKARYOTES, THERE ARE 2 ADDITIONAL COMPLEXITIES: ‘There are3 RNA polymerases : 1. RNApolymerase I: TranscribesrRNAs (28S, 18S & 5.85). 2. RNA polymerase IT: Transcribes the heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA). It is the precursorofmRNA. 3. RNApolymerase III: Transcribes tRNA, 5S RNA and snRNA (small nuclear RNAS). 2. The primary transcripts (hnRNA) contain exons and introns and are non-functional. Hence introns must be removed. For this, it undergoes the following processes: > Splicing: From hnRNA introns are removed (by the spliceosome) and exons are spliced (joined) together. > Capping: Here, a nucleotide methyl guanosine triphosphate (cap) is added to the 5' end of hnRNA. > Tailing (Polyadeny!: fully processed > —bnRNA, now called mRNA. \n): Here, adenylate residues (200-300) are added at 3'-end. It is the 10. Whatis genetic code? Explain any four salient features of genetic code.(Any 5) (U) Ans: The process of translation require transfer of genetic ibformation from polymer of nucleotides to synthesisa polymer amino acids. Salient features of genetic code: Genetic code is triplet in nature : The sequence of three nucleotides or nitrogen bases codes for one amino acid. Ex: AAA, UAC, AAU, ete. Genetic code is universal: A particular codon codes for the same amino acid in all organisms from bacteria to higher plants and animals. Ex: AUG codes for Methionine, UUU codes for phenylalanine, (some exceptions in mitochondrial and protozoan codons) Genetic code is non-overlapping: The nitrogen bases are read continuously in groups of three without sharing or overlapping. Genetic code is degenerate: Most of the amino acids are coded by more than one codon, such codons are called degenerate or synonymous Codons and the phenomenon is called degeneracy. Ex: Alanine is coded by GCA, GCC, GCU and GCG. OE? © scaned thon Seameree Genetic code is comma less: The codons are read continuously from one end to other without any break or punctuation marks between the codons. Genetic code is non-ambiguous or specific: A particular codon always codes for the same amino acid without any mistake this characteristic is called non-ambiguity. Genetic code has an initiator codon: The protein synthesis starts or initiates by a particular codon, called initiator codon. AUG present near the 5’ end of the mRNA act as initiator codon in most of the organisms which codes for methionine. Therefore methionine is the first amino acid in most of the proteins, Rarely GUG act as initiator codon in some bacteria which codes for formyl- methionine. Genetic code has non-sense or terminator codons: The codons which do not code for any amino acid and signal the termination of protein synthesis are called non-sense codons. Ex: UAA, UAG and UGA. 11. Explain the different steps involved in translation OR (prot the process of translation of mRNA. ‘Translation refers to the process of polymerization of amino acids to form a polypeptide. >» The orderand sequence ofamino acids are defined by the sequence of bases in the mRNA. > The amino acids are joined by a bond which is knownasa peptide bond. > Ittakes place in ribosomes. It includes steps’ 1. Charging of RNA ynthes (U) OR Describe 2. Initiation 3. Elongation 4, Termination 1. Charging (amino-acylation) of (RNA > Formation of peptide bond needs energy obtained from ATP. > The amino acids are activated by ATP in the presence of Mg++ to form amino-acyl-AMP. complex. Amino acid +ATPAmino-acyl AMP complex+ Pi > And Amino-acylAMP complex linked to their binding site oft RNA in presence of amino-acyl tRNA synthetase to form amino-acyl tRNA. Thus, the tXNA becomes charged. Amino-acyl AMP complex +{-RNA Amino-aeyl t-RNA complex. ition > Itbeginsat the S'-end of mRNA in the presence of anini > The mRNA binds to the small subunit of ribosome. Now the large subunit binds to the small subunit to complete the initiation complex. > Large subunit has 2 binding sites for (RNA amino-acyl tRNA binding site (A site) and peptidyl site (P site). > Initiation codon for methionine is AUG. So methionyl tRNA complex would have UAC at the Anticodon site. i ion factor. © scaned thon Seamer3. Elongation Atthe P site, the first codon of mRNA binds with anticodon of methionyl tRNA complex. > — Another amino-acyl tRNA complex with an appropriate amino acid enters the ribosome and attaches to A site. ts anticodon binds to the second codon on the mRNA and a peptide bond is formed between first and second amino acids in presence of an enzyme, peptidy! transferase. > First amino acid and its tRNA are broken. This tRNA is removed from P site and second tRNA, atthe site is pulled to Psite along with mRNA. This is called translocation. Then 3rd codon comes into A site anda suitable tRNA with 3rd amino acid bindsat the A site. This process is repeated. — 4. Termination > When aminoacyl tRNA reaches the termination codon like UAA, UAG & UGA, the termination of translation occurs. > — Thepolypeptideand tRNA are released from the ribosomes. > — Theribosome dissociates i (0 large and small subunits at the end of protein synthesis. See, 12. Explain Lac-operon concept with diagrams. (U) Ans: > “Each metabolic reaction is controlled by a set of genes” .All the genes regulating a metabolic reaction constitute an Operon. E.g. lac operon, trp operon, Ara Functioning of the lac operon Case 1: Lactose absent » Ifthereisno lactose (inducer), lac operon remains switched off. > — Theregulator gene synthesizes mRNA to produce the repressor protein. > This protein binds to the operator genes and blocks RNA polymerase movement. So the structural genes are not expressed. Therefore there is no transcription, no translation and no production of enzymes. Thus enzymes are not produced if lactose isabsent. So, the operons switched off or turned off in the absence of lactose Vv © seamed with one scameree Case 2 : Lactose Present > The regulator gene synthesizes mRNA to produce the repressor protein. > — Lactose (inducer) binds with repressor protein. So repressor protein cannot bind to operator gene. > The operator gene becomes free and induces the RNA polymerase to bind with promoter gene. Then > transcription starts. fescias ele eee V]®] — Impresence of inducor 1 t Transcription aS Ropresier mRNA Je miRNA } | Translation <> Pegalactosidase Permea: Transacetyase Inducer oo dD (inactive repressor) 13 Mention any five Salient features of Human Genome. Ans: > Human genome contains 3164.7 million nucleotide bases. > Total number of genes=about 30,000. > Average gene consists of 3000 bases, but sizes vary. Largest known human gene (dystrophin on X chromosome) contains 2.4 million bases. > 99.9% nucleotide bases are same in all people. Only 0.1% (3x106 bp) difference makes every individual unique. > Functions of over 50% of discovered genes are unknown. > — Chromosome I has most genes (2968) and Y has the fewest (231). > — Lessthan 2% of the genome codes for proteins. > Very large portion of human genome is made of repeated (repetitive) sequences. These are stretches of DNA sequences that are repeated many times. They have no direct coding functions. They shed light on chromosome structure, dynamics and evolution, > About 1.4mi nucleotide ion locations have single-base DNA differences. They are called SNPs (Single as polymorphism or ‘snips'). (This helps to find chromosomal locations for diseases and tracing human history). i _ © seamed with one scameree 14 What is DNA finger printing? Write the sequential steps involved in DNA fingerprinting. Mention two applications of this technique. (K) OR what are VNTR. 's? Mention the steps to detect VNTR sin identifying criminalsin forensic investigations. Ans: VNTRi's -The DNA fragments that shows very high degree of polymorphism Steps of DNA fingerprinting (Southern Blotting Technique) > Isolation of DNA. > Digestion of DNAby restriction endonucleases. > Separation of DNA fragments by gel electrophoresis. > — Transferring (blotting) DNA fragments to synthetic membranes such as nitrocellulose or nylon. > — Hybridization using radioactive labelled VNTR probe. > — Detection of hybridized DNA by autoradiography. > — The image (in the form of dark& light bands) obtained is called DNA fingerprint. It differs from individual to individual except in monozygotic (identical) twins, > The sensitivity of the technique has been increased by use of polymerase chain reaction (PCR). Therefore, > DNA fromasinglecell is enough for DNA finger printing, Application of DNA fingerprinting > — Forensic toolto solve paternity, rape, murder etc, > Forthe diagnosis of genetic diseases. > — Todetermine phylogenetic status of animals, > — Todetermine population and genetic diversities. > OP © scaned thon SeamercHapteR 6 Evolution One Mark Questions The attempts to explai the origin of universe, (1). Theory spontaneous generation (2) Theory of Panspermia (3) Theory of chemical evolution (4) Big Bang theory Which of the following proposes that units of life called 'spores' were transferred to different planets includingearth. (1) Theory spontaneous generation Q) Theory of Panspermia (3) Theory of chemical evolution (4) Big Bang theory was about 20 feet in height and had huge fearsome dagger-like teeth. (1) Tehtyosaurs (2) Coelocanths (3). Tyrannosaurus (4) Lobefins Atype of natural selection in which more individuals acquire mean character valueis called (1) Disruptive selection (2) Stabilisi (3). Directional selection (4) Genetic drift Which of the following is not an example of anthropogenic ation ? (1) Development of drug resistance (2) Development of antibiotic resistance in microbes (3) Evolution of dark coloured moths from light coloured moths due to industrialization (4) Founder's effect Evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a point and literally spreading to other areas of geography is called (1) Adaptive radiation (2) Convergent evolution (3). Stabilising selection (4) Saltation Saltation is (1). Origin of life by chemical evolution (2). Single step large mutations (3) Formation of new species by natural selection (4) Survival of the fittest Placental mammals in Australia exhibit (1) Adaptive radiation (2) Convergent evolution (3). Stabilising selection (4) Saltation EE © seamed with one scamer10 W 12 13 14 15 ee 1g to Hugo de Vries, single step large mutation is called (1) Genetic drift (2) Gene flow (3) Founder's effect (4) Saltation Which of the following is correct ? (1) Wings of birds and wings of insects are homologous (2) Flippers of dolphin and flippers of penguin homologous (3) Tendrils of Cucurbita and thorns Bougainvillea are homologous (4). Vertebrate brains are analogous Analogy is based on (1) Divergent evolution 2) Convergent evolution (3) Chemical evolution G) Adaptive radiation According to Lamarck, evolution of life forms occurred due to (1). Transfer of units of life called 'spores' to different planets including earth (2) Natural selection 3) Use and disuse of organs (4) Chemical evolution Bones of forelimbs of whale, bat, cheetah and man are examples for (1) Divergent evolution (2) Convergent evolution (3) Chemical evolution (4) Adaptive radiation Palacontological evidences of evolution refer to the (1) Development of embryo (2) Homologous organs (3) Analogous organs 4) Fossils SLMiller took a mixture of. in the spark discharge apparatus for his experiment. (1) CH4, CO2, NH3 (2) CH4, H2, HCN (3) NH3, HCN, CO2 @) CH4, H2, NHB Two Mark Questions 1 What is adaptive radiation? Give an example The process of evolution of different species in a geographical area starting from a common point and literally radiating to other areas of geography is called adaptive radiation, Ex: Darwin Finches, Australian Marsupials Give two example for homologous organs? 1 Forelimbsofman, bat, whales, cheetah 2 ThornofBougainvilleaand tendrils of cueurbita, Name the two points of Darwinian theory of evolution. Branching descent and Natural selection Give two examples for analogous organs? 1, Wings of butterfly and birds 2. Eye of octopus and mammals. EE © seamed with one scamereX Three Mark Questions 1 Explain Miller's experiment with neat labeled diagram. In 1953 S.L. Miller an American scientist created similar conditions in the laboratory scale similar to the primitive atmosphere, high temperature, voleanic storms, reducing atmosphere containing ammonia and methane. He created electric discharge in a closed flask containing CH4,H2, NHB and water vaporsat 8000C , He observed formation ofammonia acids. ioction of culation fen 2 Writeanote on homologous and analogous organs with examples Homologous organs : Organs which look different and perform different functions but have the same basic structure and origin (Structurally similar, functionally different) Eg. Forelimbs of vertebrates such as (flipper), bat (Patagium), horse (forelimb), man (arm) ete Analogous organs : Organs which have same function and look superficially alike but are quite different in fundamental structure and embryonic origin (functionally similar, structurally different) Eg. Wing of insect and that of a bat, ins of fishes and flippers of whale, strings of honey bee and. scorpion 3. Write the brain capacity of the following 1. Homo habilis-650-800 cc 2. Homo erectus-900ce 3. Neanderthal man-1400ce 4 Name the following 1. Biggest dinosaur -Tyrannasaurus rex 2. Human-like primate- Homo habilis 3. First fish evolved into amphi ‘oelacanth EE © scaned thon Seameree Five Mark Questions 1 Explain evolution by natural selection by taking an example of white winged moth and dark winged moth of the england. > Before industrialization set in, it was observed that there were more white winged moths ontrees than dark winged moths ormelonised moths > But after industrialization i.e., in 1920, there were more dark winged moths in the same area ie., the proportion was reverse > The explanation put for this observation was that predators will spot a moth against a contrasting background. > During post industrialization period, the tree trunks became dark due to industrial smoke and soot. Under this condition the white winged moth did not survive due to predators, dark winged ormelonised moth survived. > Before industrialization thick growth of almost white colored lichens covered the trees- in the background the white winged moth survived but dark colored moth were picked out by predators. 2. Explain the factors that affeet Hardy-Weinberg law. Five factors are known to affect Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. These are gene migration or gene flow, genetic drifi, mutation, genetic recombination and natural selection. > Gene migration : transfer of population to another place and population occurs, gene frequencies change in the original as well as in the new population, > Genetic drift: the change in allele frequency ofa small population by chance, > Mutation : change in DNA sequence and causes changes in genotype and phenotype of anorganism. + Genetic recombination : The exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of the homologous chromosomes causes genetic recombination. > Naturalselection: selection of betteradapted individuals wi useful variations. ai, © scaned thon SeamercHaPTER 7 Human Health and Disease Five Mark Questions Epidermophyton causes (1) Ringworm disease (2) Filariasis (3) Malaria (4) Pneumonia ic inflammation of the organs, usually lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs is the tic of (1) Pneumonia (2) Malaria (3) Ascariasis G@) Filariasis Biological response modifiers such as a—interferons are used to treat the patients suffering from (1) Typhoid (2) AIDS (3) Pneumonia (@) Cancer In + 4 piece of the suspected tissue cut into thin sections is stained and examined under microscope to detect cancer. (1) Widal test (2) Computed tomography (3) ELISA (4) Biopsy DNA of HIV replicates in the macrophages with the help ofan enzyme called (1) Reverse transcriptase (2) DNApolymerase (3) RNApolymerase (4) DNAligase ‘The immune-suppressive drugs are very essential to the patient during organ transplantation. Otherwise, the transplantis rejected by (1) Humoral immunity (2) Cell mediated immunity (3) Immunoglobulins (4) Blymphocytes Immature lymphocytes differentiate and proliferate in (1) Bone marrow and thymus (2) Bonemarrow and spleen (3) Peyer's patchesand lymph nodes (4) Appendix and spleen Heroin is commonly called (1) Coke (2) Crack (3) Smack (4) cocaine Cancer patients are given substances called biological response modifiers such as which activate the immune system and help in destroying the tumor. (1) a- interferon (2) Barbiturate (3) Amphetamine (4) Histamine ai, © seamed with one scameree 10 — Theantibodies produced in response to allergens in the environment are of the type (1) IgA (2) IgM (3) IgE (4) IgG 11 Colostrum secreted by mother dus abundant antibodies of the type (1) Iga (2) IM (3) IgE (4) IgG ion contains itial days of lactation after partur 12 Aspecial type of cell which carries out primary and secondary immune responses against any antige (1) Macrophage (2) Neutrophil (3) Monocyte (4) Blymphocyte 13 Macrophages which provideinnate immunity act as (1) Physiological barrier (2) Physical barrier (3) Cellularbarrier (4) Cytokine barrier 14 Acidin the stomach which provides innate immunity is a (1) Physiological ba (2) Physical barrier (3) Cellular barrier (4) Cytokine barrier 15 The toxic substance released due to the rupture of RBCs which is responsible for the chill and high fever recurring every 3—4 daysin malariais (1) Gametocyte (2) Sporozoite (3) Haemozoin (4) Interferon 16 Drinking water and eating food contaminated by the faecal matter are the main sources of infection which causes (1) Malaria (2) Filaria (3) Amoebie dysentery (4) Typhoid 7 Natural r cells which provide innate immunity act as (1) Physiological barrier (2) Physical barrier (3) Cellularbarrier (4) Cytokine barrier 18 The chronic use of drugs and aleohol damages liver leac (1) Benign tumor (2) (3) Malignant tumor (A) Cystic fibrosis 19 The body attacks self cells (1) Rheumatoid arthritis (2) Allergy (3) Auto-immune diseases (4) Cystic fibrosis Eh © seamed with one scamerTwo Mark Questions 1 Write thescientific name of organisms causing i) Pneumonia if) Ring worm ‘Ans: i, Pneumonia: Streptococcus pneumonia. ii, Ringworm: Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton. 2 Name of the pathogen, mode of transmission and symptoms of Typhoid. : Pathogen : Salmonella typhi(Bacterium), Mode of transmission: contaminated food and water. Symptoms: Sustained high fever, weakness, stomach pain, constipation, headache and loss of appetite. Whatis contact inhibition? Mention the types of tumors. Normal cells by contact with neighbouring cells inhibit or control their growth this process called contact inhibition. Two types of tumor: Benign tumorand malignant tumor, What is auto-immunity? Give an example. : Sometimes body attack on self-cells, due fo genetic or other unknown reasons, and results in damage of the body this is called auto-immunity. Ex: Rheumatoid arthritis. 5 Drawaneat labelled diagram ofan antibody molecule. 6. — Whatis Innate immunity? Mention any two types of innate immunity barriers. Ans: Innate immunity is non-specific type of defence that is present atthe time of birth. i, Physical barriers ii, Physiological barriers. 7. Whatisallergy? Name the two chemicals released by mast cells in the body during allergy. > Exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens present in environment is called allergy. > Histamine and serotonin are the two chemicals released by mast cells during allergy. 8. Distinguish between benign tumor an malignant tumor. Benign tumors normally remain confined in their original location and do not spread to other parts of the body and cause little damage. Malignant tumors are a mass of proliferating cells called neoplastic or tumor cells. Cells of malignant tumors spread in the body by the process called metastasis. ai, © scaned thon SeamerEOD! 9, What are the causes of drug abuse in adolescence : Curiosity Need for adventure and excitement Experimentation Peer pressure from friends Unstable or unsupportive family structures Three Mark Questions 1 Write a note on pneumonia. Ans: > Bacteria like Streptococcus pneumonia and Haemophilus influenza are responsible for the disease pneumonia in humans which infects the alveoli of lungs. > — Asaresult of infection, the alveoli get filled with fluid leading to severe problems in respiration. > The symptoms of pneumonia are fever, chills, cough and headache. In severe cases, the lips and finger nails may turn gray to bluish in colour. » Ahealthy person acquires the infection by inhaling the droplets/aerosols released by an infected person or even by sharing glasses and utensils with an infected person, 2 List out any three types of innate barriers of defence with an example for each Physical barriers : eg : Skin, Mucus coating of the epithelium lining the respiratory, ‘gastrointestinal and uro-genital tracts which prevent / trapping microbes entering our body. Physiological barriers: eg: Acid (HCI) in stomach, Saliva in mouth (Lysozyme), tears from eyes, sweat (sudorific glands), Oil (sebaceous glands), -all prevents microbial growth. iii, Cellular barriers: eg: Leukocytes (WBC) like Polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes (PMNL~ Neutrophils), monocytes, natural killer cells (lymphocytes), in the blood and macrophages in tissues destroy microbes. iy. Cytokine barriers: eg: Interferons (Anti-viral protein produced from virus infected cells, called interferons). 3. Differentiate active immunity from passive immunity Active immunity Passive immunity ‘Active immunity is produced after infection ‘Passive immunity is by ready-made antibodies given directly to protect the body against foreign agents. It is long lasting immunity. It is short-lived, Tis slow and takes time to give its full effective response. oo * It shows immediate response. © scaned thon Seamer4. Mention any three characteristics of eancer cell. Ans: The growth and differentiation in cancer cell isnot regulated. They show uncontrolled growth, > — Cancer cells lost the property of contact inhibition. > — Theyshow uncontrolled division. > They show metastasis property. v 5. Whatarecareinogens? Mention any two groups of eareinogens with one example foreach, Ans: Agents which cause cancerare called carcinogens. Physical -ionising and non ionising radiations, Chemical—Tobacco smoke. Biological —Cellular oncogenes. (any two) 6. Name the diseases caused by the following organism: Ans: a) Rhino virus b) Wuchereria bancrofti ©) Haemophiliusinfluenzae. a. Rhinovirus-commoncold, b. Wuchereria bancrofti- Elephantiasis, ¢. Haemophilius influenza-Pneumonia. 7. Name of the pathogen, vector and symptoms of Malaria. Ans: Pathogen: Plasmodium vivax Veetor: female Anopheles mosquito. Symptoms: Chills and high fever recurring every three to fourdays. 8. Defineimmuni me two different types of immunity. Ans: > Overall ability of host to fight the disease causing organi called immunity. > Innate immunity and Acquired immunity are two types of immunity. ns, conferred by immune system is 9. List the methods of HIV transmission. Ans: * — Sexual contact with infected person > _ Bytransfusion of contaminated blood and blood products > _ Bysharing infected needles asin the case of intravenous drug abusers > From infected mother toher child through placenta. 10, Whatis meant by withdrawal syndrome? Write any two symptoms, Withdrawal syndrome is the characteristic and unpleasant manifestations of the body, when regular dose of drugs or alcohol is suddenly discontinued. > — Symptoms like, anxiety, shakiness, nausea, sweating, muscle cramps, abdominal pain, Vomiting et. oo * © seamed with one scamerFive Mark Questions 1 i) Where are the opioid receptors located in human body? (2) fi) Mention the techniques involved in cancer detection and diagnosis. (3) Ans: [Opioid receptors are present in CNS and GIT. Il. Biopsy: A piece of suspected tissue cut into thin section is stained Histopathological studies: Stained section is examined under microscope. Blood and Bone marrow test: for increased cell count for leukemia. Radiography, CT and MRI are used to detect cancer of internal organs. 2 Briefly explain any three prevention and control measures of drug/alcohol abuse. Ans: @ Avoiding undue peer pressure in studies, sports and otheractivities © Educating and counselling the child to face problems, stress, disappointments and failures as a part of life. Promoting healthy habits like sports, reading, music, yoga, ete. © Seeking the help of parents, peers and friends to solve their problems. © Looking for danger signs, Alert parents, teachers and friends should identify the danger signs of drugabuse. This would help in initiating proper remedial steps or treatment, © Seeking professional and medical help from qualified persons for de-addiction and rehabilitation programmes. 3. Givethe schematic representation of HIV Life Cyele showing replication 4. Explain the stages of life cycle of Plasmodium. Ans: > — Plasmodium isa protozoan responsible for malar > Plasmodium enters the human body as sporozoites through the bite of infected femalev Anopheles mosquito. > The parasites initially multiply within the liver cells and then attack the RBCs resulting in their rupture. > The rupture of RBCs is associated with release of a toxic substance, haemozoin, which is responsible forthe chill and high fever recurring every three to four days. > — Whena female Anopheles mosquito bites an infected person, these parasites enter the mosquito's body and undergo further development. > Theparasites multiply within them to form sporozoites that are stored in their salivary glands, > When these mosquitoes bite a human, the sporozoites are introduced into his/her body, thereby initiating the events mentioned above. >. © seamed with one scamercHapteR 8 Microbes in Human Welfare One Mark Questions ‘The organisms that enrich the nutrient quality of the soil are called (1) Biofertilizers (2) Biolisties (3) Biocontrollers (4) Bioplasma In biological control, the ladybird beetle is used to get rid of (1) Aphids (2) Mosquitoes (3) Bacteria (4) Nematodes A mass of bacteria associated with fungal filaments to form mesh produced during biological treatment of sewage. This is called (1) Flocs (2) Activated sludge (3) Primary sludge (4) Slurry BOD refers to the amount of the oxygen that would be consumed if all the organic matter in of water were oxidised by bacteria. ( One microliter (2) Onemillilitre (3) Oneliter (4) Onedeciliter The bioactive molecule obtained from Monascus purpureus which competi enzyme responsible for the synthesis of cholesterol is (1) Cyclosporin (2) Statin (3) Pectinase (4) Streptokinase Cyclosporin Ais used as (1) Clot buster (2) Immune suppressant (3) Blood cholesterol lowering agent (4) Immunomodulator Streptokinase produced by the bacterium Streptococcus and modified by genetic engineering isused asa (1) Clotbuster (2) Immune suppressant (3) Blood cholesterol lowering agent (4) Immunomodulator ‘The fungal symbiont in mycorrhiza helps in the absorption of from the soil and passesit to the plant (D) Phosphorus (2) Nitrogen (3) Potassium (4) Sulphur i © seamed with one scameree 9 Symbiotic association between plant roots and fungus is called (1) Mycorrhiza (2) Coleorthiza (3) Mycoplasma (4) Coleoptile 10 Anexample of microbial biocontrol agent that can be introduced in order to control butterfly caterpillars is (1) Bacillus thuringiensis (2) Azotobacter (3) Methanobacterium (4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae 11 During anaerobic sludge digestion, bacteria produce a mixture of gases such as (1) Methane, hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide (2) Hydrogen sulphide, carbon monoxideand nitric oxide (3) Methane, carbon monoxide and hydrogen sulphide (4) Carbon dioxide, hydrogen peroxide and hydrogen sulphide 12 Thedung of cattle which is also called gobaris rich in (1) Methanobacterium (2) Azospirillum (3) Azotobacter (4) Glomus 13 Themicrobe which is used for the industrial production of acetic acid is (1) Aspergillus niger 2) Acetobacteraceti (3) Clostridium butylicum (4) Lactobacillus secondary treatment of sewage. 14 ____isused in detergent formulations and is helpful in removing oily stains from thelaundry (1) Vitamin B12 @Q) Lipase (3) Acetic Acid (4) Ethanol 15 Chemical substance produced by some microbes which can kill or retard the growth of other microbesis called (1) Antibiotic 2) Antibody (3) Antigen (4). Statin 16 LABimproves the nutri of curd by inereasing (1) Vitamin B12 @) Vitamin B (3) Vitamin A, 4) VitaminD 17 Dough which is used for making bread is fermented using (1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (2). Escherichia coli (3) Clostridium butylieum (4) Acetobacteraceti 18 The Roquefort cheeseis ripened by growing a specific type of, onit. (1) Fungi (2) Bacteria (3) Bluegreenalgae (4). Yeast 19 Themicrobe whichis used for the industrial production of butyric acid is (1) Aspergillus niger 2) Acetobacteraceti (3) Clostridium butylicum (4) Lactobacillus ai, © seamed with one scameree ‘Two Mark Questions Name any two free living bacteria that fix atmospheric nitrogen and increase nitrogen content in the soil. Ans: Azospirilium and Azotobacter 2. Whatis the key difference between primary and secon mary treatment is the physical process where filtr secondary treatment, biological process is involved sewage treatment? nn and sedimentation takes place while in 3. Expand theabbreviations (a) LAB (b) BOD ) LAB-—Lactic Acid Bacteria b) BOD-—Biochemical Oxygen Demand 4. — Whodiscovered the first antibiotic? Name the organism from which it was discovered. Ans: Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin from the mould Penicillium notatum. 5 Name the source of streptokinase. How does this bioactive molecule function in our body? Ans: Source is Streptococcus, It removes the clot form the blood vessels of patients who had a heart attack. 6. Howdoesanabaena and mycorrhiza act as biofertilisers? Anabaena fix atmospheric nitrogen b) Mycorthiza absorbs phosphorus from soi ind passes ito the plant. 7. Why is Rhizobium called as 'symbiotic bacterium’? How does it act as a biofertiliser? Ans: Rhizobium is present in the root nodules of leguminous plants. These bacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen into nitrate. 8. Name any two distilled and undistilled alcoholic beverages. Ans: a) Distilled alcoholic beverages: Whisky, Rum, Brandy b) Undistilled alcoholic beverages: Beer and Wine 9, Writeany two advantages of biofertilisers, a) Biofertiliserdo not cause pollution b) These arenot expensive 10. Whatis activated sludge ina sewage treatment tank? How this activated sludge is used? Once that BOD of sewage water is reduced significantly, the effluent is passed into a settling tank where aerobic bacterial flocs undergo sedimentation and is called activated sludge. > Asmall part of the activated sludge is pumped into aeration tank as inoculum for the treatment of sewage water. > © seamed with one scameree Three Mark Questions 1 Mycorrhiza, a fungus symbiotically associated with root of few plants. List any three benefits for plants from Mycorrhiz Ans: ® Mycorthiza provides phosphorus to the plants from the soi > Make the plant resistant to root-borne pathogen. Increase tolerance to salinity and drought. 2 Mention the three enzymes of industrial importance Ans: Proteases, Pectinases, Lipases, Cellulases. 3 Whatisthe chemical nature of biogas? Ans: Biogas contains methane (CH4), carbon dios le (CO2) and hydrogen (H2) gases. 4 Whatare statins? Name the mieroorga important? Ans: > Statins are cholesterol reducing agents. > Theyare produced by Monascus purpureus (Yeast) > They act by Competitively inhibiting the enzymes responsible for synthesis of cholesterol and are used as blood cholesterol lowering agents m that produces this substance. How is it medically Five Mark Questions 1 Write the scientific name of a microbe from w! function each on the products. a) Statins b) Penicillin ¢) Aceticacid d)Streptokinase _e) Cyclosporin—A following product is obtained. Write one Ans: a) Statins ~ Monascus purpureus > Funetion: Used as blood cholesterol lowering agents. It acts as competitive inhibitor for the enzyme responsible for the synthesis of cholesterol. b)Penicillin—Penicillium notatum > Funetion: Used to cure many bacterial diseases (Antibiotic). ¢) Acetic acid—Acetobacter aceti > Runetion : Used as food preservative. d) Streptokinase—Streptococcus. > Funetion : usedasa'clot buster’, forremoving clots from the blood vessels of patients who have undergone myocardial infarction, €) Cyclosporin A— Trichoderma polysporum > Funetion : usedas immunosuppressive agent during organ transplantation, i © seamed with one scameree Explain the role of microbes in "Industrial Products’. The role of microbes in Industrial products are as follows Vv > Fermented beverages: Wine beer, whisky, brandy have been produced by yeast » — Antibiotics: Antibiotics like ‘penicillin’ produced from the fungus Penicillium notatum. > Chemicals: Organicacids are produced in the following ways; Citric acid : Aspergillusniger (Fungus) Acetic acid : Acetobacter aceti (Bacterium) Butyric acid : Clostridium butylicum (Bacterium) Lactic acid : Produces Lactobacillus (Bacterium) Saccharomyces cerevisiae(yeast)- used for production of ethanol. >» Enzymes ; Lipases - used in detergent formulations for removing oily stains from laundry, also used in flavoring cheese. Pectinases use to purify the bottled juices. > Bioactive molecules: ‘Streptokinase - produced from the microbe Streptococcus used as 'elot buster" for removing clots from the blood vessels of patients who had undergone myocardial infarction (Heart attack). Cyclosporin A : produced by a fungus Trichoderma polysporum, used as an immunosuppressive agent in organ transplant patients : produced by Monascus purpureus, used as blood cholester. any five biological controls of pest and disease. Ans: > The Ladybird (a familiar beetle with red and black markings) and Dragonflies are useful to getrid of aphids and mosquitoes respectively. > Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) used to control butterfly caterpillars. Dried spores are mixed with ‘water and sprayed onto vulnerable plants such as brassicas and fruit trees, where these are ceaten by the insect larvae. In the gut of the larvae, the toxin is released and the larvae get killed. Trichoderma a free living fungus used to control several plant pathogens. > Baculoviruses are pathogen that attack insects and other arthropods. The majority of Baculoviruses used as biological control agentsare in the genus Nueleopolyhedrovirus. > These viruses are excellent candidates for species-specific, narrow spectrum insecticidal application. They have no negative impactson plants, mammals, birds, fish, ete. This is very use full in integrated pest management programme (IPM). °- © scaned thon Seameree 4 Describe the role of microbes as biofertilizers. Or Explain the role of any five microbes which enriches soil nutrients. > Biofertilizers are the microorganisms that enrich the nutrient quality of the soil. The main sources of biofertilizersare bacteria, fungi and cyanobacteria. Rhizobium is asymbiotic nitrogen fixing bacterium present in the root nodules of leguminous plants. It fixes atmospheric nitrogen into organic forms whichis used by the plantas nutrient, > Free living N2 fixing soil bacteria like Azospirillum and Azatobacter are used in enriching the N2 content of the soil. Mycorrhiza -Fungi form symbiotic associations with roots of higher plants known as mycorrhiza. E.g. many members of the genus Glomus. > The fungal symbionts in these associations absorbs phosphorus from the soil and passes it to the plant, plants also show resistance to root-borne pathogens, tolerance to salinity, 2 v > Cyanobacteria like Nostoc, Anabaena, Oscillatoria etc., that live freely or in symbiotic association can fix atmospheric N2 by specialized heterocyst cells and enrich the nitrogen content of the soil. 5 Describe the role of microbes in sewage treatment plant. The floes (masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments to form mesh like structure) formed in the aeration tank consume the major part of the organic matter in the primary effluent. This significantly reduces the BOD of the effluent. The sewage water is treated till the BOD is reduced. Once the BOD of sewage is reduced significantly, the effluent is then passed into a settling tank where the bacterial floes are allowed to sediment. This sediment is called “activated sludge”. > A ssmall part of the activated sludge is pumped back into the aeration tank to serve as the inoculums. » The rem digesters. ing major part of the sludge is pumped into large tanks called anaerobic sludge Here anaerobic bacteria digest the bacteria and fungi inthe sludge. During this digestion, bacteria produce a mixture of gases such as methane, hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide. These gases form “biogas” and can be used as a source of energy as itis, inflammable. oo © scaned thon SeamercHapteR 9 Biotechnology: Principles and Processes One Mark Questions 1 Which of the following are used in gene cloning ? (1) Nucleoids (2) Plasmids (3) Mesosomes (4) DNA probe An antibiotic resistance gene was isolated in 1972 by (1) Herbert Boyer and Stanely Cohen (2) Hershey and Chase (3) Messelson and Stahl (4) Bli Lilly are also called ‘molecular scissors’. (1) Restriction enzymes (2) DNA ligases (3) Exonuclease (4) Taq polymerase Identify the wrong statement with respect to restriction enzymes: (1) They fumetion by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence (2) They cut the DNA at palindromic sites (3) They are useful in genetic engineering (4) They remove nucleotides from ends of DNA Anatural polymer extracted from sea weeds is used in (1) Polymerase chain reaction (2) Electrophoresis (3) Isolation of desired gene (4) Multiplication of desired gene! Selectable markers in a plasmid are normally (1) Antibiotic resistance genes (2) Palindromie sequenes (3) Variable tandem repeats (4) Minisatellites ‘The cutting out of separated bands of DNA and its extraction from agarose gel piece is called (1) Elution Q) Cloning (3) Inoculation (4) Gel electrophoresis A suitable method to introduce alien DNA into animal cells is (1) Biolisties (2) Gen gun (3) Micro-injection (4) Elution In genetic engineering, biolisties or gene gun technique is suitable for (1) Disarming pathogen vectors (2) Introducing foreign DNA into plant cells. (3) Transformation of animal cells (4) Inserting desired gene into a plasmid i © seamed with one scamer10 After the remoyal of other biomolecules in the mixture, purified DNA is preci (1) Chilled ethanol (2) Methane (3) Lysozyme (4) Agarose 11 Athermostable enzyme which is obtained from a bacterium and which is used in PCR technique is (1) RNA polymerase (2) DNA ligase (3) Restriction enzyme (4) Taq polymerase 12 Theprocess of separation and purification of expressed protein in genetic engineeringis called (1) Bioprospecting (2) Downstream processing (3) Bioprocessing (4) Biopiracy ‘Two Mark Questions 1 Whatis the significance of selectable marker in cloning vector? It helps in identifying and eliminating non- transformants and selectively permitting the growth of the transformants. 2 Whatare palindromic nucleotide sequences? Write the restriction site for Eco RY T enzyme. ‘The Palindrome in DNA isa sequence of base pairs that read the same on the two stands in5'—3' directionand in 3’ —5' direction. Restriction site S'GAATTCS" 3'CTTAAGS' 3 Writeany four tools used in recombinant DNA technology. (1) Restriction Enzymes (2) Polymerase enzymes (3) Ligases (4) Vectors (5) HostOrganism 4 Draw alabelled diagram of stirred tank bioreactor. (Five Mark Question) Ans: 5 Classify restriction enzymes. Mention the function of each, Ans: a) Endonucleases : They cut at specific positions within the DNA. b) Exonucleases : They remove nucleotides from the ends of the DNA. ot * © seamed with one scamer