JEE Main 2021 - August Session

JEE MAIN 2021 AUGUST SESSION
NEET: JHARKHAND STATE COUNSELLING
OFFICIAL QUESTION PAPERS

WITH DETAILED SOLUTIONS
7 sets having 630 questions with

detailed solutions of Physics,
Chemistry and Mathematics
2
Content
Online 26th August - Morning Shift (Questions with detailed solutions) 03
Online 26th August - Evening Shift (Questions with detailed solutions) 87
Online 1st September - Evening Shift (Questions with detailed solutions) 503
1
Online 26th August Morning Shift
Physics
Q. 1 The RMS speeds of the molecules of Hydrogen , Oxygen and Carbon dioxide at the same
temperature are respectively then:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The correct option is (3)
Q. 2 The initial mass of rocket is 1000 kg.Calculate at what rate the fuel should be burnt so that
the rocket is given an acceleration of 20 ms-2. The gases come out at a relative speed of
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 3 A particular hydrogen-like ion emits radiation of frequency when it makes

the transition from n = 3 to n = 1, The frequency in Hz of radiation emitted in transition from
n =2 to n= 1 will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 4 Inside a uniform spherical shell:

(a) the gravitational field is Zero.
(b) the gravitational potential is Zero.
(c) the gravitational field is same everywhere.
(d) the gravitational potential is same everywhere.
(e) all of the above
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For uniform spherical shell,
Gravitational field is zero inside shell and gravitational potential is constant inside shell
The correct option is 1
Q. 5 Car B overtakes another car A at a relative speed of 40 ms -1, How fast will the image of car B
appear to move in the mirror of focal length 10 cm fitted in car A, when the car B is 1.9 m
away from the car A?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The miror must be convex (virtual image for real object beyond 'f')
Q. 6 If E, L, M and G denote the quantites as energy, angular momentum, mass and constant of
gravitation respectively,then the dimensions of P in the formula are:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 7 An electric appliance supplies 6000 J/min heat to the system. If the system delivers a power
of 90 W. How long it would take to increase the internal energy by ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 8 A series LCR circuit driven by 300 V at a frequency of 50 Hz contains a resistance ,

an inductor of inductive reactance and an unknown capacitor, the value of
capacitance to maximize the average power should be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For average power to be maximum,
i.e = R = Z (Resonance condition)
Q. 9 In the given figure, the emf of the cell is 2.2 V and if internal resistance is calculate
the power dissipated in the whole circuit:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let potential of pf a & B be X & Y respectively
Q. 10 In a photoelectric experiment, ultraviolet light of wavelength 280 nm is used with lithium

cathode having work function . If the wavelength of incident light is switched to
400 nm, find out the change in the stopping potential.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
By Einstein's photoelectric eqn,
Q. 11 Identify the logic operation carried out by the given circuit :
Option 1:
OR
Option 2:
AND
Option 3:
NAND
Option 4:
NOR
Correct Answer:
NOR
Solution:
The logic operation carried out in the above circuit is equivalent to NOR Gate
Q. 12 What equal length of an iron wire and a copper-nickel alloy wire,each of 2 mm diameter
connected parallel to give an equivalent resistance of ?
(Given resistivities of iron and copper-nickel ally wire are
respectively )
Option 1:
97 m
Option 2:
110 m
Option 3:
90 m
Option 4:
82 m
Correct Answer:
97 m
Solution:
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Q. 13 An inductor coil stores 64 j of magnetic field energy and dissipates energy at the rate of 640
W when a current of 8 A is passed through it. If this coil is joined across an ideal battery, find
the time constant of the circuit in seconds:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Energy dissipation is across the resistor

Q. 14 In a Screw Gauge, fifth division of the circular scale coincides with the reference line when
the ratchet is closed.There are 50 divisions on the circular scale,and the main scale moves
by 0.5 mm on a complete rotation. For a particular observation the reading on the main
scale is 5 mm and the 20th division of the circular scale coincides with reference line.
Calculate the true reading.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

Q. 15 Two narrow bores of diameter and are joined together to form a U-
shaped tube open at both ends. If this U-tube contains water, what is the difference in the
level of two limbs of the tube.
[ ,
]
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 16 The magnitude of vectors in the given figure are equal. the direction of
with x-axis will be:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 17 The material field between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor has restivity .The
value of capacitance of the capacitor is 2 pF.If a potential difference of 40 V is applied across
the plates of the capacitor, then the value of leakage current flowing out of the capacitor is :
(given the value of relative permitivity of material is 50)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Discharging of capacitor
Q. 18 Statement I:
By doping silicon semiconductor with pentavalent material,the electrons density increases.
Statement II :
The n-type semiconductor has net negative charge.
In the light of the above statements,choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
Option 1:
Both statement I and Statement II are false.
Option 2:
statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Option 3:
Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Option 4:
Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Statement I
By doping silicon semiconductors with pentavalent material.
Statement II
The n-type semiconductor has a net negative charge
Both the statements are true
Hence, the correct option is (4)
Q. 19 The fractional change in the magnetic field intensity at a distance 'r' from centre on the axis
of current carrying coil of radius 'a' to the magnetic field intensity at the centre of the same
coil is : .
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

Q. 20 A solid metal sphere of radius R having charge q is enclosed inside the concentric spherical
shell of inner radius a and outer radius b as shown in figure.The approximate variation
electric field as a function of distance r from centre O is given by:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
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Q. 21 An amplitude modulated wave is represented by
volts. The modulating frequency in
kHz will be -----------------------.
Given 200
Correct Answer:
f = 2KHz
Solution:
Q. 22 White light is passed through a double slit and interference is observed on a screen
away.The seperation between the slits is .The first violet and red fringes are
formed and away from the central white fringes. The difference in
wavelengths of red and violet light is ------------------ nm.
Correct Answer:
300
Solution:
Q. 23 Two travelling waves produces a standing wave represented by equation.
.The node closest to the origin in
the region will be at x = ------------------- cm.
Given 0
Correct Answer:
x = 1 cm
Solution:
Q. 24 A uniform chain of length 3 meter and mass 3 kg overhangs a smooth table with 2 meter
laying on the table.If K is the kinetic energy of the chain in joule as it copletely slips off the
table,the the value of K is ------------------.
Given --
Correct Answer:
KEf = 40 J
Solution:
Q. 25 Two short magnetic dipoles m1 and m2 each having magnetic moment of 1 Am2 are placed at
point O and P respectively.The distance between OP is 1 meter. The torque experienced by
the magnetic dipole m2 due to the presence of m1 is ----------
Correct Answer:
T = 1 x 10 -7
Solution:
Magnetic field due to dipole m1 at point P (equational position)

Q. 26 A soap bubble of radius 3 cm is formed inside the another soap bubble of radius 6 cm.The
radius of an equivalent soap bubble which has the same excess pressure as inside the
smaller bubble with respect to the atmospheric pressure is -------- cm.
Given 4
Correct Answer:
r = 2 cm
Solution:
r = 2 cm
Q. 27 A source and a detector move away from each other in absence of wind with a speed of 20
m/s with respect to the ground.If the detector detects a frequency of 1800 Hz of the sound
coming from the source, then the original frequency of source considering speed of sound
in air 340 m/s will be ------ Hz.
Given 1600
Correct Answer:
f= 2025 Hz
Solution:
Q. 28 The electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by
If this wave falls normally on a perfectly reflecting surface having an area of 100 cm2 . if the
radiation pressure exerted by the E.M.wave on the surface during a 10 minute exposure is
Find the value of x.
Given --
Correct Answer:
x = 354
Solution:
Q. 29 Two spherical balls having equal masses with a radius of 5 cm each are thrown upward
along the same vertical direction at an interval of 3 s with the same initial velocity of 35 m/s,
then these balls collide at a height of ----- m.
(take g = 10 m/s2)
Correct Answer:
50 m
Solution:
Ball 2 is projected 3 s after ball 1

Let say they collide after t s of projection of ball 1
For ball 1
For ball 2
At collision ,
Q. 30 Consider a badminton racket with length scales as shown in the figure.
If the mass of the linear and circular portions of the badminton racket are same (M) and the
mass of the threads are negligible, the moment of inertia of the racket about an axis
perpendicular to the handle and in the plane of the ring at, distance from the end A of the
handle will be ____ Mr2 .
Given 8
Correct Answer:
52 mr2
Solution:
Chemistry
Q. 1 The incorrect statement is :
Option 1:
is a stronger oxidizing agent than in aqueous solution.
Option 2:
On hydrolysis, CIF forms HOCl and HF.
Option 3:
is more reactive than CIF.
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
- is a stronger oxidising agent than
- Interhalogen compounds are more reactive than halogens except
- on hydrolysis produces and
Hence, the correct answer is Option (3)
Q. 2 The major product formed in the following reaction is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The given reaction occures as
The above reaction is an example of 1,4 - addition to a conjugated diene.
Q. 3 Given below are two statements:
Statements I: Frenkel defects are vacancy as well as interstitial defects.
Statements II : Frenkel defects leads to color in ionic solids due to presence of F-centres.
Choose the most appropriate answer for the statements from the option given below:
Option 1:
Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Option 2:
Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Option 3:
Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Option 4:
Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Frenkel defects are dislocation defect in which there is a vacancy defect at the lattice point and an
interstitial defect in the lattice. Hence, statement I is true.
F-centres are not created due to Frenkel defect but are created due to anionic vacancy . Thus, statement
II is false
Hence, the correct answer is option (3)

Q. 4 The major products formed in the following reaction sequence A and B are:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The given reaction is an example of Haloform reaction. It occurs as
Hence,the correct answer is option (4)

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Q. 5 The correct option for the products A and B of the following reaction are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Phenol is a highly activated towards Electrophilic aromatic substitution in polar protic solvents like water
because of the formation of the phenoxide ion. It undergoes tribromination in water.
To carry out monobromination we carry out the reaction in non polar solvents like CS2 . This is because
the phenoxide ion is not very easily obtained due to lower dielectric constant of non polar solvents.
The reactions are given as
Hence, The correct answer is option (4)
Q. 6 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The limiting molar conductivity of (strong electrolyte) is higher compared

to that of (weak electrolyte).
Statement II: Molar conductivity decreases with decrease in concentration of elecrolyte.
given below:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
and have unusually high values of molar conductance . Hence, at infinite dilution
has a greater molar conductance .
Also, molar conductivity increases with the decrease in the concentration. This is because the total
volume of solution containing one mole of the electrolyte increases causing an increase in
conductance which more than compensates for the decrease in conductivity ( ).
Hence, both Statement I and II are false.
Thus, the correct answer is Option (4)
Q. 7 Which one of the following methods is more suitable for preparing deionized water?
Option 1:
Synthetic resin method
Option 2:
Calgon's method
Option 3:
Clark's method
Option 4:
Permutit method
Correct Answer:
Synthetic resin method
Solution:
As we have learnt,
The most suitable reagent for preparing deionized water is the synthetic resin method.
It can be used to remove both cations as well as anions.
Statement I : According to Bohr's model of an atom,qualitatively the magnitude of velocity

of electron increases with decrease in positive charges on the nucleus as there is no strong
hold on the electron by the nucleus.
Statement II : According to Bohr's model of an atom,qualitatively the magnitude of velocity

of electron increases with decrease in principal quantum number.
given below:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
The dependancy of velocity of an election in an atom with atomic number 'Z' and principal quantum
number 'n' is given as
Therefore, velocity increases with the increase in the postive charge on the nucleus 'Z' and increases with
the decrease in the principal quantum number 'n'.
Thus, statement I is false while statement II is true

Q. 9 Excess of isobutane on reaction with in presence of light at gives which one of
the following,as the major product?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Isobutane undergoes bromination as
Bromination is highly selective towards tertiary hydrogen in free radical substitution reaction.
Hence ,the correct answer is Option(4)
Q. 10 Which one of the following when dissolved in water gives coloured solution in nitrogen
atmosphere?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The given metal cations are
Out of these, only contains unpaired elections and can show color.
The other ions have configuration and do not show color.
Q. 11 Which one of the following is correct for the adsorption of a gas at a given temperature on a
solid surface?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Adsorption proceeds with a release of energy due to formation of new intermolecular forces and
proceeds with a decrease in the entropy of the system .
Thus,
Q. 12 The conversion of hydroxyapatite occurs due to presence of ions in water. The correct
formula of hydroxyapatite is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The formula for hydroxyapatite is
It is converted into Fluorapatite , , due to reaction with ions present in water .
Hence , the correct answer is option (2).
Statement I : In the titration between strong acid and weak base, methyl orange is suitable
as an indicator.
Statement II: For titration of acetic acid with NaOH, phenolphthalein is not a suitable
indicator.
given below:
Option 1:
Statement I is false but statement II is true
Option 2:
Option 3:
Both statement I and Statement II are false
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The color transition pH range of the indicators are given below:
Methyl orange :
Phenolphthalein :
Now, titration of a strong acid and weak base can be indicated by methyl orange as the pH at equivalence
point will lie in the acidic range .
Titration of a weak acid wilt a strong base can be indicated by Phenolphthalein as the pH at equivalence
point will lie in the basic range .
Hence, Statement I is true while statement II is false .
Therefore , the correct answer is option (4)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The reaction occurs as

Q. 15 Among the following componds I-IV , which a yellow precipitate on reacting sequentially with
(i) NaOH (ii) dil.HNO3 (iii) AgNO3 ?
Option 1:
III
Option 2:
II
Option 3:
I
Option 4:
IV
Correct Answer:
IV
Solution:
The reaction occur as
dil.HNO3 is used for neutralisation of unreacted NaOH.
Q. 16 What are the products formed in sequence when excess of is passed in slaked lime ?
Option 1:
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Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Slaked time is .
On passing in the solution, is obtained which causes milkiness in the solution.
On passing excess , the milkiness disappears due to formation of calcium

Bicarbonate,
The reactions occur as:
Hence,the correct answer is Option (3).
Q. 17 The polymer formed on heating Novolac with formaldehyde is:
Option 1:
Polyester
Option 2:
Bakelite
Option 3:
Nylon 6,6
Option 4:
Melamine
Correct Answer:
Bakelite
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Novolac forms Bakelite upon heating with formaldehyde.

Novolac is a linear polymer which undergoes cross linking with formaldehyde to form the thermosetting
polymer, Bakelite
Statement I : The choice of reducing agents for metals extraction can be made by using
Ellingham diagram, a plot of vs temperature.
Statement II : The value increases from left to right in Ellingham Diagram.
given below:
Option 1:
Statement I is false but statement II is true
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Both statement I and Statement II are false
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Ellingham diagrams contain plot of vs T for the formation of metal oxides per mole of .
So, on the basis of , we can predict the reducing agent suitable for the reduction of a particular
oxide.
depends upon the species involved in any reaction and the value of can decrease with the
increase of temperature where melting of the metal occurs.
Thus, Statement I is true and Statement II is false
Q. 19 Which one of the following complexes is violet in colour?

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The violet coloured complex among the ones given is .
It is obtained from sodium nitroprusside while detecting the presence of sulphur in organic compound .
Hence ,the correct answer is Option (2)
Q. 20 The correct sequential addition of reagents in the preparation of 3-nitrobenzoic acid form
benzene is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
To prepare 3- Nitrobenzoic Acid from Benzene, the suitable reaction sequence is given below
Q. 21 The number of 4f electrons in the ground state electronic configuration of is ________.

[Atomic number of Gd = 64]
Correct Answer:
7
Solution:
The electronic configuration of is .
This is due to greater stability of the half filled f- orbital configuration.
Thus, has 7 electrons in the orbital.
Hence, the correct answer is 7
Q. 22 The following data was obtained for chemical reaction given below at 975 K.
[NO] [H2] Rate
(A)
(B)
(C)
The order of the reaction with respect to NO is ______[Integer answer]
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
From the given experimental data , using data sets (A) and (B):
When is tripled keeping constant, rate becomes 3 times .
Now, using data sets (B) and (C):
When is quadrupled keeping constant, rate is also quadrupled.
Thus,
Order of reaction with respect to NO is 1.
Hence, the answer is 1.
Q. 23 is an interhalogen T-shaped molecule. The number of lone pairs of electrons on A is

_______.(Integer answer)
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
The structure of T-shaped is given as
Thus, A contains 2 lone pair of electrons.

Q. 24 The Born-Haler cycle for KCl is evaluated with the following data:
The magnitude of lattice enthalpy of KCl in kJ mol -1 is _______(Nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
718
Solution:
The Born Haber cycle is given as
Thus,
Hence,the answer is 718
Q. 25 Of the following four aqueous solutions,total number of those solutions whose freezing
point is lower than that of is __________ (Integer answer)
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
As we have learnt ,
So, greater the value of 'i' , greater will be the depression in freezing point and lower will be the value of
the freezing point.
Thus, all given compounds have a greater value of van't Hoff factor than
Q. 26 These are physical properties of an element

(A) Sublimation enthalpy
(B) Ionisation enthalpy
(C) Hydration enthalpy
(D) Electron gain enthalpy
The total number of above properties that affect the reduction potential is _____.(Integer
answer)
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
As we have learnt,
The reactions governing are given as
The enthalpies involved are

(a) Sublimation enthalpy
(b) Ionisation enthalpy
(c) Hydration enthalpy
Hence , the correct answer is 3
Q. 27 The total number of negative charge in the tetrapeptide, Gly-Glu-Asp-Tyr, at pH 12.5 will
be______. (Integer answer)
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
The amino acids are
Gly : Glycine :
Glu : Glutamic acid :
Asp : Aspartic acid:
Tyr : Tyrosine:
Therefore, the given tetrapeptide is
Therefore, at pH = 12.5, the carboxylic acids as well as the phenolic group will be deprotonated.
Thus ,the tetrapeptide will carry (-4) charge
Hence, the answer is 4
Q. 28 The ratio of number of water molecules in Mohr's salt and Potash atum is _____ .
(Integer answer)
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
The formulae of Mohr 's salt and Potash Alum are given as
Q. 29 The concentration in a mixture of and

solution is .
The value of is ___________ (Nearest integer)
[Given ]
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Given,
are mixed
Now,
From expression of

Q. 30 An aqueous KCl solution of density has a molality of .
The molarity of the solution in is _______.(Nearest integer)
[Molar mass of KCl = 74.5]
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Given,
Let, 1kg of solvent be taken .
And,
Maths
Q. 1
Option 1:
Option 2:

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Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 2 is a vector such that

is equal to :
Option 1:
6
Option 2:
-2
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
-6
Correct Answer:
-2
Solution:
Using (i)
Q. 3 Let A and B be independent events such that P(A) = p, P(B) = 2p. The largest value of p, for
which P(exactly one of A, B occurs)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
P(exactaly one of A and B)
Larger of these is
Q. 4
On the ellipse let P be a point in the second quadrant such that the tangent
at P to the ellipse is perpendicular to the line . Let S and S' be the foci of the
ellipse and e be its eccentricity. If A is the area of the triangle SPS' then,the value of
Option 1:
12
Option 2:
6
Option 3:
14
Option 4:
24
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
Let point P be
Slope of tangent = 2
Equation of tangent at P:
T=0
Q. 5 The sum of solutions of the equation
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 6 Out of all the patients in a hospital 89% are found to be suffering from heart ailment and
98% are suffering from lungs infection. If K% of them are suffering from both ailments, then
K can not belong to the set:
Option 1:
{79,81,83,85}
Option 2:
{84,87,90,93}
Option 3:
{80,83,86,89}
Option 4:
{84,86,88,90}
Correct Answer:
{79,81,83,85}
Solution:
H = 89 , L = 98
As Option (1) has no entry .
Hence, Ans :(1)
Q. 7 A plane P contains the line and is perpendicular

to the plane Then which of the following points lies on P ?
Option 1:
(2,-1,1)
Option 2:
(0,1,1)
Option 3:
(-1,1,2)
Option 4:
(1,0,1)
Correct Answer:
(0,1,1)
Solution:
Let plane P be
Normal to it
&
Plane is
Checking options : (0,1,1) lies on it
Q. 8 Let if the system of linear equations.
has a non -trivial solution, then the value of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For non-trivial solution
Q. 9
The sum of the series
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
At x =2
Q. 10
If is the co-efficient of in the expansion of ,then the value of
is equal to
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
We know that
Given expression
Q. 11 If the truth value of the Boolean expression is

false, then the truth values of the statements p,q,r respectively can be:
Option 1:
FTF
Option 2:
TFF
Option 3:
TFT
Option 4:
FFT
Correct Answer:
TFF
Solution:
For this to be false.
At least one of p or q is false and
At least one of p or q is false and
is false and
is true is false and
is true .
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Q. 12
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Hence,
Q. 13
then the inverse of
the matrix
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Similarly,
&
......
......
Q. 14 Let ABC be a triangle with A(-3,1) and If the equation of the

median through B is and the equation of angle bisector of C is
, then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let C be (p,q)
It lies on
Also (p,q) lies on
From (i) & (ii) C (3,5)

&
Q. 15 The mean and standard deviation of 20 observations were calculated as 10 and 2.5
respectively.It was found that by mistake one data value was taken as 25 instead of 35. If
are the mean and standard deviation respectively for correct data, then
is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Also,
Q. 16
The equation arg represents a circle with
Option 1:
Centre at (0,0) and radius
Option 2:
Centre at (0,1) and radius 2
Option 3:
Centre at (0,-1) and radius
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The figure can be drawn
Centre C (0,1)
Q. 17 If a line along a chord of the circle passes through the

point (-30,0) and is tangent to the parabola then the length of this chord is
Option 1:
5
Option 2:
7
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Line is passing through (-30,0) and is tangent to
Any tangent to this parabola is

It passes through (-30,0)
Centre is (-15,0)
Distance of centre from line
Q. 18
The value of is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 19 If the sum of an infinite GP a, ar, ar2, ar3,.......is 15 and the sum of the squares of its each
term is 150, then the sum of ar2 ,ar4 ,ar6 ,...is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
and
Q. 20 Let be a solution curve of the differential equation
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Now
Q. 21 is
equal to ----------
Correct Answer:
136
Solution:
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Q. 22 Let the line L be the projection of the line
in the plane If d is the distance of the point (0,0,6) from L, the d2 is equal
to _____
Correct Answer:
26
Solution:
Let point Q be (1+2s, 3+s, 4+2s)
It lies on given plane, so
1 + 2s - 6 - 2s - 4 - 2s = 3
is foot of perpendicular
R is (3,-1,2)
Q. 23 The area of the region is _________.
Correct Answer:
27
Solution:
and
Points of intersection
Q. 24 The locus of a point, which moves such that the sum of squares of its distances from the
points (0,0), (1,0), (0,1)(1,1) is 18 units, is a circle of diameter d.Then d2 is equal to ____
Correct Answer:
16
Solution:
Let the point be P(h,k)
As per the question
Hence,
Q. 25
The sum of all integral values of for which the equation in
x has no real roots, is______
Correct Answer:
66
Solution:
For no real roots
Integers in this interval are {1,2,.....,11}

Sum of values of
Q. 26 Let Define a function
If f is continuous at x = 0, then is equal to ____________
Correct Answer:
14
Solution:
For continuous function
LHL = RHL
Q. 27 A wire of length 36 m cut into two pieces, one of the pieces is bent to form a square and the
other is bent to form a circle. If the sum of the areas of the two figures is minimum, and the
circumference of the circle is k (meter), then is equal to ________
Correct Answer:
36
Solution:
Let x length be used for circle & 36-x for square
Q. 28
Then the value of
is _____
Correct Answer:
13
Solution:
......
.......
Q. 29 The number of three-digit even numbers, formed by the digits 0,1,3,4,6,7 if the repetition of
digits is not allowed, is _________
Correct Answer:
52
Solution:
Case I : when 0 is at unit's place
Case 2 : when 0 is at not at unit's place
Q. 30 is an implicit function of x such that

is equal to ________.
Correct Answer:
40
Solution:
At x = 0
&
From (i)
Differentiating
Online 26th August Evening Shift
Physics
Q. 1 Match List - I with List - II :
List -I List-II
(a) Magnetic Induction (i)
(b) Magnetic Flux (ii)
(c) Magnetic (iii)

Permeability
(d) Magnetization (iv)

Option 1:
(a)-(iii),(b)-(ii),(c)-(iv),(d)-(i)
Option 2:
(a)-(iii),(b)-(i),(c)-(iv),(d)-(ii)
Option 3:
(a)-(ii),(b)-(iv),(c)-(i),(d)-(iii)
Option 4:
(a)-(ii),(b)-(i),(c)-(iv),(d)-(iii)
Correct Answer:
(a)-(iii),(b)-(i),(c)-(iv),(d)-(ii)
Solution:
Q. 2 The de-Broglie wavelength of a paraticle having kinetic energy E is . How much extra
energy must be given to this particle so that the de-Broglie wavelength reduces to 75% of
the intial value?
Option 1:
E
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Extra energy is given =

Q. 3 A cylindrical container of volume contains one mole of hydrogen and two
mole of carbon dioxide.Assume the temperature of the mixture is 400 K.The pressure of the
mixture of gases is :
[Take gas constant as 8.3 J mol -1 K-1 ]
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
PV = nRT
Q. 4 If the length of the pendulum in pendulum clock increases by 0.1 %, then the error in time
per day is :
Option 1:
43.2 s
Option 2:
8.64 s
Option 3:
86.4 s
Option 4:
4.32 s
Correct Answer:
43.2 s
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Solution:
Q. 5 An electric bulb of 500 watt at 100 volt is used in a circuit having a 200 V supply.Calculate the
resistance R to be connected in series with the bulb so that the power deleivered by the bulb
is 500 W.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
If the power delivered by the bulb is 500, the voltage drop must be & be 100 V
Voltage drop across resistance = 100 V

Q. 6 The temperature of equal masses of three ifferent liquids x,y and z are
respectively.The temperature of mixture when x is mixed with y is
and that when y is mixed with z is , The temperature of mixture when x and z
are mixed will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For x & y mixture ,
Mixture of y & Z
Mixture of x & z
From eqn (1)

Q. 7 In the given circuit the AC source has .Considering the inductor and
capacitor to be ideal, what will be the current I flowing through the circuit?
Option 1:
3.16 A
Option 2:
6A
Option 3:
0.94 A
Option 4:
4.24 A
Correct Answer:
3.16 A
Solution:
Q. 8 A particle of mass m is suspended from a ceilling through a string of length L. The particle
moves in a horizontal circle of radius r such that .The speed of particle will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

Q. 9 A parallel-plate capacitor with plate area A has seperation d between the plates. Two
dielectric slabs of dielectric constant K1 and K2 of same A/2 and thickness d/2 are inserted in
the space between the plates. The capacitance of the capacitor will be given by :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 10 A refrigerator consumes an average 35 W power to operate between temperature

to .If there is no loss of energy then how much average heat per second does it
transfer ?
Option 1:
350 J / s
Option 2:
298 J / s
Option 3:
263 J / s
Option 4:
35 J / s
Correct Answer:
263 J / s
Solution:
Q. 11 The angle between vector is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 12 The solid cylinder of length 80 cm and mass M has a radius of 20 cm. Calculate the density of
the material used if the moment of inertia of the cylinder about an axis CD parallel to AB as
shown in figure is 2.7 kg m2 .
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 13 A light beam is described by E = 800 An electron is allowed to move normal

to the propagation of light beam with a speed of ,what is the maximum
magnetic force exerted on the electron ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

JEE MAIN
What does it offer?
Max. force due to the magnetic field
Q. 14 If you are provided a set of resistances Connect these resistances so

as to obtain an equivalent resistances of
Option 1:
and are in parallel with and in series
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

Q. 15 Four NOR gates are connected as shown in figure. The truth table for the given figure is :
Option 1:
A B Y
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 1
1 1 0
Option 2:
A B Y
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0
Option 3:
A B Y
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1
Option 4:
A B Y
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 0
1 1 1
Correct Answer:
A B Y
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1
Solution:
A B Y
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 1
Q. 16 Two blocks of masses 3 kg and 5 kg are connected by a metal wire going over a smooth
pulley. The breaking strees of the metal is What is the minimum radius of
the wire ?
(take g = 10 ms-2 )
Option 1:
1250 cm
Option 2:
1.25 cm
Option 3:
125 cm
Option 4:
12.5 cm
Correct Answer:
12.5 cm
Solution:
Q. 17 A bomb is dropped by a fighter plane flying horizontally. To an observer sitting in the plane.
the trajectory of the bomb is a:
Option 1:
Straight line vertically down the plane
Option 2:
parabola in a direction opposite to the motion of plane
Option 3:
parabola in the direction of motion of plane
Option 4:
hyperbola
Correct Answer:
Straight line vertically down the plane
Solution:
Let the velocity of the plane be V
Velocity of the bomb is equal to the velocity of a plane at the time of release
At t = 0
For an observer in the plane the bomb is falling vertically downward

Q. 18 A transmitting antenna at top of a tower has a height of 50 m and the height of receiving
antenna is 80 m. What is the range of communication for Line of Sight (LoS) mode?
[use radius of earth = 6400 km]
Option 1:
80.2 km
Option 2:
144.1 km
Option 3:
57.28 km
Option 4:
45.5 km
Correct Answer:
57.28 km
Solution:
Q. 19 The two thin coaxial rings,each of radius 'a' and having charges +Q and -Q respectively are
seperated by a distance of 's' . The potential difference between the centres of the two rings
is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
potential at ring 1 (centre of disc 1)
potential at ring 2 (centre of disc 2)
Q. 20 At time t = 0, a material is composed of two radioactive atoms A and B ,where

The decay constant of both kind of radioactive atoms is , However,A
disintegrates to B and B disintegrates to C. Which of the following figures represents the
evolution of with respect to time t ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
At t = 0
,
at t = 0 ,
Q. 21 A source of light is placed in front of a screen .Intensity of light on the screen is L.Two
Polaroids P1 and P2 are so placed in between the source of light and screen that the
intensity of light on screen is 1/2, P2 should be roated by an angle of----- (degrees) so that the
intensity of light on the screen becomes
Given 30
Correct Answer:
300
Solution:
Condition 1 :
The intensity of light from source = I

For light passing through the first polaroid, its intensity will become half of unpolarised light intensity
But by Malus law,
Pass axis (optical axis ) is the same for both the polaroid
Condition (2)
The polaroid 2 is rotated by 300 wrt first polaroid
Q. 22 For the given circuit, the power across Zener diode is ---------- mW.
Correct Answer:
120
Solution:
power across Zener diode =

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Q. 23 Two waves are simultaneously passing through a string and their equations are :
Given amplitude A1 = 12 mm and
A2 = 5 mm, and wave number The ampiltude of
resulting wave will be _____mm.
Given 13
Correct Answer:
7
Solution:
The amplitude of the resultant wave is 7 mm
Q. 24 An object is placed at a distance of 12 cm from a convex lens. A convex mirror of focal length
15 cm is placed on other side of lens at 8 cm as shown in the figure. Image of object
coincides with the object,
When the convex is removed , a real and inverted image is formed at a position. The
distance of the image from the object will be ------(cm).
Given --
Correct Answer:
50 cm
Solution:
If the image is coinciding with the object there must be normal incidence on convex mirror
Distance of image in the absence mirror from object is = 12+8+30 = 50 cm
Q. 25 If the maximum value of accelerating potential provided by a radio frequency oscillator is 12

kV. The number of revolution made by a proton in a cyclotron to achieve one sixth of the
speed of light is ---------.
Given --
Correct Answer:
543
Solution:
KE of proton is accelerated twice in a cycle

In each cycle, the KE incresed =
The minimum no of revolution is 543
Q. 26 A circular coil of radius 8.0 cm and 20 turns is rotated about its vertical diameter with an
angular speed of 50 rad s-1 in a uniform horizontal magnetic field of The
maximum emf induced the coil will be______ volt (rounded off to the nearest integer).
Given 240
Correct Answer:
60
Solution:
Q. 27 The coefficient of stastic friction between two blocks is 0.5 and the table is smooth. The
maximum horizontal force that can be applied to move the blocks together is _________ N.
(take g =10 ms -2)
Given --
Correct Answer:
15
Solution:
Q. 28 The acceleration due to gravity is found upto an accurcy of 4% on a planet. The energy
supplied to a simple pendulum of known mass 'm' to undertake oscillations of time period T
is being estimated. If time period is measured to an accuracy of 3%, the accuracy to which E
is known as______%.
Given--
Correct Answer:
14
Solution:
for SHM ,
Q. 29 A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of side 10 cm lies in a vertical plane between the
pole pieces of permanent magnet producing a horizontal magnetic field 20 mT.The torque
acting on the coil when a current of 0.2 A is passed through it and its plane becomes parallel
to the magnetic field will be The value of x is_____.
Given --
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
When the plane becomes parallel to magnetic field, then angle between Dipole moment & B is
Q. 30
Two simple harmonic motions are represented by the equations
and The amplitude of second motion is _______times the

amplitude in first motion.
Given 0.5
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
A=5
R = 10
The amplitude of second motion is 2 time the amplitude in first motion
Chemistry
Q. 1 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Barium carbonate is insoluble in water and is highly stable.
Reason (R) : The thermal stability of the carbonates increses with increasing cationic size.
Option 1:
(A) is true but (R) is false.
Option 2:
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the true explanation of (A).
Option 3:
(A) is false but (R) is true.
Option 4:
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the true explanation of (A).
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
- Solubility of Group 2 carbonates decreases down the group due to lower hydration enthalpy.
- Thermal stability of Group 2 carbonates increases down the group due to lattice energy effects.
- Bigger cations are able to better stabilise bigger anions.
Thus, both Assertion and Reason are true and (R) is the true explanation of (A).
Q. 2
The Major Product in the above reaction is :

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Acetylation of Amines occurs on reaction with acetic anhydride.

Primary Amine is more available for attack as the bone pairs of 'N' in Amide is involved in resonance.
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Source is a disaccharide and a non-reducing sugar.
Reason (R) : Source involves glycosidic linkage between C1 of -glucose and C2 of -

fructose.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Option 1:
Option 2:
(A) is true but (R) is false
Option 3:
(A) is false but (R) is true
Option 4:
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the true explantion of (A).
Correct Answer:
(A) is true but (R) is false
Solution:
As we have learnt,
- Sucrose is a disaccharide of Glucose and Fructose .
- It contains Glycosidic linkage between C1 of Glucose and C2 of fructose .
- Since the hemi acetal is involved in Glycosidic linkage, sucrose is non reducing.
Hence, Assertion (A) is true while Reason (R) is false.
Thus, the correct answer is Option(2)

Q. 4 Match List - I with List - II
List -I List-II
(chemical Reaction) (Reagent used)
(a) (i)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iii)
(d) (iv)
Choose the most appropriate match.
Option 1:
(a)-(ii),(b)-(iii),(c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
Option 2:
(a)-(ii),(b)-(iv),(c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
Option 3:
(a)-(iii),(b)-(ii),(c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
Option 4:
(a)-(iv),(b)-(ii),(c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
Correct Answer:
(a)-(ii),(b)-(iii),(c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
Solution:
The correct match of the reagents and the reaction are given below .
Q. 5 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Heavy water is used for the study of reaction mechanism.
Reason (R) : The rate of reaction for the clevage of O-H bond is slower than that of O-D
bond.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the true explanation of (A).
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
- Heavy water is used for the study of reaction mechanism.
- Kinetic isotopic effect can be studied using heavy water.
- Heavier isotopes form stronger bonds and as a result O-D bond is stronger than O-H bond.
Hence, (A) is true while (R) is false
Thus, the correct answer is option (2)

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Q. 6 The interaction energy of London forces between two particles is proportional to rx , where r
is the distance between the particles. The value of x is :
Option 1:
6
Option 2:
-6
Option 3:
3
Option 4:
-3
Correct Answer:
-6
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Interaction energy of London Forces between two particles
Thus, the value of x = - 6
Q. 7 The number of stereoisomers possible for 1,2 - dimethyl cyclopropane is :
Option 1:
Two
Option 2:
One
Option 3:
Four
Option 4:
Three
Correct Answer:
Three
Solution:
The stereoisomers of 1,2- dimethyl cyclopropane are given below:
Thus, there are three stereoisomers possiblefor 1,2- dimethylcyclopropane.
Hence, the correct answer is Option(4)
Q. 8
The class of drug to which chlordiazepoxide with above structure belongs is :
Option 1:
Analgesic
Option 2:
Tranquilizer
Option 3:
Antacid
Option 4:
Antibiotic
Correct Answer:
Tranquilizer
Solution:
Fact Based.
Chlordiazepoxide is a mild tranquilizer.

Q. 9 The number of non-ionisable hydrogen atoms present in the final product obtained from
the hydrolysis of PCl5 is :
Option 1:
0
Option 2:
1
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
3
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:
Hydrolysis of produces Phosphoric Acid
The Oxoacid of Phosphorus formed contains no unionisable Hydrogen.
Q. 10 Which one of the following phenols does not give colour when condensed with phthalic
anhydride in presence of conc. ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Phenol reacts with Phthalein anhydride to form Phenolphthalein.

The reaction occurs via electrophilic aromatic substitution at the para position of phenol as shown below
Thsus, para substituted Phenols will not show this reaction
Hence, the correct answer is Option (4).
Q. 11
Consider the given reaction, the Product A is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The given electrophilic aromatic substitution occurs at meta position due to electron withdrawing
carbonyl group
Q. 12 The sol given below with negatively chargde colloidal particles is :
Option 1:
added to solution
Option 2:
added to solution
Option 3:
in water
Option 4:
added to hot water
Correct Answer:
added to solution
Solution:
The sols obtained in the cases given are
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
It is to be noted that there is preferential adsorption of common ion present in excess.
Q. 13 Arrange the following Cobalt complexes in the order of incresing Crystal Field Stabilization
Energy (CFSE) value.
Complexes :
Choose the correct option :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt ,
The CFSE depends upon the nature of ligands if the metal cation is the same.
Also, cations having greater positive charge have a greater CFSE.
Thus, the given complexes can be arranged in order of their CFSE as
Q. 14 The bond order and magnetic behaviour if ion are, respectively :
Option 1:
1.5 and diamagnetic.
Option 2:
1.5 and paramagnetic.
Option 3:
2 and diamagnetic.
Option 4:
1 and paramagnetic.
Correct Answer:
1.5 and paramagnetic.
Solution:
The molecular orbital configuration of is
Thus, has a bond order of 1.5 and it is paramagnetic
Hence, the Correct answer is option (2)
Statement I : Sphalerite is a sulphide ore of zinc and copper glance is a sulphide ore of
copper.
Statement II : It is possible to seperate two sulphide ores by adjusting proportion of oil to

water or by using 'depressants' in a froth floatation method.
Chosse the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Option 1:
Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Option 2:
Both statement I and Statement II are true.
Option 3:
Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Both statement I and Statement II are true.
Solution:
As we have learnt,
- Sphalerite is
- Copper glance is
- It is possible to separate a mixture of sulphide ores by using depressants or by adjusting oil to water
ratio.
Therefore, both statement I and II are correct.
Q. 16 Chalcogen group elements are :
Option 1:
Se, Te and Po
Option 2:
O,Ti and Po.
Option 3:
Se, Tb and Pu.
Option 4:
S, Te and Pm.
Correct Answer:
Se, Te and Po
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Chalcogen group elements are members of Group 16 in the modern periodic table.
These contain O, S, Se, Te, Po
Q. 17 Indicate the complex/ complex ion which did not show any geometrical isomerism :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Complexes of type do not show Geometrical isomerism.
does not show Geometrical isomerism
Hence, the correct answer is option (3).
Q. 18 Which one of the following componds is not aromatic?
Option 1:
Option 2:
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Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Cyclo-octatetraene is non-aromatic due to its non planar tub like structure.
It exists as
Q. 19
Consider the given reaction, Identify 'X' and 'Y' :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The given reaction sequence occurs as

Q. 20 Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and The other is labelled
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Photochemical smog causes cracking of rubber.
Reason (R) : Presence of Ozone, nitric oxide, acrolein, formaldehyde and peroxyaccetyl
nitrate in photochemical smog makes it oxidizing.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the true explantion of (A).
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Photochemical smog causes cracking of Rubber. This is because of presence of oxidising agents present
in photochemical smog which make it oxidising.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
Hence,the correct answer is Option(3)
Q. 21 For the galvanic cell,
_____________ (Nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
109
Solution:
Given,
Now, the reaction occuring in the galvanic cell is
(0.02 M) (0.04 M)
From Nernst equation, we have
Q. 22 For water at 373 K and 1 bar pressure. Assuming that water vapour
is an ideal gas that occupies a much larger volume than liquid water, the internal energy
change during evaporation of water is ________ kJ mol-1.
Correct Answer:
38
Solution:
Given,
We know,
Q. 23 A chloro compound "A"
(i) forms aldehydes on ozonolysis followed by the hydrolysis.
(ii) when vaporized completely 1.53 g of A, gives 448 mL of vapour at STP.
The number of carbon atoms in a molecule of compound A is _________.
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
We know,
448 ml of vapour of STP = 20 m moles
Thus, 20 m moles of A weigh 1.53 g
Now, since aldehyde is formed on ozonolysis, the compound can be assumed as
Thus, the compound is .

Q. 24 83 g of ethylene glycol dissolved in 625 g of water. The freezing point of the solution is
________K. (Nearest integer)
[Use : Molal Freezing point depression constant of water = 1.86 K kg mol-1 ,
Freezing point of water = 273 K,
Atomic masses : ]
Correct Answer:
269
Solution:
The structure of Ethylene Glycol is given below:
Molar mass of Ethylene Glycol = 62 g
Moles of Ethylene Glycol
Now,
Q. 25 In the sulphur estimation, 0.471 g of an organic compound gave 1.44 g of barium sulfate.
The percentage of sulphur in the compound is _______ % .(Nearest integer)
(Atomic mass of Ba = 137 u)
Correct Answer:
42
Solution:
Molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g
Q. 26 100 mL of solution contains 3.45 g of sodium. The molarity of the solution is ______
(Nearest integer)
[Atomic Masses - ]
Correct Answer:
50
Solution:
Given,
Mass of Na = 3.45 g
100 ml contains 0.05 moles
1 lit contains 0.5 moles
Thus, Molarity
Q. 27 A metal surface is exposed to 500 nm radiation.The threshold frequency of the metal for
photoelectric current is . The velocity of ejected electron is _______
(Nearest integer).
[Use : ]
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
Given,
From Photoelectric equation,
Now,
Hence, the correct answer is 5.
Q. 28 The overall stability constant of the complex ion is . The overall

dissociation constant is . Then is ___________(Nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
Given,
Stability constant

Q. 29 The reaction rate for the reaction
was measured as a function of concentrations of different species. It was observed that
where square brackets are used to denote molar concentrations. The inverse of
the equilibrium constant = __________.(Nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
50
Solution:
As we have learnt,
For any reversible reaction,
Comparing with the given rate law expression
Q. 30 The equilibrium constant Kc at 298 K for the reaction is 100. Starting

with an equimolar solution with concentrations of A, B, C and D all equal to 1 M, the
equilibrium concentration of D is ____ (Nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
182
Solution:
From expression of we have,
Maths
Q. 1 A 10 inches long pencil AB with mid point C and a small eraser P are placed on the horizontal
top of a table such that inches and .
The acute angle through which the pencil must be rotated about C so that the perpendicular
distance between eraser and pencil becomes exactly 1 inch is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:

JEE MAIN
What does it offer?
Solution:
So
Q. 2
The point lies on the hyperbola having eccentricity If
the tangent and normal at P to the hyperbola intesects its conjugate axis at the points Q and
R respectively, then QR is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
and lies on it, so
Equation of tangent at P :
T=0
Normal at p
Q. 3 Let P be the plane passing through the point (1,2,3) and the line of intersection of the planes
. Then which of the following points
does NOT lie on P?
Option 1:
(4,2,2)
Option 2:
(6,-6,2)
Option 3:
(-8,8,6)
Option 4:
(3,3,2)
Correct Answer:
(4,2,2)
Solution:
It passes through (1,2,3)
Checking options, (4,2,2) does not lie on it
Q. 4 The locus of the mid points of the chords of the hyperbola which touch the
parabola is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let mid-pt of chord be P(h,k)
equation of chord : T = S1
Any tangent to
Comparing it with (i)
Q. 5
If then the value of tan(p) is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Adding all these
Q. 6
The value of
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Required value
Q. 7 A fair die is tossed until six is obtained on it. Let X be the number of required tosses, then
the conditional probability is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
means more than 2 tosses are needed to get first six.
So first 2 tosses should give non-six numbers

Q. 8
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
&
option (1) is correct
Q. 9 Consider the two statements:

is a tautology.
is a fallacy.
Then:
Option 1:
only (S1) is true.
Option 2:
both (S1) and (S2) are false.
Option 3:
only (S2) is true.
Option 4:
both (S1) and (S2) are true.
Correct Answer:
both (S1) and (S2) are true.
Solution:
Q. 10
The value of
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Using King's Rule
Adding
Q. 11 Let denote the greatest integer less than or equal to t.
Let
Then h is :
Option 1:
continuous in [-2,2] but not differentiable at more than four points in (-2,2)
Option 2:
continuous in [-2,2] but not differentiable at exactly three points in (-2,2)
Option 3:
not continuous at exactly four points in [-2,2]
Option 4:
not continuous at exactly three points in [-2,2]
Correct Answer:
continuous in [-2,2] but not differentiable at more than four points in (-2,2)
Solution:
Using graphical tranformation, graph of

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Continuous at each point but not differentiable at 7 points in (-2,2)
Q. 12 The local maximum value of the function
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 13 A hall has a square floor of dimension (see the figure) and vertical walls. If the
angle GPH between the diagonals AG and BH is then the height of the hall (in
meters) is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let height be h and A be origin and AB, AD and AE lie along pasitive x,y and z axes respectively
&
Now for angle between them
Q. 14 Two pair dice are thrown. The number on them are taken as and a system of
linear equations
is constructed, If p is the probability that the system has a unique solution and q is the
probability that the system has no solution, then :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For unique solution
For no solution
Q. 15
The domain of the function is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 16
If then p and q are roots of the equation:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given equation becomes
Equation with p & q as roots

Q. 17 If the value of the integral
denotes the
greatest integer less than or equal to x; then the value of is equal to :
Option 1:
25
Option 2:
100
Option 3:
36
Option 4:
16
Correct Answer:
25
Solution:
In second integral, let
So second integral becomes
Similary we can make substitutions for other integrals

Q. 18 A circle C touches the line x = 2y at the point (2,1) and intersects the circle
at two point P and Q such that PQ is a diameter of C1 .Then
the diameter of C is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let circle C be
Now PQ is common chord of C & C1
its equation is
Now centre of C1 (0,-1) lies on PQ.
So
C is
Q. 19 be the solution of the differential equation

is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 20
is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For all n = 1 to 9, limit is in determinate form
Q. 21 Let Q be the foot of the perpendicular from the point P(7,-2,13) on the plane containing the
lines Then is equal to
_________.
Correct Answer:
96
Solution:
Normal vector to plane is
A point lying on plane is (-1,1,3)
Equation of plane is
Q. 22 Let a and b respectively be the points of local maximum and local minimum of the function
If a is the total area of the region bounded by the
x-axis and the lines x = a and x = b, then 4 A is equal to __________
Correct Answer:
114
Solution:
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Local maxima at x = -1 & local minima at x = 2.
Q. 23 Let A be a real matrix. If then the value of

equals ____________.
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
As for any square matrix P of order n and a scalar k,
and
and
Given that this equals
Q. 24
Let
If
then p is equal to______.
Correct Answer:
49
Solution:
Similarly,
Q. 25 Let the mean and variance of four numbers 3, 7, x and be 5 and 10 respectively.
Then the mean of four numbers and x-y is _____.
Correct Answer:
12
Solution:
Mean = 5
And variance = 10
New numbers : 21,9,10,8
Q. 26 Let be an AP with common difference -3 and be a GP with

common ratio 2. Let then
is equal to ________.
Correct Answer:
2021
Solution:
&
So
Q. 27
The least positive integer n such that is a positive integer is ______.
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
For n = 6 this is a positive integer
Q. 28 The sum of all 3-digit numbers less than or equal to 500, that are formed without using the
digit "1" and they all are multiple of 11, is _____.
Correct Answer:
7744
Solution:
Required numbers are
209,220,231,242, ---- ,495 except 231,341,451,319 & 418.
Q. 29 If the projection of the vector on the sum of the two vectors and
is 1, then is equal to ________.
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
Sum of vectors ( ) is
Projection of on is
Q. 30 Let be in R. If are the roots of the equation
are the roots of the equation
is equal to _______.
Correct Answer:
18
Solution:
As is root of both the equations
Now as is root of first equation
Using sum of roots
&
Online 27th August Morning Shift
Physics
Q. 1 Calculate the amount of charge on capacitor of The internal resistance of battery is
:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Zero
Correct Answer:
Solution:
At steady state, there will be no current in the branch with capacitor (capacitor fully charged)
There is 2v potential drop across each capacitor

Q. 2 A uniformly charged disc of radius having surface charge density is placed in the
plane with its center at the origin. Find the electric field intensity along the -axis at a
distance from origin :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 3 Five identical cells each of internal resistance and emf are connected in series and
in parallel with an external resistance ' For what value of current in series and
parallel combination will remain the same?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 4 If represents the intensity of electric field and magnetising field respectively, then
the unit of will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 5 The variation of displacement with time of a particle executing free simple harmonic motion
is shown in the figure.
The potential energy versus time plot of the particle is correctly shown in figure :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 6 Which of the following is not a dimensionless quantity ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
is not a dimensionless quantity

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Q. 7 In Millikan's oil drop experiment, what is viscous force acting on an uncharged drop of
radius and density Take viscosity of liquid
. (Neglect buoyancy due to air).
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 8 A balloon carries a total load of at normal pressure and temperature of . What

load will the balloon carry on rising to a height at which the barometric pressure is of
and the temperature is . Assuming the volume constant?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 9 An ideal gas is expanding such that constant. The coefficient of volume expansion of
the gas is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The correct option is (4) .
Q. 10 There are radioactive nuclei in a given radioactive element. Its half-life time is 1 minute.
How many nuclei will remain after 30 seconds?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
According to radioactive decay law ,
Q. 11 An object is placed beyond the centre of curvature of the given concave mirror. If the
distance of the object is and the distance of the image formed is
the radius of curvature of this mirror is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 12 A bar magnet is passing through a conducting loop of radius with velocity . The radius of
the bar magnet is such that it just passes through the loop. The induced e.m.f. in the loop
can be represented by the approximate curve :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As the Solenoid approaches the loop, the current in the loop (side facing solenoid anticlockwise
direction) opposes the increasing in magnetic field lines -
when solenoid is inside the loop there is no charge in field lines through the loop hence the induced
emf is zero
As the solenoid passes through the loop, field line associate with loop decreases
This decreases in flux associated with loop is opposed by increasing the field lines by the loop.(current is
in clockwise direction)

Q. 13 Two ions of masses 4 amu and 16 amu have charges respectively. These
ions pass through the region of constant perpendicular magnetic field. The kinetic energy of
both ions is same. Then:
Option 1:
Lighter ion will be deflected less than heavier ion
Option 2:
Lighter ion will be deflected more than heavier ion
Option 3:
Both ions will be deflected equally
Option 4:
No ion will be deflected
Correct Answer:
Lighter ion will be deflected more than heavier ion
Solution:
&
and
Lighter ion will be deffected more than heavier ion
Q. 14 A huge circular are of length subtends an angle at the centre of the circle. How
long it would take for a body to complete 4 revolution if its speed is per second?
Given :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 15 Electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by

The velocity of electromagnetic wave in this
medium is : (Given speed of light in vacuum)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

Q. 16 For a transistor in CE mode to be used as an amplifier, it must be oprerated in:
Option 1:
Cut-off region only
Option 2:
Saturation region only
Option 3:
The active region only
Option 4:
Both cut-off and Saturation
Correct Answer:
The active region only
Solution:
In active region, we have linear relationship between V & I
for a transistor in CE mode to be used as a amplifier it must be obatined in the active region only
Q. 17 Find the distance of the image from object O, formed by the combination of lenses in the
figure :
Option 1:
75 cm
Option 2:
10 cm
Option 3:
Infinity
Option 4:
20 cm
Correct Answer:
75 cm

JEE MAIN
What does it offer?
Solution:
From lens 1
From lens 2
From lens 3
Distance from object = 30+5+10+30 = 75 cm

Q. 18 In a photoelectric experiment, increasing the intensity of incident light :
Option 1:
Increases the number of photons incident and also increases the K.E. of the ejected electrons.
Option 2:
Increases the frequency of photons incident and increases the K.E. of the ejected electrons.
Option 3:
Increases the number of photons incident and the K.E. of the ejected electrons remains unchanged.
Option 4:
Increases the frequency of photons incident and the K.E. of the ejected electrons remains unchanged.
Correct Answer:
Increases the number of photons incident and the K.E. of the ejected electrons remains unchanged.
Solution:
hf Energy of photon
N No.of photons
With increase in intensity of light i.e., no.of photons there is no change in the energy of photon
KE of the ejected electron do not increases .
Q. 19 The resultant of these forces is approximately _______

[Take Given unit vectors along axis]
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Resultant of the forces
Q. 20 Moment of inertia of a square plate of side about the axis passing through one of the
corner and perpendicular to the plane of square plate is given by :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 21 Two cars are approaching each other with velocities

respectively. The frequency of a whistle sound as emitted by a passenger in car , heard by
the passenger in car . If the velocity of sound in air is , the actual
frequency of the whistle sound produced is ____________
Correct Answer:
1210
Solution:
Sorce Observer
Q. 22 A rod of thermal resistance is joined at the middle of an identical rod
as shown in figure. The ends are maintained at
respectively. The heat current in watt. The value of is____________.
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Let 'T' be the temperature at point C
From Kirchoff's current law (analogy) At junction C,
From eqn (1)

Q. 23 Two persons perform same amount of work in moving a body through a certain
distance with application of forces acting at angles with the direction of
displacement respectively. The ratio of force applied by person A to the force applied by
person . The value of is_________.
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
x=2
Q. 24 A circuit is arranged as shown in figure. The output voltage is equal to_________
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
Diode D1 & D2 are in forward bias, & their resistance is negligible.
Q. 25 A body of mass splits into four masses which are
rearranged to form a square as shown in the figure. The ratio of for which, the
gravitational potential energy of the system becomes maximum is The value of
is_______.
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Q. 26 A uniform conducting wire of length is and resistance is wound up as a current
carrying coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of side ' a' and then in the form of a
square of side . The coil is connected to a voltage source The ratio of magnetic
moment of the coils in case of equilateral triangle to that for square is where
is__________.
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Magnetic moment = NIA
Q. 27 A transmitting antenna has a height of and that of receiving antenna is . The
maximum distance between them for satisfactory communication in line of sight mode is
. The value of ________
Correct Answer:
224
Solution:
Q. 28 First, a set of equal resistors of each are connected in series to a battery of emf
and internal resistance . A current is observed to flow. Then, the resistors are
connected in parallel to the same battery. It is observed that the current is increased 20
times, then the value of is_________.
Correct Answer:
20
Solution:
For series connection :
For parallel connection :

Q. 29
The alternating current is given by The r.m.s. value of
this current is _________A.
Correct Answer:
11
Solution:
Q. 30 If the velocity of a body related to displacement is given by ,

then the acceleration of the body is __________
Correct Answer:
12
Solution:
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Q. 1 Which refining process is generally used in the purification of low melting metals?
Option 1:
Chromatographic method
Option 2:
Electrolysis
Option 3:
Zone refining
Option 4:
Liquation
Correct Answer:
Liquation
Solution:
As we have learnt,
The refining process used in purification of low melting metals is Liquation.
In this technique, low melting metals like Tin are separated from impurities by making them flow on a
slopy surface.
Q. 2 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : Synthesis of ethyl phenyl ether may be achieved by Williamson synthesis.
Reason (R): Reaction of bromobenzene with sodium ethoxide yields ethyl phenyl ether.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below :
Option 1:
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
Option 2:
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
Option 3:
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Option 4:
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Correct Answer:
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
Solution:
Ethyl Phenyl ether can be prepared using Williamson's synthesis as
Assertion (A) is correct .
Now, reaction of bromobenzene and sodium ethoxide does not take place as there is a partial double
bond character between the Benzene ring and the halogen and as a result, it is difficult for the
substitution reaction to take place.
Reason (R) is not correct .
Q. 3 In which one of the following molecules strongest back donation of an electron pair from
halide to boron is expected?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Extent of Backbonding is the greatest among similar sized orbitals.
Since, B and F both utilise their 2p orbitals for the formation of the back-bond, the extent of overlap is
greatest.
Also, as the size of the halogen increases, the extent of the backbonding decreases .
Thus, the order of Backbonding in Boron Trihalides is
Q. 4 In the following sequence of reactions the P is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The given reaction occurs as
Q. 5 The unit of the van der Waals gas equation parameter

is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we know ,
has the same units as Pressure(P) as it is added to the pressure term in the equation

Q. 6 The gas is having very low reactivity reaches to stratosphere. It is non-toxic and non-
flammable but dissociated by UV-radiations in stratosphere. The intermediates formed
initially from the gas are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The gas A is chlorofluorocarbon
In the presence of UV radiation, it dissociates as
Q. 7 The structure of the starting compound P used in the reaction given below is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The compound P undergoes haloform reaction and after acidification forms carboxylic acid.
The structure of P and the reaction is given as
Hence,the correct answer is Option (2)
Q. 8 Which of the following is not a correct statement for primary aliphatic amines?
Option 1:
Primary amines can be prepared by the Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.
Option 2:
Primary amines are less basic than the secondary amines.
Option 3:
The intermolecular association in primary amines is less than the intermolecular association in
secondary amines.
Option 4:
Primary amines on treating with nitrous acid solution form corresponding alcohols except methyl
amine.
Correct Answer:
The intermolecular association in primary amines is less than the intermolecular association in
secondary amines.
Solution:
As we have learnt,
- Primary amines can be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide Synthesis
- Secondary amines are more basic than Primary amines
- Intermolecular association in primary amines is more than that in secondary amines as there are two
hydrogen atoms available for H-Bond formation in it.
- Primary amines form alcohols on reaction with nitrous acid.
Q. 9 Deuterium resembles hydrogen in properties but:
Option 1:
reacts vigorously than hydrogen
Option 2:
reacts just as hydrogen
Option 3:
emits particles
Option 4:
reacts slower than hydrogen
Correct Answer:
reacts slower than hydrogen
Solution:
As we know,
Heavier isotopes form stronger bonds and as a result, D-D bond energy is greater than H-H bond energy.
This leads to a slower rate of reaction in Deuterium than Hydrogen.
Hence, the correct answer is option(4)
Q. 10 The nature of oxides is indexed as type respectively. The

correct set of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The nature of oxides of vanadium and chromium are given below:
Basic Basic Amphoteric
Basic Amphoteric Acidic
Q. 11 Acidic ferric chloride solution on treatment with excess of potassium ferrocyanide gives a
Prussian blue coloured colloidal species. It is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
ions react with excess of potassium ferrocyanide to form .
The reaction is given below:

List-I List-II
(Species) (No.of lone pairs of electrons on the central atom)
(a) (i)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iii)
(d) (iv)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The structures of the compounds are given below :
Hence ,the correct answer is option (2)
Q. 13 Match items of List - I with those of List - II :
List - I List -II
(Property) (Example)
(a) Diamagnetism
(b) Ferrimagnetism
(c) Paramagnetism
(d) Antiferromagnetism
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Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The correct match of the magnetic property with the compounds is given below :
(a) Diamagnetism : (iii)
(b) Ferrimagnetism : (iv)
(C) Paramagnetism : (ii)
(d) Antiferromagnetism :(i)
Q. 14 In polythionic acid, the oxidation state(s) of sulphur is/are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The structure of Polythionic acid is
The terminal Sulphur atoms have an oxidation state of +5 while the Sulphur atoms in between have
oxidation state of Zero (0).
Hence , the correct answer is Option (3)
Q. 15 Out of following isomeric forms of uracil, which one is present in RNA ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The structure of Uracil present in RNA is
Q. 16 The major product of the following reaction is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The reaction sequence occurs as
Q. 17 In the following sequence of reactions, the final product is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The given reaction occurs as follows
Q. 18 Tyndall effect is more effectively shown by :
Option 1:
Iyophilic colloid
Option 2:
suspension
Option 3:
Iyophobic colloid
Option 4:
true solution
Correct Answer:
Iyophobic colloid
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Lyophobic sols are not solvated effectively while lyophilic sols are effectively solvated.
Due to ineffective solvation, there is a greater difference in the refractive index of the dispersed phase
and the dispersion medium and as a result, Tyndall effect is more effectively shown by lyophobic colloids.
Q. 19
The correct statement about (A),(B) (C) and (D) is:
Option 1:
(B) and (C) are tranquillizers
Option 2:
(B), (C) and (D) are tranquillizers
Option 3:
(A) and (D) are tranquillizers
Option 4:
(A), (B) and (C) are narcotic analgesics
Correct Answer:
(B) and (C) are tranquillizers
Solution:
The compounds given are
(A) Morphine Narcotic analgesic
(B) Valium Tranquillizer
(C) Serotonin Tranquillizer
(D) Codeine Tranquillizer
Q. 20 The number of water molecules in gypsum, dead bumt plaster and Plaster of Paris,
respectively are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Plaster of Paris is obtained on heating Gypsum to 393 K.
On heating above 393 K, no water of crystallisation is left behind and Dead burnt plaster is obtained.
The reaction is given as
Q. 21 of an octahedral metal complex with formula on reaction with excess of

gives . The denticity of Ligand is ____________.(Integer answer)
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Since,1 mole of is obtained, the complex contains only one ion outside the co-ordination
sphere.
The complex can be represented as
Now, since the co-ordination number is 6, the ligand L has to be a bidentate ligand.

Q. 22 In Carius method for estimation of halogens, of an organic compound gave
of . The percentage of bromine in the compound is_________.(Nearest integer)
[Atomic mass: ]
Correct Answer:
40
Solution:
Q. 23 The number of electrons in the ground state electronic configuration of is

__________.(Integer answer)
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
Atomic Number of Neptunium = 93
Electronic configuration is
Thus, Np contains 4 elections in the 5f orbital.
Hence,the correct answer is 4.
Q. 24 is mixed with . The molar heat of

neutralization of this reaction is The increase in temperature in of the system
on mixing is is_______. (Nearest integer)
[Given : Specific heat of water

Density of water ]
(Assume no volume change on mixing)

Correct Answer:
82
Solution:
meq. of Acid =
meq. of Base =
Total heat liberated
Total volume = 500 ml
Now, the heat liberated in the neutralisation reaction will be used to heat up the solution. Heat balance
gives us :
Q. 25 aqueous solution of sucrose can be cooled up to before

freezing. The amount of ice (in g) that will be separated out is ___________(Nearest integer)
[Given : ]
Correct Answer:
518
Solution:
The amount of ice separated at can be calculated by finding out the molality of the solution at
.
Now, Initial solution contained 0.75 moles of sucrose in 1kg solvent.
Mass of Sucrose per kg of solvent
Mass of Sucrose in 1 kg Solution
mass of water
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And, moles of Sucrose
Finaly,
molality
Mass of ice seperated
Q. 26 The kinetic energy of an electron in the second Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom is equal to
. The value of is_________. ( is radius of Bohr's orbit) (Nearest integer)
[Given : ]
Correct Answer:
3155
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Q. 27 The reaction that occurs in a breath analyser, a device used to determine the alcohol level in
a person's blood stream is
If the rate of appearance of is at a particular time, the rate of

disappearance of at the same time is_______ (Nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
From differential rate of the given reaction, we have
Hence , the answer is 4
Q. 28 When of an aqueous solution of was titrated in acidic medium, equal

volume of of an aqueous solution of ferrous sulphate was required for complete
discharge of colour. The strength of in grams per litre is________ (Nearest
integer)
[Atomic mass of ]
Correct Answer:
316
Solution:
From law of equivalence,
Q. 29 The number of moles of , that must be added to in order to

reduce the concentration of ions to
is___________(Nearest integer)
[Assume no volume change on adding ]
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
Let, 2a moles of Ammonia be added The complexation occurs as
Now, from expression of , we have
Q. 30 The number of moles of , that will be utilized in Dumas method for estimating nitrogen
in a sample of of N,N-dimethylaminopentane is ________ . (Nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
1125
Solution:
N,N -Dimethylamino pentane is
Moles of the compound = 0.5
Now, the reaction is given as
Maths
Q. 1 Let be a fixed point be a moving point . Let be the mid-point of
and the perpendicular bisector of meets the -axis at The locus of the mid-point
is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The co-ordinates of mid-pint M of AB will be (t,3).
slope of AB :
slope of MC :
Equation of MC
so Mid-point of MC will be
option (4)
Q. 2 The distance of the point from the plane measured parallel to a

line, whose direction ratios are is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The equation of line passing through A(1,-2,3) and parallel to line with direction ratios 2,3,-6 will be
Let this line cut the given plane at point B :
option (1)
Q. 3 If , then the value of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
option (2)
Q. 4 If respectively lie in the intervals :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
To find Range of x, make quadratic in y
To Find Range of y, make quadratic in x
Q. 5 The statement is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Truth Table
pq r
TTT T T T T
TTF T F F T
TFT F T F T
TFF F T F T
F TT T T F T
FTF T F F T
F FT T T F T
FFF T T F T
So given statement is a Tautology.
Q. 6
is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Taking log :
This is define integral as a limit of sum
Take
using integration ny parts :

Q. 7
is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Using properties of define Integral
Adding (1) and (2)
option (1)
Q. 8
If the matrix , then the value of is:

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Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Characteristic equation of A is
A satisfies this equation
Option (1)
Q. 9
When a certain biased die is rolled, a particular face occurs with probability and its
opposite face occurs with probability . All other faces occur with probability Note
that opposite faces sum to 7 in any die. If , and the probability of obtaining total
sum when such a die is rolled twice, is , then the value of is :

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The following combinations are possible (1,6),(2,5),(3,4),(4,3),(5,2),(6,7)
Let The particular biased pair of faces with probability
Q. 10 If , is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
option (2)
Q. 11 A wire of length is to be cut into two pieces. One of the pieces is to be made into a
square and the other into a regular hexagon. Then the length of the side (in meters) of the
hexagon, so that the combined area of the square and the hexagon is minimum, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let the side of regular hexagon be x so perimeter = 6 x
Option (3)
Q. 12 If for upto terms and

, then the ordered pair is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Option (2)
Q. 13 Let us consider a curve, passing through the point and the slope of the
tangent to the curve at any point is given by . Then:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Passes through (-2,2)
option (2)
Q. 14 A tangent and a normal are drawn at the point on the parabola , which
meet the directrix of the parabola at the points respectively. If is a point
such that is a square, then is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For Point P(2,-4),t = -1
Equation of Directrix : x = -2
So A(-2,0) & B(-2,-8)
Since AQBP is a square, Mid - Point of AB = Mid-Point of PQ
Q is (-6,-4) = (a,b). So
Option (3)
Q. 15 Let be the solution of the differential equation

such that Then is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
and using by parts in second integral by taking as second function.

at x = 0, y = 7
Option(3)
Q. 16 If are the distinct roots of , then
is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
option (3)
Q. 17
Equation of a plane at a distance from the origin, which contains the line of
intersection of the planes is :

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Family of Planes
Squaring
option (4)
Q. 18
Let , where are angles of a triangle If the lengths of
the sides opposite these angles are respectively, then :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
option (1)
Q. 19
is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
it is same as coefficient of in the expansion of
option (3)
Q. 20
If , then :
Option 1:
is a circle in the complex plane
Option 2:
contains exactly two elements
Option 3:
contains only one element
Option 4:
is a straight line in the complex plane
Correct Answer:
is a straight line in the complex plane
Solution:
option (4)
Q. 21 If the system of linear equations
has infinitely many solution, then is equal to_________.
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
For infinitely many solutions :
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Q. 22 Let be three vectors such
that, is perpendicular to . Then the greatest amongst the values of
is__________
Correct Answer:
90
Solution:
Q. 23 The number of distinct real roots of the equation is

___________.
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
has four real roots.
Q. 24 Let be an odd natural number such that the variance of . Then is

equal to__________.
Correct Answer:
13
Solution:
VarianCe of 1,2,3,----,n
Q. 25 Let the equation represent circles of varying radius
. Then the number of elements in the set
is____________.
Correct Answer:
61
Solution:
Q. 26 If is the constant of
integration, then the value of is equal to__________.
Correct Answer:
15
Solution:
Q. 27
If is the
set of all integers, then the number of subsets of the set is____________.
Correct Answer:
256
Solution:
No.of elements = 8
Q. 28 A number is called a palindrome if it reads the same backward as well as forward. For
example 285582 is a six digit palindrome. The number of six digit palindromes, which are
divisible by 55 , is__________
Correct Answer:
100
Solution:
For this numbers to be divisible by 5, it must end in 5.
True for any choice of a & b

such numbers.
Q. 29 is equal to
_______
Correct Answer:
17
Solution:
Q. 30
If the minimum area of the triangle formed by a tangent to the ellipse and
the co-ordinate axis is kab, then is equal to________
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Let the equation of tangent in parametric form is
x and y in intercepts are

&
(when denominator is max)

Online 27th August Evening Shift
Physics
Q. 1 For a transistor . Then the correct relation
between will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
We know that,
Q. 2 A mass of is placed at the centre of a uniform spherical shell of mass ad
radius . If the gravitational potential at a point, from the centre is . The
value of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
We know that, for spherical shell
But (Given)
Q. 3 Water drops are falling from a nozzle of a shower onto the floor, from a height of
The drops fall at a regular interval of time. When the first drop strikes the floor, at that
instant, the third drop begins to fall. Locate the position of second drop from the floor when
the first drop strikes the floor.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let be the time interval between two succesive drop.
The first drop has been falling for whereas the second drop for .
By Galileo 's ratio, the position of and will be and from the surface.
.......(1)
For drop
Position of second drop from floor is .
Q. 4 If force (F), length (L) and time (T) are taken as the fundamental quantities. Then what will be
the dimension of density:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let density
...........(1)
...........(2)
...........(3)
Q. 5 For full scale deflection of total divisions, voltage is required in galvanometer. The
resistance of galvanometer if its current sensitivity is will be :
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Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For divisions,the corresponding current will be
Q. 6 If the rms speed of oxygen molecules at , find the rms speed of hydrogen
molecules at
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 7 The height of victoria falls is . What is the difference in temperature of water at the top
and at the bottom of fall ?
Given and specific heat of water
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As the water falls down, all of its will be continued into heat as it hits the bottom
Q. 8 The boxes of masses are connected by a massless string passing over
smooth pulleys. Calculate the time taken by box of mass to strike the ground starting
from rest.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
....(1)
....(2)
....(3)
Block of mass 8kg is accelerating downward with
Q. 9 Two discs have moments of intertia about their respective axes perpendicular to
the plane and passing through the centre. They are rotating with angular speeds,
respectively and are brought into contact face to face with their axes of rotation
coaxial. The lose in kinetic energy of the system in the process is given by:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
After they brought into contact
As
Q. 10 A player kicks a football with an initial speed of from the

ground. What are the maximum height and the time taken by the football to reach at the
highest point during motion ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The maximum height reached is

Time taken to reach maximum height is
Q. 11 The colour coding on a carbon resistor is shown in the given figure. The resistance value of
the given resistor is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Resistance
Q. 12 An antenna is mounted on a tall building. What will be the wavelength of signal that
can be radiated effectively by the transmission tower upto a range of ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Range of Transmission
Height of transmission tower

Q. 13 Match List - I with List - II.
List - I List-II
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
SI unit of
SI unit of
SI unit of
Q. 14 A constant magnetic field of is applied in the region. A metallic circular ring of
radius is moving with a constant velocity of along the , At ,
the centre of the ring is at What will be the value of the induced emf in the
ring at ? (Assume the velocity of the ring does not change.)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
At t = 0
At t=1s,
Q. 15 A coaxial cable consists of an inner wire of radius surrounded by an outer shell of inner
and outer radii respectively. The inner wire carries an electric current , which
is distributed uniformly across cross-sectional area. The outer shell carries an equal current
in opposite direction and distributed uniformly. What will be the ratio of the magnetic field
at a distance from the axis when
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
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Only inner wire will contribute to magetic field
By Ampere's law
.............(1)
Even here only inner wire will contribute
By Ampere's law
......(2)
Q. 16 A monochromatic neon lamp with wavelength of illuminates a photo-sensitive
material which has a stopping voltage of . What will be the stopping voltage if the
source light is changed with another source of wavelength of ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
By Einstein's photoelectric equation
.................(1)
.................(2)
Q. 17 Curved surfaces of a plano-convex lens of refractive index and a plano-concave lens of
refractive index have equal radius of curvature as shown in figure. Find the ratio of
radius of curvature to the focal length of the combined lenses.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 18 Three capacitors are connected as shown in
figure. Find the ratio of the charges on capacitors respectively:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The ratio of the charge on capacitors is
Q. 19 The light waves from two coherent sources have same intensity . In
interference pattern the intensity of light at minima is zero. What will be the intensity of light
at maxima?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 20 Figure shows a rod , which is bent in a circular arc of radius

is uniformly distributed over rod . What is the electric field at the centre of curvature
?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Electric field due to circular arc is
( By symmetry )
Inward field for negative charge distribution

Q. 21 A bullet of , moving with velocity , collides head-on with the stationary bob of a
pendulum and recoils with velocity The length of the pendulum is and
mass of the bob is The minimum value of _________ so that the pendulum
describes a circle.
(Assume the string to be inextensible and )
Correct Answer:
400m/s
Solution:
By linear momentum conservation
For the Bob to just complete the vertical circular motion
here
Q. 22 The ratio of the equivalent resistance of the network (shown in figure) between the points
when switch is open and switch is closed is The value of is__________.
Correct Answer:
x=9
Solution:
Switch 's' is closed
...........(1)
Switch 's' is open
.............(2)
Q. 23 A plane electromagnetic wave with frequency of travels in free space. At particular

point in space and time, electric field is . The magnetic field at this point will be
. The value of is___________.
Correct Answer:
x=2
Solution:
We know that,
Q. 24 A tuning fork is vibrating at The length of the shortest closed organ pipe that will
resonate with the tuning fork will be _______ . (Take speed of sound in air as )
Correct Answer:
34cm
Solution:
For shortest closed organ pipe
At resonance,
Q. 25 A heat engine operates between a cold reservoir at temperature and a hot
reservoir at temperature . It takes of heat from the hot reservoir and delivers
of heat to the cold reservoir in a cycle. The minimum temperature of the hot
reservoir has to be _______
Correct Answer:
500
Solution:
Q. 26 different wavelengths may be observed in the spectrum from a hydrogen sample if the
atoms are exited to states with principal quantum number The value of
is__________.
Correct Answer:
15
Solution:

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No of special lines of orbit
Q. 27 Two simple harmonic motion, are represented by the equations
Ratio of amplitude of . The value of is___________.
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Q. 28 Wires are made of same material having the breaking stress of
have cross-sectional area of
, respectively. Masses of hang from
them as shown in the figure. The maximum mass that can be placed in the pan without
breaking the wires is _______kg.
Correct Answer:
40
Solution:
......(1)
.......(2)
For wire 1
Maximum mass in pan wire 1 can beat is 70kg
For wire 2
Maximum mass in pan wire 2 can bear is 40kg
Q. 29 An ac circuit has an inductor and a resistor of resistance R in series, such that

Now, a capacitor is added in series such that . The ratio of new power factor with
the old power factor of the circuit is The value of is________.
Correct Answer:
x=1
Solution:
Q. 30 A zener diode of power rating is to be used as a voltage regulator. If the zener diode
has a breakdown of and it has to regulate voltage fluctuated between
, the value of for safe operation should be__________
Correct Answer:
20
Solution:
For there won't be breakdown of zener diode
For there would be across as is across zener diode
For safe operation the value of is
Chemistry
Q. 1 The correct order of ionic radii for the ions, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
In isoelectronic species, greater the negative charge, larger is the radii.
Hence, the give species can be arranged in order of their radii as
Q. 2 Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols because,
Option 1:
There is a strong electrostatic repulsion between the negatively charged colloidal particles.
Option 2:
The colloidal particles are solvated.
Option 3:
The colloidal particles have no charge.
Option 4:
The colloidal particles have positive charge.
Correct Answer:
The colloidal particles are solvated.
Solution:
Lyophilic sols are more stale than lyopholic sols due to their more effective solvation by the solvent
molecules.

Q. 3 The correct structures of A and B formed in the following reactions are:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Lone pairs of nitrogen are more nucleophilic.
Q. 4 The oxide that gives most readily on treatment with is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Ionic peroxide on reaction with water yield
Thus, and will give .

However, needs to be acidified and the excess has to be removed by evaporation
under reduced pressure.
So, forms most readily.
Q. 5 In stratosphere most of the ozone formation is assisted by:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Ozone in the stratosphere is a product of UV radiations acting on dioxygen molecules. These radiations
split molecule into atoms. These free atoms thus formed combine with molecular oxygen to
form ozone.
Hence the correct answer is option (4)
Q. 6 The addition of dilute salt solution will give :
Option 1:
Precipitate of
Option 2:
Precipitate of
Option 3:
Precipitate of
Option 4:
A solution of
Correct Answer:
Precipitate of
Solution:
Addition of dilute to a salt solution of will lead to the formation of a precipitate of hydrated
chromium (III) oxide.
Q. 7 Potassium permanganate on heating at gives a product which is :
Option 1:
Paramagnetic and Colourless
Option 2:
Diamagnetic and Green
Option 3:
Paramagnetic and Green
Option 4:
Diamagnetic and Colourless
Correct Answer:
Paramagnetic and Green
Solution:
As we have learnt,
on heating produces
is paramagnetic and green
is paramagnetic and brown

Q. 8 Which one of the following chemicals is responsible for the production of in the
stomach leading to irritation and pain?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Histamine is responsible for production of in the stomach leading to irritation and pain.
Its structure is given as:
Q. 9 Choose the correct statement from the following:

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Option 1:
Among the alkali metal halides, LiF is least soluble in water.
Option 2:
The standard enthalpy of formation for alkali metal bromides becomes less negative on descending
the group.
Option 3:
The low solubility of CsI in water is due to its high lattice enthalpy.
Option 4:
LiF has least negative standard enthalpy of formation among alkali metal fluorides.
Correct Answer:
Among the alkali metal halides, LiF is least soluble in water.
Solution:
As we have learnt,
- is least soluble among the alkaline metal halides due to a very high value of lattic energy
- The standard ethalpy of formation of alkali metal bromides becomes more negative on moving down
the group
- The low solubility of is due to low hydration enthalpy
- has the most negative enthalpy of formation among alkaline fluorides.
Hence the correct answer is option is (1)
Q. 10 Which one of the following tests used for the identification of functional groups in organic
compounds does not use copper reagent ?
Option 1:
Seliwanoff's test
Option 2:
Barfoed's test
Option 3:
Biuret test for peptide bond
Option 4:
Benedict's test
Correct Answer:
Seliwanoff's test
Solution:
The tests, their functions and the reagent used in them are mentioned below:
(1) Seliwanoff's Test - distinguishes Ketoses from aldoses- Resorcinol
(2) Barfoed's Test - detection of monosaccharides
(3) Biuret test - detection of peptide bonds
(4) beedicts's test - detection of Aldehydes
Q. 11 Which one of the following is used to remove most of plutonium from spent nuclear fuel?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
is used to remove most of Plutonium from spent nuclear fuel in the form of
Q. 12 Which one of the following is the major product of the given reaction ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The given reaction occurs as

Q. 13 The compound/s which will show significant intermolecular H-bonding is/are :
Option 1:
(a) and (b) only
Option 2:
(c) only
Option 3:
(a), (b) and (c)
Option 4:
(b) only
Correct Answer:
(b) only
Solution:
(a)
Shows intramolecular H bonding
(b)
Shows intermolecular H-Bonding
(c)
does not show H bonding because of steric hinderance
Q. 14 The major product (A) formed in the reaction given below is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The major product (A) formed is given below
Q. 15 Which one of the following is formed (mainly) when red phosphorus is heated in a sealed
tube at ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Black Phosphorous is formed due to heating of Red Phosphorous in a sealed tube at 803K
Hence the correct answer is option is (1)
Statement I : Ethyl pent-4-yn-oate on reaction with gives a
Statement II : In this reaction one mole of Ethyl pent-4-yn-oate utilizes two moles of
.
given below
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The given alkynoate contains an ester functional group as well as a terminal Alkyne.
The moles of Grignard reagent that can react with 1 mole of the given alkynoate is 3, of which 1 mole will
be used to extract the acidic alkynic hydrogen and the other 2 for substitution and addition at the
ester functional group.
The reaction is given below:
Thus, statement I is true while Statment II is false

List-I List-II
(Name of ore/mineral (Chemical formula)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The correct match of the ores and their formulae is given below
Q. 18 Hydrolysis of sucrose gives:

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Hydrolysis of Sucose gives and
Q. 19 The major product of the following reaction, if it occurs by mechanism is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The major product by reaction is given as
Q. 20 Which one of the following reactions will not yield propionic acid ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The reaction given in option (4) yields Butanoic Acid
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All other reactions give Propanoic Acid or Propionic acid.
Q. 21 of propane is completely reacted with of oxygen. The mole fraction of carbon

dioxide in the resulting mixture is . The value of is____________.(Nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
19
Solution:
Moles of , moles of
Thus, propane is the limiting reagent.
The combustion reaction is given as :
Mole fraction of
Hence the answer is 19

Q. 22 Data given for the following reaction is as follows :
Substance
The minimum temperature in at which the reaction becomes spontaneous is____________

(Integer answer)
Correct Answer:
964
Solution:
For the reaction,
For spontaeity,
For minimum temperature,

Q. 23 The number of photons emitted by a monochromatic (single frequency) infrared range
finder of power and wavelength of , in is The value
of is ________.(Nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
50
Solution:
Given,
Now,
Therefore,
Hence the value of x is 50
Q. 24 When is introduced into a two litre evacuated flask at

of the solid decomposes into gaseous ammonia and hydrogen sulphide. The for the
reaction at is . The value of is _________.(Integer answer)
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
Given,
Mass of
Moles of
Now, Decomposition of is given as
Hence the correct answer is 6
Q. 25 of glucose (Molar mass ) is mixed with of water. The freezing point of

solution is ______________ . (Nearest integer)
[Given : ; Density of water ; Freezing point of water

]
Correct Answer:
271
Solution:
Given
Weight of Glucose
Moles of glucose
And, Volume of water
Weight of water
Molality of Glucose
Now,
Freezing point
Q. 26 The first order rate constant for the decomposition of

and activation energy is . Its rate
constant at The value of is ________(Nearest integer)
[ ]
Correct Answer:
16
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Q. 27 The resistance of a conductivity cell with cell constant , containing

at . The molar conductivity of solution at
is _________. (Integer answer)
Correct Answer:
760
Solution:
Given,
Hence, the asnwer is 760

Q. 28 Two flasks I and II shown below are connected by a valve of negligible volume.
When the valve is opened, the final pressure of the system in bar is . The value of
is __________(Integer answer)
[Assume - Ideal gas;
]
Correct Answer:
84
Solution:
Moles of in Flask I
Moles of in Flask II
Let final temperature be , conservation of heat gives us
Now final pressure

The correct answer is
Q. 29 The number of species having non-pyramidal shape among the following is_______
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
The shape of the molecules are given below:
Thus, only is pyramidal while the others are square planar.
Q. 30 The number of optical isomers possible for is____________.
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Complexes of type are optically active and have optically active isomers (enantiomeric
pairs)
Maths
Q. 1 The area of the region bounded by the parabola the tangent to it at
the point whose ordinate is and the is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
At
Equation of Tangent at is
Area
Q. 2 Let and respectively be the maximum and minimum values of the function
. Then the value of is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For
Q. 3 If is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
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Q. 4 A differential equation representing the family of parabolas with axis parallel to
and whose length of latus rectum is the distance of the point form the line
, is given by :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let the vertex is
Equation of Parabola is
Q. 5 The equation of the plane passing through the line of intersection of the planes
and parallel to the is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Family of Planes
Parallel to x-axis
So equation of plane is
Q. 6 Let be the set of all integers,
If the total number of relations from , then the value of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
No of relations
Q. 7 The Boolean expression is equivalent to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Truth Table
Q. 8 Let be the greatest integer less than or equal to . The set of all values of for which the
system of linear equations
has a solution is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Case 1 for unique solutions,
Case 2 For infinite solution,
So can be anything
Q. 9 Let be points such that the area

of triangle . unit, then the sum of all possible values of a is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Area
Sum of possible values of
Q. 10 If two tangents drawn from a point to the parabola are at right angles,
then the locus of point is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The locus is diretrix of Parabola
So equation of diretrix is
Q. 11 Each of the persons A and B independently tosses three fair coins. The probability that both
of them get the same number of heads is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Both get 0 Heads
1 Heads
2 Heads
3 Heads
Total desired probability
Q. 12 Two poles, of length a metres and of length metres are erected at

the same horizontal level with bases at . If and , then :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 13 If , then the ordered pair is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Using binomial expansion
For limit to exist
And
So
Q. 14 The angle between the straight lines, whose direction cosines are given by the equations
, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
...............(1)

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..........(2)
From (1) and (2)
So
Also
So
Angle
Q. 15
The value of the integral is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 16 If then the value of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
At
Q. 17
Let where denotes the greatest integer less
than or equal to t. If then the set of values of is the interval :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
We know that for
Q. 18 The set of all values of for which the equation

has real roots,
is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let
So for all equation has real roots

Q. 19 A box open from top is made from a rectangular sheet of dimension by cutting
squares each of side from each of the four corners and folding up the flaps. If the volume
of the box is maximum, then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The volume of box
Point of maxima will be

Q. 20 If the solution curve of the differential equation passes
through the points then is a root of the equation:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Integrating factor
Q. 21 Let where be two points on the

hyperbola If is the point of the intersection of the normals to the
hyperbola at then is equal to____________
Correct Answer:
-
Q. 22 when divided by leaves the remainder ________
Correct Answer:
15
Solution:
So remainder
Q. 23 Let be two complex numbers such that arg satisfy

the equation . Then the imaginary part of is equal to__________.
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
lie on parabola
Slope of line joining
Imaginary part of
Q. 24
If where is a constant of
integration, then is equal to______.
Correct Answer:
7
Solution:
Let
.......(1)
..........(2)
From (1) and (2)

So
Q. 25 An online exam is attempted by 50 candidates out of which 20 are boys. The average marks
obtained by boys is 12 with a variance 2. The variance of marks obtained by 30 girls is also 2.
The average marks of all 50 candidates is 15 . If is the average marks of girls and is the
variance of marks of 50 candidates, then is equal to_________.
Correct Answer:
25
Solution:
So
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Q. 26 Let be the mirror image of the point with respect to the plane
be a point of this plane. Then the square of the
length of the line segment is_____________.
Correct Answer:
72
Solution:
Let
So
lies on plane
Q. 27 Let be the sum of all solutions (in radians) of the equation

. Then is equal to__________
Correct Answer:
56
Solution:
Let
Q. 28 Two circles each of radius 5 units touch cach other at the point . If the equation of
their common tangent is are
their centres, then is equal to_________.
Correct Answer:
40
Solution:
Family of circles
Q. 29 Let . Then the number of elements in the set

and the sum of all the elements of is not a multiple of
is__________.
Correct Answer:
80
Solution:
Total no of Subsets of
Desired number of subsets =Total-subsets whose sum is divided by 3
Let us divide the set in 3 parts
Subsets with 0 elements =1
Subsets with 1 element divisible by 3
Subsets with 2 elements divisible by 3
Total
So No. of subsets whose sum is not divisible by 3
Q. 30 The probability distribution of random variable is given by :
X 1 2 3 4 5
Let . If , then is equal to_________.
Correct Answer:
30
Solution:
Online 31th Aug (Morning Shift)
Physics
Q. 1 A helicopter is flying horizontally with a speed at an altitude has to drop a food packet
for a man on the ground. What is the distance of helicopter from the man when the food
packet is dropped?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
distance of man and helicapter

Q. 2 Choose the correct waveform that can represent the voltage across of the following
circuit, assuming the diode is ideal one :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For ideal diode , resistance of the diode is zero
then diode is forward biased

the diode is reversed biased
for forward biased i.e will conduct current
Q. 3 Angular momentum of a single particle moving with constant speed along circular path :
Option 1:
Remains same in magnitude but changes in the direction
Option 2:
Remains same in magnitude and direction
Option 3:
Is zero
Option 4:
Changes in magnitude but remains same in the direction
Correct Answer:
Remains same in magnitude and direction
Solution:
Angular momentum of a particle moving with constant speed along circular path
It remains constant in magnitude and direction until the sense of circular motion remains same
Q. 4 A sample of a radioactive nucleus A disintegrates to another radioactive nucleus B, which in

turn disintegrates to some other stable nucleus . Plot of a graph showing the variation of
number of atoms of nucleus B vesus time is :
(Assume that at , there are no B atoms in the sample)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
After time t, the no.of nuclei of B,
Q. 5 An object is placed at the focus of concave lens having focal length . What is the
magnification and distance of the image from the optical centre of the lens ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
By lens equation,
Q. 6 For an ideal gas the instantaneous change in pressure with volume is given by the
equation . If at is the given boundary condition, then the
maximum temperature one mole of gas can attain is :
(Here is the gas constant)
Option 1:
Option 2:
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Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

Q. 7 In the following logic circuit the sequence of the inputs
. The output for this sequence will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 8 A coil having turns is wound tightly in the form of a spiral with inner and outer radii
and respectively. Find the magnetic field at centre, when a current passes through coil :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let dN be the no.of the turns in thickness dx
For circular coil,the magnetic field at the centre

Q. 9 A small square loop of side and one turn is placed inside a larger square loop of side b
and one turn . The two loops are coplanar with their centres coinciding. If a
current is passed in the square loop of side then the coefficient of mutual inductance
between the two loops is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Magnetic field due to square loop at its cenre 0
Q. 10 In an ac circuit, an inductor, a capacitor and a resistor are connected in series with

. Impedance of this circuit is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 11 Consider a galvanometer shunted with resistance and of current passes through it.
What is the resistance of the given galvanometer?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

Q. 12 A body of mass moving at speed collides elastically with a mass at rest. After the
collision, the two masses move at angles with respect to the initial direction of
motion of the body of mass . The largest possible value of the ratio , for which the
angles will be equal, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
By linear momentum conservation, Along X- axis
Along Y-axis
For elastic collision ,

Q. 13
A reversible engine has an efficiency of . If the temperature of the sink is reduced by .
its efficiency becomes double. Calculate the temperature of the sink:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
174 K
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
174 K
Solution:
Q. 14 Which of the following equations is dimensionally incorrect?
,
.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
as
Poiseuille's equation
Q. 15 A uniform heavy rod of weight , cross-sectional area

is hanging from a fixed support. Young modulus of the
material of the rod is . Neglecting the lateral contraction, find the elongation
of rod due to its own weight:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
elongation of rod due to its own weight
Q. 16 Two particles having charges respectively are held fixed with

a separation of . At what position a third charged particle should be placed so that it
does not experience a net electric force?
Option 1:
At on the right side
Option 2:
At on the left side of system
Option 3:
At from between two charges
Option 4:
At midpoint between two charges
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Correct Answer:
At on the right side
Solution:
Let c be the position where the net.force is zero (closer to the smaller charge for two unlike changes
arrangement)
Q. 17 Two plane mirrors are at right angle to each other shown. A point source
is placed at meter away from respectively. The longest distance
between the images thus formed is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For two mirror placed at right angle to each other
No of images = 3
& are three images of p

Distance between image & is the smallest i.e (2a)
Distance between image & is 4a
Distance between image and is
List - I List - II
(a) Torque
(b) Impulse
(c) Tension
(d) Surface Tension
Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

Q. 19 A moving proton and electron have the same de-Broglie wavelength. If denote
the K.E. and momentum respectively. Then choose the correct option :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 20 The masses and radii of the earth and moon are respectively.
Their centres are at a distance apart. Find the minimum escape velocity for a particle of
mass to be projected from the middle of these two masses :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Point P is not midpoint between &
For minimum escape velocity,
Q. 21 A car is moving on a plane inclined at to the horizontal with an acceleration of

parallel to the plane upward. A bob is suspended by a string from the roof of the car. The
angle in degrees which the string makes with the vertical is__________.
Correct Answer:
300
Solution:
Angle made by the steing with no of & with vertical it is
Q. 22 The electric field in an electromagnetic wave is given by

The energy contained in a cylinder of volume . The value of
_________ .
Correct Answer:
500
Solution:
= 500 cm3
Q. 23 A capacitor of is connected in a circuit as shown in figure. The charge on the upper

plate of the capacitor is________ .
Correct Answer:
100
Solution:
At steady state, there is no current through capacitor
potential drop across capacitor = IR

Q. 24 The voltage drop across resistance in the given figure will be_______
Given 5
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
potential drop across registor

Q. 25 A particle of mass is hanging from a spring of force constant . The mass is
pulled slightly downward and released so that it executes free simple harmonic motion with
time period T. The time when the kinetic energy and potential energy of the system will
become equal, is . The value of is____________.
Given--
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
x=8
Q. 26 A block moving horizontally on a smooth surface with a speed of splits into two
equal parts. If one of the parts moves at in the same direction, then the fractional
change in the kinetic energy will be ____________.
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Q. 27 When a rubber ball is taken to a depth of ____________ in deep sea, its volume decreases by
Given --
Correct Answer:
500
Solution:

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Q. 28 A wire having a linear mass density is stretched between two rigid
supports with a tension of . The wire resonates at a frequency of . The next
higher frequency at which the same wire resonates is . The length of the wire
is____________m.
Given--
Correct Answer:
10
Solution:
Q. 29 A square shaped wire with resistance of each side is bent to form a complete circle. The
resistance between two diametrically opposite points of the circle in unit of will
be____________.
Given--
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Let Resistance of arch semi-circle be R
Resistance between two diametrically opposite points
Q. 30 If the sum of the heights of transmitting and receiving antennas in the line of sight of
communication is fixed at , then the maximum range of LOS communication
is___________
Given 5
Correct Answer:
64
Solution:
Range of LOS communication
For maximum range ,

Chemistry
Q. 1 Which one of the following compounds contains glycosidic linkage?
Option 1:
Sucrose
Option 2:
Amylose
Option 3:
Lactose
Option 4:
Maltose
Correct Answer:
Lactose
Solution:
Lactose contains glycosidic linkage. Its structure is given below :
Q. 2 The denticity of an organic ligand,biuret is :

Option 1:
2
Option 2:
3
Option 3:
4
Option 4:
6
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
The structure of Biuret is given below
Its denticity is 2 as shown in the diagram above. The Nitrogen atom at the centre does not act as a donor
site as the lone pairs are delocalised with the two carbonyl groups.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Treatment of bromine water with propene yields 1-bromopropan-2-ol.
Reason (R) : Attack of water on bromonium ion follows Markovnikov rule and results in 1-
bromopropan-2-ol.
given below :
Option 1:
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
Option 2:
Option 3:
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Solution:
Reaction of Bromine water with Propene occurs as
Hence ,both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) correctly explains (A)
Thus, the correct answer is Option (3)
Q. 5 Select the graph that correctly describes the adsorption isotherms at two temperatures
for a gas:
mass of gas adsorbed
mass of adsorbent
Pressure
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Adsorption process is exothermic and as a result, the extent of adsorption decreases with the increase in
Temperature.
Thus, the correct diagram for and where is given as

Q. 6 BOD values (in ppm) for clean water (A) and polluted water (B) are expected respectively as :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
BOD value for clean water is ppm while that for polluted water is ppm
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): A simple distillation can be used to separate a mixture of propanol and
propanone.
Reason (R) : Two liquids with a difference of more than in their boiling points can be
separated by simple distillations.
given below:
Option 1:
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Option 2:
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Boiling points of propanol and propanone are 370 K and 329 K respectively and hence, they can be
separated by simple distillation.
Thus , (A) and (R) are both correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
Therefore, the correct answer is option (2)
Q. 8 Monomer of Novolac is :
Option 1:
3-Hydroxybutanoic acid
Option 2:
1,3-Butadiene and styrene
Option 3:
phenol and melamine
Option 4:
o-Hydroxymethylphenol
Correct Answer:
o-Hydroxymethylphenol
Solution:
Novolac is obtained by polymerisation of Phenol and formaldehyde.
o- Hydroxymethylphenol is obtained due to electrophilic substitution of formaldehyde on Phenol .

Statement I : The process of producing syn-gas is called gasification of coal.
Statement II : The composition of syn-gas is .
given below:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Syn gas is produced due to gasification of coal.
A 1:1 mixture of and is called syn gas.

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Thus, Statement I is true while Statement II is false
Q. 10 In the structure of the dichromate ion, there is a :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The structure of dichromate ion is
Thus, it contains non-linear symmetrical bond.
Q. 11 The structure of product C, formed by the following sequence of reactions is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The reaction sequence occurs as

Q. 12 Which one of the following lanthanides exhibits oxidation state with diamagnetic
nature?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The electronic configuration of the Lanthanides are given below:
Thus, is diamagnetic.
Q. 13 The major products A and B in the following set of reactions are:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The major products (A) and (B) are given as

as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Metallic character decreases and non-metallic character increases on moving
from left to right in a period.
Reason (R) : It is due to increase in ionisation enthalpy and decrease in electron gain
enthalpy, when one moves from left to right in a period.
given below :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
On moving from left to right in a period , the metallic character decreases while the non- metallic
character increases.
This is due to increase in Ionisation enthalpy and increase in magnitude of electron gain
enthalpy
Thus, Assertion (A) is true while Reason (R) is false
Hence, the answer is option (4)
Q. 15 Choose the correct name for compound given below :

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The correct IUPAC name of the compound
is given as (2E) - 2- Bromo-hex-2-en-4-yne
Q. 16 The major component/ingredient of Portland Cement is :
Option 1:
dicalcium silicate
Option 2:
tricalcium aluminate
Option 3:
dicalcium aluminate
Option 4:
tricalcium silicate
Correct Answer:
tricalcium silicate
Solution:
The major ingredient of Portland cement is tricalcium silicate (51%)
Other ingredients are dicalcium silicate (26%) and tricalcium aluminate (11%)
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Aluminium is extracted from bauxite by the electrolysis of molten mixture of
with cryolite.
Reason (R) : The oxidation state of in cryolite is
given below :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Al is extracted from molten mixture of Alumina with cryolite .
Cryolite is added to decrease the melting point of alumina and also to increase conductivity of the melt.
Q. 18 Which one of the following is the correct PV vs P plot at constant temperature for an ideal
gas ? (P and V stand for pressure and volume of the gas respectively)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
At Constant Temperature and for a fixed amount of gas, the product of and is a constant.
Hence, the Plot of PV vs P is a straight line parallel to Pressure axis.
Q. 19 Which one of the following aqueous solutions will exhibit the largest freezing point
depression?
Option 1:
glycine
Option 2:
hydrazine
Option 3:
Option 4:
glucose
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Greater the van't hoff factor, greater is the depression in freezing point.
Since , has the greatest Van't Hoff factor, i = 3. It will have the greatest depression in freezing
point.
Q. 20 The correct order of reactivity of the given chlorides with acetate in acetic acid is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The given chlorides will react with Acetate ion in Acetic Acid via mechanism.
Thus, the rate of reaction will follow the stability of carbocation obtained after the leaving of Chloride ion
The correct order of reactivity is given as

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Q. 21 According to the following figure, the magnitude of the enthalpy change of the reaction
is equal to _____________.(Integer answer)
Correct Answer:
45
Solution:
Given,
Enthalpy change of reaction is equal to i.e.
Thus, the magnitude of enthalpy change is
Q. 22 The number of hydrogen bonded water molecule(s) associated with stoichiometry

is___________.
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
In there are 4 water molecules which are co- ordinated while 1 water molecule is
hydrogen Bonded.
Hence ,the answer is (2) .
Q. 23 The total number of reagents from those given below, that can convert nitrobenzene into
aniline is _________(Integer answer)
I.
II .
II.
IV.
V.
VI.
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
The above conversion can be carried out by
does not reduce Nitrobenzene to aniline.
Hence ,the answer is 5.
Q. 24 For a first order reaction, the ratio of the time for completion of a reaction to the time
for completion is_________. (Integer answer)
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
For a first order reaction,
Half life is independent of the initial concentration and is a function of rate constant K .
and
Q. 25 in its ground state electronic configuration has completely filled orbitals

with . The value of is__________.
Correct Answer:
7
Solution:
The electronic configuration of is
It contains 7 fully filled orbitals with m = 0 viz
Q. 26 The molarity of the solution prepared by dissolving of Oxalic Acid

in of water in is . The value of is__________. (Nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
20
Solution:
Given,
and,
Q. 27 Consider the following cell reaction
The value of , the standard

entropy change is_____________. (Nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
25
Solution:
For the given cell reaction ,
Now,
Hence,the correct answer is 25
Q. 28 Consider the sulphides and .
Number of these sulphides soluble in is_________.
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
The sulphide which are soluble in are
Sulphides insoluble in are and
Q. 29 is a sparingly soluble salt of molar mass and solubility . The

solubility product satisfies . The value of is __________. (Integer answer)
Correct Answer:
108
Solution:
Given,
Now, dissolves as
Expression for solubility product gives us
Hence, the value of a is 108
Q. 30 The number of halogen/(s) forming halic (V)acid is _________.
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
and form their halic acid viz
Hence, the correct answer is 3.
Maths
Q. 1
If , then is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
option (4)
Q. 2 Let be such that the Boolean expression is a tautology.

Then :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Tautology is a statement in which all the outcomes are True.
To Make max True in , p should be contain maximum False statements.
so
Truth Table
p q
T T F F T T
T F T T T T
F T F F T T
F F T F F T
Option (3)
Q. 3
If , then the determinant
is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
&
Also
option (2)
Q. 4 The number of real roots of the equation is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
and is always increasing function

will have exactly one real root
will have exactly one real root which will be point of minima
Also
will have exactly 1 real root.
Q. 5 is a root of the equation :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
option (3)
Q. 6
The sum of 10 terms of the series is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
option (4)
Q. 7 The function is not differentiable at exactly :
Option 1:
Two Points
Option 2:
Four Points
Option 3:
Three Points
Option 4:
One Point
Correct Answer:
Two Points
Solution:
(since square is always +ve or 0)

so is non-differentiable only at
Q. 8 Let be two vectors such that and the angle between and
is . If is a unit vector, then is equal to :
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Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
OR
option (4)
Q. 9 If are the lengths of the perpendiculars from the origin on the lines,
respectively, then
is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
option (3)
Q. 10 The line is tangent to which of the following curves?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
is equation of tangent to ellipse
option (1)
Q. 11
is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
option (4)
Q. 12 Let be a non-negative function in and twice differentiable in

, then
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Differentiating on both sides,
Using L'Hopital Rule,
option (2)
Q. 13 Let the equation of the plane, that passes through the point and contains the line
of intersection of the planes ,
is equal to:
Option 1:
-15
Option 2:
15
Option 3:
-23
Option 4:
23
Correct Answer:
-23
Solution:
Family of planes ;
Passes through (1,4,-3)
so equation of plane is
option (3)
Q. 14 The length of the latus rectum of a parabola, whose vertex and focus are on the positive
at a distance respectively from the origin, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Distance of Focus from vertex ;
length of latus rectum
option (3)
Q. 15 If the following system of linear equations
has no solution, then :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
No solution and at least one of
option (4)
Q. 16 Three numbers are in an increasing geometric progression with common ratio . If the
middle number is doubled, then the new numbers are in an arithmetic progression with
common difference . If the fourth term of GP is is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
But since it is an increasing A.P,
so
option (4)
Q. 17 A vertical pole fixed to the horizontal ground is divided in the ratio by a mark on it with
lower part shorter than the upper part. If the two parts subtend equal angles at a point on
the ground away from the base of the pole, then the height of the pole (in meters) is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
option (3)
Q. 18
If the Function
is continuous at then is equal to :
Option 1:
4
Option 2:
5
Option 3:
-4
Option 4:
-5
Correct Answer:
-5
Solution:
option (4)
Q. 19
The integral is equal to :
(where is a constant of integration)

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
option (2)
Q. 20 Which of the following is not correct for relation on the set of real numbers ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:

JEE MAIN
What does it offer?
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
so it is reflexive
So not symmetric
&
so it is not transitive .So option (3) is correct
It is not transitive As &

It is not symmetric
As
option (3)
Q. 21 The mean of 10 numbers is___________.
Correct Answer:
398
Solution:
Q. 22
If is the term, independent of in the binomial expansion of , then
is equal to_________.
Correct Answer:
55
Solution:
General Term
Term independent of x
Q. 23 An electric instrument consists of two units. Each unit must function independently for the
instrument to operate. The probability that the first unit functions is and that of the
second unit is . The instrument is switched on and it fails to operate. If the probability
that only the first unit failed and second unit is functioning is is equal
to________.
Correct Answer:
28
Solution:
P (First unit is functional)
P (Second unit is functional)
Desired Probabolity
So
Q. 24
Let denote the greatest integer . Then the value of is
____________.
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
Q. 25
A point moves in the complex plane such that , then the minimum
value of is equal to_______.
Correct Answer:
98
Solution:
The locus of z is a circular arc with centre (0,2) radius as drawing figure
Minimum distance of z from will be along the normal (passing through centre) distance
between (0,2) &
distance between circle &

Q. 26 If is the least value of such that the function is increasing on
[1, 2] and is the greatest value of such that the function is
decreasing on then the value of is__________.
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
&
&
So least value of
&
&
so greatest value of
Q. 27
The square of the distance of the point of intersection of the line
and the plane from the point is___________.
Correct Answer:
61
Solution:
Let point of intersection is
Lies on
Q. 28 If the variable line lies between the two circles

without intercepting a chord
on either circle, then the sum of all the integral values of is_____________.
Correct Answer:
165
Solution:
distance of from
distance of from
also
From (1), (2) & (3)
Q. 29
If , then is __________.
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
differentiating & assuming

Q. 30 The number of six letter words (with or without meaning), formed using all the letters of the
word 'VOWELS', so that all the consonants never come together, is___________.
Correct Answer:
576
Solution:
Desired permutations = Total - All consonants together
Online 31st Aug (Evening Shift)
Physics
Q. 1 Consider two separate ideal gases of electrons and protons having same number of
particles. The temperature of both the gases are same. The ratio of the uncertainty in
determining the position of an electron to that of a proton is proportional to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
By Heisenberg uncertainty principle

Q. 2 Statement I :
Two forces where when act at an angle to each other,
the magnitude of their resultant is when they act at an angle , the
magnitude of their resultant becomes . This is possible only when
Statement II :
In the situation given above.
given below :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Both the statements are true
Q. 3 A coil is placed in a magnetic field as shown below :
A current is induced in the coil because is :
Option 1:
Parallel to the plane of coil and increasing with time
Option 2:
Outward and increasing with time
Option 3:
Outward and decreasing with time
Option 4:
Parallel to the plane of coil and decreasing with time
Correct Answer:
Outward and decreasing with time
Solution:
Induced flux is out of the plane .
There are two possibilities.
1. Flux due to magnetic field is into the plane and it is increasing.

2. Flux due to magnetic field is out of the plane and it is decreasing.
The correct option is (3).
Q. 4 Statement I :If three forces are represented by three sides of a triangle and
then these three forces are concurrent forces and satisfy the condition
for equilibrium.
Statement II :A triangle made up of three forces as its sides taken in the
same order, satisfy the condition for translatory equilibrium.
given below:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
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If
then
It can be modified as the sides of triangle by three forces in cyclic manner.
Q. 5 Two thin metallic spherical shells of radii are placed with their centres
coinciding. A material of thermal conductivity is filled in the space between the shells. The
inner shell is maintained at temperature and the outer shell at temperature
The rate at which heat flows radially through the material is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 6 The equivalent resistance of the given circuit between the terminals is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
resistor is short circuited
the correct option is (4)
Q. 7 If are the input voltages is the output voltage

then the two gates represented in the following circuits (A) and (B) are :
Option 1:
OR and NOT Gate
Option 2:
AND and NOT Gate
Option 3:
AND and OR Gate
Option 4:
NAND and NOR Gate
Correct Answer:
OR and NOT Gate
Solution:
Circuit A represents realization of OR Gate .
Circuit B represents realization of NOT Gtae.
Q. 8 For a body executing S.H.M. :

(a) Potential energy is always equal to its K.E.
(b) Average potential and kinetic energy over any given time interval are always equal.
(c) Sum of the kinetic and potential energy at any point of time is constant.
(d) Average K.E. in one time period is equal to average potential energy in one time period.
Choose the most appropriate option from the options given below :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For a body executing SHM
Q. 9 A system consists of two identical spheres each of at

the ends of a light rod. The distance between the centres of the two spheres is . What
will be the moment of inertia of the system about an axis perpendicular to the rod passing
through it midpoint?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 10 A current of is flowing through a triangle, of side each. The magnetic field at the
centroid of the triangle is:
(Assume that the current is flowing in the clockwise direction.)
Option 1:
inside the plane of triangle
Option 2:
outside the plane of triangle
Option 3:
outside the plane of triangle
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Magnetic field due to each side
Q. 11 Choose the incorrect statement :

(a) The electric lines of force entering into a Gaussian surface provide negative flux.
(b) A charge is placed at the centre of a cube. The flux through all the faces will be the
same.
(c) In a uniform electric field net flux through a closed Gaussian surface containing no net
charge, is zero,
(d) When electric field is parallel to a Gaussian surface, it provides a finite non-zero flux.
Option 1:
(b) and (d) Only
Option 2:
(c) and (d) Only
Option 3:
(a) and (c) Only
Option 4:
(d) Only
Correct Answer:
(d) Only
Solution:
Flux emerging out of the surface is positive.
Flux entering into the surface is negative.
If charge q is placed at the center of cube, the flux through each face is
When electric field is parallel to a Gaussian Surface, the flux through surface is equal to zero .
Q. 12 Statement I :
To get a steady de output from the pulsating voltage received from a full wave rectifier we
can connect a capacitor across the output parallel to the load .
Statement II :
To get a steady dc output from the pulsating voltage received from a full wave rectifier we
can connect an inductor in series with
given below :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Both inductor and capacitor can be used to get steady dc output from the pulsating voltage received
from a full wave rectifier.
The correct option is (2).
Q. 13 If velocity [V] time [T] and force [F] are chosen as the base quantities, the dimensions of the
mass will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Comparing both sides
...........(1)
.............(2)
...........(3)

Q. 14 A bob of mass 'm' suspended by a thread of length undergoes simple harmonic
oscillations with time period . If the bob is immersed in a liquid that has density times
that of the bob and the length of the thread is increased by of the original length, then
the time period of the simple harmonic oscillations will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
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Q. 15 The magnetic field vector of an electromagnetic wave is given by
where represents unit vector along
respectively, At , two electric charges coulomb and coulomb

located at , respectively, have the same velocity of , (where c
is the velocity of light). The ratio of the force acting on charge is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The magnetic field of EM wave is given by
The propagation of wave is along z axis and
Let
unit vector along electric field
Force on charge 1
As points in +z axis
at
...............(1)
Similarly
....................(2)
Q. 16 A mixture of hydrogen and oxygen has volume temperature pressure

and mass . The ratio of masses of oxygen to hydrogen will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
..
Q. 17 If be the radius of Earth, then the ratio between the acceleration due to gravity at a
depth below and a height above the earth surface is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
........(1)
Q. 18 Four identical hollow cylindrical columns of mild steel support a big structure of mass
. The inner and outer radii of each column are
respectively.
Assuming uniform local distribution, calculate the compression strain of each column.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 19 A free electron of energy collides with a . This results in the formation of a
hydrogen atom in the first excited state and a photon is released. Find the frequency of the
emitted photon.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Energy of photon=(Energy lost be electron)
Q. 20 A block moving horizontally on a smooth surface with a speed of splits into two
parts with masses in the ratio of If the smaller part moves at in the same
direction, then the fractional change in kinetic energy is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let
By linear momentum conservation
..............(1)
............(2)
Q. 21 A resistor dissipates of energy in when a current of is passed through it.

Now, when the current is doubled, the amount of thermal energy dissipated in
is____________ .
Correct Answer:
3840
Solution:
If current is doubled i.e
Q. 22 A long solenoid with has a core material with relative permeability

and volume . If the core material is replaced by another material having relative
permeability of with same volume maintaining same current of in the solenoid,
the fractional change in the magnetic moment of the core would be approximately .
Find the value of
Given --
Correct Answer:
250
Solution:
Q. 23 In a Young's double slit experiment, the slits are separated by and the screen is
away from the plane of slits. Distance between fourth bright fringes on both sides of
central bright fringe is . The frequency of light used is___________ .
Correct Answer:
f=5x1014 Hz
Solution:
Distance between fourth bright fringes on both sides of central bright is

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Q. 24 A sample of gas with is taken through an adiabatic process in which the volume is
compressed from . If the initial pressure is . The absolute
value of the workdone by the gas in the process =____________ .
Correct Answer:
480J
Solution:
For adiabatic process
Q. 25 A particle is moving with constant acceleration Following graph shows versus

(displacement) plot. The acceleration of the particle is___________________
Correct Answer:
1m/s^2
Solution:
Q. 26 Cross-section view of a prism is the equilateral triangle shown in the figure. The
minimum deviation is observed using this prism when the angle of incidence is equal to the
prism angle. The time taken by light to travel from (midpoint of BC) to ________
. (Given, speed of light in vacuum )
Correct Answer:
5x10-10s
Solution:
We know that,
........(Given) .............(1)
...........(2)
But for minimum deviation

(from eqn (2))
(Equilateral prism)
Also for minimum deviation
Q. 27 A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance is connected to a battery of .A

dielectric slab of dielectric constant 2 is now inserted into the space between plates of
capacitor while the battery remain connected. The change in the electrostatic energy in the
capacitor will be_____________
Correct Answer:
4J
Solution:
Q. 28 The diameter of a spherical bob is measured using a vernier callipers. 9 divisions of the main
scale, in the vernier callipers, are equal to 10 divisions of vernier scale. One main scale
division is The main scale reading is division of vernier scale was
found to coincide exactly with one of the main scale division. If the given vemier callipers has
positive zero error of then the radius of the bob is _________ .
Correct Answer:
52
Solution:
Q. 29 At very high frequencies, the effective impedance of the given circuit will be________
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
At very high frequency,
Inductor acting as open circuit and capacitor as short circuit

Q. 30 A bandwidth of is available for A.M. transmission. If the maximum audio signal
frequency used for modulating the carrier wave is not to exceed . The number of
stations that can be broadcasted within this band simultaneously without interfering with
each other will be_________.
Correct Answer:
500
Solution:
Signal Bandwidth
Signal Bandwidth
No of stations that can be broadcast is let say
Chemistry
Q. 1 The incorrect expression among the following is:
Option 1:
For isothermal process,
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Thus, the expression in option (2) is incorrect
List - I List-II
(Parameter) (Unit)
(a) Cell constant
(b) Molar conductivity Dimensionless
(c) Conductivity
(d) Degree of dissociation of electrolyte
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The correct combination of the parameters and their units are given below:
(a) Cell constant
(b) Molar conductivity

(c) Conductivity
(d) Degree of dissociation
Hence the answer is option (3)
Q. 3 The ion is a strong reducing agent in spite of its ground state electronic configuration
(outermost) : [Atomic number of ]
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
has a configuration of
Q. 4 The major product of the following reaction is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The give reaction occurs as
Alcoholic causes elimiation. The elimination product is further stabilized by resonance.
Q. 5 Spin only magnetic moment in BM of is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
In the complex exist as and in the presence of strong ligand field, the
electrons will get paired up.
configuration with strong ligand
Thus, there is one unpaired electron which will lead to a magnetic moment of
Q. 6 Identify correct in the reaction sequence given below :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:

JEE MAIN
What does it offer?
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The given reaction sequence occurs as

List-I List-II
(Metal Ion) (Group in Qualitative analysis)
(i) Group - III
(ii) Group - IIA
(iii) Group - IV
(iv) Group - IIB
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The correct match of basic radicalsand their groups in Qualitative analysis is given below

Q. 8 Which among the following is not a polyester?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Novalac is a condensation polymer of phenol and formaldehyde. It is not a polyester.
The other polymers are polyesters and their monomers are given below:
Glyptal : Phthalic acid and Ethylene Glycol
PHBV : -hydroxy-Butanoic acid and -hydroxy-Pentanoic acid.
Dacron: Terephthalic acid and Ethylene Glycol
Q. 9 The number of bonds present in sulphurous acid, peroxodisulphuric acid and

pyrosulphuric acid, respectively are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The structure of oxaoacids of Sulphur are give below:
Thus, the number of bonds present in sulphurous acid, peroxodisulphuric acid and pyrosulphuric
acid, respectively are 1, 4 and 4.
Q. 10 For the following sequence of reactions, the correct products are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 11 The deposition of on ground surfaces is referred as wet and dry depositions,

respectively. are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Aerosol particles of ammonium salts in rain drops lead to wet deposition.
is absorbed directly on both solid and liquid and this lead to dry deposiion
Q. 12 For the reaction given below :
The compound which is not formed as a product in the reaction is a :
Option 1:
diol
Option 2:
monocarboxylic acid
Option 3:
Compound with both alcohol and acid functional groups
Option 4:
dicarboxylic acid
Correct Answer:
dicarboxylic acid
Solution:
The product obtained in the reaction are given below
Therefore, a dicarboxylic acid is not obtained as a product in the given Cannizaro Reaction.
Q. 13 In which one of the following sets all species show disproportionation reaction?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
cannot disproportionate because the metals are present in their highest

oxidation state.
cannot disproportionate as it cannot have a positive oxidation state
show disproportionation reaction
Q. 14 The structures of formed in the following reaction are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The give reaction occurs as
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Lithium salts are hydrated.
Reason (R) : Lithium has higher polarising power than other alkali metal group members.
given below :
Option 1:
(A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
Option 2:
(A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
Option 3:
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
Solution:
As we have learnt
- Lithium salts are hydrated
- This is because Lithium ion has a high charge density because of which it also has a greater polarizing
power
Thus (A) and (R) are both correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
Q. 16 The major products formed in the following reaction sequence are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 17 Which of the following is NOT an example of fibrous protein ?
Option 1:
Keratin
Option 2:
Albumin
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Option 3:
Myosin
Option 4:
Collagen
Correct Answer:
Albumin
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Albumin is a Globular proteins
Keratin, Myosin and Collagen are Fibrous proteins
Q. 18 Which one of the following correctly represents the order of stability of oxides,
?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
The stability of oxides of halogens increases down the group. However the oxides of Br are less stable
than that of chlorine.
This is called as middle row anomaly
Therefore Stability of oxides

Q. 19 Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
Option 1:
Atomic hydrogen is produced when molecules at a high temperature are irradiated with UV
radiation.
Option 2:
At around , the dissociation of dihydrogen into its atoms is nearly
Option 3:
Bond dissociation enthalpy of is highest among diatomic gaseous molecules which contain a
single bond.
Option 4:
Dihydrogen is produced on reacting zinc with as well as
Correct Answer:
At around , the dissociation of dihydrogen into its atoms is nearly
Solution:
As we have learnt,
has a very high value of bond dissociation energy which is highest among diatonic gaseous
molecules containing a single bond.
-It is because of the above reason,only of dissociation into atoms at 2000k
Dihydrogen is produced on reaction of with as well as
Hence the correct answer is Option (2)
Q. 20 Arrange the following conformational isomers of n-butane in order of their increasing

potential energy :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The stability of Corformers of Butane is
Thus the order of potential energy will be the reverse of stability order
Q. 21 According to molecular orbital theory, the number of unpaired electron (s) in

is_________.
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:
The molecular orbital configuration of is
Hence is diamagnetic and contains no unpaired electrons
Hence the correct answer is 0

Q. 22 is adsorbed on charcoal at following the Freundlich adsorption isotherm.
of is adsorbed at of .whereas is adsorbed at
of . The volume of adsorbed at . The value
of is ___________ . (Nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
128
Solution:
Given,
At is adsorbed
....(1)
And at is adsorbed
...(2)
From (1) and (2)
Taking log both sides, we have
Now, at pressure, let the amount of adsorbed be
..(3)
Using (1) and (3)

Q. 23 In the electrolytic refining of blister copper, the total number of main impurities, from the
following, removed as anode mud is__________.
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
Impurities present in Blister copper are Sb, Se, Te, Ag, Au and Pt.
Pb and Ru are not present in the anode mud
Q. 24 Sodium oxide reacts with water to produce sodium hydroxide. of sodium oxide is
dissolved in of water. Neglecting the change in volume, the concentration of the
resulting solution is __________ (Nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
13
Solution:
The reaction is
Moles of
Moles of obtained in
Q. 25 The empirical formula for a compound with a cubic close packed arrangement of anions and
with cations occupying all the octahedral sites in . The value of is __________(Integer
answer)
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
As we have learnt,
The number of octahedral voids in a close packed structure is equal to the number of atoms forming the
lattice
Hence
Empirical formula is
Hence the value of is 1
Q. 26 The transformation occurring in Duma's method is given below
The value of is____________ (Integer answer)
Correct Answer:
7
Solution:
The balanced reaction is given as

Q. 27 The pH of a solution obtained by mixing and
is . The value of is __________.(Nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
6021
Solution:
Given,
Q. 28 The value of magnetic quantum number of the outermost electron of is

____________ (Integer answer)
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:
has a configuration of
Thus, outermost electron lies in s orbital having magnetic quantum number(m) value equal to 0.

Q. 29 For the reaction , the rate constant is given by
. The energy of activation in is_____________

(Nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
47
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Q. 30 of an organic acid is separately dissolved in of benzene

and of acetone The acid
is known to dimerize in benzene but remain as a monomer in acetone. The boiling point of
the solution in acetone increases by . The increase in boiling point of solution in
benzene in . The value of is_________. (Nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
13
Solution:
Let the molality of organic acid present in its sample in both Acetone and Benzene be .
Now the acid dimerises in Benzene but remains unchanged in acetone

and
Now, in Acetone, the elevation in Boiling point is
Next, for Benzene
Hence the value of x is 13
Maths
Q. 1
An angle of intersection of the curves, , is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Find a point of intersection of the curves
Slope of tangent at
Slope of tangent at
Q. 2
If is equal
to :
Option 1:
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Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let
...........(1)
Q. 3 Let . Then the probability that a randomly chosen onto function
from satisfies is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
No. of onto fuctions from are of
Rest of the elements can be arranged in ways
Q. 4 Negation of the statement is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
is equivalent to
So
Q. 5 Let be three vectors mutually perpendicular to each other and have same
magnitude. If a vector satisfies
then is equal
to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Give expression is
Q. 6 Let be the set of all points such that the area of triangle formed by the points
is 12 square units. Then the least possible length of a line
segment joining the origin to a point in , is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Distance of from origin
Distance of from origin
So least possible length
Q. 7
If , then for , the value of lies in the interval :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 8 The mean and variance of 7 observations are 8 and 16 respetively. If two observations are 6
and 8 , then the variance of the remaining 5 observations is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
...(1)
Q. 9
If is a complex number such that is purely imaginary, then the minimum value of
is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Circle with centre and

Distance of from
Q. 10 Let be a function such that for every

, then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
....(1)
Also put
..........(2)
Q. 11
If are the roots of the
equation, , then the ordered pair is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Form applyig L' Hospital rule

Q. 12 The number of solutions of the equation is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 13 The domain of the function

is :
Option 1:
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Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Domain
..........(1)
.......(2)
From (1) and (2)

Q. 14 Let be any continuous function on and twice differentiable on
, then :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let
Apply Rolle's Therom for in
Rolle's theorem in for
Rollo's theorem in for

Q. 15 If then the system of equations
has:
Option 1:
Infinitely many solutions
Option 2:
A unique solution
Option 3:
No solution
Option 4:
Exactly two solutions
Correct Answer:
Infinitely many solutions
Solution:
Q. 16 The locus of mid-points of the line segments joining and the points on the ellipse
is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let us take any parameteric point on the ellipse
Let be the mid-point of
So
Square and add;

Replace
Q. 17 The sum of the roots of the equation,

, is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Raise to the power of 2, take

Q. 18
Let be an A.P. If , then is equal to
:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let first term be a and common difference be d,
Q. 19 The distance of the point from the line of intersection of the planes
is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The D.R.'s of the line of intersection will be
To find a point on line of intersection
Let
lies on it
So equation of line is
A point on the line will be
Which is also foot of perpendicular from to the line

Q. 20 If is the greatest integer is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 21 If
. when is
constant of integration, then the value of is__________.
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
divide by
Partial fraction Let,
Solving
Q. 22 Let be the centre of the circle . Let the tangents at two

points on the circle intersect at the point . Then is
equal to___________.
Correct Answer:
18
Solution:
where L=length of tangent
Q. 23 If the coefficient of in the expansion of , then is equal

to _____________.
Correct Answer:
315
Solution:
General Term
.......(1)

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What does it offer?
.......(2)
........(3)
Q. 24 Let be a cubic polynomial with , and has a local minima at

has a local minima at Then is equal to____________.
Correct Answer:
22
Solution:
Clearly is the point of inflection
Curve will be symmetric about it
So if local minima at
Local maxima at
...........(1)
.............(2)
Q. 25 The number of elements in the set
, where
identity matrix, is_____________.
Correct Answer:
8
Solution:
So 8 such matrices in set
Q. 26 A tangent line is drawn at the point on the parabola . If the line is also
tangent to the circle is equal to__________.
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
where
Equation of tangent
is tangent to circle
Distance from centre to line = radius

Q. 27 The number of -digit numbers which are neither multiple of nor multiple of 3 is
____________.
Correct Answer:
5143
Solution:
Total no of 4 digit numbers
Divisible by
Divisible by
divisible by both 3 & 7 divisible by
From inclusion exclusion principle,
numbers which are either multiple of 7 or 3
Q. 28
If , then 160 is equal to ___________.
Correct Answer:
305
Solution:
.......(1)
........(2)
(1)-(2)
Let .........(3)
..........(4)
(3)-(4)
Q. 29
Suppose the line lies on the plane . Then
is equal to_________.
Correct Answer:
7
Solution:
Point will lie on plane
Also
Q. 30
If the line bisects the area enclosed by the lines and the
curve , then is equal to___________.
Correct Answer:
26
Solution:
(Area bound by curve from
and x-axis)
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Physics
Q. 1 The temperature of an ideal gas in 3-dimensions is . The corresponding de-Broglie
wavelength of the electron approximately at , is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 2 A block of mass slides on the wooden wedge, which in turn slides backward on the
horizontal surface. The acceleration of the block with respect to the wedge is :
Assume all the surfaces shown in the figure to be frictionless.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
acceleration of Block wrt wedge

Acceleration of Wedge
In frame of wedge
From eqn (2) & (3)
Q. 3 The ranges and heights for two projectiles projected with the same initial velocity at angles
with the horizontal are respectively. Choose the correct
option:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
&
Q. 4 A cube is placed inside an electric field, . The side of the cube is and is
placed in the field as shown in the given figure. The charge inside the cube is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
By Gauss Law,
Q. 5 Due to cold weather a water pipe of cross-sectional area is filled with ice at
Resistive heating is used to melt the ice. Current of is passed through
resistance. Assuming that all the heat produced is used for melting, what is the minimum
time required?
Option 1:
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Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

Q. 6
A student determined Young's Modulus of elasticity using the formula , The
value of is taken to be , without any significant error, his observation are as

following,
Physical Least count of the Observed

Quantity Equipment Value
Mass (M)
Length of bar(L)
Breadth of bar(b)
Thickness of
bar(d)
Depression
Then the fractional error in the measurement of Y is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 7 For the given circuit the current through the battery when the key in closed and the steady
state has been reached is___________.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
When the Key is closed, inductor behave as short circuit

Q. 8 Following plots show Magnetization vs Magnetising field and Magnetic
susceptibility vs Temperature graph :
Which of the following combination will be represented by a diamagnetic material ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For diamagnetic material, negative
The plot shown is (c) is correct for magnetic susceptibity (X) us temperature (T)
We know that
negative
slope for M vs H graph is
slope is negative for diamagnetic substance
Q. 9 A square loop of side and resistance is moved towards right with a constant
speed . The right arm of the loop is in a uniform magnetic field of . The field is
perpendicular to the plane of the loop and is going into it. The loop is connected to a
network of resistors each of value . What should be the value of so that a steady
current of flows in the loop ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
emf induced in the right arm of the loop is
Q. 10 A mass of is connected to a spring. The potential energy curve of the simple harmonic
motion executed by the system is shown in the figure. A simple pendulum of length
has the same period of oscillation as the spring system. What is the value of acceleration
due to gravity on the planet where these experiments are performed?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For simple pendulum,
Accelaration due to gravity on that planet is

Q. 11 The half life period of a radioactive element is same as the mean life time of another
radioactive element Initially they have the same number of atoms. Then :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
y will decay faster than x
Q. 12 A body of mass dropped from a height reaches the ground with a speed of .
The value of workdone by the air-friction is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
In absence of air friction, the speed would have been
i.e, KE lost by body is work done by friction

Negative sign implies here work done by frictional force is opposite to displacement. The correct option is
(1)
Q. 13 There are two infinitely long straight current carrying conductors and they are held at right
angles to each other so that their common ends meet at the origin as shown in the figure
given below. The ratio of current in both conductors is . The magnetic field at point
is______.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
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Q. 14 An object of mass is being moved with a constant velocity under the action of an applied
force of along a frictionless surface with following surface profile.
The correct applied force vs distance graph will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For upward journey, (along AB)
F is opposite to but in the direction same as velocity
For downward journey, (along BC)
F is opposite to and in the direction opposite to velocity
Q. 15 Electric field of a plane electromagnetic wave propagating through a non-magnetic medium

is given by . The dielectric constant of the medium
is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 16 Four particles each of mass M, move along a circle of radius R under the action of their
mutual gravitational attraction as shown in figure. The speed of each particle is:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let Fnet be the force acting on particle 1
Q. 17 A glass tumbler having inner depth of is kept on a table. A student starts pouring
water into it while looking at the surface of water from the above. When he feels
that the tumbler is half filled, he stops pouring water. Up to what height, the tumbler is
actually filled?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Real depth of water
Apponent depth of water
Q. 18 A capacitor is connected to a battery through a resistance of . It is found that the

potential difference across the capacitor rises to . The capacitance of the
capacitor is___________
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
By charging of capacitor condition,
Q. 19 In the given figure, each diode has a forward bias resistance of and infinite resistance
in reverse bias. The current will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 20 Two resistors are connected in parallel. The

equivalent resistance of their parallel combination will be :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 21 A is clamped on a table vertically at its lower end and is

free to rotate in vertical plane. The upper end is pushed so that the rod falls under gravity.
lgnoring the friction due to clamping at its lower end, the speed of the free end of rod when
it passes through its lowest position is___________
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
Q. 22 The average translational kinetic energy of gas molecules at__________ becomes equal
to the K.E. of an electron accelerated from rest through a potential difference of 0.1 volt.
(Fill the nearest integer).
Given--
Correct Answer:
500
Solution:
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Q. 23 The width of one of the two slits in a Young's double slit experiment is three times the other
slit. If the amplitude of the light coming from a slit is proportional to the slit-width, the ratio
of minimum to maximum intensity in the interference pattern is where is__________.
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
Amplitude Width of slit
Q. 24 Two satellites revolve around a planet in coplanar circular orbits in anticlockwise direction.
Their period of revolutions are 1 hour and 8 hours respectively. The radius of the orbit of
nearer satellite is . The angular speed of the farther satellite as observed from
the nearer satellite at the instant when both the satellites are closest is where
is_________.
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Q. 25 A steel rod with of length and area of
cross-section is heated from without being allowed to extend. The
tension produced in the rod is where the value of is________.
Given --
Correct Answer:
8
Solution:
Tension produced in the rod
Q. 26 A uniform heating wire of resistance is connected across a potential difference of

. The wire is then cut into half and a potential difference of is applied across
each half separately. The ratio of power dissipation in first case to the total power
dissipation in the second case would be ____________.
Correct Answer:
4
Solution:
power dissipated initially

power dissipated in final condition
Q. 27 A carrier wave with amplitude of is amplitude modulated by a sinusoidal base band

signal of amplitude . The ratio of minimum amplitude to maximum amplitude for the
amplitude modulated wave is , then value of is____________.
Correct Answer:
200
Solution:
Q. 28 The temperature of of an ideal diatomic gas is increased by without

changing the pressure of the gas. The molecules in the gas rotate but do not oscillate. If the
ratio of change in internal energy of the gas to the amount of workdone by the gas is .
Then the value of (round off to the nearest integer) is____________.
Correct Answer:
25
Solution:
Q. 29 When a body slides down from rest along a smooth inclined plane making an angle of
with the horizontal, it takes time T. When the same body slides down from the rest along a
rough inclined plane making the same angle and through the same distance, it takes time
, where is a constant greater than 1 . The co-efficient of friction between the body and
the rough plane is where ____________.
Given --
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
acceleration on smooth surface

acceleration on rough surface
&
Q. 30 An engine is attached to a wagon through a shock absorber of length . The system
with a total mass of is moving with a speed of when the brakes are
applied to bring it to rest. In the process of the system being brought to rest, the spring of
the shock absorber gets compressed by . If of energy of the wagon is lost due to
friction, the spring constant is __________
Given --
Correct Answer:
16
Solution:
Before application of brake
This KE is totally converted into PE of springs
Chemistry
Q. 1 Which one of the following gives the most stable Diazonium salt?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Diazonium ion is an electrophile and it is stabilised by electron donating groups.
Thus the most stable diazonium ion is formed by
Q. 2 The potassium ferrocyanide solution gives a Prussian blue colour, when added to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Prussian Blue is formed when reacts with ferric ions
Q. 3 Which one of the following compounds is aromatic in nature ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The aromatic species among the ones given is
It is cyclic, planar and contains electrons in complete conjugation.
Q. 4 Monomer units of Dacron polymer are :
Option 1:
Glycerol and phthalic acid
Option 2:
Ethylene glycol and phthalic acid
Option 3:
Ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid
Option 4:
Glycerol and terephthalic acid
Correct Answer:
Ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Dacron, also called as Terylene, is a polyester formed by the polymerisation of Terephthalic acid and
ethylene glycol.
Q. 5 Number of paramagnetic oxides among the following given oxides is ____________.
Option 1:
1
Option 2:
3
Option 3:
0
Option 4:
2
Correct Answer:
1
Solution:
Out of the given oxides, only is paramagnetic . It contains ion which has 1 unpaired electron.
All other oxides are normal oxides or peroxide which are diamagnetic due to absence of
unpaired electrons.
Q. 6 Experimentally reducing a functional group cannot be done by which one of the following
reagents?
Option 1:

JEE MAIN
What does it offer?
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Out of the given reagents, is not used as a reducing agent.
Hence ,the correct answer is option (4)
Q. 7 In the following sequence of reactions a compound (molecular formula ) with

a straight chain structure gives a carboxylic acid. A is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The compound satisfying the given condition is
Q. 8 Water sample is called cleanest on the basis of which one of the BOD values given below :
Option 1:
11 ppm
Option 2:
15 ppm
Option 3:
3 ppm
Option 4:
21 ppm
Correct Answer:
3 ppm
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Lesser the BOD value, lesser is the pollution and cleaner is the water sample.
Therefore, the water sample having 3 ppm BOD value is the cleanest among the given ones.

Q. 9 Identify A in the following reaction.
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Electron rich benzene rings produce 1,4-Benzoquinone upon oxidation with a strong oxidising agent.
Statement I : The nucleophilic addition of sodium hydrogen sulphite to an aldehyde or a

ketone involves proton transfer to form a stable ion.
Statement II : The nucleophilic addition of hydrogen cyanide to an aldehyde or a ketone

yields amine as final product.
given below :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Addition of occurs as
And addition of yields a cyanohydrin as the final product
Thus, statement I is true and statement II is false.
List - II List-II
(Colloid Preparation (Chemical Reaction)

Method)
(a) Hydrolysis
(b) Reduction
(c) Oxidation
(d) Double
Decomposition
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The correct match of colloid preparation method and the chemical reaction is given below
(a) Hydrolysis
(b) Reduction
(c) Oxidation
(d) Double decomposition
Q. 12 The stereoisomers that are formed by electrophilic addition of bromine to trans-but-2-ene

is/are :
Option 1:
2 identical mesomers
Option 2:
2 enantiomers
Option 3:
2 enantiomers and 2 mesomers
Option 4:
1 racemic and 2 enantiomers
Correct Answer:
2 identical mesomers
Solution:
2 identical meso compounds are obtained in the product mixture .
Q. 13 The oxide without nitrogen-nitrogen bond is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The oxide without N -N bond is
Q. 14 Calamine and Malachite, respectively, are the ores of :
Option 1:
Copper and Iron
Option 2:
Zinc and Copper
Option 3:
Aluminium and Zinc
Option 4:
Nickel and Aluminium
Correct Answer:
Zinc and Copper
Solution:
As we have learnt ,
Calamine is
Malachite is
Thus, Calamine and Malachite are ores of Zinc and Copper respectively.
Q. 15 In the given chemical reaction, colors of the ions, are respectively :
Option 1:
Yellow, Green
Option 2:
Yellow, Orange
Option 3:
Green, Orange
Option 4:
Green, Yellow
Correct Answer:
Green, Yellow
Solution:
As we have learnt,
is green while is yellow.

Q. 16 Identify the element for which electronic configuration in oxidation state is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Fe has an electronic configuration of
So, has an electronic configuration of .
Hence,the answer is Option (4)
Q. 17 The Crystal Field Stabilization Energy (CFSE) and magnetic moment (spin-only) of an
octahedral aqua complex of a metal ion are and respectively.
Identify :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Given,
This means there are 3 unpaired elections and the configuration is .
Hence, the ion is
Thus , the correct answer is Option (2)
Q. 18 In the following sequence of reactions,
The compounds respectively are :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
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Hence , the correct answer is option (4)
Q. 19 Which one of the following given graphs represents the variation of rate constant with
temperature for an endothermic reaction ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For an endothermic reaction in measurable temperatures , the variation of rate constant (k) with T is
given as
Q. 20 Hydrogen peroxide reacts with iodine in basic medium to give :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
reacts with in basic medium to form

Q. 21 If the conductivity of mercury at and the resistance of a cell
containing mercury is , then the cell constant of the cell is . The value
of is_________ (Nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
26
Solution:
Given ,
We know,
Q. 22 A 50 watt bulb emits monochromatic red light of wavelength of . The number of

photons emitted per second by the bulb is . The value of is ______________.
(Nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Given,
Total energy emitted per second

Q. 23 If of copper sulphate is dissolved in delonised water to make of

solution.The concentration of the copper sulphate solution is . The
value of is__________.
Correct Answer:
64
Solution:
Q. 24 The sum of oxidation states of two silver ions in complex is

___________.
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
The Complex exists as and .
Both silver ions exist as
Q. 25 For the reaction , when

, the magnitude of
for the reaction is ____________ (Nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
Given,
Q. 26 A peptide synthesized by the reactions of one molecule each of Glycine, Leucine, Aspartic
acid and Histidine will have _________peptide linkages.
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
Any tetrapeptide has 3 peptide linkages containing the four amino acids.
Q. 27 The spin-only magnetic moment value of species is __________ .

(Nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
173
Solution:
The electronic configuration of is given as
Thus, there is one unpaired electron present in the bonding molecular orbital of
Q. 28 The number of atoms in . The value of is ___________(Nearest

integer)
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Q. 29 An empty LPG cylinder weighs . When full, it weighs and shows a pressure
of . In the course of use at ambient temperature, the mass of the cylinder is
reduced to The final pressure inside the cylinder is __________ (Nearest
integer)
(Assume LPG to be an ideal gas)
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Now, for full cylinder,
Next,
When weight of Cylinder is reduced to , then mass of
Applying the ideal gas equation,

Putting value of M from , we have
Q. 30 The molar solubility of solution is . The value of

is ________ .(Nearest integer)
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Now, from expression for , we have
Maths
Q. 1 is equal to : (The inverse
trigonometric functions take the principal values)
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Using graphs of
Q. 2 Let
The sum is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 3 The number of pairs of real numbers, such that whenever is a root of the equation
is also a root of this equation, is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
& be its roots
Case 1: when
It means
So either (2,2) are roots or (-1,-1) are roots.

For (2,2) being roots,
Similarly when are roots
Case 2: when
Subcase 1:
can be
For these cases
Subcase 2 :
Subtract these :
Adding these ,
Subcase 3 :
can be
can be
Subcase 4 :
This can be solved similar to subcase 3 and (a,b) values are (0,-4) or (0,-1)
So total 6 (a,b) pairs are there
Q. 4 The range of the function
is
Option 1:
Option 2:
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Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 5
Let be a continuous function. Then is equal to :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Using L-Hospital's Rule
Q. 6 If is the solution curve of the differential equation

, then is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 7
Consider the parabola with vertex and the directrix . Let be the point
where the parabola meets the line . If the normal to the parabola at intersects
the parabola again at the point , then is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Equation of parabola
For point P
For PQ
Equation of PQ :
For point Q
Q. 8 Consider the system of linear equations
Let be the set of all for which the system is inconsistent and be the set of all
for which the system has infinitely many solutions. If denote
the number of elements in respectively, then
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For inconsistent system or infinite solutions
Q. 9 The distance of line from the point is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let PQ be perpendicular to the given line
Now Q lies on both the planes,
So and
Solving (i),(ii) & (iii)
Q. 10 The area, enclosed by the and the

lines , is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
In
Q. 11 If is the number of solutions of the equation

and is the sum of all
these solutions, then the ordered pair is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 12 The function is such that . Consider two

statements.
there exists such that and
there exists such that is decreasing in , increasing
in .
Then
Option 1:
is true and is false
Option 2:
Both and are false
Option 3:
Both and are true
Option 4:
is false and is true
Correct Answer:
Both and are true
Solution:
So increases for and decreases for and
&
Using IMVT, is true.
As is negative and positive both in so there exist an such that f is decreasing in

and increasing in
(Here is root of )
Now, as
is the minimum value of which will be less than

Also for
There will be some value such that
is also true
Q. 13
Let . Consider a matrix
. Then is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
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Q. 14 Let the acute angle bisector of the two planes
be the plane . Then which of the
following points lies on ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
The angle bisectors are
OR
Take a point (-1,0,0) on plane 1 and find its distance from both angle bisectors
Clearly
So plane in equation (1) is acute angle Bisector
Out of the given option, satisfies this plane
Q. 15 Two squares are chosen at random on a chessboard (see figure). The probability that they
have a side in common is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
No.of pairs sharing a common side
Q. 16 Which of the following is equivalent to the Boolean expression ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Option 1 .
Option 2.
Option 3.
so option (3)
Q. 17 Let be the acute angle between the tangents to the

at their point of intersection in the
first quadrant. Then is equal to:
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
So, point of intersection in first quadrant is
Slope of Tangent to ellipse
Q. 18
The function , that satisfies the condition , is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Q. 19 Let be 15 points on a circle. The number of distinct triangles formed by

points , is :
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Total no. of Triangles
.....
These are 12 cases
So Desired no. of triangles
Q. 20
Let be an AP such that . If the sum of this AP is 189, then
is equal to
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Let common difference of A.P be 'd'
Also
From (1) & (2),
Q. 21 Let the points of intersections of the lines

are the mid points of the
sides of a triangle . Then the area of the triangle is_________
Correct Answer:
6
Solution:
Point of intersection of
&
&
&
So Area of
Q. 22
Let be a polynomial of degree 3 such that . Then the
value of is equal to________
Correct Answer:
26
Solution:
Q. 23 Let [t] denote the greatest integer . The number of points where the function
is not continuous
is________
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
Possible points of discontinuity in are
So continuous at -1
Q. 24 All the arrangements, with or without meaning, of the word FARMER are written excluding
any word that has two appearing together. The arrangements are listed serially in the
alphabetic order as in the English dictionary. Then the serial number of the word FARMER in
this list is____________
Correct Answer:
77
Solution:
Words starting with A and 2 R's are seperated
Such words starting with E
Starting with F
so order
Q. 25 A man starts walking from the point , touches the , and then turns to
reach at the point . The man is walking at a constant speed. If the man reaches the
point in the minimum time, then is equal to____________
Correct Answer:
1250
Solution:
Using concept of image, for constant speed, shortest path will be fastest.
Image of Q(0,2) about mirror (x-axis) is
So,
Q. 26 Let . Then the natural number

is ________
Correct Answer:
7
Solution:
For this limit to exist, numerator must tend to zero
For Limit, Apply L'Hospital Rule


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Q. 27 Let be a random variable with distribution.
If the mean of is equal to
Correct Answer:
781
Solution:
Q. 28 If for the complex numbers satisfying , the maximum value of

is attained at is equal to_____________
Correct Answer:
5
Solution:
z lies on the boundary or interior of circle with centre (2,2) and r = 1
Maximum distance of z from (0,2) = 3

Q. 29 If the sum of the coefficients in the expansion of , then the greatest
coefficient in the expansion is__________
Correct Answer:
924
Solution:
Sum of coefficients
= 924
Q. 30 Let . Let a vector be in the plane containing

. If is perpendicular to the vector and its projection on is 19 units,
then is equal to___________
Correct Answer:
1494
Solution:
(a vector in the plane of & and perpendicular to )

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OFFICIAL QUESTION PAPERS

7 sets having 630 questions with

Online 26th August - Evening Shift (Questions with detailed solutions)  87

The correct option is (3)

Q. 3 A particular hydrogen-like ion emits radiation of frequency when it makes

The correct option is (2)

Q. 4 Inside a uniform spherical shell:

The correct option is (4)

The correct option is 2

Q. 8 A series LCR circuit driven by 300 V at a frequency of 50 Hz contains a resistance ,

The correct option is 2

The correct option is (4)

Q. 10 In a photoelectric experiment, ultraviolet light of wavelength 280 nm is used with lithium

By Einstein's photoelectric eqn,

The correct option is (3)

Q. 11 Identify the logic operation carried out by the given circuit :

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Energy dissipation is across the resistor

The correct option is (3)

The correct option is 3

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Magnetic field due to dipole m1 at point P (equational position)

Q. 28 The electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by

Ball 2 is projected 3 s after ball 1

- is a stronger oxidising agent than

- Interhalogen compounds are more reactive than halogens except

- on hydrolysis produces and

Hence, the correct answer is Option (3)

Q. 2 The major product formed in the following reaction is :

The above reaction is an example of 1,4 - addition to a conjugated diene.

Hence, the correct answer is Option (3)

Q. 3 Given below are two statements:

Statements I: Frenkel defects are vacancy as well as interstitial defects.

Hence, the correct answer is option (3)

Hence,the correct answer is option (4)

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The reactions are given as

Hence, The correct answer is option (4)

Q. 6 Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The limiting molar conductivity of (strong electrolyte) is higher compared

Statement II: Molar conductivity decreases with decrease in concentration of elecrolyte.

Hence, both Statement I and II are false.

Thus, the correct answer is Option (4)

It can be used to remove both cations as well as anions.

Hence, the correct answer is option (1)

Q. 8 Given below are two statements:

Statement I : According to Bohr's model of an atom,qualitatively the magnitude of velocity

Statement II : According to Bohr's model of an atom,qualitatively the magnitude of velocity

Thus, statement I is false while statement II is true

Hence, the correct answer is option (1)

Hence ,the correct answer is Option(4)

Online 26th August - Evening Shift (Questions with detailed solutions) 87