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COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING Part 1
SITUATION : Epidemiology and Vital statistics is a very
important tool that a nurse could use in controlling the
spread of disease in the community and at the same
time, surveying the impact of the disease on the
population and prevent it’s future occurrence.
1. It is concerned with the study of factors that influence
the occurrence and distribution of diseases, defects,
disability or death which occurs in groups or aggregation
of individuals.
A. Epidemiology
B. Demographics
C. Vital Statistics
D. Health Statistics
2. Which of the following is the backbone in disease
prevention?
A. Epidemiology
B. Demographics
C. Vital Statistics
D. Health Statistics
3. Which of the following type of research could show
how community expectations can result in the actual
provision of services?
A. Basic Research
B. Operational Research
C. Action Research
D. Applied Research
4. An outbreak of measles has been reported in
Community A. As a nurse, which of the following is your
first action for an Epidemiological investigation?
A. Classify if the outbreak of measles is epidemic or just
sporadic
B. Report the incidence into the RHU
C. Determine the first day when the outbreak occurred
D. Identify if it is the disease which it is reported to be
5. After the epidemiological investigation produced final
conclusions, which of the following is your initial step in
your operational procedure during disease outbreak?
A. Coordinate personnel from Municipal to the National
level
B. Collect pertinent laboratory specimen to confirm
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disease causation
C. Immunize nearby communities with Measles
D. Educate the community in future prevention of similar
outbreaks
6. The main concern of a public health nurse is the
prevention of disease, prolonging of life and promoting
physical health and efficiency through which of the
following?
A. Use of epidemiological tools and vital health statistics
B. Determine the spread and occurrence of the disease
C. Political empowerment and Socio Economic
Assistance
D. Organized Community Efforts
7. In order to control a disease effectively, which of the
following must first be known?
1. The conditions surrounding its occurrence
2. Factors that do not favor its development
3. The condition that do not surround its occurrence
4. Factors that favors its development
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4
8. All of the following are uses of epidemiology except:
A. To study the history of health population and the rise
and fall of disease
B. To diagnose the health of the community and the
condition of the people
C. To provide summary data on health service delivery
D. To identify groups needing special attention
9. Before reporting the fact of presence of an epidemic,
which of the following is of most importance to
determine?
A. Are the facts complete?
B. Is the disease real?
C. Is the disease tangible?
D. Is it epidemic or endemic?
10. An unknown epidemic has just been reported in
Barangay Dekbudekbu. People said that affected person
demonstrates hemorrhagic type of fever. You are
designated now to plan for epidemiological
investigation. Arrange the sequence of events in
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accordance with the correct outline plan for

epidemiological investigation. 13. All of the following are function of Nurse Budek in
epidemiology except
1. Report the presence of dengue
2. Summarize data and conclude the final picture of A. Laboratory Diagnosis
epidemic B. Surveillance of disease occurrence
3. Relate the occurrence to the population group, C. Follow up cases and contacts
facilities, food supply and carriers D. Refer cases to hospitals if necessary
4. Determine if the disease is factual or real E. Isolate cases of communicable disease
5. Determine any unusual prevalence of the disease and
its nature; is it epidemic, sporadic, endemic or 14. All of the following are performed in team
pandemic? organization except
6. Determine onset and the geographical limitation of
the disease. A. Orientation and demonstration of methodology to be
employed
A. 4,1,3,5,2,6 B. Area assignments of team members
B. 4,1,5,6,3,2 C. Check team’s equipments and paraphernalia
C. 5,4,6,2,1,3 D. Active case finding and Surveillance
D. 5,4,6,1,2,3
E. 1,2,3,4,5,6 15. Which of the following is the final output of data
reporting in epidemiological operational procedure?
11. In the occurrence of SARS and other pandemics,
which of the following is the most vital role of a nurse in A. Recommendation
epidemiology? B. Evaluation
C. Final Report
A. Health promotion D. Preliminary report
B. Disease prevention
C. Surveillance 16. The office in charge with registering vital facts in the
D. Casefinding Philippines is none other than the

12. Measles outbreak has been reported in Barangay A. PCSO

Bahay Toro, After conducting an epidemiological B PAGCOR
investigation you have confirmed that the outbreak is C. DOH
factual. You are tasked to lead a team of medical D. NSO
workers for operational procedure in disease outbreak.
Arrange the correct sequence of events that you must 17. The following are possible sources of Data except:
do to effectively contain the disease
A. Experience
1. Create a final report and recommendation B. Census
2. Perform nasopharyngeal swabbing to infected C. Surveys
individuals D. Research
3. Perform mass measles immunization to vulnerable
groups 18. This refers to systematic study of vital events such as
4. Perform an environmental sanitation survey on the births, illnesses, marriages, divorces and deaths
immediate environment
5. Organize your team and Coordinate the personnels A. Epidemiology
6. Educate the community on disease transmission B. Demographics
C. Vital Statistics
A. 1,2,3,4,5,6 D. Health Statistics
B. 6,5,4,3,2,1
C. 5,6,4,2,3,1 19. In case of clerical errors in your birth certificate,
D. 5,2,3,4,6,1 Where should you go to have it corrected?

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A. 651
A. NSO B. 541
B. Court of Appeals C. 996
C. Municipal Trial Court D. 825
D. Local Civil Registrar
25. These rates are referred to the total living
20. Acasia just gave birth to Lestat, A healthy baby boy. population, It must be presumed that the total
Who are going to report the birth of Baby Lestat? population was exposed to the risk of occurrence of the
event.
A. Nurse
B. Midwife A. Rate
C. OB Gyne B. Ratio
D. Birth Attendant C. Crude/General Rates
D. Specific Rate
21. In reporting the birth of Baby Lestat, where will he be
registered? 26. These are used to describe the relationship between
two numerical quantities or measures of events without
A. At the Local Civil Registrar taking particular considerations to the time or place.
B. In the National Statistics Office
C. In the City Health Department A. Rate
D. In the Field Health Services and Information System B. Ratios
Main Office C. Crude/General Rate
D. Specific Rate
22. Deejay, The birth attendant noticed that Lestat has
low set of ears, Micrognathia, Microcephaly and a typical 27. This is the most sensitive index in determining the
cat like cry. What should Deejay do? general health condition of a community since it reflects
the changes in the environment and medical conditions
A. Bring Lestat immediately to the nearest hospital of a community
B. Ask his assistant to call the nearby pediatrician
C. Bring Lestat to the nearest pediatric clinic A. Crude death rate
D. Call a Taxi and together with Acasia, Bring Lestat to B. Infant mortality rate
the nearest hospital C. Maternal mortality rate
D. Fetal death rate
23. Deejay would suspect which disorder?
28. According to the WHO, which of the following is the
A. Trisomy 21 most frequent cause of death in children underfive
B. Turners Syndrome worldwide in the 2003 WHO Survey?
C. Cri Du Chat
D. Klinefelters Syndrome A. Neonatal
B. Pneumonia
24. Deejay could expect which of the following C. Diarrhea
congenital anomaly that would accompany this D. HIV/AIDS
disorder?
29. In the Philippines, what is the most common cause of
A. AVSD death of infants according to the latest survey?
B. PDA
C. TOF A. Pneumonia
D. TOGV B. Diarrhea
C. Other perinatal condition
26. Which presidential decree orders reporting of births D. Respiratory condition of fetus and newborn
within 30 days after its occurrence?
30. The major cause of mortality from 1999 up to 2002

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in the Philippines are 4. Death from CVD : 3,029

5. Deaths under 1 year of age : 23
A. Diseases of the heart 6. Fetal deaths : 8
B. Diseases of the vascular system 7. Deaths under 28 days : 8
C. Pneumonias 8. Death due to rabies : 45
D. Tuberculosis 9. Registered cases of rabies : 45
10. People with pneumonia : 79
31. Alicia, a 9 year old child asked you “ What is the 11. People exposed with pneumonia : 2,593
common cause of death in my age group here in the 12. Total number of deaths from all causes : 10,998
Philippines? “ The nurse is correct if he will answer
The following questions refer to these data
A. Pneumonia is the top leading cause of death in
children age 5 to 9 35. What is the crude birth rate of Barangay PinoyBSN?
B. Malignant neoplasm if common in your age group
C. Probability wise, You might die due to accidents A. 90/100,000
D. Diseases of the respiratory system is the most B. 9/100
common cause of death in children C. 90/1000
D. 9/1000
32. In children 1 to 4 years old, which is the most
common cause of death? 36. What is the cause specific death rate from
cardiovascular diseases?
A. Diarrhea
B. Accidents A. 27/100
C. Pneumonia B. 1191/100,000
D. Diseases of the heart C. 27/100,000
D. 1.1/1000
33. Working in the community as a PHN for almost 10
years, Aida knew the fluctuation in vital statistics. She 37. What is the Maternal Mortality rate of this
knew that the most common cause of morbidity among barangay?
the Filipinos is
A. 6.55/1000
A. Diseases of the heart B. 5.89/1000
B. Diarrhea C. 1.36/1000
C. Pneumonia D. 3.67/1000
D. Vascular system diseases
38. What is the fetal death rate?
34. Nurse Aida also knew that most maternal deaths are
caused by A. 3.49/1000
B. 10.04/1000
A. Hemorrhage C. 3.14/1000
B. Other Complications related to pregnancy occurring D. 3.14/100,000
in the course of labor, delivery and puerperium
C. Hypertension complicating pregnancy, childbirth and 39. What is the attack rate of pneumonia?
puerperium
D. Abortion A. 3.04/1000
B. 7.18/1000
SITUATION : Barangay PinoyBSN has the following data C. 32.82/100
in year 2006 D. 3.04/100

1. July 1 population : 254,316 40. Determine the Case fatality ratio of rabies in this
2. Livebirths : 2,289 Barangay
3. Deaths from maternal cause : 15

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A. 1/100
B. 100% 47. Which of the following is a POINT SOURCE epidemic?
C. 1%
D. 100/1000 A. Dengue H.F
B. Malaria
41. The following are all functions of the nurse in vital C. Contaminated Water Source
statistics, which of the following is not? D. Tuberculosis

A. Consolidate Data 48. All but one is a characteristic of a point source

B. Collects Data epidemic, which one is not?
C. Analyze Data
D. Tabulate Data A. The spread of the disease is caused by a common
vehicle
42. The following are Notifiable diseases that needs to B. The disease is usually caused by contaminated food
have a tally sheet in data reporting, Which one is not? C. There is a gradual increase of cases
D. Epidemic is usually sudden
A. Hypertension
B. Bronchiolitis 49. The only Microorganism monitored in cases of
C. Chemical Poisoning contaminated water is
D. Accidents
A. Vibrio Cholera
43. Which of the following requires reporting within 24 B. Escherichia Coli
hours? C. Entamoeba Histolytica
D. Coliform Test
A. Neonatal tetanus
B. Measles 50. Dengue increase in number during June, July and
C. Hypertension August. This pattern is called
D. Tetanus
A. Epidemic
44. Which Act declared that all communicable disease be B. Endemic
reported to the nearest health station? C. Cyclical
D. Secular
A. 1082
B. 1891 SITUATION : Field health services and information
C. 3573 system provides summary data on health service
D. 6675 delivery and selected program from the barangay level
up to the national level. As a nurse, you should know the
45. In the RHU Team, Which professional is directly process on how these information became processed
responsible in caring a sick person who is homebound? and consolidated.

A. Midwife 51. All of the following are objectives of FHSIS Except

B. Nurse
C. BHW
D. Physician
46. During epidemics, which of the following
epidemiological function will you have to perform first?
A. Teaching the community on disease prevention
B. Assessment on suspected cases
C. Monitor the condition of people affected
D. Determining the source and nature of the epidemic
A. To complete the clinical picture of chronic disease
and describe their natural history
B. To provide standardized, facility level data base which
can be accessed for more in depth studies
C. To minimize recording and reporting burden allowing
more time for patient care and promotive activities
D. To ensure that data reported are useful and accurate
and are disseminated in a timely and easy to use fashion
52. What is the fundamental block or foundation of the

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field health service information system? A. Leprosy cases

B. TB cases
A. Family treatment record C. Prenatal care
B. Target Client list D. Diarrhea cases
C. Reporting forms
D. Output record 59. This is the only mechanism through which data are
routinely transmitted from once facility to another
53. What is the primary advantage of having a target
client list? A. Family treatment record
B. Target Client list
A. Nurses need not to go back to FTR to monitor C. Reporting forms
treatment and services to beneficiaries thus saving time D. Output record
and effort
B. Help monitor service rendered to clients in general 60. FHSIS/Q-3 Or the report for environmental health
C. Facilitate monitoring and supervision of services activities is prepared how frequently?
D. Facilitates easier reporting
A. Daily
54. Which of the following is used to monitor particular B. Weekly
groups that are qualified as eligible to a certain program C. Quarterly
of the DOH? D. Yearly

A. Family treatment record 61. Nurse Budek is preparing the reporting form for
B. Target Client list weekly notifiable diseases. He knew that he will code the
C. Reporting forms report form as
D. Output record
A. FHSIS/E-1
55. In using the tally sheet, what is the recommended B. FHSIS/E-2
frequency in tallying activities and services? C. FHSIS/E-3
D. FHSIS/M-1
A. Daily
B. Weekly 62. In preparing the maternal death report, which of the
C. Monthly following correctly codes this occurrence?
D. Quarterly
A. FHSIS/E-1
56. When is the counting of the tally sheet done? B. FHSIS/E-2
C. FHSIS/E-3
A. At the end of the day D. FHSIS/M-1
B. At the end of the week
C. At the end of the month 63. Where should Nurse Budek bring the reporting forms
D. At the end of the year if he is in the BHU Facility?

57. Target client list will be transmitted to the next A. Rural health office
facility in the form of B. FHSIS Main office
C. Provincial health office
A. Family treatment record D. Regional health office
B. Target Client list
C. Reporting forms 64. After bringing the reporting forms in the right facility
D. Output record for processing, Nurse Budek knew that the output
reports are solely produced by what office?
58. All but one of the following are eligible target client
list A. Rural health office
B. FHSIS Main office

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C. Provincial health office

D. Regional health office 70. Data submitted to the PHO is processed using what
type of technology?
65. Mang Raul entered the health center complaining of
fatigue and frequent syncope. You assessed Mang Raul A. Internet
and found out that he is severely malnourished and B. Microcomputer
anemic. What record should you get first to document C. Supercomputer
these findings? D. Server Interlink Connections

A. Family treatment record SITUATION : Community organizing is a process by which

B. Target Client list people, health services and agencies of the community
C. Reporting forms are brought together to act and solve their own
D. Output record problems.

66. The information about Mang Raul’s address, full 71. Mang Ambo approaches you for counseling. You are
name, age, symptoms and diagnosis is recorded in an effective counselor if you

A. Family treatment record A. Give good advice to Mang Ambo

B. Target Client list B. Identify Mang Ambo’s problems
C. Reporting forms C. Convince Mang Ambo to follow your advice
D. Output record D. Help Mang Ambo identify his problems

67. Another entry is to be made for Mang Raul because 72. As a newly appointed PHN instructed to organize
he is in the target client’s list, In what TCL should Mang Barangay Baritan, Which of the following is your initial
Raul’s entry be documented? step in organizing the community for initial action?

A. TCL Eligible Population A. Study the Barangay Health statistics and records
B. TCL Family Planning B. Make a courtesy call to the Barangay Captain
C. TCL Nutrition C. Meet with the Barangay Captain to make plans
D. TCL Pre Natal D. Make a courtesy call to the Municipal Mayor

68. The nurse uses the FHSIS Record system incorrectly 73. Preparatory phase is the first phase in organizing the
when she found out that community. Which of the following is the initial step in
the preparatory phase?
A. She go to the individual or FTR for entry confirmation
in the Tally/Report Summary A. Area selection
B. She refer to other sources for completing monthly B. Community profiling
and quarterly reports C. Entry in the community
C. She records diarrhea in the Tally sheet/Report form D. Integration with the people
with a code FHSIS/M-1
D. She records a Child who have frequent diarrhea in TCL 74. the most important factor in determining the proper
: Under Five area for community organizing is that this area should

69. The BHS Is the lowest level of reporting unit in FHSIS. A. Be already adopted by another organization
A BHS can be considered a reporting unit if all of the B. Be able to finance the projects
following are met except C. Have problems and needs assistance
D. Have people with expertise to be developed as
A. It renders service to 3 barangays leaders
B. There is a midwife the regularly renders service to the
area 75. Which of the following dwelling place should the
C. The BHS Have no mother BHS Nurse choose when integrating with the people?
D. It should be a satellite BHS

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A. A simple house in the border of Barangay Baritan and
San Pablo
B. A simple house with fencing and gate located in the
center of Barangay Baritan
C. A modest dwelling place where people will not
hesitate to enter
D. A modest dwelling place where people will not
hesitate to enter located in the center of the
community
76. In choosing a leader in the community during the
Organizational phase, Which among these people will
you choose?
Nurse must first
A. Make a lesson plan
B. Set learning goals and objective
C. Assess their learning needs
D. Review materials needed for training
81. Nurse Budek wrote a letter to PCSO asking them for
assistance in their feeding programs for the community’s
nutrition and health projects. PCSO then approved the
request and gave Budek 50,000 Pesos and a truckload of
rice, fruits and vegetables. Which phase of COPAR did
Budek utilized?

A. Miguel Zobel, 50 years old, Rich and Famous A. Preparatory

B. Rustom, 27 years old, Actor B. Organizational
C. Mang Ambo, 70, Willing to work for the desired C. Education and Training
change D. Intersectoral Collaboration
D. Ricky, 30 years old, Influential and Willing to work E. Phase out
for the desired change
82. Ideally, How many years should the Nurse stay in the
77. Which type of leadership style should the leaders of community before he can phase out and be assured of a
the community practice? Self Reliant community?

A. Autocratic A. 5 years
B. Democratic B. 10 years
C. Laissez Faire C. 1 year
D. Consultative D. 6 months

78. Setting up Committee on Education and Training is in 83. Major discussion in community organization are
what phase of COPAR? made by

A. Preparatory A. The nurse

B. Organizational B. The leaders of each committee
C. Education and Training C. The entire group
D. Intersectoral Collaboration D. Collaborating Agencies
E. Phase out
84. The nurse should know that Organizational plan best
79. Community diagnosis is done to come up with a succeeds when
profile of local health situation that will serve as basis of
health programs and services. This is done in what phase 1. People sees its values
of COPAR? 2. People think its antagonistic professionally
3. It is incompatible with their personal beliefs
A. Preparatory 4. It is compatible with their personal beliefs
B. Organizational
C. Education and Training A. 1 and 3
D. Intersectoral Collaboration B. 2 and 4
E. Phase out C. 1 and 2
D. 1 and 4
80. The people named the community health workers
based on the collective decision in accordance with the 85. Nurse Budek made a proposal that people should
set criteria. Before they can be trained by the Nurse, The turn their backyard into small farming lots to plant

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vegetables and fruits. He specified that the objective is
to save money in buying vegetables and fruits that tend
to have a fluctuating and cyclical price. Which step in
Community organizing process did he utilized?
A. Fact finding
B. Determination of needs
C. Program formation
D. Education and Interpretation
86. One of the critical steps in COPAR is becoming one
with the people and understanding their culture and
lifestyle. Which critical step in COPAR will the Nurse try
to immerse himself in the community?
community health problems and needs.
A. Residing in the area of assignment
B. Listing down the name of person to contact for
courtesy call
C. Gathering initial information about the community
D. Preparing Agenda for the first meeting
SITUATION : Health education is the process whereby
knowledge, attitude and practice of people are changed
to improve individual, family and community health.
91. Which of the following is the correct sequence in
health education?

A. Integration 1. Information
B. Social Mobilization 2. Communication
C. Ground Work 3. Education
D. Mobilization
A. 1,2,3
87. The Actual exercise of people power occurs during B. 3,2,1
when? C. 1,3,2
D. 3,1,2
A. Integration
B. Social Mobilization 92. The health status of the people is greatly affected
C. Ground Work and determined by which of the following?
D. Mobilization
A. Behavioral factors
88. Which steps in COPAR trains indigenous and informal B. Socioeconomic factors
leaders? C. Political factors
D. Psychological factors
A. Ground Work
B. Mobilization 93. Nurse Budek is conducting a health teaching to
C. Core Group formation Agnesia, 50 year old breast cancer survivor needing
D. Integration rehabilitative measures. He knows that health education
is effective when
89. As a PHN, One of your role is to organize the
community. Nurse Budek knows that the purposes of A. Agnesia recites the procedure and instructions
community organizing are perfectly
B. Agnesia’s behavior and outlook in life was changed
1. Move the community to act on their own problems positively
2. Make people aware of their own problems C. Agnesia gave feedback to Budek saying that she
3. Enable the nurse to solve the community problems understood the instruction
4. Offer people means of solving their own problems D. Agnesia requested a written instruction from Budek

A. 1,2,3 94. Which of the following is true about health

B. 1,2,3,4 education?
C. 1,2
D. 1,2,4 A. It helps people attain their health through the nurse’s
sole efforts
90. This is considered the first act of integrating with the B. It should not be flexible
people. This gives an in depth participation in C. It is a fast and mushroom like process

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D. It is a slow and continuous process D. Muscle Built

95. Which of the following factors least influence the 100. Appearance and disposition of clients are best
learning readiness of an adult learner? observed initially during which of the following
situation?
A. The individuals stage of development
B. Ability to concentrate on information to be learned A. Taking V/S
C. The individual’s psychosocial adaptation to his illness B. Interview
D. The internal impulses that drive the person to take C. Implementation of the initial care
action D. Actual Physical examination

96. Which of the following is the most important

condition for diabetic patients to learn how to control
their diet?

A. Use of pamphlets and other materials during

instructions
B. Motivation to be symptom free
C. Ability of the patient to understand teaching
instruction
D. Language used by the nurse

97. An important skill that a primigravida has to acquire

is the ability to bathe her newborn baby and clean her
breast if she decides to breastfeed her baby, Which of
the following learning domain will you classify the above
goals?

A. Psychomotor
B. Cognitive
C. Affective
D. Attitudinal

98. When you prepare your teaching plan for a group of

hypertensive patients, you first formulate your learning
objectives. Which of the following steps in the nursing
process corresponds to the writing of the learning
objectives?

A. Planning
B. Implementing
C. Evaluation
C. Assessment

99. Rose, 50 years old and newly diagnosed diabetic

patient must learn how to inject insulin. Which of the
following physical attribute is not in anyway related to
her ability to administer insulin?

A. Strength
B. Coordination
C. Dexterity

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COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING Part 2
1. Which is the primary goal of community health
nursing?
A. To support and supplement the efforts of the medical
profession in the promotion of health and prevention of
illness
B. To enhance the capacity of individuals, families and
communities to cope with their health needs
C. To increase the productivity of the people by
providing them with services that will increase their level
of health
D. To contribute to national development through
promotion of family welfare, focusing particularly on
mothers and children.
Answer: (B) To enhance the capacity of individuals,
families and communities to cope with their health
needs
To contribute to national development through
promotion of family welfare, focusing particularly on
mothers and children.
2. CHN is a community-based practice. Which best
explains this statement?
A. The service is provided in the natural environment of
people.
B. The nurse has to conduct community diagnosis to
determine nursing needs and problems.
C. The services are based on the available resources
within the community.
D. Priority setting is based on the magnitude of the
health problems identified.
Answer: A. The service is provided in the natural
environment of people.
Community-based practice means providing care to
people in their own natural environments: the home,
school and workplace, for example.
3. Population-focused nursing practice requires which of
the following processes?
A. Community organizing
B. Nursing process
C. Community diagnosis
D. Epidemiologic process
Answer: (C) Community diagnosis
Population-focused nursing care means providing care
based on the greater need of the majority of the
population. The greater need is identified through
community diagnosis.
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4. R.A. 1054 is also known as the Occupational Health
Act. Aside from number of employees, what other factor
must be considered in determining the occupational
health privileges to which the workers will be entitled?
A. Type of occupation: agricultural, commercial,
industrial
B. Location of the workplace in relation to health
facilities
C. Classification of the business enterprise based on net
profit
D. Sex and age composition of employees
Answer: (B) Location of the workplace in relation to
health facilities
Based on R.A. 1054, an occupational nurse must be
employed when there are 30 to 100 employees and the
workplace is more than 1 km. away from the nearest
health center.
5. A business firm must employ an occupational health
nurse when it has at least how many employees?
A. 21
B. 101
C. 201
D. 301
Answer: (B) 101
Again, this is based on R.A. 1054.
6. When the occupational health nurse employs
ergonomic principles, she is performing which of her
roles?
A. Health care provider
B. Health educator
C. Health care coordinator
D. Environmental manager
Answer: (D) Environmental manager
Ergonomics is improving efficiency of workers by
improving the worker’s environment through
appropriately designed furniture, for example.
7. A garment factory does not have an occupational
nurse. Who shall provide the occupational health needs
of the factory workers?
A. Occupational health nurse at the Provincial Health
Office
B. Physician employed by the factory
C. Public health nurse of the RHU of their municipality
D. Rural sanitary inspector of the RHU of their
municipality

Answer: (C) Public health nurse of the RHU of their
municipality
You’re right! This question is based on R.A.1054.
8. “Public health services are given free of charge.” Is this
statement true or false?
A. The statement is true; it is the responsibility of
government to provide basic services.
B. The statement is false; people pay indirectly for public
health services.
C. The statement may be true or false, depending on the
specific service required.
D. The statement may be true or false, depending on
policies of the government concerned.
Answer: (B) The statement is false; people pay
indirectly for public health services.
Community health services, including public health
services, are pre-paid services, though taxation, for
example.
9. According to C.E.Winslow, which of the following is
the goal of Public Health?
A. For people to attain their birthrights of health and
longevity
B. For promotion of health and prevention of disease
C. For people to have access to basic health services
D. For people to be organized in their health efforts
Answer: (A) For people to attain their birthrights of
health and longevity
According to Winslow, all public health efforts are for
people to realize their birthrights of health and
longevity.
10. We say that a Filipino has attained longevity when he
is able to reach the average lifespan of Filipinos. What
other statistic may be used to determine attainment of
longevity?
A. Age-specific mortality rate
B. Proportionate mortality rate
C. Swaroop’s index
D. Case fatality rate
Answer: (C) Swaroop’s index
Swaroop’s index is the percentage of the deaths aged 50
years or older. Its inverse represents the percentage of
untimely deaths (those who died younger than 50 years).
11. Which of the following is the most prominent feature
of public health nursing?
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A. It involves providing home care to sick people who are
not confined in the hospital.
B. Services are provided free of charge to people within
the catchment area.
C. The public health nurse functions as part of a team
providing a public health nursing services.
D. Public health nursing focuses on preventive, not
curative, services.
Answer: (D) Public health nursing focuses on
preventive, not curative, services.
The catchment area in PHN consists of a residential
community, many of whom are well individuals who
have greater need for preventive rather than curative
services.
12. According to Margaret Shetland, the philosophy of
public health nursing is based on which of the following?
A. Health and longevity as birthrights
B. The mandate of the state to protect the birthrights of
its citizens
C. Public health nursing as a specialized field of nursing
D. The worth and dignity of man
Answer: (D) The worth and dignity of man
This is a direct quote from Dr. Margaret Shetland’s
statements on Public Health Nursing.
13. Which of the following is the mission of the
Department of Health?
A. Health for all Filipinos
B. Ensure the accessibility and quality of health care
C. Improve the general health status of the population
D. Health in the hands of the Filipino people by the year
2020
Answer: (B) Ensure the accessibility and quality of
health care
(none)
14. Region IV Hospital is classified as what level of
facility?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Intermediate
D. Tertiary
Answer: (D) Tertiary
Regional hospitals are tertiary facilities because they
serve as training hospitals for the region.
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15. Which is true of primary facilities?
A. They are usually government-run.
B. Their services are provided on an out-patient basis.
C. They are training facilities for health professionals.
D. A community hospital is an example of this level of
health facilities.
Answer: (B) Their services are provided on an out-
patient basis.
Primary facilities government and non-government
facilities that provide basic out-patient services.
16. Which is an example of the school nurse’s health
care provider functions?
A. Requesting for BCG from the RHU for school entrant
immunization
B. Conducting random classroom inspection during a
measles epidemic
C. Taking remedial action on an accident hazard in the
school playground
D. Observing places in the school where pupils spend
their free time
Answer: (B) Conducting random classroom inspection
during a measles epidemic
Random classroom inspection is assessment of
pupils/students and teachers for signs of a health
problem prevalent in the community.
17. When the nurse determines whether resources were
maximized in implementing Ligtas Tigdas, she is
evaluating
A. Effectiveness
B. Efficiency
C. Adequacy
D. Appropriateness
Answer: (B) Efficiency
Efficiency is determining whether the goals were
attained at the least possible cost.
18. You are a new B.S.N. graduate. You want to become
a Public Health Nurse. Where will you apply?
A. Department of Health
B. Provincial Health Office
C. Regional Health Office
D. Rural Health Unit
Answer: (D) Rural Health Unit
R.A. 7160 devolved basic health services to local
government units (LGU’s ). The public health nurse is an
employee of the LGU.
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19. R.A. 7160 mandates devolution of basic services from
the national government to local government units.
Which of the following is the major goal of devolution?
A. To strengthen local government units
B. To allow greater autonomy to local government units
C. To empower the people and promote their self-
reliance
D. To make basic services more accessible to the people
Answer: (C) To empower the people and promote their
self-reliance
People empowerment is the basic motivation behind
devolution of basic services to LGU’s.
20. Who is the Chairman of the Municipal Health Board?
A. Mayor
B. Municipal Health Officer
C. Public Health Nurse
D. Any qualified physician
Answer: (A) Mayor
The local executive serves as the chairman of the
Municipal Health Board.
21. Which level of health facility is the usual point of
entry of a client into the health care delivery system?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Intermediate
D. Tertiary
Answer: (A) Primary
The entry of a person into the health care delivery
system is usually through a consultation in out-patient
services.
22. The public health nurse is the supervisor of rural
health midwives. Which of the following is a supervisory
function of the public health nurse?
A. Referring cases or patients to the midwife
B. Providing technical guidance to the midwife
C. Providing nursing care to cases referred by the
midwife
D. Formulating and implementing training programs for
midwives
Answer: (B) Providing technical guidance to the
midwife
The nurse provides technical guidance to the midwife in
the care of clients, particularly in the implementation of

management guidelines, as in Integrated Management
of Childhood Illness.
23. One of the participants in a hilot training class asked
you to whom she should refer a patient in labor who
develops a complication. You will answer, to the
A. Public Health Nurse
B. Rural Health Midwife
C. Municipal Health Officer
D. Any of these health professionals
Answer: (C) Municipal Health Officer
A public health nurse and rural health midwife can
provide care during normal childbirth. A physician should
attend to a woman with a complication during labor.
24. You are the public health nurse in a municipality with
a total population of about 20,000. There are 3 rural
health midwives among the RHU personnel. How many
more midwife items will the RHU need?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. The RHU does not need any more midwife item.
Answer: (A) 1
Each rural health midwife is given a population
assignment of about 5,000.
25. If the RHU needs additional midwife items, you will
submit the request for additional midwife items for
approval to the
A. Rural Health Unit
B. District Health Office
C. Provincial Health Office
D. Municipal Health Board
Answer: (D) Municipal Health Board
As mandated by R.A. 7160, basic health services have
been devolved from the national government to local
government units.
26. As an epidemiologist, the nurse is responsible for
reporting cases of notifiable diseases. What law
mandates reporting of cases of notifiable diseases?
A. Act 3573
B. R.A. 3753
C. R.A. 1054
D. R.A. 1082
Answer: (A) Act 3573
Act 3573, the Law on Reporting of Communicable
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Diseases, enacted in 1929, mandated the reporting of
diseases listed in the law to the nearest health station.
27. According to Freeman and Heinrich, community
health nursing is a developmental service. Which of the
following best illustrates this statement?
A. The community health nurse continuously develops
himself personally and professionally.
B. Health education and community organizing are
necessary in providing community health services.
C. Community health nursing is intended primarily for
health promotion and prevention and treatment of
disease.
D. The goal of community health nursing is to provide
nursing services to people in their own places of
residence.
Answer: (B) Health education and community
organizing are necessary in providing community health
services.
The community health nurse develops the health
capability of people through health education and
community organizing activities.
28. Which disease was declared through Presidential
Proclamation No. 4 as a target for eradication in the
Philippines?
A. Poliomyelitis
B. Measles
C. Rabies
D. Neonatal tetanus
Answer: (B) Measles
Presidential Proclamation No. 4 is on the Ligtas Tigdas
Program.
29. The public health nurse is responsible for presenting
the municipal health statistics using graphs and tables.
To compare the frequency of the leading causes of
mortality in the municipality, which graph will you
prepare?
A. Line
B. Bar
C. Pie
D. Scatter diagram
Answer: (B) Bar
A bar graph is used to present comparison of values, a
line graph for trends over time or age, a pie graph for
population composition or distribution, and a scatter
diagram for correlation of two variables.
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30. Which step in community organizing involves training problem

of potential leaders in the community? D. Identify the health problem as a common concern
A. Integration
B. Community organization Answer: (A) Participate in community activities for the
C. Community study solution of a community problem
D. Core group formation Participation in community activities in resolving a
community problem may be in any of the processes
Answer: (D) Core group formation mentioned in the other choices.
In core group formation, the nurse is able to transfer the
technology of community organizing to the potential or 34. Tertiary prevention is needed in which stage of the
informal community leaders through a training program. natural history of disease?
A. Pre-pathogenesis
31. In which step are plans formulated for solving B. Pathogenesis
community problems? C. Prodromal
A. Mobilization D. Terminal
B. Community organization
C. Follow-up/extension Answer: (D) Terminal
D. Core group formation Tertiary prevention involves rehabilitation, prevention of
permanent disability and disability limitation appropriate
Answer: (B) Community organization for convalescents, the disabled, complicated cases and
Community organization is the step when community the terminally ill (those in the terminal stage of a
assemblies take place. During the community assembly, disease)
the people may opt to formalize the community
organization and make plans for community action to 35. Isolation of a child with measles belongs to what
resolve a community health problem. level of prevention?
A. Primary
32. The public health nurse takes an active role in B. Secondary
community participation. What is the primary goal of C. Intermediate
community organizing? D. Tertiary
A. To educate the people regarding community health
problems Answer: (A) Primary
B. To mobilize the people to resolve community health The purpose of isolating a client with a communicable
problems disease is to protect those who are not sick (specific
C. To maximize the community’s resources in dealing disease prevention).
with health problems
D. To maximize the community’s resources in dealing 36. On the other hand, Operation Timbang is _____
with health problems prevention.
A. Primary
Answer: (D) To maximize the community’s resources in B. Secondary
dealing with health problems C. Intermediate
Community organizing is a developmental service, with D. Tertiary
the goal of developing the people’s self-reliance in
dealing with community health problems. A, B and C are Answer: (B) Secondary
objectives of contributory objectives to this goal. Operation Timbang is done to identify members of the
susceptible population who are malnourished. Its
33. An indicator of success in community organizing is purpose is early diagnosis and, subsequently, prompt
when people are able to treatment.
A. Participate in community activities for the solution of
a community problem 37. Which type of family-nurse contact will provide you
B. Implement activities for the solution of the with the best opportunity to observe family dynamics?
community problem A. Clinic consultation
C. Plan activities for the solution of the community B. Group conference

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C. Home visit 41. Which is CONTRARY to the principles in planning a

D. Written communication
Answer: (C) Home visit
Dynamics of family relationships can best be observed in
the family’s natural environment, which is the home.
38. The typology of family nursing problems is used in
the statement of nursing diagnosis in the care of
families. The youngest child of the de los Reyes family
has been diagnosed as mentally retarded. This is
classified as a
A. Health threat
B. Health deficit
C. Foreseeable crisis
D. Stress point
Answer: (B) Health deficit
Failure of a family member to develop according to what
is expected, as in mental retardation, is a health deficit.
39. The de los Reyes couple have a 6-year old child
entering school for the first time. The de los Reyes family
has a
A. Health threat
B. Health deficit
C. Foreseeable crisis
D. Stress point
Answer: (C) Foreseeable crisis
Entry of the 6-year old into school is an anticipated
period of unusual demand on the family.
40. Which of the following is an advantage of a home
visit?
A. It allows the nurse to provide nursing care to a greater
number of people.
B. It provides an opportunity to do first hand appraisal of
the home situation.
C. It allows sharing of experiences among people with
similar health problems.
D. It develops the family’s initiative in providing for
health needs of its members.
Answer: (B) It provides an opportunity to do first hand
appraisal of the home situation.
Choice A is not correct since a home visit requires that
the nurse spend so much time with the family. Choice C
is an advantage of a group conference, while choice D is
true of a clinic consultation.
home visit?
A. A home visit should have a purpose or objective.
B. The plan should revolve around family health needs.
C. A home visit should be conducted in the manner
prescribed by the RHU.
D. Planning of continuing care should involve a
responsible family member.
Answer: (C) A home visit should be conducted in the
manner prescribed by the RHU.
The home visit plan should be flexible and practical,
depending on factors, such as the family’s needs and the
resources available to the nurse and the family.
42. The PHN bag is an important tool in providing
nursing care during a home visit. The most important
principle of bag technique states that it
A. Should save time and effort.
B. Should minimize if not totally prevent the spread of
infection.
C. Should not overshadow concern for the patient and
his family.
D. May be done in a variety of ways depending on the
home situation, etc.
Answer: (B) Should minimize if not totally prevent the
spread of infection.
Bag technique is performed before and after handling a
client in the home to prevent transmission of infection
to and from the client.
43. To maintain the cleanliness of the bag and its
contents, which of the following must the nurse do?
A. Wash his/her hands before and after providing
nursing care to the family members.
B. In the care of family members, as much as possible,
use only articles taken from the bag.
C. Put on an apron to protect her uniform and fold it
with the right side out before putting it back into the
bag.
D. At the end of the visit, fold the lining on which the bag
was placed, ensuring that the contaminated side is on
the outside.
Answer: (A) Wash his/her hands before and after
providing nursing care to the family members.
Choice B goes against the idea of utilizing the family’s
resources, which is encouraged in CHN. Choices C and D
goes against the principle of asepsis of confining the
contaminated surface of objects.

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44. The public health nurse conducts a study on the
factors contributing to the high mortality rate due to
heart disease in the municipality where she works.
Which branch of epidemiology does the nurse practice in
this situation?
A. Descriptive
B. Analytical
C. Therapeutic
D. Evaluation
Answer: (B) Analytical
Analytical epidemiology is the study of factors or
determinants affecting the patterns of occurrence and
distribution of disease in a community.
45. Which of the following is a function of epidemiology?
A. Identifying the disease condition based on
manifestations presented by a client
B. Determining factors that contributed to the
occurrence of pneumonia in a 3 year old
C. Determining the efficacy of the antibiotic used in the
treatment of the 3 year old client with pneumonia
D. Evaluating the effectiveness of the implementation of
the Integrated Management of Childhood Illness
Answer: (D) Evaluating the effectiveness of the
implementation of the Integrated Management of
Childhood Illness
Epidemiology is used in the assessment of a community
or evaluation of interventions in community health
practice.
46. Which of the following is an epidemiologic function
of the nurse during an epidemic?
A. Conducting assessment of suspected cases to detect
the communicable disease
B. Monitoring the condition of the cases affected by the
communicable disease
C. Participating in the investigation to determine the
source of the epidemic
D. Teaching the community on preventive measures
against the disease
Answer: (C) Participating in the investigation to
determine the source of the epidemic
Epidemiology is the study of patterns of occurrence and
distribution of disease in the community, as well as the
factors that affect disease patterns. The purpose of an
epidemiologic investigation is to identify the source of
an epidemic, i.e., what brought about the epidemic.
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47. The primary purpose of conducting an epidemiologic
investigation is to
A. Delineate the etiology of the epidemic
B. Encourage cooperation and support of the community
C. Identify groups who are at risk of contracting the
disease
D. Identify geographical location of cases of the disease
in the community
Answer: (A) Delineate the etiology of the epidemic
Delineating the etiology of an epidemic is identifying its
source.
48. Which is a characteristic of person-to-person
propagated epidemics?
A. There are more cases of the disease than expected.
B. The disease must necessarily be transmitted through a
vector.
C. The spread of the disease can be attributed to a
common vehicle.
D. There is a gradual build up of cases before the
epidemic becomes easily noticeable.
Answer: (D) There is a gradual build up of cases before
the epidemic becomes easily noticeable.
A gradual or insidious onset of the epidemic is usually
observable in person-to-person propagated epidemics.
49. In the investigation of an epidemic, you compare the
present frequency of the disease with the usual
frequency at this time of the year in this community. This
is done during which stage of the investigation?
A. Establishing the epidemic
B. Testing the hypothesis
C. Formulation of the hypothesis
D. Appraisal of facts
Answer: (A) Establishing the epidemic
Establishing the epidemic is determining whether there
is an epidemic or not. This is done by comparing the
present number of cases with the usual number of cases
of the disease at the same time of the year, as well as
establishing the relatedness of the cases of the disease.
50. The number of cases of Dengue fever usually
increases towards the end of the rainy season. This
pattern of occurrence of Dengue fever is best described
as
A. Epidemic occurrence
B. Cyclical variation
C. Sporadic occurrence
D. Secular variation
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diagnostic examination?
Answer: (B) Cyclical variation A. Effectiveness
A cyclical variation is a periodic fluctuation in the B. Efficacy
number of cases of a disease in the community. C. Specificity
D. Sensitivity
51. In the year 1980, the World Health Organization
declared the Philippines, together with some other Answer: (D) Sensitivity
countries in the Western Pacific Region, “free” of which Sensitivity is the capacity of a diagnostic examination to
disease? detect cases of the disease. If a test is 100% sensitive, all
A. Pneumonic plague the cases tested will have a positive result, i.e., there will
B. Poliomyelitis be no false negative results.
C. Small pox
D. Anthrax 55. Use of appropriate technology requires knowledge of
indigenous technology. Which medicinal herb is given for
Answer: (C) Small pox fever, headache and cough?
The last documented case of Small pox was in 1977 at A. Sambong
Somalia. B. Tsaang gubat
C. Akapulko
52. In the census of the Philippines in 1995, there were D. Lagundi
about 35,299,000 males and about 34,968,000 females.
What is the sex ratio? Answer: (D) Lagundi
A. 99.06:100 Sambong is used as a diuretic. Tsaang gubat is used to
B. 100.94:100 relieve diarrhea. Akapulko is used for its antifungal
C. 50.23% property.
D. 49.76%
56. What law created the Philippine Institute of
Answer: (B) 100.94:100 Traditional and Alternative Health Care?
Sex ratio is the number of males for every 100 females in A. R.A. 8423
the population. B. R.A. 4823
C. R.A. 2483
53. Primary health care is a total approach to community D. R.A. 3482
development. Which of the following is an indicator of
success in the use of the primary health care approach? Answer: (A) R.A. 8423
A. Health services are provided free of charge to (none)
individuals and families.
B. Local officials are empowered as the major decision 57. In traditional Chinese medicine, the yielding,
makers in matters of health. negative and feminine force is termed
C. Health workers are able to provide care based on A. Yin
identified health needs of the people. B. Yang
D. Health programs are sustained according to the level C. Qi
of development of the community. D. Chai

Answer: (D) Health programs are sustained according to Answer: (A) Yin
the level of development of the community. Yang is the male dominating, positive and masculine
Primary health care is essential health care that can be force.
sustained in all stages of development of the
community. 58. What is the legal basis for Primary Health Care
approach in the Philippines?
54. Sputum examination is the major screening tool for A. Alma Ata Declaration on PHC
pulmonary tuberculosis. Clients would sometimes get B. Letter of Instruction No. 949
false negative results in this exam. This means that the C. Presidential Decree No. 147
test is not perfect in terms of which characteristic of a D. Presidential Decree 996

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Answer: (B) Letter of Instruction No. 949
Letter of Instruction 949 was issued by then President
Ferdinand Marcos, directing the formerly called Ministry
of Health, now the Department of Health, to utilize
Primary Health Care approach in planning and
implementing health programs.
59. Which of the following demonstrates intersectoral
linkages?
A. Two-way referral system
B. Team approach
C. Endorsement done by a midwife to another midwife
D. Cooperation between the PHN and public school
teacher
Answer: (D) Cooperation between the PHN and public
school teacher
Intersectoral linkages refer to working relationships
between the health sector and other sectors involved in
community development.
60. The municipality assigned to you has a population of
about 20,000. Estimate the number of 1-4 year old
children who will be given Retinol capsule 200,000 I.U.
every 6 months.
A. 1,500
B. 1,800
C. 2,000
D. 2,300
Answer: (D) 2,300
Based on the Philippine population composition, to
estimate the number of 1-4 year old children, multiply
total population by 11.5%.
61. Estimate the number of pregnant women who will be
given tetanus toxoid during an immunization outreach
activity in a barangay with a population of about 1,500.
A. 265
B. 300
C. 375
D. 400
Answer: (A) 265
To estimate the number of pregnant women, multiply
the total population by 3.5%.
C. Population pyramid
D. Any of these may be used.
Answer: (D) Any of these may be used.
Sex ratio and sex proportion are used to determine the
sex composition of a population. A population pyramid is
used to present the composition of a population by age
and sex.
63. Which of the following is a natality rate?
A. Crude birth rate
B. Neonatal mortality rate
C. Infant mortality rate
D. General fertility rate
Answer: (A) Crude birth rate
Natality means birth. A natality rate is a birth rate.
64. You are computing the crude death rate of your
municipality, with a total population of about 18,000, for
last year. There were 94 deaths. Among those who died,
20 died because of diseases of the heart and 32 were
aged 50 years or older. What is the crude death rate?
A. 4.2/1,000
B. 5.2/1,000
C. 6.3/1,000
D. 7.3/1,000
Answer: (B) 5.2/1,000
To compute crude death rate divide total number of
deaths (94) by total population (18,000) and multiply by
1,000.
65. Knowing that malnutrition is a frequent community
health problem, you decided to conduct nutritional
assessment. What population is particularly susceptible
to protein energy malnutrition (PEM)?
A. Pregnant women and the elderly
B. Under-5 year old children
C. 1-4 year old children
D. School age children
Answer: (C) 1-4 year old children
Preschoolers are the most susceptible to PEM because
they have generally been weaned. Also, this is the
population who, unable to feed themselves, are often
the victims of poor intrafamilial food distribution.

62. To describe the sex composition of the population, 66. Which statistic can give the most accurate reflection
which demographic tool may be used? of the health status of a community?
A. Sex ratio A. 1-4 year old age-specific mortality rate
B. Sex proportion B. Infant mortality rate

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C. Swaroop’s index 70. You will gather data for nutritional assessment of a
D. Crude death rate purok. You will gather information only from families
with members who belong to the target population for
Answer: (C) Swaroop’s index PEM. What method of data gathering is best for this
Swaroop’s index is the proportion of deaths aged 50 purpose?
years and above. The higher the Swaroop’s index of a A. Census
population, the greater the proportion of the deaths B. Survey
who were able to reach the age of at least 50 years, i.e., C. Record review
more people grew old before they died. D. Review of civil registry
67. In the past year, Barangay A had an average
population of 1655. 46 babies were born in that year, 2 Answer: (B) Survey
of whom died less than 4 weeks after they were born. A survey, also called sample survey, is data gathering
There were 4 recorded stillbirths. What is the neonatal about a sample of the population.
mortality rate?
A. 27.8/1,000 71. In the conduct of a census, the method of population
B. 43.5/1,000 assignment based on the actual physical location of the
C. 86.9/1,000 people is termed
D. 130.4/1,000 A. De jure
B. De locus
Answer: (B) 43.5/1,000 C. De facto
To compute for neonatal mortality rate, divide the D. De novo
number of babies who died before reaching the age of
28 days by the total number of live births, then multiply Answer: (C) De facto
by 1,000. The other method of population assignment, de jure, is
based on the usual place of residence of the people.
68. Which statistic best reflects the nutritional status of a
population? 72. The Field Health Services and Information System
A. 1-4 year old age-specific mortality rate (FHSIS) is the recording and reporting system in public
B. Proportionate mortality rate health care in the Philippines. The Monthly Field Health
C. Infant mortality rate Service Activity Report is a form used in which of the
D. Swaroop’s index components of the FHSIS?
A. Tally report
Answer: (A) 1-4 year old age-specific mortality rate B. Output report
Since preschoolers are the most susceptible to the C. Target/client list
effects of malnutrition, a population with poor D. Individual health record
nutritional status will most likely have a high 1-4 year old
age-specific mortality rate, also known as child mortality Answer: (A) Tally report
rate. A tally report is prepared monthly or quarterly by the
RHU personnel and transmitted to the Provincial Health
69. What numerator is used in computing general Office.
fertility rate?
A. Estimated midyear population 73. To monitor clients registered in long-term regimens,
B. Number of registered live births such as the Multi-Drug Therapy, which component will
C. Number of pregnancies in the year be most useful?
D. Number of females of reproductive age A. Tally report
B. Output report
Answer: (B) Number of registered live births C. Target/client list
To compute for general or total fertility rate, divide the D. Individual health record
number of registered live births by the number of
females of reproductive age (15-45 years), then multiply Answer: (C) Target/client list
by 1,000. The MDT Client List is a record of clients enrolled in MDT

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and other relevant data, such as dates when clients
collected their monthly supply of drugs.
74. Civil registries are important sources of data. Which
law requires registration of births within 30 days from
the occurrence of the birth?
A. P.D. 651
B. Act 3573
C. R.A. 3753
D. R.A. 3375
Answer: (A) P.D. 651
P.D. 651 amended R.A. 3753, requiring the registry of
births within 30 days from their occurrence.
75. Which of the following professionals can sign the
birth certificate?
A. Public health nurse
B. Rural health midwife
C. Municipal health officer
D. Any of these health professionals
Answer: (D) Any of these health professionals
D. R.A. 3753 states that any birth attendant may sign the
certificate of live birth.
76. Which criterion in priority setting of health problems
is used only in community health care?
A. Modifiability of the problem
B. Nature of the problem presented
C. Magnitude of the health problem
D. Preventive potential of the health problem
Answer: (C) Magnitude of the health problem
Magnitude of the problem refers to the percentage of
the population affected by a health problem. The other
choices are criteria considered in both family and
community health care.
77. The Sentrong Sigla Movement has been launched to
improve health service delivery. Which of the following
is/are true of this movement?
A. This is a project spearheaded by local government
units.
B. It is a basis for increasing funding from local
government units.
C. It encourages health centers to focus on disease
prevention and control.
D. Its main strategy is certification of health centers able
to comply with standards.
Answer: (D) Its main strategy is certification of health
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centers able to comply with standards.
Sentrong Sigla Movement is a joint project of the DOH
and local government units. Its main strategy is
certification of health centers that are able to comply
with standards set by the DOH.
78. Which of the following women should be considered
as special targets for family planning?
A. Those who have two children or more
B. Those with medical conditions such as anemia
C. Those younger than 20 years and older than 35 years
D. Those who just had a delivery within the past 15
months
Answer: (D) Those who just had a delivery within the
past 15 months
The ideal birth spacing is at least two years. 15 months
plus 9 months of pregnancy = 2 years.
79. Freedom of choice is one of the policies of the Family
Planning Program of the Philippines. Which of the
following illustrates this principle?
A. Information dissemination about the need for family
planning
B. Support of research and development in family
planning methods
C. Adequate information for couples regarding the
different methods
D. Encouragement of couples to take family planning as
a joint responsibility
Answer: (C) Adequate information for couples
regarding the different methods
To enable the couple to choose freely among different
methods of family planning, they must be given full
information regarding the different methods that are
available to them, considering the availability of quality
services that can support their choice.
80. A woman, 6 months pregnant, came to the center for
consultation. Which of the following substances is
contraindicated?
A. Tetanus toxoid
B. Retinol 200,000 IU
C. Ferrous sulfate 200 mg
D. Potassium iodate 200 mg. capsule
Answer: (B) Retinol 200,000 IU
Retinol 200,000 IU is a form of megadose Vitamin A. This
may have a teratogenic effect.

81. During prenatal consultation, a client asked you if
she can have her delivery at home. After history taking
and physical examination, you advised her against a
home delivery. Which of the following findings
disqualifies her for a home delivery?
A. Her OB score is G5P3.
B. She has some palmar pallor.
C. Her blood pressure is 130/80.
D. Her baby is in cephalic presentation.
Answer: (A) Her OB score is G5P3.
Only women with less than 5 pregnancies are qualified
for a home delivery. It is also advisable for a primigravida
to have delivery at a childbirth facility.
82. Inadequate intake by the pregnant woman of which
vitamin may cause neural tube defects?
A. Niacin
B. Riboflavin
C. Folic acid
D. Thiamine
Answer: (C) Folic acid
It is estimated that the incidence of neural tube defects
can be reduced drastically if pregnant women have an
adequate intake of folic acid.
83. You are in a client’s home to attend to a delivery.
Which of the following will you do first?
A. Set up the sterile area.
B. Put on a clean gown or apron.
C. Cleanse the client’s vulva with soap and water.
D. Note the interval, duration and intensity of labor
contractions.
Answer: (D) Note the interval, duration and intensity of
labor contractions.
Assessment of the woman should be done first to
determine whether she is having true labor and, if so,
what stage of labor she is in.
84. In preparing a primigravida for breastfeeding, which
of the following will you do?
A. Tell her that lactation begins within a day after
delivery.
B. Teach her nipple stretching exercises if her nipples are
everted.
C. Instruct her to wash her nipples before and after each
breastfeeding.
D. Explain to her that putting the baby to breast will
lessen blood loss after delivery.
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Answer: (D) Explain to her that putting the baby to
breast will lessen blood loss after delivery.
Suckling of the nipple stimulates the release of oxytocin
by the posterior pituitary gland, which causes uterine
contraction. Lactation begins 1 to 3 days after delivery.
Nipple stretching exercises are done when the nipples
are flat or inverted. Frequent washing dries up the
nipples, making them prone to the formation of fissures.
85. A primigravida is instructed to offer her breast to the
baby for the first time within 30 minutes after delivery.
What is the purpose of offering the breast this early?
A. To initiate the occurrence of milk letdown
B. To stimulate milk production by the mammary acini
C. To make sure that the baby is able to get the
colostrum
D. To allow the woman to practice breastfeeding in the
presence of the health worker
Answer: (B) To stimulate milk production by the
mammary acini
Suckling of the nipple stimulates prolactin reflex (the
release of prolactin by the anterior pituitary gland),
which initiates lactation.
86. In a mothers’ class, you discuss proper breastfeeding
technique. Which is of these is a sign that the baby has
“latched on” to the breast properly?
A. The baby takes shallow, rapid sucks.
B. The mother does not feel nipple pain.
C. The baby’s mouth is only partly open.
D. Only the mother’s nipple is inside the baby’s mouth.
Answer: (B) The mother does not feel nipple pain.
When the baby has properly latched on to the breast, he
takes deep, slow sucks; his mouth is wide open; and
much of the areola is inside his mouth. And, you’re right!
The mother does not feel nipple pain.
87. You explain to a breastfeeding mother that breast
milk is sufficient for all of the baby’s nutrient needs only
up to ____.
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 2 years
Answer: (B) 6 months
After 6 months, the baby’s nutrient needs, especially the
baby’s iron requirement, can no longer be provided by
mother’s milk alone.
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88. What is given to a woman within a month after the
delivery of a baby?
A. Malunggay capsule
B. Ferrous sulfate 100 mg. OD
C. Retinol 200,000 I.U., 1 capsule
D. Potassium iodate 200 mg, 1 capsule
Answer: (C) Retinol 200,000 I.U., 1 capsule
A capsule of Retinol 200,000 IU is given within 1 month
after delivery. Potassium iodate is given during
pregnancy; malunggay capsule is not routinely
administered after delivery; and ferrous sulfate is taken
for two months after delivery.
89. Which biological used in Expanded Program on
Immunization (EPI) is stored in the freezer?
A. DPT
B. Tetanus toxoid
C. Measles vaccine
D. Hepatitis B vaccine
Answer: (C) Measles vaccine
Among the biologicals used in the Expanded Program on
Immunization, measles vaccine and OPV are highly
sensitive to heat, requiring storage in the freezer.
90. Unused BCG should be discarded how many hours
after reconstitution?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. At the end of the day
Answer: (B) 4
While the unused portion of other biologicals in EPI may
be given until the end of the day, only BCG is discarded 4
hours after reconstitution. This is why BCG immunization
is scheduled only in the morning.
91. In immunizing school entrants with BCG, you are not
obliged to secure parental consent. This is because of
which legal document?
A. P.D. 996
B. R.A. 7846
C. Presidential Proclamation No. 6
D. Presidential Proclamation No. 46
Answer: (A) P.D. 996
Presidential Decree 996, enacted in 1976, made
immunization in the EPI compulsory for children under 8
years of age. Hepatitis B vaccination was made
compulsory for the same age group by R.A. 7846.
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92. Which immunization produces a permanent scar?
A. DPT
B. BCG
C. Measles vaccination
D. Hepatitis B vaccination
Answer: (B) BCG
BCG causes the formation of a superficial abscess, which
begins 2 weeks after immunization. The abscess heals
without treatment, with the formation of a permanent
scar.
93. A 4-week old baby was brought to the health center
for his first immunization. Which can be given to him?
A. DPT1
B. OPV1
C. Infant BCG
D. Hepatitis B vaccine 1
Answer: (C) Infant BCG
Infant BCG may be given at birth. All the other
immunizations mentioned can be given at 6 weeks of
age.
94. You will not give DPT 2 if the mother says that the
infant had
A. Seizures a day after DPT 1.
B. Fever for 3 days after DPT 1.
C. Abscess formation after DPT 1.
D. Local tenderness for 3 days after DPT 1.
Answer: (A) Seizures a day after DPT 1.
Seizures within 3 days after administration of DPT is an
indication of hypersensitivity to pertussis vaccine, a
component of DPT. This is considered a specific
contraindication to subsequent doses of DPT.
95. A 2-month old infant was brought to the health
center for immunization. During assessment, the infant’s
temperature registered at 38.1°C. Which is the best
course of action that you will take?
A. Go on with the infant’s immunizations.
B. Give Paracetamol and wait for his fever to subside.
C. Refer the infant to the physician for further
assessment.
D. Advise the infant’s mother to bring him back for
immunization when he is well.
Answer: (A) Go on with the infant’s immunizations.
In the EPI, fever up to 38.5°C is not a contraindication to
immunization. Mild acute respiratory tract infection,

simple diarrhea and malnutrition are not
contraindications either.
96. A pregnant woman had just received her 4th dose of
tetanus toxoid. Subsequently, her baby will have
protection against tetanus for how long?
A. 1 year
B. 3 years
C. 10 years
D. Lifetime
Answer: (A) 1 year
The baby will have passive natural immunity by placental
transfer of antibodies. The mother will have active
artificial immunity lasting for about 10 years. 5 doses will
give the mother lifetime protection.
97. A 4-month old infant was brought to the health
center because of cough. Her respiratory rate is
42/minute. Using the Integrated Management of Child
Illness (IMCI) guidelines of assessment, her breathing is
considered
A. Fast
B. Slow
C. Normal
D. Insignificant
Answer: (C) Normal
In IMCI, a respiratory rate of 50/minute or more is fast
breathing for an infant aged 2 to 12 months.
98. Which of the following signs will indicate that a
young child is suffering from severe pneumonia?
A. Dyspnea
B. Wheezing
C. Fast breathing
D. Chest indrawing
Answer: (D) Chest indrawing
In IMCI, chest indrawing is used as the positive sign of
dyspnea, indicating severe pneumonia.
99. Using IMCI guidelines, you classify a child as having
severe pneumonia. What is the best management for
the child?
A. Prescribe an antibiotic.
B. Refer him urgently to the hospital.
C. Instruct the mother to increase fluid intake.
D. Instruct the mother to continue breastfeeding.
Answer: (B) Refer him urgently to the hospital.
Severe pneumonia requires urgent referral to a hospital.
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Answers A, C and D are done for a client classified as
having pneumonia.
100. A 5-month old infant was brought by his mother to
the health center because of diarrhea occurring 4 to 5
times a day. His skin goes back slowly after a skin pinch
and his eyes are sunken. Using the IMCI guidelines, you
will classify this infant in which category?
A. No signs of dehydration
B. Some dehydration
C. Severe dehydration
D. The data is insufficient.
Answer: (B) Some dehydration
Using the assessment guidelines of IMCI, a child (2
months to 5 years old) with diarrhea is classified as
having SOME DEHYDRATION if he shows 2 or more of
the following signs: restless or irritable, sunken eyes, the
skin goes back slow after a skin pinch.
101. Based on assessment, you classified a 3-month old
infant with the chief complaint of diarrhea in the
category of SOME DEHYDRATION. Based on IMCI
management guidelines, which of the following will you
do?
A. Bring the infant to the nearest facility where IV fluids
can be given.
B. Supervise the mother in giving 200 to 400 ml. of
Oresol in 4 hours.
C. Give the infant’s mother instructions on home
management.
D. Keep the infant in your health center for close
observation.
Answer: (B) Supervise the mother in giving 200 to 400
ml. of Oresol in 4 hours.
In the IMCI management guidelines, SOME
DEHYDRATION is treated with the administration of
Oresol within a period of 4 hours. The amount of Oresol
is best computed on the basis of the child’s weight (75
ml/kg body weight). If the weight is unknown, the
amount of Oresol is based on the child’s age.
102. A mother is using Oresol in the management of
diarrhea of her 3-year old child. She asked you what to
do if her child vomits. You will tell her to
A. Bring the child to the nearest hospital for further
assessment.
B. Bring the child to the health center for intravenous
fluid therapy.
C. Bring the child to the health center for assessment by
the physician.
D. Let the child rest for 10 minutes then continue giving
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Oresol more slowly.
Answer: (D) Let the child rest for 10 minutes then
continue giving Oresol more slowly.
If the child vomits persistently, that is, he vomits
everything that he takes in, he has to be referred
urgently to a hospital. Otherwise, vomiting is managed
by letting the child rest for 10 minutes and then
continuing with Oresol administration. Teach the mother
to give Oresol more slowly.
103. A 1 ½ year old child was classified as having 3rd
degree protein energy malnutrition, kwashiorkor. Which
of the following signs will be most apparent in this child?
A. Voracious appetite
B. Wasting
C. Apathy
D. Edema
Answer: (D) Edema
Edema, a major sign of kwashiorkor, is caused by
decreased colloidal osmotic pressure of the blood
brought about by hypoalbuminemia. Decreased blood
albumin level is due a protein-deficient diet.
104. Assessment of a 2-year old child revealed “baggy
pants”. Using the IMCI guidelines, how will you manage
this child?
A. Refer the child urgently to a hospital for confinement.
B. Coordinate with the social worker to enroll the child in
a feeding program.
C. Make a teaching plan for the mother, focusing on
menu planning for her child.
D. Assess and treat the child for health problems like
infections and intestinal parasitism.
Answer: (A) Refer the child urgently to a hospital for
confinement.
“Baggy pants” is a sign of severe marasmus. The best
management is urgent referral to a hospital.
105. During the physical examination of a young child,
what is the earliest sign of xerophthalmia that you may
observe?
A. Keratomalacia
B. Corneal opacity
C. Night blindness
D. Conjunctival xerosis
Answer: (D) Conjunctival xerosis
The earliest sign of Vitamin A deficiency (xerophthalmia)
is night blindness. However, this is a functional change,
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which is not observable during physical examination.The
earliest visible lesion is conjunctival xerosis or dullness of
the conjunctiva due to inadequate tear production.
106. To prevent xerophthalmia, young children are given
Retinol capsule every 6 months. What is the dose given
to preschoolers?
A. 10,000 IU
B. 20,000 IU
C. 100,000 IU
D. 200,000 IU
Answer: (D) 200,000 IU
Preschoolers are given Retinol 200,000 IU every 6
months. 100,000 IU is given once to infants aged 6 to 12
months. The dose for pregnant women is 10,000 IU.
107. The major sign of iron deficiency anemia is pallor.
What part is best examined for pallor?
A. Palms
B. Nailbeds
C. Around the lips
D. Lower conjunctival sac
Answer: (A) Palms
The anatomic characteristics of the palms allow a
reliable and convenient basis for examination for pallor.
108. Food fortification is one of the strategies to prevent
micronutrient deficiency conditions. R.A. 8976 mandates
fortification of certain food items. Which of the following
is among these food items?
A. Sugar
B. Bread
C. Margarine
D. Filled milk
Answer: (A) Sugar
R.A. 8976 mandates fortification of rice, wheat flour,
sugar and cooking oil with Vitamin A, iron and/or iodine.
109. What is the best course of action when there is a
measles epidemic in a nearby municipality?
A. Give measles vaccine to babies aged 6 to 8 months.
B. Give babies aged 6 to 11 months one dose of 100,000
I.U. of Retinol
C. Instruct mothers to keep their babies at home to
prevent disease transmission.
D. Instruct mothers to feed their babies adequately to
enhance their babies’ resistance.
Answer: (A) Give measles vaccine to babies aged 6 to 8
months.

Ordinarily, measles vaccine is given at 9 months of age.
During an impending epidemic, however, one dose may
be given to babies aged 6 to 8 months. The mother is
instructed that the baby needs another dose when the
baby is 9 months old.
110. A mother brought her daughter, 4 years old, to the
RHU because of cough and colds. Following the IMCI
assessment guide, which of the following is a danger sign
that indicates the need for urgent referral to a hospital?
A. Inability to drink
B. High grade fever
C. Signs of severe dehydration
D. Cough for more than 30 days
Answer: (A) Inability to drink
A sick child aged 2 months to 5 years must be referred
urgently to a hospital if he/she has one or more of the
following signs: not able to feed or drink, vomits
everything, convulsions, abnormally sleepy or difficult to
awaken.
111. Management of a child with measles includes the
administration of which of the following?
A. Gentian violet on mouth lesions
B. Antibiotics to prevent pneumonia
C. Tetracycline eye ointment for corneal opacity
D. Retinol capsule regardless of when the last dose was
given
Answer: (D) Retinol capsule regardless of when the last
dose was given
An infant 6 to 12 months classified as a case of measles
is given Retinol 100,000 IU; a child is given 200,000 IU
regardless of when the last dose was given.
112. A mother brought her 10 month old infant for
consultation because of fever, which started 4 days prior
to consultation. To determine malaria risk, what will you
do?
A. Do a tourniquet test.
B. Ask where the family resides.
C. Get a specimen for blood smear.
D. Ask if the fever is present everyday.
Answer: (B) Ask where the family resides.
Because malaria is endemic, the first question to
determine malaria risk is where the client’s family
resides. If the area of residence is not a known endemic
area, ask if the child had traveled within the past 6
months, where he/she was brought and whether he/she
stayed overnight in that area.
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113. The following are strategies implemented by the
Department of Health to prevent mosquito-borne
diseases. Which of these is most effective in the control
of Dengue fever?
A. Stream seeding with larva-eating fish
B. Destroying breeding places of mosquitoes
C. Chemoprophylaxis of non-immune persons going to
endemic areas
D. Teaching people in endemic areas to use chemically
treated mosquito nets
Answer: (B) Destroying breeding places of mosquitoes
Aedes aegypti, the vector of Dengue fever, breeds in
stagnant, clear water. Its feeding time is usually during
the daytime. It has a cyclical pattern of occurrence,
unlike malaria which is endemic in certain parts of the
country.
114. Secondary prevention for malaria includes
A. Planting of neem or eucalyptus trees
B. Residual spraying of insecticides at night
C. Determining whether a place is endemic or not
D. Growing larva-eating fish in mosquito breeding places
Answer: (C) Determining whether a place is endemic or
not
This is diagnostic and therefore secondary level
prevention. The other choices are for primary
prevention.
115. Scotch tape swab is done to check for which
intestinal parasite?
A. Ascaris
B. Pinworm
C. Hookworm
D. Schistosoma
Answer: (B) Pinworm
Pinworm ova are deposited around the anal orifice.
116. Which of the following signs indicates the need for
sputum examination for AFB?
A. Hematemesis
B. Fever for 1 week
C. Cough for 3 weeks
D. Chest pain for 1 week
Answer: (C) Cough for 3 weeks
A client is considered a PTB suspect when he has cough
for 2 weeks or more, plus one or more of the following
signs: fever for 1 month or more; chest pain lasting for 2
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weeks or more not attributed to other conditions;
progressive, unexplained weight loss; night sweats; and
hemoptysis.
117. Which clients are considered targets for DOTS
Category I?
A. Sputum negative cavitary cases
B. Clients returning after a default
C. Relapses and failures of previous PTB treatment
regimens
D. Clients diagnosed for the first time through a positive
sputum exam
Answer: (D) Clients diagnosed for the first time through
a positive sputum exam
Category I is for new clients diagnosed by sputum
examination and clients diagnosed to have a serious
form of extrapulmonary tuberculosis, such as TB
osteomyelitis.
118. To improve compliance to treatment, what
innovation is being implemented in DOTS?
A. Having the health worker follow up the client at home
B. Having the health worker or a responsible family
member monitor drug intake
C. Having the patient come to the health center every
month to get his medications
D. Having a target list to check on whether the patient
has collected his monthly supply of drugs
Answer: (B) Having the health worker or a responsible
family member monitor drug intake
Directly Observed Treatment Short Course is so-called
because a treatment partner, preferably a health worker
accessible to the client, monitors the client’s compliance
to the treatment.
119. Diagnosis of leprosy is highly dependent on
recognition of symptoms. Which of the following is an
early sign of leprosy?
A. Macular lesions
B. Inability to close eyelids
C. Thickened painful nerves
D. Sinking of the nosebridge
Answer: (C) Thickened painful nerves
The lesion of leprosy is not macular. It is characterized by
a change in skin color (either reddish or whitish) and loss
of sensation, sweating and hair growth over the lesion.
Inability to close the eyelids (lagophthalmos) and sinking
of the nosebridge are late symptoms.
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120. Which of the following clients should be classified
as a case of multibacillary leprosy?
A. 3 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
B. 3 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear
C. 5 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
D. 5 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear
Answer: (D) 5 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear
A multibacillary leprosy case is one who has a positive
slit skin smear and at least 5 skin lesions.
121. In the Philippines, which condition is the most
frequent cause of death associated with schistosomiasis?
A. Liver cancer
B. Liver cirrhosis
C. Bladder cancer
D. Intestinal perforation
Answer: (B) Liver cirrhosis
The etiologic agent of schistosomiasis in the Philippines
is Schistosoma japonicum, which affects the small
intestine and the liver. Liver damage is a consequence of
fibrotic reactions to schistosoma eggs in the liver.
122. What is the most effective way of controlling
schistosomiasis in an endemic area?
A. Use of molluscicides
B. Building of foot bridges
C. Proper use of sanitary toilets
D. Use of protective footwear, such as rubber boots
Answer: (C) Proper use of sanitary toilets
The ova of the parasite get out of the human body
together with feces. Cutting the cycle at this stage is the
most effective way of preventing the spread of the
disease to susceptible hosts.
123. When residents obtain water from an artesian well
in the neighborhood, the level of this approved type of
water facility is
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
Answer: (B) II
A communal faucet or water standpost is classified as
Level II.
124. For prevention of hepatitis A, you decided to
conduct health education activities. Which of the
following is IRRELEVANT?

A. Use of sterile syringes and needles
B. Safe food preparation and food handling by vendors
C. Proper disposal of human excreta and personal
hygiene
D. Immediate reporting of water pipe leaks and illegal
water connections
Answer: (A) Use of sterile syringes and needles
Hepatitis A is transmitted through the fecal oral route.
Hepatitis B is transmitted through infected body
secretions like blood and semen.
126. Which biological used in Expanded Program on
Immunization (EPI) should NOT be stored in the freezer?
A. DPT
B. Oral polio vaccine
C. Measles vaccine
D. MMR
Answer: (A) DPT
DPT is sensitive to freezing. The appropriate storage
temperature of DPT is 2 to 8° C only. OPV and measles
vaccine are highly sensitive to heat and require freezing.
MMR is not an immunization in the Expanded Program
on Immunization.
127. You will conduct outreach immunization in a
barangay with a population of about 1500. Estimate the
number of infants in the barangay.
A. 45
B. 50
C. 55
D. 60
Answer: (A) 45
To estimate the number of infants, multiply total
population by 3%.
128. In Integrated Management of Childhood Illness,
severe conditions generally require urgent referral to a
hospital. Which of the following severe conditions DOES
NOT always require urgent referral to a hospital?
A. Mastoiditis
B. Severe dehydration
C. Severe pneumonia
D. Severe febrile disease
Answer: (B) Severe dehydration
The order of priority in the management of severe
dehydration is as follows: intravenous fluid therapy,
referral to a facility where IV fluids can be initiated
within 30 minutes, Oresol/nasogastric tube,
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Oresol/orem. When the foregoing measures are not
possible or effective, tehn urgent referral to the hospital
is done.
129. A client was diagnosed as having Dengue fever. You
will say that there is slow capillary refill when the color
of the nailbed that you pressed does not return within
how many seconds?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 8
D. 10
Answer: (A) 3
Adequate blood supply to the area allows the return of
the color of the nailbed within 3 seconds.
130. A 3-year old child was brought by his mother to the
health center because of fever of 4-day duration. The
child had a positive tourniquet test result. In the absence
of other signs, which is the most appropriate measure
that the PHN may carry out to prevent Dengue shock
syndrome?
A. Insert an NGT and give fluids per NGT.
B. Instruct the mother to give the child Oresol.
C. Start the patient on intravenous fluids STAT.
D. Refer the client to the physician for appropriate
management.
Answer: (B) Instruct the mother to give the child
Oresol.
Since the child does not manifest any other danger sign,
maintenance of fluid balance and replacement of fluid
loss may be done by giving the client Oresol.
131. The pathognomonic sign of measles is Koplik’s spot.
You may see Koplik’s spot by inspecting the _____.
A. Nasal mucosa
B. Buccal mucosa
C. Skin on the abdomen
D. Skin on the antecubital surface
Answer: (B) Buccal mucosa
Koplik’s spot may be seen on the mucosa of the mouth
or the throat.
132. Among the following diseases, which is airborne?
A. Viral conjunctivitis
B. Acute poliomyelitis
C. Diphtheria
D. Measles
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Answer: (D) Measles
Viral conjunctivitis is transmitted by direct or indirect
contact with discharges from infected eyes. Acute
poliomyelitis is spread through the fecal-oral route and
contact with throat secretions, whereas diphtheria is
through direct and indirect contact with respiratory
secretions.
133. Among children aged 2 months to 3 years, the most
prevalent form of meningitis is caused by which
microorganism?
A. Hemophilus influenzae
B. Morbillivirus
C. Steptococcus pneumoniae
D. Neisseria meningitidis
Answer: (A) Hemophilus influenzae
Hemophilus meningitis is unusual over the age of 5
years. In developing countries, the peak incidence is in
children less than 6 months of age. Morbillivirus is the
etiology of measles. Streptococcus pneumoniae and
Neisseria meningitidis may cause meningitis, but age
distribution is not specific in young children.
134. Human beings are the major reservoir of malaria.
Which of the following strategies in malaria control is
based on this fact?
A. Stream seeding
B. Stream clearing
C. Destruction of breeding places
D. Zooprophylaxis
Answer: (D) Zooprophylaxis
Zooprophylaxis is done by putting animals like cattle or
dogs close to windows or doorways just before nightfall.
The Anopheles mosquito takes his blood meal from the
animal and goes back to its breeding place, thereby
preventing infection of humans.
135. The use of larvivorous fish in malaria control is the
basis for which strategy of malaria control?
A. Stream seeding
B. Stream clearing
C. Destruction of breeding places
D. Zooprophylaxis
Answer: (A) Stream seeding
Stream seeding is done by putting tilapia fry in streams
or other bodies of water identified as breeding places of
the Anopheles mosquito
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136. Mosquito-borne diseases are prevented mostly
with the use of mosquito control measures. Which of the
following is NOT appropriate for malaria control?
A. Use of chemically treated mosquito nets
B. Seeding of breeding places with larva-eating fish
C. Destruction of breeding places of the mosquito vector
D. Use of mosquito-repelling soaps, such as those with
basil or citronella
Answer: (C) Destruction of breeding places of the
mosquito vector
Anopheles mosquitoes breed in slow-moving, clear
water, such as mountain streams.
137. A 4-year old client was brought to the health center
with the chief complaint of severe diarrhea and the
passage of “rice water” stools. The client is most
probably suffering from which condition?
A. Giardiasis
B. Cholera
C. Amebiasis
D. Dysentery
Answer: (B) Cholera
Passage of profuse watery stools is the major symptom
of cholera. Both amebic and bacillary dysentery are
characterized by the presence of blood and/or mucus in
the stools. Giardiasis is characterized by fat
malabsorption and, therefore, steatorrhea.
138. In the Philippines, which specie of schistosoma is
endemic in certain regions?
A. S. mansoni
B. S. japonicum
C. S. malayensis
D. S. haematobium
Answer: (B) S. japonicum
S. mansoni is found mostly in Africa and South America;
S. haematobium in Africa and the Middle East; and S.
malayensis only in peninsular Malaysia.
139. A 32-year old client came for consultation at the
health center with the chief complaint of fever for a
week. Accompanying symptoms were muscle pains and
body malaise. A week after the start of fever, the client
noted yellowish discoloration of his sclera. History
showed that he waded in flood waters about 2 weeks
before the onset of symptoms. Based on his history,
which disease condition will you suspect?
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B

C. Tetanus
D. Leptospirosis
Answer: (D) Leptospirosis
Leptospirosis is transmitted through contact with the
skin or mucous membrane with water or moist soil
contaminated with urine of infected animals, like rats.
140. MWSS provides water to Manila and other cities in
Metro Manila. This is an example of which level of water
facility?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
Answer: (C) III
Waterworks systems, such as MWSS, are classified as
level III.
141. You are the PHN in the city health center. A client
underwent screening for AIDS using ELISA. His result was
positive. What is the best course of action that you may
take?
A. Get a thorough history of the client, focusing on the
practice of high risk behaviors.
B. Ask the client to be accompanied by a significant
person before revealing the result.
C. Refer the client to the physician since he is the best
person to reveal the result to the client.
D. Refer the client for a supplementary test, such as
Western blot, since the ELISA result may be false.
Answer: (D) Refer the client for a supplementary test,
such as Western blot, since the ELISA result may be
false.
A client having a reactive ELISA result must undergo a
more specific test, such as Western blot. A negative
supplementary test result means that the ELISA result
was false and that, most probably, the client is not
infected.
142. Which is the BEST control measure for AIDS?
A. Being faithful to a single sexual partner
B. Using a condom during each sexual contact
C. Avoiding sexual contact with commercial sex workers
D. Making sure that one’s sexual partner does not have
signs of AIDS
Answer: (A) Being faithful to a single sexual partner
Sexual fidelity rules out the possibility of getting the
disease by sexual contact with another infected person.
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Transmission occurs mostly through sexual intercourse
and exposure to blood or tissues.
143. The most frequent causes of death among clients
with AIDS are opportunistic diseases. Which of the
following opportunistic infections is characterized by
tonsillopharyngitis?
A. Respiratory candidiasis
B. Infectious mononucleosis
C. Cytomegalovirus disease
D. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
Answer: (B) Infectious mononucleosis
Cytomegalovirus disease is an acute viral disease
characterized by fever, sore throat and
lymphadenopathy.
144. To determine possible sources of sexually
transmitted infections, which is the BEST method that
may be undertaken by the public health nurse?
A. Contact tracing
B. Community survey
C. Mass screening tests
D. Interview of suspects
Answer: (A) Contact tracing
Contact tracing is the most practical and reliable method
of finding possible sources of person-to-person
transmitted infections, such as sexually transmitted
diseases.
145. Antiretroviral agents, such as AZT, are used in the
management of AIDS. Which of the following is NOT an
action expected of these drugs.
A. They prolong the life of the client with AIDS.
B. They reduce the risk of opportunistic infections
C. They shorten the period of communicability of the
disease.
D. They are able to bring about a cure of the disease
condition.
Answer: (D) They are able to bring about a cure of the
disease condition.
There is no known treatment for AIDS. Antiretroviral
agents reduce the risk of opportunistic infections and
prolong life, but does not cure the underlying
immunodeficiency.
146. A barangay had an outbreak of German measles. To
prevent congenital rubella, what is the BEST advice that
you can give to women in the first trimester of
pregnancy in the barangay?
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A. Advice them on the signs of German measles.
B. Avoid crowded places, such as markets and
moviehouses.
C. Consult at the health center where rubella vaccine
may be given.
D. Consult a physician who may give them rubella
immunoglobulin.
Answer: (D) Consult a physician who may give them
rubella immunoglobulin.
Rubella vaccine is made up of attenuated German
measles viruses. This is contraindicated in pregnancy.
Immune globulin, a specific prophylactic against German
measles, may be given to pregnant women.
children. Complications, such as pneumonia, are higher
in incidence in adults.
149. Complications to infectious parotitis (mumps) may
be serious in which type of clients?
A. Pregnant women
B. Elderly clients
C. Young adult males
D. Young infants
Answer: (C) Young adult males
Epididymitis and orchitis are possible complications of
mumps. In post-adolescent males, bilateral inflammation
of the testes and epididymis may cause sterility.

147. You were invited to be the resource person in a

training class for food handlers. Which of the following
would you emphasize regarding prevention of
staphylococcal food poisoning?
A. All cooking and eating utensils must be thoroughly
washed.
B. Food must be cooked properly to destroy
staphylococcal microorganisms.
C. Food handlers and food servers must have a negative
stool examination result.
D. Proper handwashing during food preparation is the
best way of preventing the condition.

Answer: (D) Proper handwashing during food

preparation is the best way of preventing the
condition.
Symptoms of this food poisoning are due to
staphylococcal enterotoxin, not the microorganisms
themselves. Contamination is by food handling by
persons with staphylococcal skin or eye infections.

148. In a mothers’ class, you discussed childhood

diseases such as chicken pox. Which of the following
statements about chicken pox is correct?
A. The older one gets, the more susceptible he becomes
to the complications of chicken pox.
B. A single attack of chicken pox will prevent future
episodes, including conditions such as shingles.
C. To prevent an outbreak in the community, quarantine
may be imposed by health authorities.
D. Chicken pox vaccine is best given when there is an
impending outbreak in the community.

Answer: (A) The older one gets, the more susceptible

he becomes to the complications of chicken pox.
Chicken pox is usually more severe in adults than in

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