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ENTHUSIAST | LEADER | ACHIEVER
EXERCISE
(1) Microsporum
(2) Trichophyton
(3) Epidermophyton
(4) Wuchereria
HD0043
35. Haemophilus influenzae causes :-
(1) Filariasis (1) Typhoid (2) Plague
(2) Elephantiasis (3) Pneumonia (4) Influenza
(3) Ascariasis HD0044
(4) 1 and 2 both 36. Match the columns with regards to Vector
HD0039 and Disease
31. Plasmodium enters the human body as :- Column-I Column-II
(1) Female Anopheles mosquito p. Culex i. Dengue
(2) Sporozoite q. Anopheles ii. Filariasis
(3) Trophozoite r. Aedes iii. Malaria
(4) Haemozoin (1) p-i, q-ii, r-iii (2) p-ii, q-iii, r-i
HD0246 (3) p-ii, q-i, r-iii (4) p-i, q-iii, r-ii
32. Toxin which is responsible for chill and high HD0045
fever during malaria :- 37. House flies are mechanical carriers of :-
(1) Haematin (2) Haemoglobin (1) Amoebiasis (2) Malaria
(3) Haemozoin (4) Heam (3) Common cold (4) Plague
HD0041 HD0046
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AIDS AND CANCER 45. Causative factor of cancer is called :–
38. AIDS is characterised by :- (1) Oncogenes (2) Radiogen
(1) Reduction in number of helper T-cells (3) Estrogen (4) Carcinogen
(2) Lack of interferon HD0056
(3) Reduction in number of killer T-cells 46. Nucleic acid in HIV :-
(4) Autoimmunity (1) ss RNA (2) ds RNA
HD0047 (3) ss DNA (4) ds DNA
39. Carcinoma is a cancer of :- HD0057
(1) Lymphocytes 47. Sarcoma is cancer of –
(2) Connective tissue (1) Epithelial tissue
(3) Erythrocytes (2) Mesodermal tissue
(4) Ectoderm and endoderm (3) Blood
HD0049 (4) Endodermal tissues
40. Cancer cells are characterized by :
HD0058
(1) Uncontrolled growth
48. Which is not cancer –
(2) Invasion of local tissue
(1) Leukaemia (2) Glaucoma
(3) Spreading to other body parts
(3) Carcinoma (4) Sarcoma
(4) All the above
HD0059
HD0050
49. Blood cancer is –
41. Which of the following is used in the
(1) Leukemia (2) Thrombosis
treatment of Thyroid cancer ?
(3) Haemophilia (4) Hemolysis
(1) I131 (2) U238 (3) Ra224 (4) C14
HD0060
HD0051
42. Carcinoma refers to :- DRUGS AND ALCOHOL ABUSE
(1) Malignant tumours of the connective 50. Tobacco chewing results in :-
tissue (1) Mouth cancer (2) Lung cancer
(2) Malignant tumours of the skin (3) Bone cancer (4) Leukaemia
(3) Benign tumours of the colon HD0061
(4) Benign tumours of the connective tissue 51. In drunk person, the part of brain to be
HD0052 affected first is :-
43. AIDS is caused by HIV that principally (1) Cerebellum (2) Pons varolli
infects :- (3) Medulla oblongata (4) Cerebrum
(1) all lymphocytes (2) activator B cells HD0062
(3) T-4 lymphocytes (4) Cytotoxic T cells 52. Opium is obtained from :-
HD0054 (1) Thea sinensis
44. Treatment of cancer is :– (2) Coffea arabica
(1) Surgery (2) Radiation (3) Oryza sativa
(3) Chemotherapy (4) All (4) Papaver somniferum
HD0055 HD0063
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53. Marijuana, Ganja, and LSD are :- 58. Cocaine is derived from :-
(1) Narcotics (2) Hallucinogens (1) Erythroxylum coca (2) Coffea arabica
(3) Stimulants (4) Medicines (3) Thea sinensis (4) Cannabis sativa
HD0064 HD0069
54. In alcoholics, liver gets damaged as it :- 59. (a) Smack (b) Diacetylmorphine
(1) Accumulates excess of fats (c) White (d) Odourless
(2) Stores excess of glycogen (e) Bitter crystalline compound
(3) Secretes more bile Above statements/informations are correct
(4) Has to detoxify alcohol for:-
HD0065 (1) Morphine (2) Heroin
55. LSD is obtained from :- (3) Coccain (4) Barbiturates
(1) Cannabis (2) Claviceps HD0071
(3) Fusarium (4) Nostoc 60. Which measure would be particularly
HD0066 useful for prevention and control of alcohol
56. Cannabis sativa (Hemp) yields:- and drug abuse among adolescents ?
(1) Bhang (2) Charas (a) Avoid undue peer pressure
(3) Ganja (4) All the above (b) Seeking professional and medical help
HD0067 (c) Looking for danger sign
57. In the liver, alcohol is converted into which (d) Education and counselling
toxic substance ? (e) Seeking help from parents and peers
(1) Formic acid (2) Acetaldehyde (1) a, b, d only (2) a, c, d, e only
(3) Nicotine (4) Urea (3) c, e only (4) a, b, c, d, e
HD0068 HD0074
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60
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21. Consider the following four statements AIPMT 2010-Main
(a-d) regarding kidney transplant and select 24. Which one of the following techniques is
the two correct ones out of these. safest for the detection of cancers ?
(a) Even if a kidney transplant is proper the (1) Radiography (X–ray)
recipient may need to take immuno-
(2) Computed tomography (CT)
suppresants for a longtime
(3) Histopathological studies
(b) The cell-mediated immune response is
responsible for the graft rejection (4) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
(c) The B-lymphocytes are responsible for HD0100
rejection of the graft AIPMT 2011-Pre
(d) The acceptance or rejection of a kidney 25. At which stage of HIV infection does one
transplant depends on specific usually show symptoms of AIDS ?
interferons (1) When the infecting retrovirus enters
The two correct statements are : host cells
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) When viral DNA is produced by reverse
(2) (b) and (c)
transcriptase
(3) (c) and (d)
(3) When HIV replicates rapidly in helper
(4) (a) and (c)
T-lymphocytes and damages large
HD0097
22. Which one of the following statements is number of these
correct with respect to AIDS ? (4) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an
(1) The causative HIV retrovirus enters infected person.
helper T-lymphocytes thus reducing HD0103
their numbers
26. A certain patient is suspected to be
(2) The HIV can be transmitted through
suffering from Acquired Immuno Deficiency
eating food together with an infected
person Syndrome. Which diagnostic technique will
(3) Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV you recommend for its detection ?
infection (1) ELISA
(4) AIDS patients are being fully cured cent (2) MRI
per cent with proper care and nutrition
(3) Ultra sound
HD0098
(4) WIDAL
23. Select the correct statement from the ones
given below : HD0104
(1) Cocaine is given to patients after surgery as it AIPMT 2011-Main
stimulates recovery 27. Common cold is not cured by antibiotics
(2) Barbiturates when given to criminals because it is:
make them tell the truth (1) not an infectious disease
(3) Morphine is often given to persons who have (2) caused by a virus
undergone surgery as a pain killer (3) caused by a Gram-positive bacterium
(4) Chewing tobacco lowers blood pressure and (4) caused by a Gram-negative bacterium
heart rate HD0105
HD0099
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28. Given below is the ECG of a normal human. AIPMT 2012-Pre
Which one of its components is correctly 31. Select the correct statement regarding the
interpreted below? specific disorder of muscular or skeletal
R system :-
(1) Myasthenia gravis-Auto immune
disorder which inhibits sliding of myosin
P T
Q S filaments
(1) Peak P - Initiation of left atrial contraction (2) Gout-inflammation of joints due to
only extra deposition of calcium
(2) Complex QRS-One complete pulse (3) Muscular dystrophy - age related
(3) Peak T - Initiation of total cardiac shortening of muscles
contraction (4) Osteoporosis-decrease in bone mass and
(4) Peak P and Peak R together - systolic higher chances of fractures with
and diastolic blood pressures. advancing age
HD0106 HD0110
29. Which one of the following options gives 32. Common cold differs from pneumonia in,
the correct matching of a disease with its that :
causative organism and mode of infection? (1) Pneumonia is caused by a virus while
Causative Mode of the common cold is caused by the
Disease
Organisms Infection bacterium Haemophilus influenzae
Plasmodium
Bite of male (2) Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli
(1) Malaria Anopheles whereas the common cold affects nose
vivax
Mosquito
and respiratory passage but not the
Salmonella With inspired
(2) Typhoid lungs.
typhi air
(3) Pneumonia is a communicable disease
Streptococcus Droplet
(3) Pneumonia whereas the common cold is a
pneumoniae infection
Wuchereria With infected nutritional deficiency disease.
(4) Elephantiasis
bancrofti water and food (4) Pneumonia can be prevented by a live
HD0107 attenuated bacterial vaccine whereas
30. Select the correct statement with respect the common cold has no effective
to diseases and immunisation : vaccine.
(1) Injection of snake antivenom against HD0111
snake bite is an example of active 33. Widal Test is carried out to test :
immunisation. (1) HIV/AIDS
(2) If due to some reason B-and (2) Typhoid fever
T-lymphocytes are damaged, the body (3) Malaria
will not produce antibodies against a (4) Diabetes mellitus
pathogen. HD0112
(3) Injection of dead/inactivated pathogens 34. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic
causes passive immunity intake of:
(4) Certain protozoans have been used to (1) Tobacco (Chewing) (2) Cocaine
mass produce hepatitis B vaccine (3) Opium (4) Alcohol
HD0108 HD0113
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35. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in : Options :
(1) Human RBCs Molecule Source Use
(2) Human liver (1) (b) Cannabinoid Atropa Produces
(3) Gut of female Anopheles belladona hallucinations
(4) Salivary glands of Anopheles (2) (a) Morphine Papaver Sedative and
HD0114 somniferum pain killer
36. In which one of the following options the (3) (a) Cocaine Erythroxylum Accelerates
two examples are correctly matched with coca the transport
their particular type of immunity? of dopamine
Examples Type of (4) (b) Heroin Cannabis Depressant
immunity sativa and slows
(1) Saliva in mouth and Physical barriers down body
Tears in eyes functions
(2) Mucus coating of Physiological HD0117
epithelium lining the barriers 39. Which one of the following statements is
urinogenital tract and correct with respect to immunity?
the HCl in stomach
(1) Antibodies are protein molecules, each
(3) Polymorpho nuclear Cellular barriers
of which has four light chains
leukocytes and
monocytes (2) Rejection of a kidney graft is the
(4) Anti-tetanus and anti- Active immunity function of B-lymphocytes.
snake bite injections (3) Preformed antibodies need to be
HD0115 injected to treat the bite by a viper
AIPMT 2012-Main snake.
37. The first clinical gene therapy was given for (4) The antibodies against small pox
treating : pathogen are produced by T-lymphocytes
(1) Rheumatoid arthritis
(2) Adenosine deaminase deficiency HD0118
(3) Diabetes mellitus NEET-UG 2013
(4) Chicken pox 40. The cell-mediated immunity inside the
HD0116 human body is carried out by :
38. Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown (1) Erythrocytes
below and select the right option giving
their source and use. (2) T-lymphocytes
HO (3) B-lymphocytes
(4) Thrombocytes
(a) O HD0247
H
N–CH3 41. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by :
HO (1) mosquito bite
OH (2) drinking water containing eggs of
Ascaris
(b)
O (3) eating imperfectly cooked pork.
H (4) Tse-tse fly
HD0123
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AIPMT 2014 45. At which stage of HIV infection does one
42. The diagram given here is the standard ECG usually show symptoms of AIDS ?
of a normal person. The P- wave represents (1) Within 15 days of sexual contact with
the : an infected person.
(2) When the infected retro virus enters
host cells.
(3) When HIV damages large number of
helper
T-Lymphocytes.
(1) End of systole
(4) When the viral DNA is produced by
(2) Contraction of both the atria reverse transcriptase.
(3) Initiation of the ventricular contraction HD0128
AIPMT 2015
(4) Beginning of the systole
46. Which of the following is not a sexually
HD0125 transmitted disease ?
43. A human female with Turner's syndrome :- (1) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome
(AIDS)
(1) has 45 chromosomes with XO.
(2) Trichomoniasis
(2) has one additional X chromosome. (3) Encephalitis
(3) exhibits male characters. (4) Syphilis
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49. Match each disease with its correct type of 54. Which of the following immunoglobulins
vaccine: does constitute the largest percentage in
(a) tuberculosis (i) harmless virus human milk?
(b) whooping cough (ii) inactivated toxin
(1) IgG (2) IgD (3) IgM (4) IgA
(c) diphtheria (iii) killed bacteria
(d) polio (iv) harmless bacteria HD0139
(a) (b) (c) (d) NEET-I 2016
(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) 55. Name the chronic respiratory disorder
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) caused mainly by cigarette smoking :-
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (1) Emphysema
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (2) Asthma
HD0134 (3) Respiratory acidosis
50. An abnormal human baby with 'XXX' sex
(4) Respiratory alkalosis
chromosomes was born due to :
(1) formation of abnormal ova in the HD0140
mother 56. Asthma may be attributed to :
(2) fusion of two ova and one sperm (1) bacterial infection of the lungs
(3) fusion of two sperms and one ovum (2) allergic reaction of the mast cells in the
(4) formation of abnormal sperms in the lungs
father (3) inflammation of the trachea
HD0135 (4) accumulation of fluid in the lungs
Re-AIPMT 2015 HD0142
51. Grafted kidney may be rejected in a patient 57. In higher vertebrates, the immune system
due to :- can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If
(1) Innate immune response this property is lost due to genetic
(2) Humoral immune response abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it
(3) Cell-mediated immune response leads to :-
(4) Passive immune response (1) Allergic response
HD0136 (2) Graft rejection
52. If you suspect major deficiency of (3) Auto-immune disease
antibodies in a person, to which of the (4) Active immunity
following would you look for confirmatory HD0143
evidence? 58. Pick out the correct statements :
(1) Serum globulins (a) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive
(2) Fibrinogin in plasma disease
(3) Serum albumins (b) Down's syndrome is due to aneuploidy
(4) Haemocytes (c) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal
HD0137 recessive gene disorder.
53. Name the pulmonary disease in which (d) Sickle cell anaemia is a X-linked
alveolar surface area involved in gas recessive gene disorder
exchange is drastically reduced due to (1) (a) and (d) are correct
damage in the alveolar walls. (2) (b) and (d) are correct
(1) Asthma (2) Pleurisy (3) (a), (c) and (d) are correct
(3) Emphysema (4) Pneumonia (4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
HD0138 HD0144
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59. Antivenom injection contains preformed 63. Which of the following is correct regarding
antibodies while polio drops that are AIDS causative agent HIV ?
administered into the body contain :- (1) HIV is unenveloped retrovirus.
(1) Activated pathogens (2) HIV does not escape but attacks the
aquired immune response.
(2) Harvested antibodies
(3) HIV is enveloped virus containing one
(3) Gamma globulin molecule of single-stranded RNA and
(4) Attenuated pathogens one molecule of reverse transcriptase.
HD0145 (4) HIV is enveloped virus that contains two
identical molecules of single-stranded
60. Lack of relaxation between successive
RNA and two molecules of reverse
stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is transcriptase.
known as :- HD0149
(1) Spasm 64. Which of the following sets of diseases is
(2) Fatigue caused by bacteria?
(3) Tetanus (1) Tetanus and mumps
(4) Tonus (2) Herpes and influenza
61. Which of the following statements is not (4) Typhoid and smallpox
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67. Match the following sexually transmitted 70. In which disease does mosquito transmitted
diseases (Column-I) with their causative pathogen cause chronic inflammation of
agent (Column-II) and select the correct lymphatic vessels?
option : (1) Elephantiasis
(2) Ascariasis
Column-I Column-II
(3) Ringworm disease
(a) Gonorrhea (i) HIV (4) Amoebiasis
(b) Syphilis (ii) Neisseria HD0161
71. Match the items given in Column I with
(c) Genital Warts (iii) Treponema
those in Column II and select the correct
(d) AIDS (iv) Human papilloma-Virus option given below:-
(a) (b) (c) (d) Column I Column II
(1) iii iv i ii a. Fibrinogen i. Osmotic balance
b. Globulin ii. Blood clotting
(2) iv ii iii i
c. Albumin iii. Defence mechanism
(3) iv iii ii i
a b c
(4) ii iii iv i (1) iii ii i
HD0155 (2) i ii iii
68. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails (3) i iii ii
(4) ii iii i
often due to non-acceptance by the
HD0162
patient's body. Which type of immune-
NEET(UG) 2019
response is responsible for such rejections?
72. Colostrum, the yellowish fluid, secreted by
(1) Cell - mediated immune response mother during the initial days of lactation is
(2) Hormonal immune response very essential to impart immunity to the
newborn infants because it contains :-
(3) Physiological immune response
(1) Natural killer cells
(4) Autoimmune response
(2) Monocytes
HD0156 (3) Macrophages
NEET(UG) 2018 (4) Immunoglobulin A
69. Which of the following is not an autoimmune HD0235
disease? 73. Which of the following sexually transmitted
(1) Psoriasis diseases is not completely curable ?
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis (1) Gonorrhoea
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74. Which of the following immune responses (3) has natural killer cells which can
is responsible for rejection of kidney graft? phagocytose and destroy microbes.
(1) Auto- immune respones (4) provides passive immunity.
(2) Humoral immune response HD0241
(3) Inflammatory immune response 79. Which of the following diseases is an
autoimmune disorder?
(4) Cell-mediated immune response
(1) Myasthenia gravis
HD0237
(2) Arthritis
75. Which of the following muscular disorders
(3) Osteoporosis
is inherited?
(4) Gout
(1) Tetany HD0242
(2) Muscular dystrophy 80. Which of the following sexually transmitted
(3) Myasthenia gravis diseases do not specifically affect
reproductive organs ?
(4) Botulism
(1) Genital warts and Hepatitis-B
HD0238 (2) Syphilis and Genital herpes
76. Drug called 'Heroin' is synthesized by : (3) AIDS and Hepatitis B
(1) methylation of morphine (4) Chlamydiasis and AIDS
(2) acetylation of morphine HD0243
(3) glycosylation of morphine 81. In which genetic condition, each cell in the
affected person has three sex chromosomes
(4) nitration of morphine
XXY ?
HD0239
(1) Thalassemia
77. Identify the correct pair representing the
(2) Kleinfelter's Syndrome
causative agent of typhoid fever and the
(3) Phenylketonuria
confirmatory test for typhoid.
(4) Turner's Syndrome
(1) Plasmodium vivax/UTI test.
HD0244
(2) Streptococcus pneumoniae/Widal test
82. Coca alkaloid or cocaine is obtained from:
(3) Salmonella typhi/Anthrone test
(1) Papaver somniferum
(4) Salmonella typhi/Widal test
HD0240 (2) Atropha belladona
(3) Erythroxylum coca
NEET(UG) 2019 (Odisha)
(4) Datura
78. Humans have acquired immune system
HD0245
that produces antibodies to neutralize
NEET(UG) 2020
pathogens. Still innate immune system is
83. The QRS complex in a standard ECG
present at the time of birth because it
represents :
(1) is very specific and uses different
(1) Repolarisation of ventricles
macrophages.
(2) Repolarisation of auricles
(2) produces memory cells for mounting
(3) Depolarisation of auricles
fast secondary response.
(4) Depolarisation of ventricles
HD0248
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84. Select the correct match. 88. Match the following columns and select the
(1) Thalassemia - X linked correct option :
(2) Haemophilia - Y linked Column - I Column - II
(3) Phenylketonuria - Autosomal dominant
(i) Typhoid (a) Haemophilus
trait
influenzae
(4) Sickle cell anaemia - Autosomal recessive
trait, chromosome - 11 (ii) Malaria (b) Wuchereria bancrofti
HD0249 (iii) Pneumonia (c) Plasmodium vivax
85. Select the option including all sexually
(iv) Filariasis (d) Salmonella typhi
transmitted diseases.
(1) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis (1) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
(2) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes (2) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)
(3) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Gential herpes
(3) (i)-(a), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d)
(4) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
HD0250 (4) (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
86. Match the following diseases with the HD0253
causative organism and select the correct 89. Cyclosporin A, used as immuno suppression
option. agent, is produced from :
Column - I Column - II (1) Monascus purpureus
(a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria (2) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(3) Penicillium notatum
(b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium
(4) Trichoderma polysporum
(c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella
HD0254
(d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus 90. The yellowish fluid "colostrum" secreted by
(a) (b) (c) (d) mammary glands of mother during the
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) initial days of lactation has abundant
antibodies (IgA) to protect the infant. This
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) type of immunity is called as :
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (1) Passive immunity (2) Active immunity
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (3) Acquired immunity (4) Autoimmunity
HD0251 HD0255
NEET(UG) 2020 (COVID-19) NEET(UG) 2021
87. Which of the following STDs are not 91. Chronic auto immune disorder affecting
curable ? neuro muscular junction leading to fatigue,
weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle
(1) Genital herpes, Hepatitis B, HIV infection is called as:
(2) Chlamydiasis, Syphilis, Genital warts (1) Arthritis
(3) HIV, Gonorrhoea, Trichomoniasis (2) Muscular dystrophy
(3) Myasthenia gravis
(4) Gonorrhoea, Trichomoniasis, Hepatitis B
(4) Gout
HD0252
HD0256
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92. Veneral diseases can spread through : NEET(UG) 2021 (Paper-2)
(a) Using sterile needles 95. Find the correct statement about chemical
(b) Transfusion of blood from infected which is obtained from given plant.
person
(c) Infected mother to foetus
(d) Kissing
(e) Inheritance
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below.
(1) Excessive doses causes hallucination
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only
(2) (b), (c) and (d) only (2) Abused by some sport person
Choose the correct answer from the 97. Which of the following acts as physiological
options given below. barrier?
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) Natural killer cells
(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (2) Interferons
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) Tears from eyes
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(4) Mucus coating of the epithelial lining of
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
urogenital tracts
HD0259
HD0282
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NEET(UG) 2022 NEET(UG) 2022 (OVERSEAS)
98. Given below are two statements: 100. Immuno-suppressants are administered to
Statement I: burn-patients or during organ
choose the most appropriate answer from 101. Given below are two statements :
the options given below: Statement-I : When an infected female
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are Anopheles mosquito bites, it releases
incorrect gametocytes of Plasmodium into the
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II healthy person.
is incorrect Statement-II : The female Anopheles
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II mosquito takes up sporozoites of
is correct Plasmodium with blood meal from an
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are infected person, suffering from malaria.
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Re-NEET(UG) 2022 104. Match List - I with List - II :
102. If a female individual is with small round
List - I List - II
head, furrowed tongue, partially open
mouth and broad palm with characteristic (a) Cellular barrier (i) Interferons
palm crease. Also the physical, (b) Cytokine barrier (ii) Mucus
psychomotor and mental development is
(c) Physical barrier (iii) Neutrophils
retarded. The karyotype analysis of such an
individual will show : (d) Physiological (iv) HCI in gastric
(1) 47 chromosomes with XXY sex barrier juice
chromosomes
Choose the correct answer from the
(2) 45 chromosomes with XO sex
chromosomes options given below :
(3) 47 chromosomes with XYY sex (1) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
chromosomes
(2) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(4) Trisomy of chromosome 21
HD0287 (3) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
103. Which of the following reasons in mainly (4) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
responsible for graft rejection in
HD0289
transplantation of organs ?
(1) Inability of recipient to differentiate
between 'self and 'non–self' tissues/cells
(2) Humoral immune response only
(3) Auto–immune response
(4) Cell–mediated response
HD0288
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Biology : Human Health and Diseases ®
Pre-Medical
38. Which of the following option is true 39. In a sterile female, Barr body is absent,
related to production and functions of a ovary is underdeveloped . In this female ,
molecule which is a glycoprotein and total number of chromosomes are :-
(1) 46 (2) 47
represented as H2L2 ?
(3) 45 (4) 44
Produced by Functions HD0192
(1) T-killer cell cellular immunity 40. A plant, native of South America is a source
of a drug of addiction which is CNS
(2) B cells inflammation
stimulant. This drug inhibits transport of
(3) NK cells phagocytosis (1) Acetylcholine (2) Dopamine
(4) Plasma cells opsonization (3) Serotonin (4) Adrenaline
HD0191 HD0193
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