2nd Professional Examination

Pathology

19 January 2007

MCQ Paper

Time Allowed 1 hour 40 minutes

Question 1-10: Choose one best response from several for each set of questions.

1. ​With regard to histamine which is incorrect?

A. Is a vasoactive amine
B. Is released by basophils
C. Causes vasodilatation
D. Also known as 5-hydroxytryptamine
E. Increases vascular permeability

2. ​Which one of the following is a tumour of glial origin?

A. Schwannoma
 B. Neurofibroma
C. Meningioma
D. Oligodendroglioma
E. Craniopharyngioma

3. ​With regard to Duchenne muscular dystrophy, which one of the following is not
correct?

A. Reduced life expectance

B. Atrophy of the calf muscles
C. X-linked inheritance
D. Abnormal production of dystrophin molecule
E. Mothers carry the disease gene

4. ​Mineralocorticoids are produced by which group of cells in the adrenal gland?

A. Zona corticale
B. Zona glomerulosa
C. Zona reticularis
D. Zone fasiculata
E. Medulla

5. ​If a fracture of a bone results in more than 2 bony fragments, it is known as which
type of fracture?

A. Spiral
B. Compound
C. Simple
D. Comminuted
E. ​Compression

6. ​Which one of the following best describes rheumatic fever?

 A. An infection of the heart valve by virulent organisms
B. Pyrexia of unknown origin occurring in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis
C. A hypersensitivity reaction occurring after pharyngeal infection with group A beta-
haemolytic streptococci resulting in a pancarditis
D. A hypersensitivity reaction occurring after pharyngeal infection with group A beta-
haemolytic staphylococci resulting in a pancarditis
E. A hypersensitivity reaction occurring after pharyngeal infection with group A beta-
haemolytic streptococci resulting solely in an endocarditis

7. ​Which one of the following best describes cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) 2?

A. Evidence of HPV infection

B. Dysplastic changes involving the lower 1/3 of the epithelium
C. Dysplastic changes involving the middle and lower 1/3 of the epithelium
D. Carcinoma in-situ
E. Dysplasia of the endocervical mucosa

8. ​In tuberculosis, which one of the following best describes a Gohn complex?

A. Apical fibrosis
B. An enlarged hilar lymph node
C. An enlarged hilar lymph node and a subpleural lesion
D. A subpleural lesion
E. The skin reaction seen after inoculation with the bacillus

9. ​Which one of the following best describes intussusception?

A. Twisting of the bowel

B. Telescoping of the bowel
C. Strangulation of the bowel
D. Atresia of the bowel
E. Fistula formation

10. ​Which one of the following best describes haemochromatosis?

A. An autosomal dominant disease of copper metabolism

B. An autosomal recessive disease of copper metabolism
C. An autosomal dominant disease of iron metabolism
D. An autosomal recessive disease of iron metabolism
E. An X-linked disease of iron metabolism
Questions 11-100: Match the numbered question to the best lettered response for each
set of questions. Each response may be used once, more than once or not at all.

11. Calor A. Swelling

12. Rubor B. Pain
13. Tumor C. Redness
14. Dolor D. Restriction of movement
15. Functio laesa E. Warmth

16. Whipple’s disease A. Terminal ileum

17. Crohn’s disease B. HLA—B8
18. Coeliac disease C. Bacterial overgrowth
19. Blind-loop syndrome D. Trophyrema infection
20. Large diverticulum E. Parasitic infection

21. HPV A. Bile duct cancer

22. HHV 8 B. Bladder cancer
23. Clonorchis sinensis C. Liver cancer
24. Hepatitis B D. Kaposi’s sarcoma
25. Schistosomiasis E. Cervical cancer

26. c-erbB-2 A. Tumour suppressor gene

27. APC B. Oncogene
28. DCC C. Both
29. Bcl-2 D. Neither
30. Retinoblastoma

31. Bacteria A. Eosinophils

32. Viruses B. Mast cells
33. Aspergillus species C. Lymphocytes
34. Parasites D. Neutrophils
35. Mycobacteria E. Histiocytes

36. Inflammation of ovary A. Orchitis

37. Inflammation of testis B. Cystitis
38. Inflammation of fallopian tube C. Salpingitis
39. Inflammation of gallbladder D. Oophoritis
40. Inflammation of bladder E. Cholecystitis

41. Hashimoto’s disease A. Spleen

42. Grave’s disease B. Pituitary gland
43. Pernicious anaemia C. Adrenal gland
44. Addison’s disease D. Stomach
45. Cushing’s disease E. Thyroid

46. Troisier’s sign A. Transcoelomic spread

47. Pseudomyxoma peritonei B. Haematogenous spread
48. Peau d’orange C. Lymphatic spread
49. Paget’s disease D. Contiguous spread
50. Pseudomesotheliomatous spread E. Intra-epithelial spread

51. Premalignant change A. Hypertrophy

52. Increase in cell size B. Metaplasia
53. Decrease in cell size C. Hyperplasia
54. Increase in cell number D. Atrophy
55. Transformation of one cell type to E. Dysplasia
another

56. Down’s syndrome A. 47, XXY

57. Patau’s syndrome B. Trisomy 13
58. Klinefelter’s syndrome C. Trisomy 18
59. Edward’s syndrome D. Monosomy X
60. Turner’s syndrome E. Trisomy 21

61. Meckel’s diverticulum A. Large bowel

62. Hirschprung’s disease B. Small bowel
63. Somatostatinoma C. Oesophagus
64. Chaga’s disease D. Stomach
65. Giardiasis E. Pancreas

66. Emphysema A. Bronchoconstriction

67. Chronic bronchitis B. Breakdown of alveolar walls
68. Asthma C. Mucous gland hypertrophy
69. Diffuse alveolar damage D. Dilated bronchi
70. Bronchiectasis E. Hyaline membranes

With regard to the causes of dysphagia:

71. Lymph nodes A. Intramural

72. Peptic stricture B. Luminal
73. Polyp C. Extramural
74. Achalasia D. Motility dysfunction
75. Motor neurone disease E. None of the above

76. Atherosclerosis A. Dystrophic calcification

77. Hypercalcaemia B. Metastatic calcification
78. Tuberculosis C. Both
79. Rheumatic fever D. Neither
80. Renal stones
81. Atherosclerotic aneurysm A. Circle of Willis
82. Charcot-Bouchard aneurysm B. Abdominal aorta
83. Berry aneurysm C. Thoracic aorta
84. Luetic aneurysm D. Retinal arteries
85. Dissecting aneurysm E. Intracerebral arteries

86. Leiomyoma A. Skeletal muscle

87. Chordoma B. Epithelium
88. Neurilemmoma C. Smooth muscle
89. Rhabdomyoma D. Schwann cells
90. Papilloma E. None of the above

91. Vitamin D deficiency A. Beriberi

92. Folate deficiency B. Scurvy
93. Vitamin B1 deficiency C. Bleeding tendency
94. Vitamin K deficiency D. Megaloblastic anaemia
95. Vitamin C deficiency E. Rickets

96. Bronchoalveolar carcinoma A. Mucin production

97. Bronchial hamartoma B. Keratin production
98. Small cell carcinoma C. Neuroendocrine features
99. Adenocarcinoma D. Cartilage production
100. Squamous cell carcinoma E. None of the above

MCQ Key
nd
2 Profs 19 Jan 07

1D
2D
3B
4B
5D
6C
7C
8C
9B
10 D
11 E
12 C
13 A
14 B
15 D
16 D
17 A
18 B
19 C
20 C
21 E
22 D
23 A
24 C
25 B
26 B
27 A
28 A
29 D
30 A
31 D
32 C
33 A
34 A
35 E
36 D
37 A
38 C
39 E
40 B
41 E
42 E

43 D
44 C
45 B
46 C
47 A
48 C
49 E
50 A
51 E
52 A
53 D
54 C
55 B
56 E
57 B
58 A
59 C
60 D
61 B
62 A
63 E
64 C
65 B
66 B
67 C
68 A
69 E
70 D
71 C
72 A
73 B
74 D
75 D
76 A
77 B
78 A
79 A
80 B
81 B
82 E
83 A
84 C

85 C
86 C
87 E
88 D
89 A
90 B
91 E
92 D
93 A
94 C
95 B
96 A
97 D
98 C
99 A
100 B