ATPL AIR LAW QUES

1. A type Rating is applicable to:

a) an aircraft requiring a Certificate of Airworthiness
b) an aircraft with a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by the State
c) an aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation
d) an aircraft that requires additional skill tarining

2. When you are over 60 and the holder of an ATPL(A), how often are you required to have
a medical examination?
a) The 12 month period reduces to 6 months
b) The 24 month period reduces to 12 months
c) The 6 month period reduces to 3 months
d) The 9 month period reduced to 3 months
3. Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. Instructions given by this aircraft do not
comply with ATC instructions. You should:
a) select code 7500 A on your transponder
b) ask ATC for different instructions
c) comply with instructions given by intercepting aircraft
d) comply with ATC instructions

4. The cruising speed entered in item 15 of a flight plan is:

a) TAS
b) TAS or Mach No.
c) IAS or TAS
d) TAS at 65% engine power
5. When following a SID, the pilot must:
a) calculate the track required and request ATC clearance to follow it.
b) fly the heading without wind correction
c) adjust the track specified to allow for the wind
d) fly the heading to make good the required track allowing for wind

6. What are ICAO defined instrument approaches?

a) Non-precision and CAT I/II/III precision
b) Precision in general
c) Precision CAT I/II/III
d) Instrument precision and CAT II/III
7. A "precision approach" is a direct instrument approach:
a) Using bearing, elevation and distance information.
b) Using at least one source of bearing information and one source of elevation or
distance information.
c) Using bearing, elevation and distance information, providing the pilot uses a
flight director or an autopilot certified to a height below 200 ft.
d) Carried out by a crew of at least two pilots trained with a specific working
method.
8. In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft the vertical position
of the aircraft shall be expressed in:
a) altitude above sea level on or below the transition altitude
b) altitude above sea level on or above the transition altitude
c) flight level on or below the transition level
d) flight level on or below the transition altitude

9. Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in
conjunction with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)?
a) Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600. Communication failure 7500.
b) Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600.
c) Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700. Communication failure 7600.
d) Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7700.

10. Air Traffic Service unit means:

a) Flight Information Centres and Air Services reporting offices.
b) Air Traffic Control units and Flight Information Centres.
c) Air Traffic Control units and Air Services reporting offices.
d) Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centres or Air Services
reporting offices.

11. Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of:
a) Achieving separation between controlled flights
b) Providing flight Information Service
c) Providing advisory services
d) Providing alerting services

12. The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published:
a) In NOTAM and AIP Supplement.
b) Only in NOTAM
c) Only in AIP
d) NOTAM, AIP and MAL

13. An aircraft has suffered severe damage to a tire. Is this an accident?

a) No
b) Yes
c) No, but ICAO must be informed
d) It depends whether or not the aircraft was moving at the time

14. When the Captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance:

a) the Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight
plan.
b) he/she may request an amendment clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept
that clearance
c) he/she may ask for a clearance and the appropriate ATC must grant him/her that
clearance
d) he/she may suggest a new clearance
15. What does the International Air Transport Agreement provide for?
a) Free and unhindered transit of aeroplanes over the high seas
b) The freedom for aeroplanes to over fly the territory of any other state without
landing
c) The freedom for aeroplanes of one state to land in the territory of another for the
purpose of refuelling
d) The freedom for aeroplanes registered in one state to land in another state
and drop off passengers

16. What are the 'freedoms' granted under the International Air Services Transit Agreement
considered to be?
a) Technical
b) Commercial
c) Temporary
d) Enforceable at Law

17. Which of the following correctly relates to scheduled flights?

a) The schedule must be agreed between individual states
b) There must no duplication of services
c) Once agreed, as many flights as are required may be scheduled
d) The leg room between seats is greater than charter flights

18. What is Cabotage?

a) The deliberate destruction of an aeroplane by terrorists
b) The practice of an aeroplane registered in one state picking up passengers in
another state and then landing them at an aerodrome in third state
c) The right of a state to restrict domestic scheduled air services to airline
operators registered in that state
d) A freedom not enshrined by ICAO

19. What is ICAO?

a) A specialised agency related to the United Nations
b) An organisation of civil aviation operators, limited to 33 members
c) An organisation only permitted to make recommendations which are not binding
on member states
d) An organisation constitutionally permitted to formulate and impose international
law over each contracting state

20. The International Air Services Transit Agreement embodies the 'technical freedoms'.
Which of the following is a technical freedom?
a) The freedom to over-fly a contracting state
b) The freedom to land at any aerodrome in a contracting state to drop off passengers
c) The freedom to land in a contracting state and re-fuel and unload cargo
d) The freedom to land in a contracting state for traffic purposes
21. What is the basis of the International Air Services Transit and Transport Agreements?
a) International Law
b) Multilateral International Agreements
c) ICAO Standards and Recommended Practices
d) Bilateral agreements between states
22. If a state applied 'cabotage', what would be prevented ?
a) Internal scheduled operations in state B by aircraft registered in and owned by an
operator in state A
b) International operations from state B by aircraft registered in and owned by an
operator in state A
c) Non-scheduled operations in state B by aircraft registered in and owned by an
operator in state A
d) Privately operated air taxi services

23. What is the status of IATA?

a) It is a trade association of aviation operators and others involved with
international aviation
b) It is an associate body of ICAO
c) It represents the air transport operators at ICAO
d) It is the international legislative arm of ICAO

24. By whom is the commander of an aeroplane appointed?

a) The authority of the state of registration
b) The authority of the state of the operator
c) The rest of the crew
d) The operator

25. When does 'flight time' end?

a) At touchdown
b) When the aeroplane first stops after landing to disembark passengers
c) At engine shut down when the aeroplane has stopped in the parking bay
d) When all the passengers have disembarked

26. Who is responsible for ensuring that all the passengers are aware of the authority of the
commander?
a) The Commander him/herself
b) The senior cabin attendant
c) The operator
d) The authority of the state of registration

27. You are detailed to fly on your 60th birthday. What must your operator ensure?
a) That you are the only pilot who is 60 or over
b) That you are the only crew member over 60
c) That you have passed the extended age medical examination and your licence is
correctly endorsed
d) A birthday cake is part of the crew rations of for the flight
28. You are required to have a total of not less than 1500 hours to 'unfreeze' your ATPL(A).
Of this total, how much must be in multi-pilot operations?
a) 100 hours
b) 200 hours
c) 250 hours
d) 500 hours

29. If you have a type rating on a 737-200, are you permitted to hold a type rating on any
other type of aeroplane?
a) Yes, you can be rated on as many types as your operator requires
b) Yes, but it must not have more than 2 engines
c) No, the authority only permits one type rating to be held at any time
d) No, but you may fly other variants of the 737

31. Once you have achieved 1500 hours as pilot of an aeroplane, your licence is upgraded to
ATPL(A). Which of the following is a privilege of that licence?
a) To fly as Commander in all type rated aircraft in commercial air transport
b) To fly as co-pilot in any aircraft for commercial air transport
c) To pilot any type rated aircraft in commercial air transport
d) To pilot a balloon

32. What is the minimum requirement to pilot an aircraft with max take off mass greater than
5700 kg and seating for 20 passengers, in IMC?
a) An ATPL(A)
b) Another pilot must be on board who also has an instrument rating
c) A licence with an IMC rating
d) A CPL(A)

33. Which of the following is not one of the recognised examiners?

a) Synthetic flight examiner
b) Command appointment examiner
c) Flight instructor examiner
d) Class rating examiner

34. The period between aircrew medical examinations for an ATPL(A) decreases to 6 months
at what age?
a) 50
b) 60
c) 45
d) 40

35. What self-medication is permitted by aircrew?

a) None
b) Only proprietary brands such as Disprin; Calpol; Advil etc. for colds and flu.
c) Only drugs which do not have side effects incompatible with aircrew duty
d) Only drugs which enhance, not degrade, performance
36. Which of the following documents is required to be carried in an aircraft engaged in
commercial air transport?
a) General Declarations
b) Load sheets
c) Interception tables
d) The technical instructions

37. The continuation of validity of a Certificate of Airworthiness is dependant upon what?

a) The continued registration of the aeroplane
b) The continued use of the aeroplane for the purpose stated on the certificate of
registration
c) The continued airworthiness of the aeroplane as determined by periodic
Inspections
d) The establishment of a schedule for servicing and repair of the aeroplane in
accordance with JAR 145

38. An airline is planning a flight that will require a technical landing in a neighboring state.
Which freedom of Air will be exercised?
a) 3rd freedom
b) 4th freedom
c) 2nd freedom
d) 1st freedom

39. The International Civil aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes:

a) proposal for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.
b) standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states,
signatory to the Chicago convection.
c) standards and recommended international practices for contracting states.
d) aeronautical standards adopted by all states.

40. When an aircraft is flying, under what flight rules must the flight be conducted?
a) IFR in IMC and VFR in VMC
b) At the commander's discretion
c) In accordance with ATC instructions
d) Either IFR or VFR

41. The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes
not less than ...... hours of cross-country flight time, of which not less than ...... hours
shall be as pilot-in command or co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot in
command, the duties and functions of a pilot in command, provided that the method of
supervision employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated hours are
respectively:
a) 250 hours and 10 hours
b) 200 hours and 100 hours
c) 150 hours and 75 hours
d) 200 hours and 75 hours
42. An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes
not less than:
` a) 150 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 75 hours of instrument
ground time.
b) 100 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours of instrument
ground time
c) 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours may be
instrument ground time.
d) 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20 hours of instrument
ground time.

43. An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes
not less than:
a) 75 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot
b) 100 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot
c) 100 hours of night flight only as pilot in command
d) 75 hours of night time only as pilot in command

44. An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio
communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:
a) 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz
b) 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz
c) 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz
d. 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz

45. An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the
rear on a line forming an angle of less than:
a) 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
b) 50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
c) 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
d) 80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter

46. Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an
aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for
an IFR flight:
a) At least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the aircraft's estimated position
b) At least 1000 feet within 5KM of the aircraft's estimated position
c) At least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the aircraft's estimated position
d) At least 2000 feet within 5KM of the aircraft's estimated position
47. Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by an
aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace?
a) 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of course
b) 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated position
of the aircraft
c) 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course
d) 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course

48. An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is forced to
divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with
ATS shall try to:
a) Fly the emergency triangle
b) Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet when
above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290
c) Declare an emergency
d) As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimize the
difference between cabin pressure and outside pressure

49. In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument departure
procedure?
a) Navigation aids.
b) ATC requirements.
c) The terrain surrounding the airport.
d) Airspace restrictions.

50. An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:

a) While taxiing, but not when it is being towed
b) Outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed
c) On the ground when the engines are running
d) Outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the daylight-period this is not
applicable

51. A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the average
True
Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that given in the flight plan
by plus or minus:
a) 5%
b) 3%
c) 2%
d) 10%

52. In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to:

a) Relevant runway threshold
b) Aerodrome reference point
c) Mean sea level
d) Aerodrome elevation
53. The proficiency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the previous
proficiency check was 30th of June. The period of the new proficiency check can be and
can’t exceed:
a) 30th of April the following year
b) 31st of December the same year
c) 15th of October the same year
d) 30th of October the same year

54. Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure
commence?
a) At the IAF.
b) At the IF.
c) At the FAF.
d) At the final en-route fix.

55. In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is called:

a) Base turn.
b) Shuttle.
c) Racetrack pattern.
d) Procedure turn.

56. In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for
landing are made is called:
a) Final approach segment.
b) Initial approach segment.
c) Intermediate approach segment.
d) Arrival segment.

57. In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the:
a) IF.
b) FAF.
c) MAP.
d) FAP.

58. What are the phases of a missed approach procedure?

a) Initial, intermediate and final.
b) Arrival, initial, intermediate and final.
c) Arrival, intermediate and final.
d) Initial and final.

59. A circling approach is:

a) A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC.
b) A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight.
c) A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring.
d) A contact flight manoeuvre.
60. In a standard holding pattern turns are made:
a) to the right
b) to the left
c) in a direction depending on the entry
d) in a direction depending on the wind direction

61. The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting from
QNH to standard setting 1013.25 hPa when passing:
a) The level specified by ATC.
b) Transition layer.
c) Transition level.
d) Transition altitude.

62. The transition level:

a) shall be the lowest available flight level above the transition altitude that has been
established
b) shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has
been established
c) for the aerodrome is published in the AGA section of the AIP
d) is calculated and decided by the commander

63. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is:
a) Control zone.
b) Control area.
c) Advisory airspace.
d) Flight Information Region.

64. A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified
upper limit is:
a) Air traffic zone.
b) Control area.
c) Control zone.
d) Advisory airspace.

65. The units providing Air Traffic Services are:

a) Area Control Centre - Advisory Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach
Control Office and Tower.
b) Area Control Centre - Approach Control Office and Aerodrome Control Tower.
c) Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office -
Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office.
d) Area Control Centre - Flight Information Region - Approach Control Office and
Tower.
66. The Approach Control Service is an air traffic control service:
a) provided for the arriving and departing controlled flights.
b) provided for IFR flights arriving and departing.
c) provided for IFR and VFR flights within a Control Zone.
d) provided for IFR traffic within a Control Zone.

67. Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of:
a) Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the
manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
b) Applying separation between aircraft and expediting and maintaining an orderly
flow of air traffic
c) Preventing collisions between controlled air traffic and expediting and
maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
d) Avoiding collisions between all aircraft and maintaining an orderly flow of air
traffic

68. The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done:
a) With the pilot's consent.
b) Automatically at the control zone boundary.
c) By agreement with the receiving unit.
d) Through a central control unit.

69. Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of:
a) Achieving separation between controlled flights
b) Providing flight Information Service
c) Providing advisory services
d) Providing alerting services

70. When are ATIS broadcasts updated?

a) Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported
values
b) Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR ; otherwise
hourly
c) Only when weather conditions change enough to require a change in the active
runway or instrument approach in use
d) Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value

71. Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated:

a) Immediately a significant change occurs
b) At least every half an hour independently of any significant change
c) As prescribed by the meteorological office
d) As prescribed by the state
72. When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert
phases is the responsibility of the:
a) Flight information or control organisations
b) Operational air traffic control centres
c) Air traffic co-ordination services
d) Search and rescue co-ordination centres
73. In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be amended
or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is:
a) 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.
b) 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.
c) 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.
d) 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.

74. A pilot receiving an IFR clearance from ATC should:

a) Read back those parts containing level assignments, vectors or any part requiring
verification.
b) Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation.
c) Read back the initial route clearance, level assignments and transponder codes.
d) Read back should be unsolicited.

75. If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft:

a) The pilot should propose another clearance to the ATC concerned.
b) He may request another clearance and the ATC concerned has to accept the pilot
request.
c) The pilot has to accept the ATC clearance because it has been based on the flight
plan filed with ATC.
d) He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance.

76. Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed as:
a) Prescribed by the aircraft operations.
b) Decided on pilot's discretion.
c) Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC.
d) The weather permits.

77. What are the controlled IFR separation methods applied by ATC?
a) Composite separation.
b) Vertical, horizontal and longitudinal separation.
c) Time separation and track separation.
d) Vertical, horizontal and composite separation.

78. For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated time of arrival is the
estimated time at which the aircraft:
a) will arrive overhead the initial approach fix.
b) will land.
c) will stop on the parking area.
d) will leave the initial approach fix to start the final approach.
79. According to international agreements wind direction shall be adjusted to the local
variation and given in degrees magnetic:
a) When an aircraft on the request by a meteorological watch office (MWO) or at
specified points transmits a PIRE
b) When the local variation exceeds 10° East or 10° West.
c) In upper wind forecast for areas north of lat 60° north or 60° south.
d) Before landing and take-off

80. In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be
applied when a medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are using
the same runway?
a) 3 minutes
b) 2 minutes
c) 4 minutes
d) 1 minute

81. What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light aircraft is taking
off behind a medium aircraft and both are using the same runway?
a) 1 minute
b) 3 minutes
c) 2 minutes
d) 5 minutes

82. Which does ATC Term "Radar contact" signify?

a) Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions
will be provided until radar identification is terminated.
b) Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft
while in contact with this radar facility.
c) You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been
terminated or that radar contact has been lost.
d) ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories
until you are advised that contact has been lost.

83. The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the pilot?
a) Position reports may be omitted
b) The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the aircraft
c) The aircraft is subject to positive control
d) The radar identity of the aircraft has been established

84. What is meant when departure control instruct you to "resume own navigation" after you
have been vectored to an airway?
a) You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment.
b) Radar Service is terminated.
c) Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC.
d) You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
85. Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the
airway and to "resume own navigation". This phrase means that:
a) You are to assume responsibility for your own navigation.
b) You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
c) Radar services are terminated and you will be responsible for position reports.
d) You are to contact the centre at the next reporting point.

86. The primary duty provided by a radar unit is:

a) To assist aircraft on the location storms.
b) To assist aircraft due to failure of airborne equipment.
c) To provide radar separation.
d) To assist aircraft where navigation appears unsatisfactory.

87. When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall:
a) Inform the aircraft only if radar identification has been achieved without
availability of SSR.
b) Inform the aircraft only if communication's load permits it.
c) not advise the aircraft before issuing instructions.
d) Inform the aircraft prior to issue any instructions or advice based on the use of
radar.

88. When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: "fly heading 030", the pilot
must fly heading:
a) 030° true
b) 030° magnetic in still air conditions (thereby flying the magnetic track)
c) 030° magnetic
d) 030° true, in still air conditions (thereby flying the true track)

89 In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to areas and/or
routes for which meteorological service is provided?
a) RAC.
b) GEN.
c) COM.
d) MET.

90 In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to refuelling

facilities and limitations on refuelling services?
a) GEN.
b) FAL.
c) AD.
d) SAR.
91 In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to prohibited,
restricted and dangerous areas?
a) MAP.
b) ENR.
c) GEN.
d) AGA.

92 In which chapter of the AIP can you find a list with "location indicators"?
a) AD
b) AGA
c) ENR
d) GEN

93. In the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the code element 2 shall identify:
a) The aircraft wing span and the outer main gear wheel span.
b) Only the aircraft wing span.
c) The width of the aircraft wing.
d) The length of the aircraft fuselage.

94 Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:

a) Flashing white.
b) Fixed green.
c) Flashing green.
d) Fixed white.

95. The runway edge lights shall be:

a) blue
b) white
c) green
d) red

96. The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage in
international flights is:
a) annex 6
b) annex 8
c) annex 9
d) annex 15

97. The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles on
international flights is:
a) annex 9
b) annex 8
c) annex 15
d) annex 16
98 For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary safeguards are
to be observed such as:
a) the boarding will be at the pilot in command's discretion
b) boarding after passengers
c) boarding prior to all passengers
d) the boarding has to be done at the state discretion

99. For which of the following are type ratings established?

a) Each type of multi-pilot aeroplane
b) Each type of a sinple-pilot multi-engine aeroplane fitted with turbine engines
c) Any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority
d) All the above answers are correct

100. For an ATPL(A), how many night hours are required?

a) 30
b) 75
c) 100
c) 150

101. Taxiway edge lights shall be:

a) Fixed showing yellow.
b) Fixed showing green.
c) Fixed showing blue.
d) Flashing showing blue.

102. If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is

published, the pilot is expected:
a) To request from ATC different heading for wind correction
b) To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace
c) To ignore the wind and proceed on an heading equal to the track
d) To request clearance from ATC for applying a wind correction

103. How many separate segments have an instrument approach procedure?

a) 5
b) 4
c) 6
d) 3

104. What are the CAT CAT II ILS criteria for instrument runway?
a) RVR ≥ 350 m DH not below 100 ft
b) RVR ≥ 200 m DH not below 100 ft
c) RVR ≥ 200 m DH not below 200 ft
d) RVR ≥ 200 m DH not below 200 ft
105. The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument
approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably
located for straight-in approach, is:
a) Visual approach.
b) Visual manoeuvring (circling).
c) Contact approach.
d) Aerodrome traffic pattern.
106. A Flight Information Region (FIR) is airspace within which the following services are
provided:
a) Flight Information Service; Alerting Service; Advisory Service
b) Flight Information Service only
c) Flight Information Service and Advisory Service
d) Flight Information Service and Alerting Service
107. ATS airspaces where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air
traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as:
a) Class E.
b) Class A.
c) Class D.
d) Class B.
109. In the "PAPI" system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest the
runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when:
a) Only on the approach slope.
b) Above the approach slope.
c) Below the approach slope.
d) On or close to the approach slope.

110. An aircraft wheel gets stuck in the mud whilst taxiing to the runway for take-off and
sustains damage. Is this:
a) an accident
b) an incident
c) a serious incident
d) a normal operating hazard

111. An applicant for a CPL must have what class of medical?

a) Class as specified by the state to which the applicant is applying
b) Class I
c) Class II
d) Class III

112. 'Standards' referred to in the Annexes to the Chicago Convention are:

a) Mandatory for all contracting States
b) Advice for the guidance of member states
c) Regarded as necessary for the safety and regularity of international air
navigation
d) Mandatory for airlines with international routes
113. When you are over 40 and the holder of an ATPL(A), how often are you required to have
a medical examination?
a) The 12 month period reduces to 6 months
b) The 24 month period reduces to 12 months
c) The 6 month period reduces to 3 months
d) The 9 month period reduces to 3 months

114. In areas where a vertical separation minimum of 1,000 feet is applied up to FL410 VFR
flights are not authorised above:
a) FL190
b) FL200
c) FL240
d) FL290

115. On an IFR flight you experience a total communications failure in conditions of no cloud
and unlimited visibility. The correct action would be:
a) continue to destination in VMC
b) descend to the en route MSA and land at the nearest suitable IFR aerodrome.
c) land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC immediately.
d) continue under IFR and follow the flight plan as closely as possible.

116. Do all runways require centreline markings ?

a) yes, but temporary grass runways may be exempt if less than 1200 m long
b) no, only instrument runways
c) no, only paved runways
d) no, only runways over 50 m wide

117. The Alerting Service is provided by:

a) The ATS responsible for the aircraft at that time
b) The ATC unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment, when it is provided with
121.5MHz
c) Only by ATC units
d) The Area Control Centres.

118. The temporary long-term changes (3 months or more) and short term extensive changes
or changes involving graphical information are published as:
a) Trigger NOTAMs
b) AIP amendments
c) AIP supplements
d) NOTAMs

119. What is the primary reason for Radar in ATC?

a) Separation
b) Helping when communications have failed
c) To assist pilots with technical problems
d) To assist pilots of aircraft that are lost
120. If a person attempts to enter a state for which a visa is required by doesn't have one, who
Is responsible for returning that person to his state of residency?
a) The Operator
b) The Authority of the State of attempted entry
c) The police in the State of attempted entry
d) ICAO

121. If for any reasons a pilot is unable to conform to the procedures for normal conditions
laid down for any particular holding pattern, he should:
a) advise ATC as early as possible.
b) execute a non-standard holding pattern in accordance with the performance of his
aeroplane.
c) remain within the protected area, but may deviate from the prescribed holding.
d) follow the radio communication failure procedure.

122. Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of:
a) Achieving separation between IFR flights
b) Achieving separation between controlled flights
c) Providing advisory service
d) Providing flight Information Service

123. Who is responsible for the initiation of an accident investigation?

a) The Authority of the State in which the accident took place.
b) The Operators of the same aircraft type.
c) The aircraft manufacturer.
d) The State of design and manufacturer.

124. What is the Annex of the Chicago Convention that covers Security?
a) Annex 14
b) Annex 15
c) Annex 16
d) Annex 17