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URINARY SYSTEM
Which of the following is not a function of the urinary system?
A. Removal of waste products from the bloodstream.
B. Storage and excretion of urine.
C. Regulation of leukocyte and platelet production.
D. Regulation of blood volume and, indirectly, blood pressure.

All of the following structures are components of the urinary system except.
A. Kidneys.
B. Ureters.
C. Urethra.
D. Gallbladder.

Which sequence correctly traces the path of urine after it leaves the kidneys?
A. Ureters, urinary bladder, urethra.
B. Urinary bladder, ureters, urethra.
C. Urethra, urinary bladder, ureters.
D. Urinary bladder, urethra, ureters.

What structure rests on the superior pole of each kidney?

A. Spleen.
B. Trasverse colon.
C. Adrenal gland.
D. Duodenum.

The four tissue layers surrounding and supporting the kidneys are the:
A. Fibrous capsule, perinephric fat, renal fascia, and paranephric fat
B. Tunica intima, tunica media, tunica externa, and adventitia.
C. Fibrous capsule, adipose capsule, renal capsule, and suspensory ligaments.
D. Major calyces, minor calyces, renal fascia, and renal cortex.
The outer layer of the kidney, just internal to the fibrous capsule, is the renal:
A. Medulla.
B. Column.
C. Pelvis.
D. Cortex.

In a typical adult kidney, the renal ____________ is subdivided into 8 to 15 distinct conical or
triangular structures known as renal ____________.:
A. Cortex; papillae.
B. Medulla; pyramids.
C. Medulla; columns.
D. Cortex, lobes.

Which term describes the tip of a renal pyramid that projects toward the renal sinus?
A. Minor calyx
B. Major calyx.
C. Renal papilla.
D. Renal column.

Blood vessels, nerves, and the ureter connect to the kidney at a prominent medial indentation
known as the:
A. Hilum.
B. Mediastinum.
C. Renal sinus.
D. Renal pelvis.

What is the functional filtration unit in the kidney?

A. Renal tubule.
B. Renal corpuscle
C. Nephron.
D. Glomerolous.
Components of a nephron include:
A. Renal corpuscule.
B. Proximal and distal convoluted tubules.
C. A nephron loop
D. All the above.

Components of a renal corpuscle include:

A. A glomerulus and glomerular capsule.
B. Visceral and parietal layers of a renal capsule.
C. A renal tubule.
D. All the above.

In various nephrons, ____________ form a network around the convoluted tubules; surrounding
the nephron loop are capillaries called the ____________.
A. Vasa recta; peritubular capillaries.
B. Peritubular capillaries; interlobular capillaries.
C. Peritubular capillaries; vasa recta.
D. Vasa recta; interlobular capillaries.

Nephrons with nephron loops that barely penetrate the renal medulla are called:
A. Non-functional nephrons.
B. Dystrophic nephrons.
C. Cortical nephrons.
D. Juxtamedullary nephrons.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a juxtamedullary nephron?

A. The entire nephron is located in the superficial cortex of the kidney.
B. The renal corpuscle comprises a glomerulus and a glomerular capsule.
C. Blood arrives at the glomerular capillaries via an afferent arteriole
D. The proximal convoluted tubule leads into a long nephron loop.
Glomerular capillaries are characterized by all of the following except:
A. Blood under relatively high pressure, from afferent arterioles.
B. An endothelium with an unusually thin basement membrane.
C. A fenestrated endothelium that allows materials to be filtered.
D. An epithelial covering of podocytes with pedicels and filtration slits.

Arrange the following to trace the path of filtrate through a renal tubule: (1) proximal convoluted
tubule (2) distal convoluted tubule (3) ascending limb of nephron loop (4) descending limb of
nephron loop:
A. 1, 2, 3, 4.
B. 2, 3, 4, 1.
C. 1, 4, 3, 2.
D. 3, 2, 1, 4.

From which part of the renal tubule are 60-65% of the water and virtually all nutrients,
electrolytes, and plasma proteins reabsorbed into the blood?
A. Proximal convoluted tubule.
B. Distal convoluted tubule.
C. Ascending limb of nephron loop.
D. Descending limb of nephron loop.

Which part of the renal tubule is lined throughout its length by a simple cuboidal epithelium with
sparse, short microvilli and extensive infoldings of basolateral membrane?
A. Proximal convoluted tubule.
B. Distal convoluted tubule.
C. Ascending thin limb of nephron loop.
D. Descending thin limb of nephron loop.
Hydrogen and potassium ions are secreted into the tubular fluid in the:
A. Renal corpuscle.
B. Collecting duct.
C. Nephron loop.
D. Distal convoluted tubule.
Which sequence correctly traces the flow of tubular fluid after it leaves the nephrons?
A. Papillary ducts, collecting tubules, collecting ducts.
B. Collecting tubules, collecting ducts, papillary ducts.
C. Papillary ducts, collecting ducts, collecting tubules.
D. Collecting ducts, collecting tubules, papillary ducts.

Innervation of the kidneys functions to:

A. Regulate glomerular blood flow and filtrate formation.
B. Stimulate the release of renin by juxtaglomerular cells.
C. Refer pain to the spinal medulla via the sympathetic pathway.
D. All of the above.

Which type of epithelium lines the ureters and urinary bladder?

A. Simple cuboidal
B. Simple columnar.
C. Transitional (Uroepithelium).
D. Stratified squamous.

Each ureter originates at the renal ____________ as it exits the hilum of its respective kidney.
A. Sinus.
B. Renal pelvis.
C. Papilla.
D. Pyramid.

The hollow, muscular organ that temporarily stores urine is the….?

A. Trigone.
B. Destrusor.
C. Prostata.
D. Urinary bladder.
Most of the mucosa of the urinary bladder is thrown into folds called ____________ that allow for
extreme distension.
A. Trigones.
B. Plicae.
C. Rugae.
D. Fimbriae.

Which sequence correctly traces the flow of urine after it leaves the urinary bladder in a male?
A. Prostatic urethra, membranous urethra, penile (spongy) urethra.
B. Membranous urethra, prostatic urethra, penile (spongy) urethra.
C. Ureter, membranous urethra, prostatic urethra, spongy urethra.
D. Renal pelvis, ureter, prostatic urethra, penile urethra.

Which one of the following does not characterize the micturition reflex?
A. Distension of bladder stimulates stretch receptors in bladder wall.
B. Impulses from stretch receptors signal the micturition center.
C. Parasympathetic stimulation causes detrusor muscle to contract.
D. Internal urethral sphincter relaxes under conscious, voluntary control.

The micturition reflex is centered in the _____.:

A. Medulla.
B. Sacral cord.
C. Hypothalamus.
D. Lumbar cord.

What causes urine to flow from the kidneys to the bladder?

A. Gravity.
B. Hydrostatic pressure.
C. Peristalsis.
D. Osmotic pressure.
Which structure is the first to collect the urine?
A. Renal pelvis.
B. Urether.
C. Calix.
D. Urethra.

The outermost covering of the kidney is the _____.?

A. Medulla.
B. Renal pelvis
C. Capsule.
D. Cortex.

The kidney secretes _____ for the purpose of stimulating bone marrow activity.
A. Renin.
B. Aldosterone.
C. Erythropoietin.
D. Somatomedin.

The kidney secretes _____ which is an enzyme-hormone which raises blood pressure
A. Aldosterone.
B. Angiotensinogen.
C. Renin.
D. Vasopressin.

What is the function of the renal system?

A. Maintain blood pH.
B. Regulate bllod pressure.
C. Control blood osmotic pressure.
D. All the above.
The renal corpuscle is comprised of a glomerulus and _____.
A. Proximal convoluted tubule.
B. Bowman´s capsule.
C. Henle´s loop.
D. Distal convoluted tubule.

Which area actually secretes renin into the blood?

A. Macula densa.
B. Justaglomerular appartus.
C. Justaglomerular cells.
D. Cortical nephron.

Which blood vessel conveys blood out of the nephron?

A. Efferent arteriole.
B. Peritubular capillaries.
C. Interlobular arteries.
D. Vasa recta.

Which blood vessels surround the loops of Henle?

A. Efferent arteriole.
B. Peritubular capillaries.
C. Interlobular arteries.
D. Vasa recta.

Which process is most affected by blood pressure?

A. Tubular secretion.
B. Tubular reabsorption.
C. Glomerular filtration.
D. Loop of Henle diffusion.
Which of these has the highest concentration in the urine?
A. Glucose.
B. Sodium.
C. Uric acid.
D. Phosphate.

Tubular reabsorption occurs from the nephron tubules into the _____.
A. Loop of Henle
B. Peritubular capillaries.
C. Renal corpuscle of Malpighi.
D. Renal pyramid.

Where are most microvilli found?

A. Loop of Henle.
B. Distal convoluted tubule.
C. Proximal convoluted tubule.
D. Collecting duct.

The action of aldosterone is to increase _____.

A. Sodium elimination.
B. Sodium reabsorption.
C. Potassium reabsorption.
D. Chloride excretion.

The countercurrent multiplier mechanism occurs at the _____.?

A. Proximal convoluted tubule.
B. Loop of Henle.
C. Distal convoluted tubule.
D. Collecting ducts.
The fluid in the descending limb of the loop of Henle is _____ relative to the capillaries.
A. Isotonic
B. Weakly hypotonic.
C. Strongly hypotonic.
D. Hypertonic.

The function of the countercurrent multiplier is to _____.

A. Increase the concentration of NaCl.
B. Decrease the concentration of NaCl.
C. Change the blood levels of K+.
D. Conserve K+.

What effect does ADH (antidiuretic hormone) have on urine volume?

A. Minimal.
B. Increases.
C. Manteins.
D. Decreases.

Where does ADH have its greatest effect?

A. Loop of Henle.
B. Proximal convoluted tubule.
C. Distal convoluted tubule.
D. Corpuscle of Malpighi.

Renal secretion of a compound usually occurs from the _____ into the distal convoluted tubule.
A. Loop of Henle.
B. Glomerulus.
C. Vasa recta.
D. Peritubular capillaries.
The compound used to assess the function of the kidney at the level of the glomerulus is _____.
A. Creatinine.
B. Inulin.
C. Para-aminohippuric acid.
D. Creatine.

Eating large amounts of meat will increase the levels of _____ in the blood?

A. Protein.
B. Creatinine.
C. Urea.
D. Uric acid.

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
Which of these is true of the endocrine system but not the nervous system?
A. Secretes hormones that are transported to target cells by blood.
B. Causes changes in metabolic activities.
C. Effects are prolonged.
D. All of these are true of the endocrine system and not the nervous system.

The primary target of the releasing and inhibiting hormones of the hypothalamus is the
______________.
A. Liver and adipose tissue.
B. Gonads.
C. Anterior pituitary.
D. Bone marrow.
The adenohypophysis consists of two parts in the adult, the pars distalis and the
______________.
A. Pars intermedia.
B. Pars tuberalis.
C. Pars tuberosa.
D. Infundibulum.
The pituitary hormone called _______________ stimulates the male testes to produce sperm
and stimulates the development of the follicle in the female on a monthly cycle.
A. Growth hormone (somatotropin).
B. Luteinizing hormone (LH).
C. Prolactin (PRL).
D. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH).

Where are oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone produced?

A. In the posterior pituitary.
B. In the anterior pituitary.
C. In the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus.
D. In the thalamus.

What portion of the thyroid produces the hormone calcitonin?

A. Parafollicular cells.
B. Follicular cells.
C. Colloid.
D. Parathyriod cells.

How do hormones from the thyroid and parathyroid regulate the calcium concentration of the
blood?
A. Calcitonin lowers blood calcium; parathyroid hormone raises blood calcium.
B. Parathyroid hormone lowers blood calcium; calcitonin raises blood calcium.
C. Thyroxine and triiodothyronine together regulate calcium levels, as needs dictate.
D. Both parathroid hormone and the three thyroid hormones function to regulate blood calcium
levels.
The mineralocorticoids produced by the adrenal glands are produced within the
___________________.?
A. Zona fasciculata.
B. Zona glomerulosa.
C. Zona reticularis.
D. Chromaffin cells.

Which hormones of the adrenal glands supplement the sex hormones from the gonads?
A. Mineralocorticoids, such as aldosterone.
B. Glucocorticoids, such as cortisol.
C. Gonadocorticoids, such as the androgens.
D. Epinephrine and norepinephrine.

What hormone does the pineal gland secrete?

A. Oxytocine.
B. Thymosin.
C. Secretin.
D. Melatonin.

Inadequate secretion of antidiuretic hormone results is a very serious condition known as

__________________.
A. Diabetes insipidus.
B. Diabetes mellitus.
C. Panhypopituitarism.
D. Acromegalia.

The endocrine gland(s) referred to as the “master gland” is the:

A. Pancreas.
B. Adrenal glands.
C. Thyroid gland.
D. Pituitary gland.
The only endocrine glands that lay dormant during childhood to activate at puberty are the:
A. Pancreas.
B. Adrenal glands.
C. Thyroid gland.
D. Ovaries and testes.

The hormone Progesterone causes what to occur in women?

A. Follicle development.
B. Development of the uterine lining.
C. Spermatogenesis.
D. Female development of sex characteristics.

Hypersecretion of Thyroxin would be caused by an increase in the release of:

A. FSH or LH.
B. STHRH or STH.
C. TSH or ACTH.
D. TRH or TSH.

Which is not a function of cortisol?

A. Convert aminoacids to glucose.
B. Convert fats to fatty acids.
C. Increase blood sugar levels in response to stress.
D. Increase glucose uptake by muscles.

Mainly which type of hormones control the menstrual cycle in human beings
A. FSH.
B. LH.
C. Estrogens, FSH and LH.
D. Progesterone.
Which hormone has an anti-insulin effect?
A. Cortisol.
B. Aldosterone.
C. Calcitonin.
D. Oxytocin.

A person is having problems with calcium and phosphorous metabolism in his body. Which one of
the following glands may not be functioning properly?
A. Parotid.
B. Pancreas.
C. Thyroid.
D. Parathyroid.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the endocrine system?

A. Products secreted into blood.
B. Glands with ducts.
C. Secretes hormones.
D. All of the following are characteristics of the endocrine system.

What cell type secrets ACTH?

A. Lactotropic cells.
B. Thyrotropic cells.
C. Somatotropic cells.
D. Corticotropic cells.

Which gland secretes melatonin?

A. Pituitary.
B. Thyroid.
C. Pineal gland.
D. Adrenal gland (cortex).
Which cell type are involved in the secretion of thyroglobulin?
A. Oxyphil cell.
B. Parafollicular cell.
C. Follicular cells.
D. Chromaffin cells.

Which part the adrenal gland secretes glucocorticoids?

A. Chromaffin cells.
B. Zona fasciculata.
C. Zona reticularis.
D. Zona glomerulosa.

What connects the pituitary to the hypothalamus?

A. Pars intermedia.
B. Infundibulum.
C. Adenohypophysis.
D. Pars tuberalis.

Which of the following is not part of the adenohypophysis?

A. Pars intermedia.
B. Pars nervosa.
C. Pars distalis.
D. Pars tuberalis.

Which gland secrets calcitonin?

A. Thyroid.
B. Neurohypohysis.
C. Pineal gland.
D. Adrenal medulla.
What are the cells of the pineal gland called?
A. Follicular cells.
B. Magnocellular cells.
C. Pinealocytes.
D. PP cells.

What are tropic hormones secreted from?

A. Infundibulum.
B. Arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus.
C. Pars intermedia.
D. Adenohypophysis.

What type of hormone is prolactin?

A. Protein.
B. Steroid.
C. Cathecholamine.
D. Modified amino acid.

Which gland secretes epinephrine?

A. Adrenal medulla.
B. Adenohypophysis.
C. Adrenal cortex.
D. Pineal gland.

Which of the following is the middle layer of adrenal cortex?

A. Zona relicularis.
B. Zona glomerulosa.
C. Zona fasciculata.
D. Chromaffin cells.
FEMALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
What is the inner part of the ovary?
A. Follicle.
B. Germinal epithelium.
C. Medulla.
D. Tunica albuginea.

Which stage of the follicle is arrested in prophase?

A. Primordial follicle.
B. Primary follicle.
C. Mature follicle.
D. Garffian follicle.

What is the cavity within a secondary follicle?

A. Graafian follicle.
B. Theca folliculi.
C. Antrum.
D. Granulosa layer.

During the first week to 10 days, what is the main hormone which stimulates the growth of the
follicles?
A. FSH.
B. LH.
C. HGC (gonado chorionic hormone)
D. Progesterone.

What is the female organ called where gametogenesis occurs?

A. Ovary.
B. Oocyte.
C. Fimbria
D. Uterus.
Which stage of the follicle is marked by the surrounding of flattened (squamous) follicular cells
becoming cuboidal?
A. Primordial follicle.
B. Primary follicle.
C. Secondary follicle.
D. Graafian follicle.

Which structure contains the oocyte?

A. Follicle.
B. Germinal epithelium.
C. Medulla.
D. Tunica albuginea.

Ovulation is triggered by a dramatic increase in which hormone?

A. LH.
B. HGC (gonado chorionic hormone).
C. Estrogen.
D. Progesterone.

The following statements are comparisons of male and female reproduction; choose the
statement that is incorrect.
A. The reproductive organs of both sexes are homologous.
B. Both sexes have reproductive capabilities throughout adulthood.
C. Both systems experience latent development.
D. Both systems have gonads that produce gametes and sex hormones

When does the oogonia begin meiosis I in the female?

A. At puberty.
B. Monthly during menstruation.
C. At age 20.
D. Toward the end of gestation of the female fetus.
What reproductive organ(s) of the female secretes fluid for vaginal lubrication during coitus?
A. Uterine tubes.
B. Labia majora.
C. Vestibular glands.
D. Pudendal cleft.

In what part of the breast is milk stored before draining at the tip of the nipple?
A. Areola.
B. Mammary alveoli.
C. Lactiferous sinus.
D. Mammary ducts.

During the _________________ phase of menstruation, the lining of the uterus rebuilds.
In what part of the breast is milk stored before draining at the tip of the nipple?
A. Menstrual.
B. Proliferative.
C. Secretory.
D. The lining of the uterus rebuilds continually.

MALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

Which cells produce testosterone?
A. Interstitial Leydig cells.
B. Spermatogonia.
C. Sertoli cells.
D. Sustentacular cells.

Which of the following are produced by the Sertoli cell.

A. Inhibin.
B. Androgen binding protein.
C. Testosterone.
D. Both A and B.
Which of the following is NOT considered part of the male genital duct system?
A. Rete testis.
B. Ductus deferens.
C. Ductus epididymis.
D. Seminal vesicles.

What is the surface modifications seen on the cells of the epididymis?

A. Stereocilia.
B. Microvilli.
C. Cilia.
D. Keratinization.

What type of hormone is testosterone?

A. Protein.
B. Amino acid chain.
C. Steroid.
D. Catecholamine.

Which of the following is true?

A. There is one corpus cavernosa and one corpus spongiosum.
B. There is one corpus cavernosa and two corpus spongiosum.
C. There is two corpus cavernosa and one corpus spongiosum.
D. There is two corpus cavernosa and two corpus spongiosum.

What gland in the male is homologous to the greater vestibular gland in the female?
A. Bertholin´s gland.
B. Prostate gland.
C. Skene´s gland.
D. Cowper´s gland.
What is the most commonly seen type of epithelium in the prostate?
A. Simple columnar.
B. Transitional (Uroepithelium)
C. Stratified squamous.
D. Simple squamous.

What type of epithelium lines the epididymis?

A. Pseudostratified.
B. Simple columnar.
C. Stratified squamous.
D. Simple cuboidal.

Of the following male organs, which one is considered a primary sex organ?
A. Ejaculatory ducts.
B. Gonads (Testes).
C. Penis.
D. Seminal vesicle.

The ________________ are the site of sperm maturation, and they store and convey
spermatozoa to the ductus deferens.
A. Interstitial cells of the testes.
B. Ejaculatory ducts.
C. Bulbourethral glands.
D. Epididymus.

Which of these is NOT an action of the male androgens?

A. Deposition of subcutaneous fat on the hips and thighs.
B. Growth of bone and muscle.
C. Growth of facial and axillary hair.
D. Development of male external genitalia.
The ____________________ are the first haploid cells during the process of spermatogenesis.
A. Spermatogonia.
B. Primary spermatocytes.
C. Secondary spermatocytes.
D. Spermatides.

What is spermiogenesis?
A. Spermiogenesis is another name for the process of puberty.
B. Spermiogenesis is the sequence of events that leads to the production of spermatozoa.
C. Spermiogenesis is the reabsorbing of sperm that are not ejaculated.
D. Spermiogenesis is the conversion of spermatids to spermatozoa.

Choose the correct order for the path of sperm from the testes to outside the body :

A. Ductus deferens - epididymis - ejaculatory duct - penis.

B. Epididymis - ductus deferens - ejaculatory duct - penis.
C. Ejaculatory duct - ductus deferens - epididymis - penis.
D. Penis - ejaculatory duct - epididymis - ductus deferens.

What does the prostate gland secrete into the semen?

A. Alkaline secretion to aid the survival of sperm in the acidic atmosphere of the female
reproductive tract.
B. Acid phosphatase.
C. Thin milky liquid that helps sperm become motile.
D. All of these are secretions of the prostate.

SPECIAL SENSORIAL ORGANS (EYE)

Sequence of the eye covering (outer to inner) is?
A. Conjuctiva, choroid, and sclerotic.
B. Retina, choroid, and sclerotic.
C. Choroid, retina, and sclerotic.
D. Sclerotic, choroid, and retina.
The part of the eye acting like a photographic camera is?
A. Iris.
B. Pupil.
C. Lens.
D. Ciliary body.

The eye membrane which prevents the reflection of the extra light within the eye, by absorbing it
is called?
A. Cornea.
B. Retina.
C. Sclera.
D. Choroid.

Defieciency in Vitamin A in the body results in insufficient rodopshine in the rods which leads to?
A. Colour blindness.
B. Total blindness.
C. Night blindness.
D. Myopia.

The focal length of the eye is controlled by?

A. Iris muscles.
B. Cornea.
C. Ciliary body (or ciliary process).
D. Pupil.

Where the optic nerve leaves the eye, the retina has not rods and cones and the images failing in
this are cannot be perceived. This area is referred to as the?
A. Yellow spot.
B. Black spot.
C. White spot.
D. Blind spot.
Which of the following are true about the iris?
A. It contains pigmented epithelium on its anterior surface.
B. It contains melanocytes in the posterior epithelium that determines the iris color.
C. The constrictor dilator muscle is innervated by the sympathetic system.
D. The dilator muscle is innervated by the parasympathetic system.

Which of the following is a space rather than an anatomical structure?

A. Pupil.
B. Iris.
C. Cornea.
D. Choroid.

What is true about the fovea?

A. The fovea centralis contains more cones than rods.
B. The fovea centralis contains more rods than cones.
C. The fovea centralis contains only rods while cones are absent.
D. None is true.

Clouding of the lens is known as?

A. Cataracts.
B. Open angle glaucoma.
C. Close angle glaucoma.
D. Scleroderma.

The whites of the eye are?

A. Sclera.
B. Cornea.
C. Iris.
D. Retina.
The anterior chamber of the eyeball is filled with?
A. Aequous humor.
B. Vitrous humor.
C. Lymph.
D. Interstitial fluid.

Which feature of the retina is responsible for color vision?

A. Rods.
B. Cones.
C. Pigmented cells.
D. Amacrine cells.

Which feature of the retina is responsible for color vision?

A. Rods.
B. Cones.
C. Pigmented cells.
D. Amacrine cells.

Which of the following is responsible for the physiological blind spot?

A. Optic disc.
B. Macula lutea.
C. Fovea centralis.
D. Optic nerve.

In the cornea, the layer that is critical for normal function is?
A. The epithelium.
B. The epidermis.
C. The corneal stroma.
D. The endothelium.
The structure which connects the eye to the brain like a fiber-optic cable is?
A. The retina.
B. The optic nerve.
C. The fovea.
D. The optic chiasma.

Of the intrinsic (smooth) muscles within the eye, the ________________ causes the pupil to
become larger.
A. Ciliary muscle.
B. Medial rectus muscle.
C. Pupillary constrictor muscle.
D. Pupillary dilator muscle.

The choroid of the eye carries out each of these functions, with the exception of
________________.
A. Houses blood vessels to carry nutrients and remove wastes.
B. Holding the pigmented layer of the retina to keep light rays from bouncing within the eye.
C. Housing the photoreceptors.
D. All of these are functions of the choroid.

Between the scala vestibuli and scala tympani of the cochlea is the ______________, a triangular
middle chamber filled with endolymph and housing the spiral organ.
A. Membranous ampulla.
B. Cochlear duct.
C. Semicircular canal.
D. Cupula.
______________ afflicts the inner ear and may cause both hearing loss and equilibrium
disturbance as the autonomic nervous system constricts vessels in the inner ear.
A. Acute purulent otitis media.
B. Otosclerosis.
C. Ménier´s disease.
D. Strabism.

Taste buds are found only in the _______________ and _____________ papillae.
A. Circumvallate; fungiform.
B. Circumvallate; filiform.
C. Fungiform; filiform.
D. Posterior; filiform.

What is a concave, disk-like structure with invaginated portion pointed in toward the middle ear
space?
A. Mastoid.
B. Stapes.
C. Tympanic membrane.
D. Scala vestibuli.

What are the 3 functions of the external ear?

A. Impedance matching, Localization, Protection.
B. Protection, Amplification, Localization.
C. Protection, Amplification, Pressure Equalization.
D. None of all the above.

What the ossicles are?

A. Cells in the olfactory bulb.
B. Small bones in the middle ear.
C. Fluid filled Canals that extend into the cochlea.
D. Fine hairs on the basilar membrane.
Where is the tectorial membrane found?
A. Outer ear.
B. The brain (just about the cribifrom plate).
C. Middle ear.
D. Inner ear.

What structure separates the scala tympani from the scala media?
A. Basilar membrane.
B. Organ of Corti.
C. Tympanic membrane.
D. Tectorial membrane.

Which of the following is NOT a basic taste sensation of the tongue?

A. Bitter.
B. Sweet.
C. Sour.
D. Hot.

Inner ear is a mesh up of semi-circular canals and….?

A. Cochlea.
B. Anvil.
C. Hammer.
D. Icicles.

Which of the following is not one of the auditory ossicles?

A. Ampulla.
B. Incus.
C. Malleus.
D. Staple.
Which of the following is not responsible for vestibular mechanism?
A. Cochlea.
B. Cristae ampullaris.
C. Macula sacculi.
D. Maculla utriculi.

The membranous labyrinth contains:

A. Aequous fluid derived from blood.
B. Lymph.
C. Perilymph.
D. Endolymph.

What is a characteristic of the cochlea?

A. Perilimph.
B. Cristae ampullaris.
C. Glycoprotein layer cupula.
D. Tectorial membrane.

Which of the following is not part of the middle ear?

A. Auditory ossicles.
B. Auditory (Eustachian) tube.
C. Auricle.
D. Tympanic membrane.

The macula utriculi and macula sacculi penetrate into a gelatinous mass that has calcium
carbonate crystals called?
A. Cristae ampullaris.
B. Endolymph.
C. Otolith.
D. Ossicles
Which of the following is found in the spiral organ (organ of Corti)?
A. Afferent and efferent nerve terminals.
B. Sensory and supportive cells.
C. Tectorial membrane.
D. All of the above.

The bony labyrinth contains….

A. Ligaments.
B. Vacular connetive tissue.
C. Perilymph.
D. Endolymph.

How do the senses of smell and taste differ?

A. They differ in the types of receptors they employ.
B. They differ in the reproductive rate of the receptors.
C. They differ in their rate of sensory adaptation.
D. They do not both employ cilia or hair-like extension of their receptor cells.

The chamber that actually houses the hearing receptors is the __________________.
A. Vestibule.
B. Semicircular canal.
C. Scala tympani.
D. Cochlear duct.

After the inner ear has detected vibrations caused by sound, how is the energy dissipated?
A. Perilymph inside the scala tympani absorbs the sound wave energy.
B. Endolymph inside the cochlear duct absorbs sound wave energy.
C. Air inside the middle ear dissipates the forces caused by vibrations.
D. Perilymph inside the scala vestibuli absorbs sound wave energy.
The organs of static equilibrium are located within the ______________ and employ shifting of
___________ to set up nerve impulses
A. semicircular canals; gelatinous material.
B. vestibule; otoliths.
C. cochlea; fluid.
D. vestibule; crista ampullaris.

Objects are perceived by photoreceptors because the rods or cones _______________ as their
_________________ in the presence of light.
A. depolarize; pigments are manufactured.
B. hyperpolarize; pigments decompose.
C. repolarize; pigments remain unchanged.
D. depolarize; pigments decompose.

The actual receptors for hearing and balance are _______.

A. Chemoreceptors.
B. Otoliths.
C. Cochlear cells.
D. Hair cells.

Which is the last structure to vibrate in this sequence?

A. Malleus.
B. Oval window.
C. Stapes.
D. Incus.

Sound waves travel from the air to the tympanic membrane by way of the..?
A. Pinna.
B. Auditory (Eustachian) duct.
C. External auditory meatus.
D. Cochlear duct.
Sounds of very low frequency do not stimulate the sense of hearing because:
A. They do not vibrate the tympanic membrane.
B. They are not transmitted by the auditory ossicles.
C. Pressure waves in the perilymph pass through the helicotrema (round window) and
dissipate without stimulating the basilar membrane.
D. Low frequency vibrations are absorbed by compression of the perilymph.

Louder sounds are discriminated from quieter sounds on the basis:

A. How much the stereocilia of the hair cells are bent.
B. How often the stereocilia of the hair cells are bent.
C. Which region of the organ of Corti vibrates the most.
D. How many hair cells respond to the stimulus.

The brain can distinguish high pitched sounds from low pitched sounds because high pitched
sounds:
A. Cause a higher amplitude of vibration of the organ of Corti.
B. Vibrate the base (proximal) part of the organ of Corti more than the apex (distal) part.
C. Vibrate the distal part of the organ of Corti more than the proximal part.
D. Stimulate the inner hair cells more than the outer hair cells.

QUESTIONNAIRE (Themes 11th to 14th):

1. Describe schematically the ovarian cycle indicating the oscillations of the levels of
hormones involved.

2. Describe schematically the cycle of changes that suffer the endometrium during the
menstrual cycle.

3. Draw the eye wall coats and indicate the gross anatomy of the eye.
4. What is the physiological function of the hypophyseal portal veins? What hormones
does it carry out and where?

5. What is a nephron? Draw it indicating briefly the main anatomic components and their
function in the formation of urine.

6. What is the Hypothalamus-Pituitary-Adrenocortical axis of stress? Depict it using a

drawing.

7. What is the male gonad? Describe its endocrine cells, what hormones they produce and
how their release is regulated.

8. What the endolymph fluid is, where it is found and what its role is?

9. What is a renal lobe? Describe its main anatomical components.

10. What is the difference between a taste papillae and taste bud?

11. What is the vestibular organ and how it works?