2 FT-02

PART-I: PHYSICS

Section-A (1) 0.052 cm (2) 0.52 cm

(3) 0.026 cm (4) 0.26 cm
1. The root mean square velocity of molecules of gas is
[NCERT-XI, Page-330 / N-250]
(1) Proportional to square of temperature (T2). 8. Acceleration due to gravity is 'g' on the suface of the earth.
(2) Inversely proportional to square root of temperature The value of acceleration due to gravity at a height of
32 km above earth's surface is (Radius of the earth
1
. = 6400 km) [NCERT-XI, Page-189 / N-133]
T (1) 0.9 g (2) 0.99 g (3) 0.8 g (4) 1.01 g
(3) Proportional to square root of temperature T.
(4) Proportional to temperature (T). 9. A current of 10 A is flowing in a wire of length 1.5 m. A
2. The liquid meniscus in capillary tube will be convex, if the force of 15 N acts on it when it is placed in a uniform
angle of contact is [NCERT-XI, Page-267 / N-195] magnetic field of 2 T. The angle between the magnetic
(1) Greater than 90° (2) Less than 90° field and the direction of the current is
(3) Equal to 90° (4) Equal to 0° [NCERT-XII, Page-136 / N-110]
(1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) 90°
3. The current flowing through an ac circuit is given by
I = 5sin (120pt) A
How long will the current take to reach the peak value 10. In the figure shown here, what is the equivalent focal
starting from zero? [NCERT-XII, Page-234 / N-178] length of the combination of lenses (Assume that all layers
1 1 1 are thin)? [NCERT-XII, Page-329 / N-237, 238 | NEET 2023]
(1) s (2) 60s (3) s (4) s
60 120 240 n1 = 1.5
4. The magnetic flux through a coil perpendicular to its plane
is varying according to the relation f = (5t3 + 4t2 + 2t – 5)
R1 = R2 = 20 cm
Weber. If the resistant of the coil is 5 ohm, then the induced
R1
current through the coil at t = 2 sec will be: R2
[NCERT-XII, Page-208 / N-158] n2 = 1.6
(1) 15.6A (2) 16.6A (3) 17.6A (4) 18.6A
(1) 40 cm (2) –40 cm
5. The magnetic field of a plane electromagnetic wave is (3) –100 cm (4) –50 cm
ur
given by: B = 2 ´ 10-8 sin (0.5 ´ 103 x + 1.5 ´ 1011 t ) ˆj T .
11. Given below are two statement :
The amplitude of the electric field would be: Statement I : If the number of turns in the coil of a moving
[NCERT-XII, Page-276 / N-207] coil galvanometer is doubled then the current sensitivity
(1) 6 Vm–1 along x-axis (2) 3 Vm–1 along z-axis becomes double.
(3) 6 Vm–1 along z-axis (4) 2 × 10–8 Vm–1 along z-axis Statement II : Increasing current sensitivity of a moving
coil galvanometer by only increasing the number of turns
6. Two simple harmonic motion, are represented by the in the coil will also increase its voltage sensitivity in the
equations y1 = 10 sin æç 3pt + p ö÷ same ratio:
è 3ø In the light of the above statement, choose the correct
(
y 2 = 5 sin 3pt + 3 cos3pt ) answer from the options given below :
[NCERT-XII, Page-165 / N-130, 131]
Ratio of amplitude of y1 to y2 = x : 1. The value of x is
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
[NCERT-XI, Page-347 / N-265]
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 7 (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
7. A screw gauge gives the following readings when used to
measure the diameter of a wire
12. The axial field (BA) and the equatorial field (BE) due to a
Main scale reading : 0 mm
short bar magnet at equal distances are related as
Circular scale reading : 52 divisions
[NCERT-XII, Page-180 / N-140]
Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100 divisions
on the circular scale. The diameter of the wire from the above (1) BA = 2 BE (2) BA = –2 BE
data is (3) BA = –BE (4) BA = –2p BE
FT - 02 3

13. A slab consists of two parallel layers of copper and brass (1) (A) ® (p); (B) ® (q); (C) ® (r); (D) ® (s)
of the same thickness and having thermal conductivities (2) (A) ® (r); (B) ® (s); (C) ® (q); (D) ® (p)
in the ratio 1 : 4. If the free face of brass is at 100°C and that (3) (A) ® (q); (B) ® (p); (C) ® (s); (D) ® (p)
of copper at 0°C, the temperature of interface is (4) (A) ® (s); (B) ® (r); (C) ® (p); (D) ® (q)
[NCERT-XI, Page-291 / N-215]
(1) 80°C (2) 20°C (3) 60°C (4) 40°C 19. Two spherical bodies of mass M and 5M and radius R and
2R respectively are released in free space with initial
14. The equivalent capacitance of the system shown in the fol- separation between their centres equal to 12R. If they attract
lowing circuit is [NCERT-XII, Page-78, 79 / N-72 | NEET 2023] each other due to gravitational force only, then the distance
3m F covered by the smaller body just before collision is
[NCERT-XI, Page-187 / N-130]
3mF (1) 1.5 R (2) 2.5 R (3) 4.5 R (4) 7.5 R

A B 20. The energy that will be ideally radiated by a 100 kW

transmitter in 1 hour is:
[NCERT-XI, Page-128 / N-75 | NEET 2022]
3m F
(1) 36 × 104 J (2) 36 × 105 J
(1) 2 µF (2) 3 µF (3) 6 µF (4) 9 µF (3) 1 × 105 J (4) 36 × 107 J
15. A balloon was moving upwards with a uniform velocity of 21. A conducting wire of length ‘l ’, area of cross-section A
10 m/s. An object of finite mass is dropped from the balloon and electric resistivity r is connected between the terminals
when it was at a height of 75 m from the ground level. The of a battery. A potential difference V is developed between
height of the balloon from the ground when object strikes its ends, causing an electric current.
the ground was around: [NCERT-XI, Page-48 / N-18] If the length of the wire of the same material is doubled and
(takes the value of g as 10 m/s2) the area of cross-section is halved, the resultant current
(1) 300 m (2) 200 m (3) 125 m (4) 250 m would be: [NCERT-XII, Page-96 / N-84]

16. The drift velocity of electrons for a conductor connected VA 3 VA 1 rl 1 VA

(1) 4 (2) (3) (4)
in an electrical circuit is Vd. The conductor in now replaced rl 4 rl 4 VA 4 rl
by another conductor with same material and same length
but double the area of cross section. The applied voltage 22. Two pendulum having lengths 1 m and 16 m are both
remains same. The new drift velocity of electrons will be provided small displacements in the same direction at the
[NCERT-XII, Page-100 / N-88] same instant. They will again be in phase at the mean
position after the shorter pendulum completes
Vd Vd
(1) Vd (2) (3) (4) 2 Vd [NCERT-XI, Page-343 / N-271]
2 4 1
(1) 4
th oscillation (2) 4 oscillations
17. From a circular ring of mass ‘M’ and radius ‘R’ an arc
corresponding to a 90° sector is removed. The moment of (3) 5 oscillations (4) 16 oscillations
inertia of the remaining part of the ring about an axis
passing through the centre of the ring and perpendicular 23. A block of mass 10 kg is moving in x-direction with a
to the plane of the ring is ‘K’ times ‘MR2’. Then the value constant speed of 10 m/s. It is subjected to a retarding
of ‘K’ is [NCERT-XI, Page-163 / N-115 | NEET 2021] force F = – 0.1 x J/m during its travel from x = 20 m to x = 30
m. Its final kinetic energy will be :
1 3 7 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) [NCERT-XI, Page-116 / N-76]
8 4 8 4
(1) 475 J (2) 450 J (3) 275 J (4) 250 J
18. Match the quantities given in column I with their
definitions in column II. 24. In the given figure, each diode has a forward bias resistance
[NCERT-XII, Page-387, 390, 391 / N-275, 278, 279] of 30 W and infinite resistance in reverse bias. The current
Column I Column II I1 will be : [NCERT-XII, Page-481 / N-335]
(A) Photocurrent (p) The minimum energy required
by electron to escape from (1) 3.75 A
the metal surface
(B) Saturation (q) The minimum retarding (2) 2.35 A
current potential
(C) Stopping (r) The number of photoelectric (3) 2 A
potential emitted per second
(D) Work function (s) The maximum number of (4) 2.73 A
photoelectrons emitted per
second
4 FT-02

25. An object of mass 0.5 kg is executing simple harmonic motion.

Its amplitude is 5 cm and time period (T) is 0.2 s. What will be
T
the potential energy of the object at an instant t = s
4
starting from mean position. Assume that the initial phase
(1) 8 N (2) 16 N (3) 40 N (4) 12 N
of the oscillation is zero. [NCERT-XI, Page-350 / N-268]
(1) 0.62 J (2) 6.2 × 10–3 J
(3) 1.2 × 103 J (4) 6.2 × 103 J 31. For an angle of incidence q on an equilateral prism of
refractive index 3, the ray refracted is parallel to the
26. A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a uniform base inside the prism. The value of q is
speed takes a time T to complete one revolution. If this [NCERT-XII, Page-331 / N-240]
particle were projected with the same speed at an (1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) 75°
angle ‘q’ to the horizontal, the maximum height attained by
it equals 4R. The angle of projection, q, is then given by : 32. A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best
[NCERT-XI, Page-78 / N-39 | NEET 2021] suited as an objective of an astronomical telescope since
1 1 [NCERT-XII, Page-373 / N-245 | NEET 2021]
æ
-1 2 gT
2ö 2 æ 2ö 2
-1 gT (1) a large aperture contributes to the quality and
(1) q= sin ç 2 ÷ (2) q = cos ç 2 ÷ visibility of the images.
è p R ø èp Rø
1 1 (2) a large area of the objective ensures better light
æ p2 R ö 2
-1 -1
æ p2 R ö 2 gathering power.
(3) q = cos ç 2 ÷ (4) q = sin çç 2 ÷÷
ç gT ÷ (3) a large aperture provides a better resolution.
è ø è gT ø
(4) all of the above
æ xö
27. A light beam is described by E = 800 sin w ç t - ÷ . An 33. If the binding energy of the electron in a hydrogen atom is
è cø 13.6 eV, the energy required to remove the electron from
electron is allowed to move normal to the propagation of the first excited state of Li++ is
light beam with a speed of 3 × 107 ms–1. What is the
[NCERT-XII, Page-425 / N-299]
maximum magnetic force exerted on the electron ?
(1) 122.4 eV (2) 30.6 eV
[NCERT-XII, Page-140 / N-109]
(3) 13.6 eV (4) 3.4 eV
(1) 1.28 × 10–18 N (2) 1.28 × 10–21 N
(3) 12.8 × 10–17 N (4) 12.8 × 10–18 N 7 5
34. A diatomic gas, having C p = R and Cv = R, is heated
2 2
28. At t = 0, truck, starting from rest, moves in the positive at constant pressure. The ratio dU : dQ : dW :
x-direction at uniform acceleration of 5 ms–2. At t = 20 s, a [NCERT-XI, Page-309 / N-232]
ball is released from the top of the truck. The ball strikes (1) 5 : 7 : 2 (2) 3 : 5 : 2
the ground in 1 s after the release. The velocity of the ball,
(3) 3 : 7 : 2 (4) 5 : 7 : 3
when it strikes the ground, will be: (Given g = 10 ms–2)
[NCERT-XI, Page-75 / N-36]
35. Four curves A, B, C and D are drawn in the figure for a given
(1) 100 iˆ –10 ĵ (2) 10 iˆ –100 ĵ amount of a gas. The curves which represent adiabatic and
isothermal changes are
(3) 100 iˆ (4) –10 ĵ [NCERT-XI, Page-311, 312 / N-234, 235]

(1) C and D respectively

29. When light travels from one medium to the other of which B
P
the refractive index is different, then which of the following (2) D and C respectively C
A
will change [NCERT-XII, Page-356 / N-259] D
(3) A and B respectively
(1) frequency, wavelength and velocity
(2) frequency and wavelength (4) B and A respectively V
(3) frequency and velocity
(4) wavelength and velocity Section-B
36. A nucleus disintegrates into two smaller parts, which have
30. Two blocks A and B masses mA=1 kg and mB = 3 kg are
their velocities in the ratio 3 : 2. The ratio of their nuclear
kept on the table as shown in figure. The coefficient of
1
friction between A and B is 0.2 and between B and the
surface of the table is also 0.2. The maximum force F that sizes will be æç x ö÷ 3 . The value of 'x' is:
è 3ø
can be applied on B horizontally, so that the block A does
[NCERT-XII, Page-442 / N-310]
not slide over the block B is : [Take g = 10 m/s2]
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
[NCERT-XI, Page-101 / N-61]
FT - 02 5

37. The energy levels of an atom is shown is figure. Which 44. Four equal point charges Q each are placed in the xy
one of these transitions will result in the emission of a plane at (0, 2), (4, 2), (4, – 2) and (0, – 2). The work
photon of wavelength 124.1 nm ? required to put a fifth charge Q at the origin of the
Given (h = 6.62 × 10–34 Js) [NCERT-XII, Page-427 / N-300] coordinate system will be: [NCERT-XII, Page-62 / N-56]
A B D Q2 æ 1 ö Q2 æ 1 ö
(1) B 1 0.0 eV (1) ç 1+ ÷ (2) ç 1+ ÷
C 4 pe 0 è 3ø 4 pe 0 è 5ø
2 –2.2 eV
(2) A
–5.2 eV Q2 Q2
3 (3) (4)
(3) C 2 2 pe 0 4pe0
(4) D –10 eV
4
45. A
38. The electric field due to a short electric dipole at a large
C
distance (r) from center of dipole on the equatorial plane
varies with distance as : [NCERT-XII, Page-28 / N-24]
B
1 1 1
(1) r (2) (3) (4) The truth table for the given logic circuit is:
r r3 r2
[NCERT-XII, Page-491, 493 | NEET 2022]
39. A large open tank has two holes in the wall. One is a square
hole of side L at a depth y from the top and the other is a (1) A B C (2) A B C
circular hole of radius R at a depth 4y from the top. When 0 0 1 0 0 1
the tank is completely filled with water the quantities of
water flowing out per second from both the holes are the 0 1 0 0 1 0
same. Then R is equal to [NCERT-XI, Page-260 / N-189] 1 0 0 1 0 1
L L 1 1 1 1 1 0
(1) 2p L (2) (3) L (4)
2p 2p
(3) A B C (4) A B C
40. Nucleus A is having mass number 220 and its binding 0 0 0 0 0 0
energy per nucleon is 5.6 MeV. It splits in two fragments 'B'
0 1 1 0 1 1
and 'C' of mass numbers 105 and 115. The binding energy
of nucleons in 'B' and 'C' is 6.4 MeV per nucleon. The energy 1 0 0 1 0 1
Q released per fission will be : 1 1 1 1 1 0
[NCERT-XII, Page-443 / N-311]
(1) 0.8 MeV (2) 275 MeV 46. Chosse the correct option relating wavelengths of different
(3) 220 MeV (4) 176 MeV parts of electromagnetic wave spectrum :
[NCERT-XII, Page-283 / N-211]
41. An ideal fluid flows (laminar flow) through a pipe of non-
uniform diameter. The maximum and minimum diameters
(1) l visible < l micro waves < l radio waves < l X - rays
of the pipes are 6.4 cm and 4.8 cm, respectively. The ratio (2) l radio waves > l micro waves > l visible > l x-rays
of the minimum and the maximum velocities of fluid in this (3) l x-rays < lmicro waves < lradio waves < lvisible
pipe is: [NCERT-XI, Page-259 / N-188] (4) l visible > l x-rays > l radio waves > l micro waves
9 3 3 81
(1) (2) (3) (4) 256
16 2 4 47. Match the Column-I and Column-II.
42. A particle of mass 4 m which is at rest explodes into Column-I Column-II
three fragments. Two of fragments, each of mass m are (A) Torque (i) MLT–1
found to move with a speed v each in mutually (B) Impulse (ii) MT –2
perpendicular directions. The total energy released in the (C) Tension (iii) ML2 T–2
process is ; [NCERT-XI, Page-117 / N-84]
(D) Surface Tension (iv) MLT–2
1 3 2 5
(1) mv2 (2) mv2 (3) mv (4) mv2 Choose the most appropriate answer from the option
2 2 2
given below : [NCERT-XI, Page-31 / N-7]

43. A beam of light of wavelength 600nm from a distant source (1) (A) - (iii); (B) - (i); (C) - (iv); (D) - (ii)
falls on a single slit 1.00mm wide and the resulting diffraction (2) (A) - (ii); (B) - (i); (C) - (iv); (D) - (iii)
pattern is observed on a screen 1m away. The width of the (3) (A) - (i); (B) - (iii); (C) - (iv); (D) - (ii)
central maximum is [NCERT-XII, Page-363 / N-267] (4) (A) - (iii); (B) - (iv); (C) - (i); (D) - (ii)
(1) 1.2 cm (2) 5.2 mm (3) 2.4 cm (4) 1.2 mm
6 FT-02

48. The normal density of a material is r and its bulk modulus (1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the
of elasticity is K. The magnitude of increase in density of Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
material, when a pressure P is applied uniformly on all sides, (2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason
will be : [NCERT-XI, Page-281 / N-173] is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
rP rK K PK (4) If the Assertion is incorrect and Reason is correct.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
K P rP r
50. 10 resistors, each of resistance R are connected in series
49. Assertion (A): Wave of wavelength 50 cm is propagating to a battery of emf E and negligible internal resistance.
on a string. The phase difference between two points Then those are connected in parallel to the same battery,
separated by 5 cm is 0.2 p radian. the current is increased n times. The value of n is
Reason (R): Phase difference = (2p/l)x, where x is the [NCERT-XII, Page-108, 109 | NEET 2023]
path difference. [NCERT-XI, Page-372 / N-283] (1) 10 (2) 100 (3) 1 (4) 1000

PART-II: CHEMISTRY
Section-A 56. Which of the following compounds is not aromatic?
51. The IUPAC name of the following compound is : [NCERT-XI, Page-399 / N-321]

CH3 OH
| | (1) (2)
H3C - CH - CH - CH 2 - COOH
[NCERT-XI, Page-344, 345 / N-266, 267]
(3) H (4)
(1) 4, 4-Dimethyl-3-hydroxybutanoic acid H
(2) 2-Methyl-3-hydroxypentan-5-oic acid
(3) 3-Hydroxy-4-methylpentanoic acid
(4) 4-Methyl-3-hydroxypentanoic acid 57. How many structural isomers are possible for the alkyne
C6H10 ? [NCERT-XI, Page-392 / N-314]
52. Match the laws given in the Column-I with expression (1) 7 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 5
given in Column-II. [NCERT-XII, Page-41, 50 / N-7, 16]
Column-I Column-II 58. If molality of the dilute solutions is doubled, the value of
(A) Henry’s law (i) DTf = Kf m molal depression constant (Kf ) will be:-
(B) Elevation of boiling point (ii) p = CRT [NCERT-XII, Page-52 / N-19]
(C) Depression in freezing point (iii) DTb = Kbm (1) halved (2) tripled
(D) Osmotic pressure (iv) P = KH.x (3) unchanged (4) doubled
(1) A – (iv); B – (iii); C – (i); D – (ii)
(2) A – (ii); B – (iii); C – (i); D – (iv) 59. The rate constant, k of a zero order reaction 2NH3 (g)
(3) A – (i); B – (iv); C – (iii);D – (ii)
(4) A – (iv); B – (i); C – (ii); D – (iii) Pt
¾¾¾¾ ® N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) is y × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1. Therate
1130K
53. Formation of which complex, among the following, is not of formation of hydrogen (in mol L–1 s–1) is
a confirmatory test of Pb2+ ions [NCERT-XII, Page-98, 105 / N-64, 71]
(1) lead chromate (2) lead iodide
(3) lead nitrate (4) lead sulphate (1) y × 10–4 (2) 2y × 10–4

54. The right option for the mass of CO2 produced by heating y
(3) 3y × 10–4 (4) ´ 10 -4
20 g of 20% pure limestone is (Atomic mass of Ca = 40) 3
é CaCO ¾¾¾¾
1200 K
® CaO + CO 2 ùú
êë 3 û 60. Match Column-I with Column-II.
[NCERT-XI, Page-20 / N-20 | NEET 2023] [NCERT-XI, Page-348, 349 / N-270, 271]
(1) 1.12 g (2) 1.76 g
(3) 2.64 g (4) 1.32 g Column-I Column-II
(A) CH3COOH & HCOOCH3 (i) Functional isomers
55. The heats of combustion of carbon and carbon monoxide are (B) 1 butene & 2-butene (ii) Metamers
–393.5 and –283.5 kJ mol–1, respectively. The heat of formation
(C) diethyl ether & (iii) Position isomers
(in kJ) of carbon monoxide per mole is:
[NCERT-XI, Page-174 / N-150]
methyl propyl ether
(1) –676.5 (2) – 110.5 (3) 110.5 (4) 676.5 (D) Butane, 2-methyl propane (iv) Chain isomers
FT - 02 7

(1) A – (i); B – (iii); C – (ii); D – (iv)

(2) A – (ii); B – (iii); C – (iv); D – (i)
(3) A – (ii); B – (iv); C – (i); D – (iii) (1) K.E. (2) K.E.
(4) A – (ii); B – (i); C – (iv); D – (iii)
n® n®

61. Assertion : Kp can be less than, greater than or equal to Kc.

Reason : Relation between Kp and Kc depends on the (3) K.E. (4) K.E.
no
change in number of moles of gaseous reactants and
n® n®
products (Dn). [NCERT-XI, Page-202 / N-178]
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the 67. Consider the following standard electrode potentials and
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. calculate the equilibrium constant at 25° C for the indicated
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason disproportionation reaction : [NCERT-XII, Page-73 / N-39]
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. 3Mn 2 + (aq) ¾¾
® Mn(s) + 2Mn 3+ (aq )
(4) If the Assertion is incorrect and Reason is correct. Mn3+ (aq) + e - ¾¾
® Mn 2+ (aq); E 0 = 1.51 V
Mn 2 + (aq) + 2e - ¾¾
® Mn(s); E 0 = -1.185 V
62. Statement I : When enthalpy factor is absent then
randomness factor decides spontaneity of a process. (1) 1.2 ´ 10–43 (2) 2.4 ´ 10–73
Statement II : When randomness factor is absent then (3) 6.3 ´ 10–92 (4) 1.5 ´ 10–62
enthalpy factor decides spontaneity of a process.
68. In KO2, the nature of oxygen species and the oxidation state
[NCERT-XI, Page-184 / N-160] of oxygen atom are, respectively:
(1) Both statement I and II are correct. [NCERT-XI, Page-268 / N-240]
(2) Both statement I and II are incorrect. (1) Superoxide and –1 (2) Superoxide and –1/2
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect. (3) Peroxide and –1/2 (4) Oxide and –2
(4) Statement II is correct but statement I is incorrect.
63. When a solution of AgNO3 (1 M) is electrolysed using 69. If enthalpies of formation of C 2 H 4 (g) , CO2(g) and
platinum anode and copper cathode, what are the products H 2 O(l) at 25°C and 1atm pressure are 52, – 394 and
obtained at two electrodes? [NCERT-XII, Page-86 / N-52] – 286 kJ/mol respectively, the change in enthalpy for
Given : E 0 = +0.34 volt; combustion of C2H4 is equal to
Cu 2 + |Cu [NCERT-XII, Page-173 / N-149]

E 0
= +1.23 volt; E 0
= + 0.0 volt; (1) – 141.2 kJ/mol (2) – 1412 kJ/mol
O 2 ,H + |H 2O H + |H 2
(3) + 14.2 kJ/mol (4) + 1412 kJ/mol
E0 = + 0.8 volt
Ag + |Ag 70. Which one of the following methods is suitable to generate
(1) ® Cu 2 + at anode; Ag + ¾¾
Cu ¾¾ ® Ag at cathode aromatic compound(s) from linear aliphatic saturated
hydrocarbons with at least six carbon atoms?
(2) ® O 2 at anode; Cu 2+ ¾¾
H 2 O ¾¾ ® Cu at cathode ` [NCERT-XI, Page-382 / N-304]
(3) ® O 2 at anode; Ag + ¾¾
H 2 O ¾¾ ® Ag at cathode (1) Heating at 773 K
(4) NO 3- ¾¾
® NO 2 at anode; Ag + ¾¾
® Ag at cathode (2) Mo2O3, 773 K, 10-20 atm
(3) Anhyd. AlCl3, conc. HCl, D
(4) Cu, 523 K, 100 atm
64. The correct increasing order of the ionic radii is
[NCERT-XI, Page-87 / N-87] 71. Given below are two statements:
(1) Cl– < Ca2+ < K+ < S2– (2) K+ < S2– < Ca2+ < Cl–
[NCERT-XII, Page-233 / N-107]
(3) S2– < Cl– < Ca2+ < K+ (4) Ca2+ < K+ < Cl– < S2– Statement I : Manganate and permanganate ions are
octahedral.
65. Which of the following is a basic amino acid? Statement II: Manganate ion is paramagnetic in nature
[NCERT-XII, Page-420 / N-290 | NEET 2020] and involves pp – pp bonding.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
(1) Alanine (2) Tyrosine answer from the options given below:
(3) Lysine (4) Serine (1) Both statement I and II are correct.
(2) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
66. According to Einstein's photoelectric equation, the graph (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
between kinetic energy of photoelectrons ejected and the
(4) Statement II is correct but statement I is incorrect.
frequency of the incident radiation is :
[NCERT-XI, Page-41, 42 / N-41, 42]
8 FT-02

72. In the chemical reactions, [NCERT-XII, Page-406 / N-274] Statement II : In Gattermann reaction nucleophiles are
introduced in benzene ring in the presence of copper
NH2
powder and HCl. [NCERT-XII, Page-405/ N-275]
2 NaNO 4 HBF (1) Both statement I and II are correct.
¾¾¾¾® A ¾¾® B
HCl, 278 K (2) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
the compounds ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively are
(4) Statement II is correct but statement I is incorrect.
(1) nitrobenzene and fluorobenzene
(2) phenol and benzene 79. Of the following, which is the product formed when
(3) benzene diazonium chloride and fluorobenzene cyclohexanone undergoes aldol condensation followed by
(4) nitrobenzene and chlorobenzene heating ? [NCERT-XII, Page-371/ N-241]

73. The major product of the following reaction is : (1) (2)

(i) KOH alc
CH 3CH 2 CH – CH 2 ¾¾¾¾¾® O OH
| (ii) NaNH
| 2
in liq. NH 3 O
Br Br
[NCERT-XI, Page-394 / N-316]
(3) (4)
(1) CH3CH = C = CH2
(2) CH 3CH 2 CH – CH 2
| | O O OH
NH 2 NH 2
80. Assertion : Phenol is more reactive than benzene towards
(3) CH3CH = CHCH2NH2 electrophilic substitution reaction.
(4) CH3CH2C º CH Reason : In the case of phenol, the intermediate carbocation
is more resonance stabilized. [NCERT-XII, Page-341/ N-211]
74. What is the formula of mohr’s salt ? (1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the
(1) Cuprous ammonium sulphate Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Ferrous ammonium sulphate (2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason
(3) Nitrous calcium sulphate is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(4) Potassium ammonium sulphate (3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
75. The correct order of increasing acid strength of the (4) If the Assertion is incorrect and Reason is correct.
compounds [NCERT-XII, Page-380, 381 / N-250, 251] 81. Reaction of phenol with which of the following reagents
(A) CH3CO2H (B) MeOCH2CO2H form picric acid? [NCERT-XII, Page-341/ N-211]

Me (1) Conc. H2SO4 (2) dil. H2SO4

(C) CF3CO2H (D) CO2H is (3) Conc. HNO3 (4) dil. HNO3
Me
(1) D < A < B < C (2) A < D < B < C 82. The pH of a 10–3 M HCl solution at 25°C if it is diluted 1000
(3) B < D < A < C (4) D < A < C < B times, will be – [NCERT-XI, Page-218/ N-194]
(1) 3 (2) zero
76. Which of the following amine cannot be prepared by the (3) 5.98 (4) 6.02
Gabriel phthalimide synthesis method?
[NCERT-XII, Page-394 / N-264]
83. For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal
(1) Ethylamine (2) Benzylamine condition, the correct option is:
(3) Phenylamine (4) Propylamine [NCERT-XI, Page-183/ N-159]
(1) DU ¹ 0, DStotal = 0
77. ˆˆ† 2H + + S2 - , when NH4OH is
In the reaction: H 2S ‡ˆˆ (2) DU = 0, DStotal = 0
(3) DU ¹ 0, DStotal ¹ 0
added then [NCERT-XI, Page-224 / N-200]
(1) S2–is precipitate (4) DU = 0, DStotal ¹ 0
(2) No action takes places
(3) Concentration of S2– decreases 84. BF 3 is planar and electron deficient compound.
(4) Concentration of S2– increases Hybridization and number of electrons around the central
atom, respectively are : [NCERT-XI, Page-319]
78. Statement I : In Sandmeyer reaction nucleophiles like Cl–,
(1) sp2 and 8 (2) sp3 and 4
Br– and CN– are introduced in benzene ring in the presence
of Cu+ ion (3) sp3 and 6 (4) sp2 and 6
FT - 02 9

85. Choose the correct option for the following reactions. 5Br - ( aq ) + BrO3- ( aq ) + 6H + ( aq ) ® 3Br2 ( aq ) + 3H 2 O ( l )
CH3
(BH 3)2 Hg(OAc)2, H2O D [ Br - ] D [H+ ] D [ Br - ] 6 D [ H + ]
B ¬¾¾¾¾ H3C – C – CH = CH2 ¾¾NaBH
¾¾¾®A (1) =5 (2) =
H2O2/OH 4 Dt Dt Dt 5 Dt
CH3
D [ Br - ] 5 D [ H + ] D [ Br - ] D [H+ ]
(3) = (4) =6
[NCERT-XI, Page-389, 390 / N-311, 312] Dt 6 Dt Dt Dt
(1) ‘A’ and ‘B’ are both Markovnikov addition products.
(2) ‘A’ is Markovnikov product and ‘B’ is anti-
Markovnikov product. 91. [Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ]2 + + en ¾¾
® X + 2NH 3
(3) ‘A’ and ‘B’ are both anti-Markovnikov products.
[Ni(NH 3 )6 ] + 2en ¾¾
® Y + 4NH 3
(4) ‘B’ is Markovnikov and ‘A’ is anti-Markovnikov product.
[Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ] + 3en ¾¾® Z + 6NH 3
Section-B Which of them show optical as well as geometrical
86. Which of the following statements are correct ? isomerism? [NCERT-XII, Page-251, 252 / N-126, 127]
[NCERT-XII, Page-334, 338 / N-204, 208] (1) X (2) Y
(i) Alcohols react as nucleophiles in the reactions (3) Z (4) All of these
involving cleavage of O–H bond.
92. A gaseous hydrocarbon gives upon combustion 0.72 g of
(ii) Alcohols react as electrophiles in the reactions
water and 3.08 g of CO2. The empirical formula of the
involving cleavage of O–H bond.
hydrocarbon is : [NCERT-XI, Page-20 / N-20]
(iii) Alcohols react as nucleophile in the reaction (1) C2H4 (2) C3H4
involving cleavage of C–O bond. (3) C6H5 (4) C7H8
(iv) Alcohols react as electrophiles in the reactions
involving C–O bond. 93. The internuclear distances in O – O bonds for O+2 , O2 , O2-
(1) (i) only (2) (i) and (iv)
and O 22 - respectively are: [NCERT-XI, Page-129 / N-129]
(3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (ii) only
(1) 1.30 Å, 1.49 Å, 1.12 Å, 1.21 Å
(2) 1.49 Å, 1.21 Å, 1.12 Å, 1.30 Å
87. Which is not the correct order for the stated property. (3) 1.21 Å, 1.12 Å, 1.49 Å, 1.30 Å
[NCERT-XI, Page-85 / N-85] (4) 1.12 Å, 1.21 Å, 1.30 Å, 1.49 Å
(1) Ba > Sr > Mg ; atomic radius
(2) F > O > N ; first ionization enthalpy 94. Which of the following is the best description for the
(3) Cl > F > I ; electron affinity behaviour of bromine in the reaction given below ?
(4) O > Se > Te ; electronegativity H 2 O + Br2 ® HOBr + HBr [NCERT-XII, Page-200]
88. How many electrons are involved in the following redox (1) Proton acceptor only
reaction? [NCERT-XII, Page-274, 275/ N-246, 247] (2) Both oxidized and reduced
(3) Oxidized only
Cr2 O27 - + Fe2 + + C2 O42 - (4) Reduced only

® Cr3+ + Fe3+ + CO 2 (Unbalanced)

95. Solubilities of three sparingly soluble salts XY (Ksp), XY2
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 5
(K'sp) and X2Y3 (K''sp) are equal in water. What will be the
correct order of their solubility products?
89. At 298 K, the standard eletrode potentials of Cu2+/Cu,
Zn2+/Zn, Fe2+/Fe and Ag+/Ag are 0.34V, – 0.76 V, – 0.44 V [NCERT-XI, Page-228 / N-205]
and 0.80 V, respectively. (1) Ksp < K'sp < K''sp (2) Ksp < K''sp < K'sp
On the basis of standard electrode potential, predict which (3) K''sp < K'sp < Ksp (4) K''sp < Ksp < K'sp
of the following reaction can not occur?
[NCERT-XII, Page-71, 72 / N-38, 39]
96. Which of the following factors may be regarded as the
(1) CuSO4(aq) + Fe(s) ® FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
main cause of lanthanoid contraction?
(2) FeSO4(aq) + Zn(s) ® ZnSO4(aq) + Fe(s) [NCERT-XII, Page-235 / N-109]
(3) 2CuSO4(aq) + 2Ag(s) ® 2Cu(s) + Ag2SO4(aq) (1) Greater shielding of 5d electrons by 4f electrons
(4) CuSO4(aq) + Zn(s) ® ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s) (2) Poorer shielding of 5d electrons by 4f electrons
(3) Effective shielding of one of 4f electrons by another
90. Which of the following expressions is correct for the rate in the subshell
of reaction given below? [NCERT-XII, Page-99 / N-65] (4) Poor shielding of one of 4f electron by another in the
subshell
10 FT-02

97. Assertion : Sucrose is a disaccharide and a non-reducing 99. Boiling point of a 2% aqueous solution of a non-volatile
sugar. solute A is equal to the boiling point of 8% aqueous solution
of a non-volatile solute B. The relation between molecular
Reason : Sucrose involves glycosidic linkage between weights of A and B is. [NCERT-XII, Page-51 / N-17]
C1 of b-glucose and C2 of b-fructose. (1) MA = 4MB (2) MB = 4MA
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options (3) MA = 8MB (4) MB = 8MA
given below : [NCERT-XII, Page-417 / N-287]
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the 100. The major product formed in the following reaction is
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Liquid NH
H 3C — C º C — CH 3 + Na ¾¾¾¾¾
3®

(2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason [NCERT-XI, Page-387 / N-309]
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(1) H3C — CH 2 — C º C- Na +
(3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) If the Assertion is incorrect and Reason is correct. (2) H3C — C º C — CH -2 Na -
(3)
98. For alkylation of ammonia which of the following is not
used? [NCERT-XII, Page-400 / N-270]
(1) CH3–X (2) CH3–CH2–X] (4)
(3) (CH3)2CH–X (4) (CH3)3C–X

PART-III: BOTANY
106. Assertion (A): Geitonogamy is genetically similar to autogamy.
Section-A Reason (R): The pollen grains come from the same plant.
[NCERT-XII, Page-28 / N-12]
101. ABA is antagonistic to: [NCERT-XI, Page-250 / N-177]
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct
(1) GA (2) cytokinin
(3) ethylene (4) auxin explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
102. Which bacteria is utilized in biogas plant? (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(1) Methanogens [NCERT-XI, Page-19 / N-13] (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
(2) Nitrifying bacteria explanation of (A).
(3) Ammonifying bacteria
(4) Denitrifying bacteria 107. The unicellular alga used as food supplements mainly by
space travellers [NCERT-XI, Page-32]
103. Statement I: Pollination by water is seen in most of (1) Chlamydomonas (2) Spirogyra
flowering plant. (3) Spirulina (4) Chlorella
Statement II: Both wind and water pollinated flowers are
very colorful and produce nector.
[NCERT-XII, Page-29 / N-13]
108. Which of the following pteridophytes is heterosporous in
(1) Both the statement I and statement II are incorrect. nature? [NCERT-XI, Page-38 / N-32]
(2) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect. (1) Psilotum (2) Adiantum
(3) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct. (3) Equisetum (4) Salvinia
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
109. When tripalmitin is used as a substrate in respiration, the
104. Which of the following helps in the absorption of water R.Q. is [NCERT-XI, Page-237]
and mineral ions? [NCERT-XI, Page-186] (1) > 1 (2) 1.0 (3) 0.9 (4) 0.7
(1) Mycorrhiza (fungal member)
(2) Anabaena 110. Find out the correct match : -
(3) Nostoc
[NCERT-XI, Page-72 / N-62]
(4) None of these
Column- I Column - II
105. Casparian strip is made up of [NCERT-XI, Page-91 / N-74] (A) Actinomorphic (i) Canna
(1) lignin (2) pectin flower
(3) suberin (4) cellulose (B) Zygomorphic (ii) Pea, gulmohar, bean,
flower Cassia
FT - 02 11

(C) Asymmetric flower (iii) Datura, mustard, chilli 118. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
(D) Underground stems (iv) Potato, ginger Statement I: Bryophytes are amphibians of plant kingdom.
(1) (A) - (i), (B) - (ii), (C) - (iii), (D) - (iv) Statement II: They live in soil but depend on water for
(2) (A) - (iii), (B) - (ii), (C) - (i), (D) - (iv) sexual reproduction. [NCERT-XI, Page-35 / N-29]

(3) (A) - (iv), (B) - (iii), (C) - (ii), (D) - (i) (1) Both statements I and II are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) (A) - (ii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (i), (D) - (iii)
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect.
111. Diagram that is required to study the production of gametes
by the parents, formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants. 119. What is common between vegetative reproduction and
[NCERT-XII, Page-73 / N-57 | NEET 2021] apomixis? [NCERT-XII, Page-38 / N-22]
(1) Data square (2) Bullet square (1) Both are applicable to only dicot plants
(3) Punch square (4) Punnett square (2) Both bypass the flowering phase
(3) Both occur round the year
112. Read the given statements and select the incorrect ones. (4) Both produces progeny identical to the parent
[NCERT-XI, Page-38]
(i) Sporophyte in mosses is more elaborate than that in 120. Read the following statements and answer the question.
liverworts. [NCERT-XI, Page-24]
(ii) Selaginella is homosporous (i) Only the asexual or vegetative phase of these fungi
(iii) Angiosperms are divided into 2 classes are known.
(iv) In Cycas, male cones and megasporophylls are borne (ii) They reproduce only by asexual spores known as conidia.
on the same trees (iii) Mycelium is septate and branched.
(v) Sequoia is one of the tallest tree species (iv) Alternaria, Colletotrichum and Trichoderma are
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i) and (iii) examples of this class.
(3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (iii) and (v)
(v) Commonly known as imperfect fungi.
Which of the following class of fungi is being described
113. The historic convention on Biological Diversity held in Rio
de Janeiro in 1992 is also called: by the above statements ?
[NCERT-XII, Page-267/ N-225] (1) Phycomycetes (2) Deuteromycetes
(1) The World Summit (3) Basidiomycetes (4) Ascomycetes
(2) MAB Programme
(3) The Earth Summit 121. The plant parts which consist of two generations- one within
(4) G - 16 Summit the other [NCERT-XII, Page-22, 25 / N-6, 9 | NEET 2020]
(i) Pollen grains inside the anther
114. The ascending or descending arrangement of taxonomic
(ii) Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes
categories is called as [NCERT-XI, Page-8 / N-6]
(1) classification (2) taxonomy (iii) Seed inside the fruit
(3) hierarchy (4) key (iv) Embryo sac inside the ovule
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i) and (iv) (4) (i) only
115. Which of the following statements with respect to
Endoplasmic Reticulum is incorrect?
[NCERT-XI, Page-133 / N-95 | NEET 2022] 122. Statement I: Fig and wasp cannot complete their life cycle
(1) SER is devoid of ribosomes without each other.
(2) In prokaryotes only RER are present Statement II: It is mutualistic relationship.
(3) SER are the sites for lipid synthesis [NCERT-XII, Page-237 / N-202]
(4) RER has ribosomes attached to ER (1) Both the statement I and statement II are incorrect.
116. Which one of the following characteristics is not related (2) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
to gynoecium? [NCERT-XI, Page-75 / N-65] (3) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
(1) It represent female reproductive part of the flower. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) It is composed of stamens.
(3) Stigma serve as landing platform for pollen grain. 123. During Meselson and Stahl’s experiments, heavy DNA
(4) The basal bulged part is ovary. was distinguished from normal DNA by centrifugation in
[NCERT-XII, Page-105 / N-89]
117. Which of the following is not a part of epidermal tissue
system? [NCERT-XI, Page-89] (1) CsOH gradient (2) 14NH4Cl
(1) Companion cells (2) Trichomes (3) 35SO2 (4) CsCl gradient
(3) Root hair (4) Guard cells
12 FT-02

124. The formula for exponential population growth is

(1) bring about soil nutrient enrichment
[NCERT-XII, Page-230 / N-194] (2) the main sources are bacteria, fungi & cyanobacteria
(1) dN/rN = dt (2) rN / dN = dt (3) minimise the use of chemical fertilizer
(3) dN / dt = rN (4) dt / dN = rNV (4) all of these

125. Site of Krebs’ cycle in mitochondria is 131. Assertion (A): Toddy, a traditional drink of south india.
[NCERT-XI, Page-231 / N-158] Reason (R): Cheese is one of the oldest food item in which
(1) outer membrane (2) matrix microbes were used. [NCERT-XII, Page-181 / N-151]
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct
(3) oxysomes (4) inner membrane
explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
126. In the equation GPP - R = NPP GPP is Gross Primary (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
Productivity NPP is Net Primary Productivity R here is explanation of (A)
________. [NCERT-XII, Page-243 / N-207 | NEET 2023]
(1) Photosynthetically active radiation
132. The maximum possible number of individuals that a habitat
(2) Respiratory quotient can support is called its [NCERT-XII, Page-231 / N-196]
(3) Respiratory loss
(1) fecundity (2) surviving ability
(4) Reproductive allocation
(3) carrying capacity (4) biotic potential
127. In a mRNA molecule, untranslated regions (UTRs) are 133. Stem tendril develop from [NCERT-XI, Page-68 / N-59]
present at [NCERT-XII, Page-115 / N-99] (1) Axillary bud (2) Terminal bud
(1) 5' - end (before start codon) (3) Leaves (4) Internodes
(2) 3' - end (after stop codon)
(3) both (1) and (2) 134. Which micronutrient is required for splitting of water
molecule during photosynthesis?
(4) no UTRs present in mRNA
[NCERT-XI, Page-198 | NEET 2023]
(1) Manganese (2) Molybdenum
128. Find out the correct match from the given columns:- (3) Magnesium (4) Copper
[NCERT-XI, Page-68, 71]
Column - I Column - II 135. Among ‘The Evil Quartet’, which one is considered the
(A) Stem tendril (i) Citrus, Bougainvillea most important cause driving extinction of species?
(B) Stem thorn (ii) Cucumber, pumpkins [NCERT-XII, Page-264, 265 / N-222, 223 | NEET 2023]
(C) Store food (iii) Opuntia (1) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(2) Over exploitation for economic gain
(D) Flattened stems (iv) Onion, garlic
(3) Alien species invasions
(1) (A) - (iv), (B) - (iii), (C) - (ii), (D) - (i) (4) Co–extinctions
(2) (A) - (ii), (B) - (i), (C) - (iv), (D) - (iii)
(3) (A) - (iii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (i), (D) - (ii) Section-B
(4) (A) - (ii), (B) - (i), (C) - (iii), (D) - (iv) 136. Which of the following statements regarding biodiversity
hotspots is/are incorrect?
129. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct [NCERT-XII, Page-266, 268 / N-224, 226]
option from the codes given below. (i) High degree of endemism.
[NCERT-XI, Page-91, 97]
(ii) High level of species richness.
(iii) Total number is 34 in the world.
Column-I Column-II (iv) Five of these occur in India.
(A) Stele (i) Innermost layer of cortex (v) Also region of accelerated habitat loss.
(B) Endodermis (ii) Suberin (1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i) and (iv)
(C) Casparian strip (iii) Prevent loss of water (3) (iv) only (4) (iii), (iv) and (v)
(D) Cuticle (iv) All the tissues inner to
endodermis 137. In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded, 17% of the
(1) (A) - (iv); (B) - (i); (C) - (ii); (D) - (iii) bases were shown to be cytosine. The percentages of the
other three bases expected to be present in this DNA are:
(2) (A) - (iii); (B) - (ii); (C) - (i); (D) - (iv) [NCERT-XII, Page-97 / N-81]
(3) (A) - (i); (B) - (ii); (C) - (iii); (D) - (iv) (1) G 17%, A 16.5%, T 32.5%
(4) (A) - (iv); (B) - (ii); (C) - (i); (D) - (iii) (2) G 17%, A 33%, T 33%
(3) G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5%
130. Biofertilisers are the living organisms which (4) G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5%
[NCERT-XII, Page-187, 188 / N-157, 158]
FT - 02 13

138. Match column I with column II and select the correct option 146. Assertion (A): An organ transplant patient if not provided
from the given codes. with cyclosporine A, may reject the transplanted organ.
[NCERT-XI, Page-210, 213, 216, 218 / N-137, 139, 143, 145] Reason (R): Cyclosporin A is produced by Trichoderma
Column-I Column-II polysporum. [NCERT-XII, Page-183 / N-153]
A. C4 plants (i) Succulents (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct
B. Chlorophyll b (ii) Accessory explanation of (A).
photosynthetic pigment (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
C. PS II (iii) Photooxidation of H2O (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
D. CAM (iv) Kranz anatomy (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
(1) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i) explanation of (A).
(2) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(3) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv) 147. Refer the given statements. [NCERT-XII, Page-23 / N-7]

(4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv) (i) Outer exine is made up of sporopollenin.
(ii) Inner intine is pecto-cellulosic in nature.
139. Red Data Book deals with [NCERT-XII, Page-263 / N-221] (iii) Generative cell is bigger and contains abundant food
(1) organisms on the verge of extinction reserve.
(2) endemic plants (iv) Vegetative cell is small and floats in the cytoplasm of
(3) organisms showing photoperiodism the generative cell.
(4) organisms that are extinct (v) Pollen grain can withstand high temperature, strong
acids and alkali.
140. Which one of the following combinations of organisms Which of the given statements are not true regarding
are responsible for the formation of yoghurt? structure of pollen grain?
[NCERT-XII, Page-181 / N-151]
(1) (i) and (v) only (2) (ii) and (iii) only
(1) Lactobacillus & LAB (3) (iii) and (iv) only (4) (i) and (iv) only
(2) Lactobacillus & yeast
(3) LAB & Scerevisae 148. If map distance between genes P and Q is 4 units, between
(4) Bacillus megathermus and Xanthomonas species P and R is 11 units, and between Q and R is 7 units, the
order of genes on the linkage map can be traced as follows.
141. Gene therapy method involves: (1) Q P R [NCERT-XII, Page-83 / N-67]
[NCERT-XII, Page-211 / N-182]
(2) P Q R
(1) Cloning of cells with alternative gene
(2) Delivery of normal functional gene in the embryo to (3) P Q R
compensate for non functional gene
(3) Modification of defective genes in the cells (4) P Q P R Q R
(4) cDNA recombination
149. Which of the following statements regarding 'human
142. Mango and coconut lie in which category of fruit:- genome' is incorrect?
[NCERT-XI, Page-76 / N-65] [NCERT-XII, Page-118, 120, 121 / N-102, 104, 105]
(1) Drupe fruit (2) Pepo fruit (1) Human genome consists of 3164.7 million bp.
(3) Pome fruit (4) Berry fruit (2) The average gene size is 3000 bp and dystrophin is
the largest known human gene.
143. Which parental phenotypes would produce offspring with (3) Chromosome 1 contains maximum (2968) number of
blood group phenotypes in the expected ratio of 1 type genes and the Y-chromosome has the least (231)
A : 1 type B? [NCERT-XI, Page-280] number of genes.
Blood group of mother Blood group of father (4) Repeated (or repetitive) sequences are not present in
(1) A B human genome.
(2) AB AB 150. Assertion (A): Photosynthetically C4 plants are more
(3) AB B efficient than C3 plants.
(4) AB O
Reason (R): The operation of C4 pathway requires the
144. When yellow round heterozygous pea plants are self- involvement of only bundle-sheath cells.
fertilized, the frequency of occurrence of RrYY genotype [NCERT-XI, Page-218, 219 / N-145, 146]
among the offsprings is [NCERT-XII, Page-79, 80] (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct
(1) 9/26 (2) 3/16 (3) 2/16 (4) 1/16 explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
145. In lac operon, the gene a code for (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
[NCERT-XII, Page-116 / N-100] (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
(1) respressor protein (2) beta-galactosidase explanation of (A)
(3) permease (4) transacetylase
14 FT-02

PART-IV: ZOOLOGY
(1) Both the statement I and statement II are incorrect.
Section-A (2) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
151. Which of the following statement/s is correct about Frog? (3) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
[NCERT-XI, Page-117, 118] (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(1) It exhibits a closed type of blood vascular system.
(2) Blood glands are present on the 4th, 5th and 6th segments. 158. Assertion (A): Skeletal muscles are the muscles of visceral
(3) It has not any specialised breathing organs. organs.
(4) Respiration occurs only through moist skin. Reason (R): Cardiac muscles are involuntary in nature as
the nervous system does not control their activities directly.
152. Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding In the light of the above statements, choose the most
flatworms? [NCERT-XI, Page-51 / N-42] appropriate answer from the option given below:
(1) They are endo parasite mostly. [NCERT-XI, Page-304 / N-219]
(2) They are bilaterally symmetrical. (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct
(3) They lack a digestive system. explanation of (A).
(4) They have a circulatory system. (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
153. Column I contains zoological names of animals and column (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
II contains their common name. Match the following and explanation of (A).
choose the correct option. [NCERT-XI, Page-50 / N-41]
Column-I Column-II 159. Assertion (A): Inflammation of a skeletal joint is called arthritis.
(A) Physalia (i) Sea anemone Reason (R): Tetany is inflammation of joints due to
(B) Meandrina (ii) Brain coral accumulation of uric acid crystals.
(C) Gorgonia (iii) Sea fan [NCERT-XI, Page-312 / N-227]
(D) Adamsia (iv) Portuguese man-of-war (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct
(1) (A) - (iii); (B) - (ii); (C) - (i); (D) - (iv) explanation of (A)
(2) (A) - (iv); (B) - (iii); (C) - (ii); (D) - (i) (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) - (iv); (B) - (ii); (C) - (iii); (D) - (i) (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) (A) - (ii); (B) - (iii); (C) - (i); (D) - (iv)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
154. During muscle contraction in humans the explanation of (A)
[NCERT-XI, Page-307 / N-222]
(1) actin filaments are pulled towards the centre of ‘I’ band. 160. Human chorionic gonadotropin is secreted by
(2) sarcomere does not shorten. [NCERT-XII, Page-53 / N-37]
(3) A-band remain same. (1) chorion (2) amnion
(4) A, H and I bands shorten. (3) corpus luteum (4) placenta

155. Statement-I : The person that has ‘AB’ blood group is 161. What is the function of contraceptive pills ?
known as ‘universal recipients. (1) Checks mutation [NCERT-XII, Page-60 / N-45]
Statement-II : Person with ‘AB’ group can accept blood (2) Inhibit ovulation
from persons with AB as well as the other groups of blood. (3) Stops zygote formation
[NCERT-XI, Page-280 / N-195] (4) Stops oblituation of blastocoel
(1) Both the statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(2) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect. 162. The most important component of the oral contraceptive
(3) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct. pills is [NCERT-XII, Page-61 / N-45]
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (1) progesterone (2) Estrogen only
(3) testosterone (4) luteinising hormone
156. The flightless bird among the following is
[NCERT-XI, Page-58 / N-49]
(1) Columba (2) Neophron 163. Read the following statements and select the incorrect ones.
(3) Struthio (4) Corvus [NCERT-XI, Page-52, 53 / N-43, 44]
(i) Circulatory system in arthropods is of closed type.
157. Statement I: Diseases which are easily transmitted from (ii) Parapodia in annelids help in swimming.
one person to another, are called non infectious diseases. (iii) Phylum Mollusca is the second largest animal phylum.
Statement II: Drug and alcohol abuse does not affect our (iv) Aschelminthes are dioecious.
health. (v) Hooks and suckers are present in the parasitic forms.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct (1) (i) and (v) only (2) (i) only
answer from the option given below: (3) (iii) only (4) (iii) and (iv) only
[NCERT-XII, Page-146, 160 / N-130, 144]
FT - 02 15

164. AIDS is characterized by [NCERT-XII, Page-156 / N-140] (1) (A) - (i); (B) - (ii); (C) - (iii); (D) - (iv)
(1) decrease in the number of killer T-cells (2) (A) - (iv); (B) - (iii); (C) - (i); (D) - (ii)
(2) decrease in the number of supressor T-cells (3) (A) - (iv); (B) - (iii); (C) - (ii); (D) - (i)
(3) decrease in the number of helper T-cells (4) (A) - (iv); (B) - (ii); (C) - (iii); (D) - (i)
(4) increase in the number of helper T-cells
169. Which of the following enzymes has heme as a prosthetic
165. Match the following and choose the correct option,
group? [NCERT-XI, Page-159 / N-118]
[NCERT-XI, Page-103, 104]
(i) Catalase
A. Adipose tissue (i) Nose (ii) Carboxypeptidase
B. Squomous (ii) Blood (iii) Succinic dehydrogenase
epithelium (iv) Peroxidase
C. Hyaline cartilage (iii) Walls of blood vessels (1) (i) only (2) (i) and (ii) only
D. Fluid connective (iv) Fat storage (3) (iii) and (iv) only (4) (i) and (iv) only
tissue
(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv) 170. A bird excretes nitrogenous waste materials in the form of
(2) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii) [NCERT-XI, Page-290 / N-205]

(3) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii) (1) uric acid (2) ammonia
(3) urea (4) amino acids
(4) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
171. The joint between atlas and axis is called
166. Assertion (A): B-cells work chiefly by secreting [NCERT-XI, Page-312 / N-227]
substances called antibodies into the body fluids. (1) pivot joint (2) hinge joint
Reason (R): An antibody is represented as H4L4. (3) saddle joint (4) angular joint
[NCERT-XII, Page-151 / N-135]
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct 172. Statement I: Malignant tumors normally remain confined
explanation of (A). to their original location, do not spread to other body parts
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. and cause less damage.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. Statement II: Normal cells show a property called contact
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct inhibition by virtue of which contact with other cells inhibit
explanation of (A). their uncontrolled growth. [NCERT-XII, Page-157 / N-141]
(1) Both the statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(2) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
167. Match the column-I with column-II and choose the correct
(3) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
option. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
[NCERT-XII, Page-127, 131, 134, 135 / N-111, 115, 118, 119]
Column-I Column-II 173. Choose the correct statements which show the
(A) Natural selection (i) Chemical evolution characteristic, shared by urea, uric acid and ammonia.
(B) Oparin and Haldane (ii) Saltation [NCERT-XI, Page-290 / N-205]
(C) de Vries (iii) Wings of bird and (i) They are nitrogenous wastes.
butterfly (ii) They all need very large amount of water for excretion.
(D) Analogous organs (iv) Darwin (iii) They are all equally toxic.
(1) (A) - (iii); (B) - (iv); (C) - (ii); (D) - (i) (iv) They are produced in the kidneys.
(2) (A) - (ii); (B) - (i); (C) - (iv); (D) - (iii) (1) (i), (iii) and (iv) only (2) (i) and (iv) only
(3) (A) - (iv); (B) - (i); (C) - (ii); (D) - (iii) (3) (i), (iii) and (ii) only (4) (i) only
(4) (A) - (iv); (B) - (i); (C) - (iii); (D) - (ii) 174. Which one of the following immune system components
does not correctly match with its respective role?
168. Match the following columns. [NCERT-XII, Page-150, 151 / N-134, 135]
[NCERT-XI, Page-268 / N-183] (1) Interferons - Secreted by virus-infected cells and
Column-I Column-II protect non-infected cells from further viral infection.
(Animals) (Types of Breathing) (2) B-lymphocytes - Produce antibodies in response to
pathogens into blood to flight with them.
(A) Frog (i) Network of tubes
(3) Macrophages - Mucus secreting cells that trap
(B) Fishes (ii) Through lungs
microbes entering in the body.
(C) Insects (iii) Through gills
(D) Birds and mammals (iv) Cutaneous respiration (4) IgE - Antibodies produced in response to allergy
16 FT-02

175. Identify the incorrect pair 180. Morphine, which is used as an analgesic is obtained from
[NCERT-XI, Page-146 / N-144 | NEET 2021] (1) Chinchona [NCERT-XII, Page-158, 159 / N-142, 143]
(1) Drugs – Ricin (2) Alkaloids – Codeine (2) Papaver somniferum officinalis
(3) Toxin – Abrin (4) Lectins – Concanavalin A (3) Taxus brevifolia
(4) Berberis nilghiriensis
176. The hormone which regulates sleep-wake cycle in man is
[NCERT-XI, Page-334 / N-242] 181. Match List-I with List-II;
(1) oxytocin (2) vasopressin [NCERT-XI, Page-146 / N-108 | NEET 2022]
(3) thyroxine (4) melatonin List-I List-II
(A) Adenine (i) Pigment
177. Accessory sexual character in female is promoted by (B) Anthocyanin (ii) Polysaccharide
[NCERT-XI, Page-338 / N-246] (C) Chitin (iii) Alkaloid
(1) androgen (2) progesterone (D) Codeine (iv) Purine
(3) estrogen (4) testosterone Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) (A) - (i), (B) - (iv), (C) - (iii), (D) - (ii)
178. Identify the correct match for the given apparatus. (2) (A) - (iv), (B) - (i), (C) - (ii), (D) - (iii)
[NCERT-XII, Page-204 / N-174] (3) (A) - (iv), (B) - (iii), (C) - (ii), (D) - (i)
(4) (A) - (iii), (B) - (i), (C) - (iv), (D) - (ii)

182. The factor that leads to Founder effect in a population is :

[NCERT-XII, Page-137 / N-121 | NEET 2021]
(1) Genetic drift
(2) Natural selection
(3) Genetic recombination
(4) Mutation

Apparatus Function 183. Restriction endonuclease - Hind II always cuts DNA

(1) Gene gun Vectorless direct gene transfer molecules at a particular point by recognizing a specific
(2) Column Separation of chlorophyll sequence of [NCERT-XII, Page-195 / N-165]

chromatography pigments (1) Six base pairs .

(3) Sparged stirred tank Carry out fermentation (2) Five base pairs.
(3) Four base pairs.
bioreactor process
(4) Seven base pairs.
(4) Respirometer Finding out rate of respiration
184. Which of the following reasons is mainly responsible for
179. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion
graft rejection in transplantation of organs?
A and other is labelled as Reason R.
[NCERT-XII, Page-152 / N-136 | NEET 2022]
[NCERT-XII, Page-62 / N-46 | NEET 2023]
(1) Cell-mediated response
Assertion A : Amniocentesis for sex determination is one (2) Inability of recipient to differentiate between ‘self’
of the strategies of Reproductive and Child Health Care and ‘non-self’ tissues/cells
Programme. (3) Humoral immune response
Reason R : Ban on amniocentesis checks increasing (4) Auto-immune response
menace of female foeticide.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct 185. Seminal plasma in humans is rich in
answer from the options given below. [NCERT-XII, Page-44 / N-28]
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation (1) fructose and calcium
of A. (2) glucose and certain enzymes
(2) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct (3) fructose and certain enzymes but poor in calcium
explanation of A. (4) fructose, calcium and certain enzymes.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.
FT - 02 17

Section-B (1) Reptilia : possess 3-chambered heart with an

186. All of the following changes occur during contraction of a incompletely divided ventricle
muscle fibre except one [NCERT-XI, Page-307 / N-224]
(2) Chordata : possess a mouth with an upper and a lower
jaw
(i) Width of A-band remains same
(3) Chondrichthyes : possess cartilaginous endoskeleton
(ii) Actin filament slides over the myosin filaments (4) Mammalia : give birth to young ones
(iii) Shortening of sarcomere
(iv) Z-line pulled outwards 191. Read the following statements and select the correct
(v) I bands get reduced option. [NCERT-XI, Page-105]
(1) (i) and (v) only (2) (ii) only Statement I: Cardiac muscle of the heart is striated and
(3) None of these (4) (iv) only has intercalated discs between its fibres (cells).
Statement II: Intercalated discs provide quick, powerful
187. Assertion (A): The primitive atmosphere was reducing and rhythmic contractions to the heart.
one i.e., without oxygen. (1) Both Statements I and II are correct.
Reason (R) : In the primitive atmosphere, oxygen was (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
involved in forming ozone. [NCERT-XII, Page-127 / N-111] (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct (4) Both Statements I and II are incorrect.
explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct 192. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Assertion (A): FSH which interacts with membrane bound
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
receptors does not enter the target cell.
explanation of (A)
Reason (R): Binding of FSH to its receptors generates
second messenger (cyclic AMP) for its biochemical and
188. Match List-I with List-II : physiological responses.
[NCERT-XII, Page-194, 201 / N-164, 171 | NEET 2022] In the light of the above statements, choose the most
List-I List-II appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) Gene gun (i) Replacement of a faulty [NCERT-XI, Page-339, 340 / N-247, 248 | NEET 2022]
gene by a normal (1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
healthy gene (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
(B) Gene therapy (ii) Used for transfer of Gene explanation of (A)
(C) Gene cloning (iii) Total DNA in the cells (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct
of an organism explanation of (A)
(D) Genome (iv) To obtain identical (4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
copies of a particular
DNA molecule 193. Match the items given in column I with those in column II
Choose the correct answer from the options given below : and select the correct option given below.
[NCERT-XI, Page-293, 294 / N-208, 209]
(1) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i)
Column I Column II
(2) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(iii)
(Function) (Part of excretory system)
(3) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)
(A) Ultrafiltration (i) Henle’s loop
(4) (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii), (D)-(ii)
(B) Concentration of (ii) Ureter
urine
189. Identify the region of human brain which has pneumotaxic
(C) Transport of urine (iii) Urinary bladder
centre that alters respiratory rate by reducing the duration
of inspiration. (D) Storage of urine (iv) Malpighian corpuscle
[NCERT-XI, Page-275 / N-190 | NEET 2022] (v) Proximal convoluted tubule
(1) Cerebrum (2) Medulla A B C D
(3) Pons (4) Thalamus (1) (iv) (v) (ii) (iii)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
190. Which one of the following groups of animal is correctly
(3) (v) (iv) (i) (ii)
matched with its characteristic feature without any
exception? [NCERT-XI, Page-56, 58, 59 / N-47, 49, 50]
(4) (v) (iv) (i) (iii)
18
194. Given below are two statements :
[NCERT-XI, Page-144 / N-106 | NEET 2022]
Statement I : Amino acids have a property of ionizable
nature of — NH2 and — COOH groups, hence have
different structures at different pH.
Statement II : Amino acids can exist as Zwitterionic.
[NCERT-XI, Page-144 / N-106]
In the Light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
195. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
[NCERT-XII, Page-53 / N-37 | NEET 2022]
Assertion (A) : During pregnancy the level of thyroxine is
increased in the maternal blood.
Reason (R) : Pregnancy is characterised by metabolic
changes in the mother.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
196. The disorder of respiratory system include
[NCERT-XI, Page-275 / N-190]
(i) Asthma and Emphysema
(ii) Asthma and Angina
(iii) Emphysema and Hypertension
(iv) Asthma and Hypertension
(v) Occupational respiratory disorder and fibrosis.
Choose the corect answer from the options given below:
(1) (i) and (v) only (2) all of these
(3) (ii) and (v) only (4) (i), (iii), (v) only
197. The enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of
bacteriophage in ‘Escherichia coli’ is [NCERT-XII, Page-195]
FT-02
(1) added methyl group to protein.
(2) cut DNA in a particular fashion.
(3) added formyl group to DNA.
(4) Both (1) and (2)
198. Which of the following statements regarding the structure
of proinsulin and mature insulin are not correct?
[NCERT-XII, Page-211 / N-181]
(1) Proinsulin is made up of three polypeptide chains –
A, B and C.
(2) C - peptide is not present in the mature insulin and is
removed during maturation into insulin.
(3) Mature insulin is arranged in two polypeptide chains
– A and B.
(4) Polypeptide chains A and B are interconnected by
only one S – S linkage.
199. IUDs are small objects made up of plastic or copper that
are inserted in the uterine cavity.
Which of the following statements are correct about IUDs?
[NCERT-XII, Page-60, 61 / N-44, 45 | NEET 2022]
(i) IUDs decrease phagocytosis of sperm within the
uterus.
(ii) The released copper ions suppress the sperm motility.
(iii) IUDs do not make the cervix hostile to the sperm.
(iv) IUDs suppress the fertilization capacity of sperm.
(v) The IUDs require surgical intervention for their
insertion in the uterine cavity.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
(1) (iv) and (iii) only (2) (iv) and (v) only
(3) (ii) and (iii) only (4) (ii) and (iv) only
200. What pathway is taken by water and solutes when they
travel through a nephron? [NCERT-XI, Page-292 / N-207]
(1) Glomerulus ® Bowman’s capsule ® proximal tubule
® loop of Henle ® distal tubule ® collecting ducts
(2) Bowman’s capsule ® glomerulus ® distal tubule ®
loop of Henle ® proximal tubule ® collecting ducts
(3) Glomerulus ® Bowman’s capsule ® distal tubule ®
loop of Henle ® proximal tubule ® collecting ducts
(4) Glomerulus ® Bowman’s capsule ®proximal tubule®
collecting ducts ® distal tubule ® loop of Henle
Space for Rough Work