QUARTER 3 PERIODICAL EXAMINATION IN SCIENCE 10

Direction: SHADE the letter of the best answer in your answer sheet. STRICTLY NO ERASURE.

1. A couple is undergoing fertility treatments, and the doctor suggests analyzing the sperm for abnormalities.
How are you going to explain the significance of the epididymis in the male reproductive system, detailing
its role in sperm maturation and storage?
A. The epididymis is a coiled tube located on the back of each testicle.
B. The epididymis is where sperm undergo crucial changes, gaining motility and the ability to fertilize
an egg.
C. The epididymis transported the mature sperm to the vas deferens.
D. The epididymis transports mature sperm from the testicles to the urethra during ejaculation.
2. Both males and females possess reproductive organs known as genitals or genitalia, designed for the crucial
functions of gamete production, hormone release, copulation, and conception. Among the following, which
are the components of the female reproductive system?
A. Vagina, cervix, urethra, fallopian tube, fimbriae ovary
B. Vagina, cervix, uterus, oviduct, fimbriae, ovary
C. Vagina, cervix, uterus ovary
D. Vagina, uterus, ovary
3. As adolescents transition through puberty, a significant phase marking the physical onset of adulthood, their
bodies undergo transformative changes. What specific physiological alterations occur in males and females
during puberty, and what are the primary hormonal triggers behind these changes?
A. Testosterone in males and estrogen in females increases, leading to secondary sexual
characteristics such as facial hair and breast development.
B. The pituitary gland releases luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH),
stimulating the production of sex hormones.
C. Insulin-like growth factor (IGF-1) levels rise, influencing the growth spurt and the development of
skeletal and muscular systems.
D. Genetics and family history play a role in determining the timing and extent of puberty-related
changes.
4. In the regulation of physiological processes, feedback mechanisms play a crucial role, encompassing both
positive and negative feedback. Which statement accurately describes the feedback regulation during
different phases of the menstrual cycle?
A. During the luteal phase, the presence of estrogen and progesterone results in positive feedback,
influencing both FSH and LH secretion.
B. Near the end of the follicular phase, positive feedback occurs with elevated estrogen acting as
an inducer of LH secretion by the anterior pituitary.
C. Positive feedback induces the anterior pituitary to release increased amounts of FSH and LH.
D. In the ovulatory phase, negative feedback is observed, where high estrogen levels inhibit the
secretion of both FSH.
5. Menstruation, or period, is normal vaginal bleeding that occurs as part of a woman's monthly cycle. At what
point in the menstrual cycle does menstruation typically occur?"
A. when the egg is not fertilized by a sperm
B. when the egg is fertilized by a sperm
C. when the egg is released from the ovary
D. when the egg is released to the fallopian tube
6. Throughout the initial phase of the
menstrual cycle, negative feedback
maintains stable levels of FSH, LH,
estrogen, and progesterone. However,
during ovulation, positive feedback
triggers a surge in FSH, LH, and
estrogen. Which of the following
statements is/are true about the
feedback mechanism in the menstrual
cycle?
A. The first statement is true, while
the second statement is false.
B. The first statement is false, while
the second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.

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7. Hormones act as chemical messengers that target particular groups of cells to either encourage or hinder
specific activities within those cells. Upon release, a hormone travels outside the bloodstream to its target
cell, binds to a receptor cell, and initiates a particular response. Which of the following statements is/are
TRUE about hormones?
A. The first statement is true, while the second statement is false.
B. The first statement is false, while the second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
8. A synapse acts as the meeting point between two neurons, forming a functional connection between nerve
cells and other cells. Synapse loss is linked to sensory, motor, and cognitive issues in several
neurodegenerative conditions like major depressive disorder, schizophrenia, Alzheimer's disease,
Huntington's disease, and aging. Why are synapses important for how our brains work?
A. Because it is an automatic response to a stimulus
B. Because it regulates homeostasis or balance of the body.
C. Because it is considered the control system of the body
D. Because synapses are essential to the transmission of nervous impulses from one neuron to another.
9. Picture yourself outdoors on a hot summer day or in a chilly winter breeze. In these contrasting conditions,
your body instinctively responds to maintain a stable internal temperature of about 98.6°F (37°C). How does
the human body achieve this balance?
A. By sweating to cool down and shivering to generate warmth
B. Through changes in blood vessel diameter to alter blood flow
C. A combination of sweating, shivering, and blood vessel adjustments
D. By relying on external sources for temperature control
10.In the process of transcription, amino acids undergo activation by binding to specific transfer RNA (tRNA)
molecules. These activated amino acids are subsequently assembled by ribosomes into a sequence
specified by messenger RNA (mRNA), transcribed from the DNA template. Which of the following
statements is/are TRUE about protein synthesis?
A. The first is true, while the second statement is false.
B. The first statement is false, while the second statement is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
11.DNA replication is the process by which the genome's DNA is copied in cells before the cell divides.
Replication relies on complementary base pairing, which is the principle explained by Chargaff's rules:
adenine (A) always bonds with thymine (T) and cytosine (C) always bonds with guanine (G). Which of the
following sequences of DNA bases is complementary to the sequence:
ATC-GTG-CCC-GCA-GCG
A. TAG-CAC-GCG-CGA-CGC C. TAG-CAC-GGG-GGT-CGC
B. TAG-CAC-GGG-CGT-CGG D. TAG-CAC-GGG-CGT-CGC
12.The central dogma of molecular biology is a theory stating that genetic information flows only in one
direction. Which sequence best represents the central dogma or the relationship of DNA, RNA, and
Protein?
A. DNA based sequence → amino acid sequence → trait → protein shape→ protein function
B. DNA based sequence → amino acid sequence→ protein shape → trait→ protein function
C. DNA based sequence → amino acid sequence→ protein shape → protein function→ trait
D. DNA based sequence → amino acid sequence → protein function → protein shape → trait
13. Genetic mutations give rise to distinct versions of genes known as alleles, introducing subtle variations in
DNA sequences that contribute to the uniqueness of each individual. These genetic differences manifest
in various aspects such as hair color, skin tone, height, body shape, behavior, and susceptibility to
diseases. How do mutations contribute to genetic variation?
A. Altering the organism's appearance
B. Modifying the organism's reproductive processes
C. Influencing the organism's behavior
D. Making random changes in an organism's genetic code
14.What do you call the genetic mutation that causes a codon that should code for a specific amino acid to be
changed into a stop codon?
A. a chromosomal mutation B. a frameshift mutation C. a nonsense mutation D. a silent mutation.
15.Imagine you're examining a DNA sequence crucial for a protein's formation. A frameshift mutation, resulting
from the insertion or deletion of nucleotides, alters the reading frame. In this scenario, how many
nucleotides need to be inserted or deleted to induce a frameshift mutation?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 6 D. 9
16.Imagine you are a paleontologist exploring two distinct species: one with wings adapted for flight, and
another with similar-looking wings adapted for swimming. In the context of evolutionary evidence, what
distinguishes these wing structures?
A. Analogous structures, implying shared genetic origins.
B. Analogous structures, suggesting convergent evolution.
C. Homologous structures, signifying adaptation to different environments.
D. Homologous structures, suggests shared ancestry.

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 17. The forelimbs of vertebrates, like the ones
pictured here, are similar in terms of the
number of bones and the orientation of
bones. How does comparing homologous
structures provide evidence of evolution,
specifically with regards to the similarity in
forelimbs among vertebrates?"
A. Homologous structures can't be used
as evidence for evolution.
B. Homologous structures illustrate that
different species evolve at different
rates.
C. The presence of genes for the body plan and forelimb layout in a common ancestral species shared
by all vertebrates supports the idea of evolution.
D. The similarity in anatomical structures among animals can demonstrate adaptation to changing
environments
18.Lamarck suggested that giraffes developed long necks through individuals stretching to reach higher
branches, passing on this acquired trait. In contrast, Darwin's natural selection proposed that giraffes with
naturally longer necks had a survival advantage, leading to the prevalence of this trait in the population
over time. How do Lamarck's and Darwin's views differ concerning the inheritance of acquired
characteristics?
A. Lamarck proposed that acquired traits are inherited; Darwin rejected this idea.
B. Darwin and Lamarck both supported the inheritance of acquired traits.
C. Darwin did not address the inheritance of acquired traits, while Lamarck emphasized it.
D. Both Darwin and Lamarck rejected the idea of acquired traits being inherited.
19. Over time, Darwin began to wonder if species from South America had reached the Galapagos and then
changed as they adapted to new environments. This idea—that species could change over time—eventually
led to Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection in the Galápagos Islands, Charles Darwin observed
that______________________.
A. completely unrelated species on each of the islands.
B. species exactly like those found in South America.
C. somewhat similar species, with traits that suited their environments.
D. species completely unrelated to those found in South America.
20. Darwin and Wallace both realized that most species produce many more offspring than is necessary to
maintain a constant population. What is the fate of the excess individuals?
A. Evolution kills them off.
B. They evolve to take advantage of natural selection.
C. They mutate and then can adapt to the new environment.
D. The fittest individuals survive and reproduce.

I. Explain the role of hormones involved in the female and male reproductive systems.
21. What is the primary role of hormones in the male and female reproductive systems?
A. To regulate the development of secondary sexual characteristics
B. To transport sperm or eggs from the testes or ovaries to the external environment
C. To promote the development of the placenta during pregnancy
D. To stimulate the growth and differentiation of the gonads and other reproductive organs
22. . Which of the following is not true about progesterone and estrogen?
A. During menstruation both progesterone and estrogen are low.
B. During follicular phase estrogen is high and progesterone is low.
C. During ovulation both progesterone and estrogen are low.
D. During the luteal phase, progesterone is high and estrogen is low.

II. Describe the feedback mechanisms regulating processes in the female reproductive system (e.g.,
menstrual cycle).
23. The secretory phase of the uterine cycle begins after ovulation when the ruptured Graafian follicle develops
into the corpus luteum. The corpus luteum produces progesterone which causes the endometrium to begin
secreting various substances that make the uterus more receptive to the implantation of a fertilized ovum.
At which phase of the Menstrual cycle does the secretory phase occur?
A Menstrual Phase B. Follicular Phase. C. Ovulatory Phase D. Luteal Phase

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 III. Describe how the nervous system coordinates and regulates these feedback mechanisms to maintain
homeostasis.
24. Some hormones are regulated by a negative feedback mechanism while others are regulated by a positive
feedback mechanism. Which of the following operate on a positive feedback mechanism and negative
feedback mechanism respectively?
A. Prolactin and ADH C. Prolactin and oxytocin
B. Insulin and oxytocin D. All the above
25.A feedback mechanism is a physiological regulation system in a living body that works to return the body to
its normal internal state, commonly known as homeostasis. In nature, feedback mechanisms can be found
in a variety of environments and animal types, how do Negative Feedback Loops affect the body?
A. Negative feedback amplify processes
B. Negative feedback prevents small changes from getting larger
C. Negative feedback is initiated during childbirth
D. Negative feedback is found only in plants

IV. Explain how protein is made using information from DNA

26. The RNA strand elongates until _______.
A. the entire chromosome has been transcribed
B. a specific "stop" code is reached on the DNA strand
C. the cell runs out of RNA bases
D. the DNA strand is completely degraded
27. In DNA molecules, the equal proportion of Guanine and Cytosine provides evidence supporting the idea that
Guanine and Cytosine _______.
A. Form a complementary pair of nitrogenous bases
B. Pair up within the nucleus
C. Act to neutralize each other
D. Share the same chemical equilibrium

V. Explain how mutations may cause changes in the structure and function of a protein.
28. Inversions result in ____________.
A. More than one copy of each gene on a chromosome
B. The formation of many copies of a specific region of the affected chromosome
C. The breakage and movement of chromosome fragments
D. Segments of DNA being released from a chromosome are then re-inserted in the opposite orientation.

VI. Explain how fossil records, comparative anatomy, and genetic information provide evidence for
evolution.
29. Which of the following is an example of how the fossil record provides evidence for evolution?
A. The presence of similar bone structures in the forelimbs of various vertebrates suggests that they have
a common ancestor.
B. The comparison of DNA sequences in different organisms provides insight into their evolutionary
relationships.
C. The observation of bacterial resistance to antibiotics over time suggests that they are evolving to adapt
to their environment.
D. The discovery of transitional fossils, such as Archaeopteryx, shows the gradual evolution of birds from
reptiles.

VII. Explain the occurrence of evolution.

30. Which of the following statements best explains the Theory of Natural Selection?
A. Organs that are not used may disappear, while organs that are constantly used may develop.
B. In nature, the organisms with desirable characteristics may survive, while those with weaker traits may
not.
C. Organisms develop desirable structures to survive in each environment.
D. Acquired characteristics of parents can be passed on to offspring.

Prepared by: Checked by:

VANESSA F. CLIMACOSA ARIES B. MANALO

Teacher I Head Teacher III – Science