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Criminal Detection Investigation (Makilala Institute of Science and Technology)
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 Compulsory – upon reaching the age
1.It refers to the field of management which FIFTY- SIX (56), the age of retirement
involves planning, and controlling the efforts of a  Optional – upon completion of TWENTY
group of individuals toward achieving a common (20) YEARS of active service
goal with maximum dispatch and minimum use
of administrative resources. 4. The procedure which is intended to be used in
A. Administration situations of all kinds and outlined as guide and by
B. Personnel Management men in the field operations relative to reporting,
C. Organization dispatching, raids, arrest and investigation refers
D. Police Organization to:
A. Field Procedure
 Organization-a group of persons working B. Standard Operating Procedure
together for a common goal or objectives a C. Problem oriented plan
form of human association for the D. Headquarters procedure
attainment of a goal or objective.
 Police Organization- a group of trained  Headquarters Procedures - include the
personnel in the field of public safety procedures to be followed in the
administration engaged in the achievement headquarters, usually reflected in the
of goals and objectives. duty manual
 Administration- an organizational process  Standard Operating Procedures (SOP) -
concerned with the implementation of procedures intended for specific operations to
objectives and plans and internal ensure uniformity of action
operating efficiency.
 Police Administration- the process involved in 5. The term of office of the Chief PNP shall be for
ensuring strict compliance, proper obedience a period ?
of laws and related statutes focuses on the A. Not exceeding four (5) years.
policing process. B. Not exceeding five (3) years.
C. Not exceeding six (4) years.
2. The procedure which is intended to be used D. Not exceeding three (6) years.
in situations of all kinds and outlined as guide
and by men in the field operations relative to  Attrition by Attainment of Maximum Tenure
reporting, dispatching, raids, arrest and
investigation refers to: Those who have reached the prescribed
A. Field Procedure maximum tenure corresponding to their
B. Standard Operating Procedure position shall be retired from the service
C. Problem oriented plan
 Chief 4 years
D. Headquarters procedure
 Deputy Chief 4 years
 Headquarters Procedures - include  Director of Staff Services 4 years
the procedures to be followed in the  Regional Directors 6 years
headquarters, usually reflected in the  Provincial/District Directors 9 years
duty manual  Other positions higher than
 Standard Operating Procedures (SOP) - Provincial Director 6 years
procedures intended for specific
6. The national headquarters of the PNP is located in
operations to ensure uniformity of action
Quezon City. It was named after the 1st Filipino Chief
3.Eugene Sakuragi joined the PNP in 1996. She of the Philippine Constabulary.
was 29 years old then. What year can
A. Antonio Torres
Eugene retire if he wants to avail the B. Cesar Nazareno
mandatory retirement? C. Rafael Crame
A. 2017 C. 2032 D. Lamberto Javalera
B.2031 D. 2023
 PDG Cesar Nazareno- the first chief of the
Philippine National Police
 Col Antonio Torres- the first Filipino chief of
police of the Manila Police Department in 1935
 Col Lamberto Javalera- the first chief of police
of the Manila Police Department after the
Philippine Independence from the United States
of America in 1946
7. The theory of police service which states those
police officers are servants of the people or the
community refers to:
A. Old
B. Home rule
C. Modern
D. Continental
 Continental - policemen are regarded as

servants of the higher authorities
o It exist in France, Italy and Spain- countries
with a decentralized form of government
 Old Concept - measurement of police
competence is the increasing number of
arrests.
 Modern Concept - police efficiency is
measured by the decreasing number of
crimes
8.Dr. XYY is a Doctor of Philosophy; he opted to
join the Philippine National Police. What would
be his initial rank upon entry?
A. Senior Inspector C. Inspector
B. Chief Inspector D. NONE
 Inspector Rank: Dentists, optometrists, nurses,

engineers, graduates of forensic sciences,
graduates of the PNPA and licensed
criminologists
 Senior Inspector Rank: Chaplains, members
of the bar and doctors of medicine
9. The following are functions in a

police organization, EXCEPT:
A. primary functions
B. administrative functions
C. secondary functions
D. auxiliary functions
 Primary or Line Functions- functions that

carry out the major purposes of the
organization, Patrolling, traffic duties, and
crime investigation
 Staff/Administrative Functions- designed to
support the line functions and assist in the
performance of the line functions examples
of the staff functions of the police are
Planning, research, budgeting and legal
advice
 Auxiliary Functions- functions involving the
logistical operations of the organization
examples are communication,
maintenance, records management,
supplies and equipment management.
10. If the annual quota for the year 2013 is

1200. How many of the annual quota is
allocated for women?
A. 10% C. 120
B. 100 D. 200
The PNP shall reserve TEN PERCENT (10%) of its

annual recruitment, training and education
quota for women
11. The law that empowered the police

commission to conduct entrance and
promotional examination for police members
refers to:
A. RA 6040 C. RA 5487
B.RA 157 D. PD 765
 R.A. 157- created the National Bureau

of Investigation, enacted June 19, 1947
and later reorganized by R.A. 2678
 PD 765- otherwise known as the
Integration Act of 1975, enacted on
August 8, 1975; established the
Integrated National Police
 R.A. 5487 – Private Security Agency Law

  August Vollmer - recognized as the Father
of Modern Law Enforcement
12. The Role of the PNP on matters
 Oliver Cromwell- first commissioner of Scotland
involving the suppression of insurgency
Yard
and serious treats to national security?
 Cesare Lombroso – Father of Modern
A. The AFP operating through the area
Criminology.
commander is the one primarily
responsible on matters involving
15.When responding to call for police assistance
insurgency and other serious treats to
due to planted or found explosives, what
national security.
immediate actions should the patrol officer will do?
B. The PNP is relieved of the primary role
towards insurgency and other serious A. Scrutinize the item if it is an explosive
treats to national security. or not.
C. The PNP shall provide assistance to the B. Dispose the item immediately to
AFP in insurgency-affected areas. avoid further injury to happen.
D. All of these C. Never attempt to handle, call for Explosive
Ordinance Disposal Team.
13.If the external patting of the suspect’s
D. Call to the Tactical Operation Center for
clothing fails to disclose evidence of a weapon
proper procedure to be followed, after
the next procedure of the Patrol officer is:
investigating the item.
A. Conduct a complete search.
B. The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect. 16. The largest organic unit within a large
C. No further search may be made. department.
D. Turnover the suspect to the A. Bureau C. Section
immediate supervisor. B.Division D. Unit
14.He is known as the father of modern  Division- The primary subdivision of a bureau.
policing system?  Section- Functional units within a particular
A. August Vollmer C. Oliver Cromwell division. This is necessary for specialization.
B. Robert Peel D. Cesare Lombroso  Units- Functional group within a section where
further specialization is needed.
17. Captain Matako is a commissioned officer of

the Armed Forces of the Philippines. What is his
equivalent rank in the PNP?
A. Inspector C. Senior Inspector

B. Chief Inspector D. Superintendent
 Inspector – Captain
 Chief Inspector – Major
 Superintendent – Lieutenant Colonel
18. How many Deputy Director General ranks are

there in the PNP?
A. 1 C. 3
B.2 D. 4
Deputy Director General ranks
 DDG for Administration (2nd in Command)

 DDG for Operation (3rd in Command)
 Chief of the Directorial Staff (4th in Command)
19.The highest rank in the BJMP is .
A. Four star general C. Director

B. Chief Superintendent D. Director General
 Chief- highest position in the PNP, with the

rank of DIRECTOR GENERAL
20. It is defined as the determination in advance of

how the objectives of the organization will be
attained.
A. planning C. Advancement
B.police planning D. Development
 Police Planning - it is an attempt by police

administration to allocate anticipated
resources to meet anticipated service
demands.
21. What is the minimum police-to-population

ratio?
A. 1:000 C. 1:1500
B. 1:500 D. 1:7

Sec. 27 of R.A. 6975 provides (police-to-
population ratio)
o 1:500 – nationwide average
22.What kind of force is needed during

armed confrontation?
A. Reasonable force C. Logical Force
B. Rational Force D. Evenhanded Force

23.The word <police= was derived from the 25. The
Greek word , which means government of the provincial
city. governor shall
A. politia C. politeia choose the
B.polis D. Policy provincial
director from
a list of
eligible’s
recommended
by the PNP
regional
director:
A. six C. five
B.Three D. four
 MAYOR – Shall choose from the (5) FIVE

eligible’s recommended by the PD.
26. The
deployment of
officers in a given
community, area
or locality to
prevent and deter
criminal activity
and to provide
day-to-day
services to the
community.
A. Patrol C. Beat Patrol
B.Line Patrol D. Area Patrol
27.The head of the IAS shall have a designation of

 Polis – Greek word which means <City-State=. ?
 Politia – Roman word which means B.b, e, a, d D. a, b, c, d, e
<condition of the state or the
Government=.
24.It is the premier educational institution for

the training, human resource development and
continuing education of all personnel of the
PNP, BFP, and BJMP.
A. PPSC C. RTS
B.PNPA D. NPC
PNPA- created pursuant to Section 13 of PD

1184, premier educational institution for future
officers of the tri-bureaus.
25.It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s

complaint against the police officers.
A. IAS C. PNP
B.PLEB D. NAPOLCOM
 NAPOLCOM - shall exercise administrative

control and operational supervision over the
PNP
 IAS - investigate complaints and gather
evidence in support of an open
investigation; conduct summary hearings
on PNP members facing administrative
charges;
26.The following are the grounds for Patrol

officers to execute spot checks.
a. Questionable presence of the individual in
the area;
b. The suspect is a long time enemy of
your superior;
c. The individual flees at the sight of a
police officer;
d. The Patrol officer has knowledge of
the suspect’s prior criminal record; and
e. Visual indications suggesting that the suspect
is carrying a pyrotechnics.
A. b, c, d, C. a, c, d

A. Director General C. Solicitor General
B.Inspector General D. IAS General
28. As per the

requirement of
R.A. 6975,
there should be
how many
PLEB for every
500 police
personnel?
A. one (1) C. more than one
B.at least one D. less than one
 there shall be at least one (l) PLEB for

every five hundred (500) city or
municipal police personnel
29. If you
are the
patrolman on
beat, what
would be the
immediate
things to do
when accident
occur?
A. Cordon the area
B.Go away and call your superior
C. Bring the victim to the nearest hospital
D. Chase the criminal and Arrest him
30.The following are the upgraded

general qualifications for appointment in
the Philippine National Police.
a. Must weigh more or less than five (5) kilos;
b. Applicant shall not be below twenty
(20) or over thirty five (35) years of age;
c. Must be person of good moral character;
d. Applicant must not have been
dishonorably discharged from military
services or civilian position in the
government; and
e. Applicant must be eligible.
A. e, c, d, b C. a, c, d, e
B.b, c, e D. c, d, e
31.All of the following are members of the

People’s Law Enforcement Board, EXCEPT:
A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace
and Order Council from among the
respected members of the community
B. A bar member chosen by the Integrated
Bar of the Philippines
C. Any barangay captain of the
city/municipality concerned chosen by
the association of barangay captains
D. Any member of the Sangguniang
Panglunsod

32.Two or more persons forming an organization  Delegation of Authority- conferring of certain
must identify first the reason for establishing such specified authority by a superior to a
organization. They must identify the subordinate
organization’s  Chain of Command- the arrangement
: of officers from top to bottom on the
A. strategy C. Goal basis of rank or position and authority
B.Tactic D. objective  Span of Control- the maximum number
of subordinates that a superior can
 Strategy – is a broad design, method; a
effectively supervise
major plan of action that needs a large
 Command Responsibility- dictates that
amount of resources to attain a major goal or
immediate commanders shall be responsible
objectives.
for the effective supervision and control of
 Goal- General Statement of intention
their personnel and unit
normally with time perspective. It is
achievable end state that can be measured 39.Who has the authority to promote Insp. Jack
and observed. T. Alvarez ?
 Tactic – it is a specific design, method A. President C. Chief, PNP
or course of action to attain a particular B.CA D. Regional
objective in consonance with strategy. Director
33.To improve delegation, the following must
Promoting Authorities:
be done, EXCEPT:
Grade/Rank Promoting Authorities
A. establish objectives and standards
B. count the number of supervisors  Director General President
C. require completed work  Sr. Supt. to Deputy Dir. Gen. President
D. define authority and responsibility
 Insp. To Supt. Chief, PNP
 PO1 to SPOIV RD/Chief, PNP
34.The number of subordinates that can
be supervised directly by one person tends 40.In police parlance, <S.O.P.= stands for?
to: A. Standard operation procedures
A. Increase as the physical distance between B. Special operation procedures
supervisor and subordinate as well as C. Standard operating procedures
between individual subordinate increases D. Special operating procedures
B. Decrease with an increase in the
knowledge and experience of the 41.The following are the characteristics of a good
subordinate plan, EXCEPT:
C. Increase as the level of supervision A. flexibility C. specific
progresses for the first line supervisory level B.clear D. expensive
to the management level
D. All of the above
42.Waivers for initial appointment in the PNP
35.This means controlling the direction and flow may be waived in the following order:
of decisions through unity of command from top A. age, height, weight & education
to bottom of organization: B. age, weight, height & education
A. Audit C. Coordination C. height, education, weight & age
B.Monitoring D. Authority D. in any order
36.Which of the following statements is TRUE?  Applicants who possess the least
A. Performance evaluation measures disqualification shall take precedence over
credibility of the police those who possess more disqualification;
B. Performance evaluation is not a basis  The requirement shall be waived in the
for salary increases or promotion following order: Age, Height, Weight and
C. Performance evaluation is done once a Education. (AHWE)
year among police personnel
D. Performance evaluation is implemented to 43.It is the downsizing of PNP personnel on
determine the quality of work performance the basis provided by law.
of personnel A. attrition C. Specialization
B.promotion D. retirement
37.The NAPOLCOM is an attached agency to the
DILG for :  Retirement - The separation of the
police personnel from the service by
A. Administrative control reason of reaching the age of
B. Administration and control retirement or upon completion of
C. Operational supervision certain number of years in active
D. Policy and program coordination service.
38.SPO1 Last and SPO2 First report to the

same supervisor. This is the principle of :
A. delegation of authority
B. span of control
C. unity of command
D. chain of command

44.The age requirement for new PNP applicants Philippine National
must not be less than twenty-one (21) years of Police on October 5,
age. The Maximum age requirement for PNP 1988. Nevertheless,
applicants using the lateral entry program is he want to pursue his
. career as embalmer,
A. 35 years old C. 25 years old he decided to file an
B.30 years old D. 31 years old optional retirement so
that he could enjoy
45.A Field training Program for all PNP benefits of the
uniformed members is required for gratifying PNP which
permanency of their appointment. Who among he served with
the following is exempted to undergo the Field extreme commitment
Training Program and issued a permanent and loyalty. When
appointment? does Bruno can retire?
A. Pastor Jayson Lopez, who is appointed

Sr. Inspector via Lateral entry.
B. Atty. Rose Camia, who is appointed
Sr. Inspector via Lateral entry.
C. Ryan, A PNPA graduate who is appointed
Inspector after graduation.
D. Bruno Sikatuna a Licensed Criminologist and
First Place in the Examination.
 Field Training Program. – All uniformed

members of the PNP shall undergo a Field
Training Program for twelve (12) months
involving actual experience and assignment
in patrol, traffic, and investigation as a
requirement for permanency of their
appointment.
46. Planning as
a management
function is to be
done in the
various levels of
PNP
organization.
Broad policy
based from laws
directives,
policies and
needs in general
is the
responsibility of:
A. Directorate for Plans

B. President of the Philippines
C. Chief, PNP
D. Dep. Dir. For Administration
47.What is the rank equivalent of PNP

Deputy Director General in the Armed
Forces of the Philippines?
A. Lt. General C. Major General
B.Brigade General D. General
 Chief Superintendent – Brigade General

 Director – Major General
 Director General - General
48.The Philippine National Police will recruit 300

new policemen on March 2012 to fill up its
quota. Who among the following applicants is
qualified to apply?
A. Khyle who was born on April 24, 1978
B. Tom who was born on November 22, 1980
C. Vince who was born on March 17, 1993
D. Migz who was born on August 10, 1991
 For a new applicant, must not be less than

twenty-one (21) nor more than thirty (30)
years of age
49. Inspector
Bruno joined the

A. October 5, 1998 C. October 6, 1999 pay since he was
B.September 5, 2010 D. September 5, 2008 promoted. After
five years from
50.Which of the following administrative promotion, what
penalties is immediately executory? would be his
A. Dismissal C. Forfeiture of pay monthly base pay
B.Suspension D. Death penalty after adding his
longevity pay?
51.What is the Appropriate Training A. 32, 690.00 C. 37, 690.00
Course is needed to be promoted to B.30, 459.00 D. 31, 549.00
SPOIV?
A. Officers Candidate Course
B. Senior Leadership Course
C. Junior Leadership Course
D. Public Safety Basic Recruit Course
 SLC- SPOII to SPOIII

 JLC – POIII to SPOI
 PSBRC – POI to POII
52.The head of the National Capital

Regional Police Office shall assume the
position of NCR director with the rank of:
A. Chief Superintendent C. Director
B.Superintendent D. C/Inspector
 Regional Director -with the rank of

Chief Superintendent
 Provincial Director -with the rank of
Senior Superintendent
 NCR District Director -with the rank of
Chief Superintendent
 Chief of Police – with the rank of
Chief Inspector
53.Under the waiver program, who

among the following PNP applicants is the
least priority for appointment?
A. Jude who just earned 72 units in college

B. Renz who is under height
C. Justine who is underweight
D. Philip who is overage
54. Republic Act 6975 is otherwise known as .

A. Department of Interior and
Local Government Act of
1990
B. Department of the Interior and
Local Government Act of 1990
C. Department of Interior and the
D. Department of the Interior and the
55. The
following are
the
component
agencies that
compose the
Philippine
National
Police (Sec.
23, RA 6975).
a. NARCOM civilian personnel;
b. Coast Guards;
c. Philippine Constabulary;
d. Philippine Air Force Security Command; and
e. National Action Committee on Anti-Hijacking.
A. a, c, d, e C. b, a, e, c
B.e, b, a, d D. a, b, c, d, e
56. SPO4
Nonito
Pacquiao
receives 27,
690.00 base
57.Decisions rendered by the national IAS shall attested by the Civil Service Commission.
be appealed to the : B. Chief PNP, recommended by immediate
superiors and attested by the Civil Service
A. Regional Appellate Board Commission.
B. National Appellate Board
C. People’s Law Enforcement Board
D. National Police Commission
 National Appellate Board - shall decide

cases on appeal from decisions rendered by
the PNP Chief and the IAS.
 Regional Appellate Board - shall decide
cases on appeal from decisions rendered by
the RD, PD, COP, the city or municipal mayor
and the PLEB except decision on suspension.
NOTE:
 The PLEB decision of the suspension is final

and cannot be appealed.
 The decision of dismissal by either PLEB or
Regional Director is final and executory
but subject to appeal to RAB.
 Decision of Chief of Police is appealable within
10 days to Provincial Director, upon receipt of
decision.
 Decision of Provincial Director is
appealable within 10 days to Regional
Director, upon receipt of decision.
 Decision of Regional Director is appealable
within 10 days to Chief, PNP upon receipt
of decision.
 The decisions of COP, PD, and RD are
from those cases concerning internal
discipline.
 Cases involving internal discipline filed with the
Chief, PNP originally, the decision is
appealable to NAB which decision is Final.
 Motion for Reconsideration is only allowed
ONCE.
58. Who shall

administer the
entrance and
promotional
examinations for
police officers on
the basis of the
standards set by
the Commission
as amended by
RA 8551?
A. PLEB C. CSC
B. PRC D.
NAPOLCOM
 Police Entrance Examination – taken by

applicants of the PNP
 Police Promotional Examinations – taken by in-
service police officers as part of the
mandatory requirements for promotion
NOTE: Police officers, who are Licensed

Criminologists, no longer need to take the
Police Promotional Examinations as part of the
requirements for promotion. As PRC Board
Passers, they have already complied with the
eligibility requirement.
59. SPOIV Rudolf

Tocsin is set to be
promoted, if he is
promoted who has
the appointing
authority?
A. Regional Director or office of the PNP for

the national headquarters personnel
C. President, upon recommendation of
Chief PNP, endorsed by the Civil
Service
and subject to confirmation by the

Commission of Appointment.
D. President from among the senior
officers down to the rank of Chief
Superintendent, subject to the
confirmation of the Commission on
Appointment.
Appointment of uniformed PNP personnel

 PO1 TO SPO4 – appointed by the
Regional Director for regional
personnel or by the Chief, PNP for the
national headquarters
 INSP. TO SUPT. – appointed by the Chief, PNP
 SR. SUPT TO DDG – appointed by the
President upon recommendation of the
Chief, PNP, subject to confirmation by the
Commission on Appointments
 DIRECTOR GENERAL – appointed by
the President from among the senior
officers down to the rank of C/Supt,
subject to the confirmation of the
Commission on Appointments
60.It is known as the Professionalization

act of 1966.
A. R.A. 4864 C. Act 255
B.Act 175 D. Act 183
 Act No 175 - entitled <An Act Providing

for the Organization and Government of
an Insular Constabulary=, enacted on
July 18, 1901
 Act No. 183 - created the Manila
Police Department, enacted on
July 31, 1901
 Act No 255 - The act that renamed the
Insular Constabulary into Philippine
Constabulary, enacted on October 3,
1901
61. is given to any PNP member

who has exhibited act of conspicuous and
gallantry at the risk of his life above and
beyond the call of duty.
A. Promotion by virtue of Position

B. Meritorious Promotion
C. Regular Promotion
D. On-the-Spot Promotion
 Regular – promotion granted to police
officers meeting the mandatory
requirements for promotion
 Promotion by virtue of Position- any PNP
personnel designated to any key
position whose rank is lower than what
is required for such position shall, after
6 months occupying the same, be
entitled to rank adjustment
corresponding to position.
62.PNP members under the waiver program

but is dismissed for failure to comply with the
requirements can re-apply to the PNP?
A. Maybe Yes C. Maybe No
B.Absolutely Yes D. Absolutely No
 PNP members under the waiver program

but is dismissed for failure to comply with
the requirements can RE-APPLY provided
he now have the minimum requirements.

63.The reason why police officer appears in last salary, in addition to other benefits.
court as a witness has to be in complete uniform
is to show his respect to the court and to his:
A. Position/Rank C. Superior
B.Profession D. Comrades
64.One having supervisory responsibilities

over officers to the lower rank, whether
temporary or permanent.
A. None C. Superior officer
B.Ranking officer D. Sworn officer
 Sworn Officer- The term referring to personnel

of the police department who has taken oath
of office and possesses the power to arrest.
 Ranking Officer-Refers to the officers having
the highest rank or grade according to
their date of appointment to that grade
65. La
w that
created
the
Manila
Police
Depart
ment,
enacte
d on
July 31.
A. RA 4864 C. ACT 183
B.ACT 255 D. ACT 175
 RA 4864- otherwise known as the Police

Professionalization Act of l966, enacted on
September 8, 1966; created the Police
Commission (POLCOM); later POLCOM was
renamed in Act No 255 - The act that
renamed the Insular Constabulary into
Philippine Constabulary, enacted on October
3, 1901 to National Police Commission
(NAPOLCOM)
 Act No 175 - entitled <An Act Providing for the
Organization and Government of an Insular
Constabulary=, enacted on July 18, 1901
66.The performance evaluation system

is conducted:
A. thrice a year C. Every 6 months
B.Every 2 years D. Quarterly
 January to June Evaluation Report to

be submitted 1st week of July
 June to December Evaluation Report to be
submitted 1st week of January of the
succeeding year.
67.A PNP member who acquired permanent

physical disability in the performance of his
duty and unable to further perform his duty
shall be entitled to a lifetime pension
equivalent to:
A. 50% of his last salary

B. 70% of his last salary
C. 60% of his last salary
D. 80% of his last salary
Retirement due To Permanent Physical Disability
PNP uniformed personnel who are

permanently and totally disabled as a result of
injuries suffered or sickness contracted in the
performance of his duty shall be entitled to ONE
YEAR’S SALARY and to a LIFETIME PENSION
equivalent to EIGHTY PERCENT (80%) of his

Should such PNP personnel die within employees are inherently lazy and will avoid
FIVE work if they can and that they inherently
(5) YEARS from his retirement due to dislike work.
physical disability, his legal spouse or
legitimate children shall be entitled to receive 71. The
the pension for the remainder of the five theory X and
year-period. Y is a human
motivation
68. How created and
many developed
successive by?
annual rating A. Giuseppe <Joe= Petrosino
periods B. John Edgar Hoover
before a C. Henry A. Landsberger
police officer D. Douglas McGregor
may be
separated  Giuseppe <Joe= Petrosino - New York City
due to Police officer, who pioneer fighting
inefficiency or Organized Crime.
poor  Henry A. Landsberger – coined the word
performance? Hawthorne Effect
A. 2 C. 4  John Edgar Hoover - first Director of the
B.3 D. 1 Federal Bureau of Investigation; he
was instrumental in founding the FBI in
Attrition by other Means 1935.
Those who have at least five (5) years
of active service shall be separated based on
any of the following:
 inefficiency based on poor performance

during the last two (2) successive
annual rating periods;
 inefficiency based on poor performance
for three (3) cumulative annual rating
periods;
 physical and/or mental incapacity to
perform police functions and duties; or
 failure to pass the required entrance
examinations twice and/or finish the
required career courses except for
justifiable reasons
69. Female
detainees
shall not be
transported
in handcuffs
but only with
necessary
restraint and
proper
escort,
preferably
aided by a
police
woman. The
statement
is-
A. Partially True C. Wholly True
B.Partially False D. Wholly False
70.In this theory, management assumes

employees may be ambitious and self-
motivated and exercise self-control. It is
believed that employees enjoy their mental and
physical work duties.
A. Hawthorne Effect C. XYY Theory
B.X theory D. Y theory
 Hawthorne effect is a form of reactivity

whereby subjects improve or modify an
aspect of their behavior being
experimentally measured simply in
response to the fact that they are being
studied, not in response to any particular
experimental manipulation.
 X theory - management assumes
72.What is the Appropriate Training Course is  Functional Plan- includes the framework
needed to be promoted to Senior for the operation of the major functional
Superintendent. unit in the organization Such as patrol and
A. Officers Senior Executive Course investigation.
B. Officers Advance Course  Strategic Plan - It relates to plans which are
C. Officers Basic Course strategic or long range in application, it
D. Bachelor of Science in Public Safety determine the organization’s original
goals and strategy.
 MNSA/Allied MA Degree –
Chief Superintendent - up. 77.This type of plan is intended to guide PNP
 OAC – Chief Inspector members on routine and field operations
 OBC – Senior Inspector and some special operations
 BSPS - Inspector A. Extra Departmental plan
B. Tactical Plan
73.Who among the following have C. Operational Plan
summary dismissal powers? D. policy or procedural plan
A. Chief, PNP C. RD
B.NAPOLCOM D. All of these  Extra-Departmental Plans - which require
actions or assistance from persons or
The NAPOLCOM, PNP Chief and Regional Directors agencies outside of the department
have summary dismissal powers in any of the  Operational Plan - often called work plan;
following cases: the work program of the field units
 Tactical Plans - concern methods of action
 when the charge is serious and to be taken at a designated location and
the evidence of guilt is strong under specific circumstances
 when the respondent is a recidivist or
has been repeatedly charged and there 78.What kind of appointment when the applicant
are reasonable grounds to believe that is under the waiver program due to weight
he is guilty of the charges; and requirements pending satisfaction of the
 when the respondent is guilty of a requirement waived.
serious offense involving conduct A. Permanent C. Probationary
unbecoming of a police officer B.Temporary D. Special
74.If the offense is punishable for a period of  Permanent – when an applicant possesses
not exceeding 30 days but not less than 16 the upgraded general qualifications for
days, the citizen’s complaint against erring appointment in the PNP
PNP member shall be filed at the  Probationary- All PNP members upon entry
level, before appointed to permanent
A. Office of the chief of police status shall undergo a mandatory 1 Year
B. PLEB probationary period.
C. Mayor’s Office
D. any of them 79.The institution of a criminal action or
complaint against a police officer is
 Chief of Police - for a period not A. A ground for dismissal
exceeding FIFTEEN (15) DAYS B. Not qualified for promotion
 PLEB - for a period exceeding THIRTY (30) DAYS, C. Automatically dismiss
or by DISMISSAL D. Not a bar to promotion
75.Monthly retirement benefits or pay shall be  Pursuant to RA 9708, <…In addition, the
of the base pay and longevity pay of the retired institution of a criminal action or complaint
grade in case of 20 years active service against a police officer shall not be a bar to
A. 50% C. 10% promotion
B.2.5% D. 55%
80.Refers to the utilization/use of units or
 Monthly retirement pay shall be FIFTY PERCENT elements of the PNP for the purpose of protection
(50%) of the base pay in case of twenty of lives and properties, enforcement of laws,
years of active service, increasing by TWO maintenance of peace and order, prevention of
AND ONE-HALF PERCENT (2.5%) for every crimes, arrest of criminals and bringing the
year of offenders to justice
active service rendered beyond twenty years. A. Deployment C. Reinforcement
B.Reintegration D. Employment
76.This type of plan is intended for specific
purpose such as drug crackdown, crime  Deployment- shall mean the orderly and
prevention program, or neighborhood clean- organized physical movement of elements
up campaign. It concludes when the objective or units of the PNP within the province, city
is accomplished or the problem is solved or municipality for purposes of employment
A. Strategic plan
B. Time Specific plan 81.What is the first step in making a plan?
C. Functional Plan A. Frame of reference
D. time bound operational plan B. Analyzing the Facts
C. Collecting all pertinent data
D. Selling the plan

82.It identify the role of police in the 87.It refers to the process of screening out or
community and future condition in state eliminating undesirable applicants that do
A. Visionary Plans not meet the organization’s selection
B. Strategic Plans criteria
C. Synoptic Planning A. Promotion C. Recruitment
D. Incremental Planning B. Transfer D. Selection
 STRATEGIC PLANS – are designed to meet the  Recruitment – it is the process of
long-range, overall goals of the organization. attracting candidates who have the
 SYNOPTIC PLANNING (Rational comprehensive maximum qualifications to be eligible for
approach) – is the dominant tradition in the selection procedure.
planning. It is also the point of departure for
most other planning approaches. It is base on 88.It is recognized as the best method of filing
<pure= or <objective= rationality and attempts A. Pigeon Hole
to assure optimal achievement of desired B. Retrieval operation
goals from a given situation. It relies heavily on C. Records Management
the problem identification and analysis phase D. Chain of custody
of planning process.
 INCREMENTAL PLANNING – this approach 89. It is
disfavors the exclusive use of planners considere
who have not direct interest in the d to be
problems at hand and favors a sort of the heart
decentralized political bargaining that of any
involves interested parties. identificat
ion
83.The organizational structure of the PNP is . system; it
A. Line C. Staff provides
B.Functional D. Line and staff positive
identificat
 Line – oldest and simplest kind; few departments
ion of the
 Functional – according to functions of criminal
the organization A. Arrest and booking report
B. Miscellaneous Records
84.It is the process of developing methods or C. Identification records
procedure or an arrangement of parts intended D. Fingerprint Records
to facilitate the accomplishment of an objective.
A. Management C. Functioning 90.The payment of Missing Uniformed
B. Budgeting D. Planning Personnel’s monthly salary and allowances for the
heirs is for a maximum of how many months?
85. Refers to any A. 1 year C. 2 months
offense committed B. 30 Days D. 12 months
by a member of
the PNP involving  Absence Without Official Leave (AWOL) -
and affecting order Failure to report for duty without official
and discipline notice for a period of THIRTY (30) DAYS
within the police
organization. 91. In
A. Breech of Internal Discipline Supervisory
B. Citizens Complaint Training, a
C. Minor Offense minimum of
D. Any of these number of hours of
classroom training
 Minor Offense -shall refer to an act or should be required
omission not involving moral turpitude but for newly promoted
affecting the internal discipline of the PNP supervisory
 Citizen’s Complaints- pertains to any personnel
complaint initiated by a private citizen or his A. 72 hours C. 80 hours
duly authorized representative on account of B. 75 hours D. 85 hours
an injury, damage or disturbance sustained
due to an irregular or illegal act committed by 92. It should be
a member of the PNP. proactive, people
oriented, based on
86.Which of the following is NOT a function individual need,
of police personnel unit? and delivered in
A. Preparing policy statements and standard such a way as to
operating Procedures relating to all areas motivate the
of the administration of human resources experienced officer
B. Serves as an adviser to the chief and to a higher degree
other line officials regarding personnel of
matters professionalism/pr
C. Conducts exits interviews with resigning ofessionalization
officers to identify, and subsequently A. Recruit Training
correct, unsatisfactory working conditions B. Specialized training
D. Establish a criteria for promotion to the C. In Service
exclusive ranks D. Field Training
93. When an
officer
reaches the
time-in-
grade
possessing
the entire
mandatory
and other
consideratio
n in
promotion,
is what kind
of
promotion?
A. Promotion by Virtue of Position
B. Regular Promotion
C. Meritorious Promotion
D. Promotion
94. It involves
assistance and
action by non
police agencies
such as Local
Safety Council
for Traffic
Division, DSWD
for
Child/Juvenile
Delinquency, or
Disaster
Preparedness
plans and Civil
defense plans
A. Management Plans
B. Procedural plan
C. Tactical Plans
D. Extra departmental plan

95.Refers to the distinctive physical device of  Walls, ceilings and floor should be 12 inches
metal and ribbon, which constitute the thick
tangible evidence of an award:
A. Medal C. Awards
B.Decorations D. Ribbons
 Award — anything tangible granted to an

individual in recognition of acts of gallantry
or heroism, meritorious service or skill and
proficiency.
 Decoration — a piece of
metal/material representing an award.
96. For every

letters of
commendation, a
medalya ng
papuri may be
awarded to nay
PNP member:
A. Six C. Four
B.Five D. Three
97. Imports
an act of
cruelty,
severity,
unlawful
exaction,
domination, or
excessive use
of authority:
A. Misconduct C. Dishonesty
B.Incompetency D. Oppression
 Misconduct generally mans wrongful,

improper, or unlawful conduct, motivated
by premeditated, obstinate or intentional
purpose. It usually refers to transgressions or
some established and definite rule of action
 Incompetency — is the manifest lack of
adequate ability and fitness for the
satisfactory performance, of police duties.
 Dishonesty — is the concealment or
distortion of the truth in a matter or act
relevant to one’s office, or connected with
the performance of his duties.
98.The operational support unit of the PNP shall

function as a mobile strike force or reaction unit
to augment police forces for civil disturbance
control, counter-insurgency, hostage taking,
rescue operations and other special operations:
A. NARCOM C. SAF
B.SWAT D. SOCO
99. The primary objective of Philippine

National Police:
A. Law Enforcement C. Peace and Order
B.Protect and Serve D. Crime Prevention
100. As a General Rule, High powered

firearms are not allowed to possess except when
there is an upsurge of lawlessness and
criminality as determined by proper authority,
but shall not exceed of the total number
of security guards.
A. 50% C. 20%
B.30% D. 10%
101. The vault door should be

made of steel at least in thickness?
A. 7 inches C. 9 inches
B.6 inches D. 20 feet or more
Specifications of Vault
 Doors should be 6 inches thick made of steel

 Floor should be elevated by 4 inches B.PADPAO D. PNP, SAGSD
 Not more than 5,000 cubic feet in size
 Vault door must be fire-resistive up to  Trade name of the Security Agencies must
4 to 6 hours be registered at the Department of Trade
and Industry
102. An act or condition, which results in a
situation conducive to a breach of the 106. To deny
protection system, or that, could result to outsiders
loss. from visual
A. Hazards C. Human Hazards access in a
B.Natural Hazards D. Security certain
facility what
Hazards Kinds of Security Hazard must be
constructed.
 Human Hazard – is the act or condition A. Full view fence C. Solid fence
affecting the safe operation of the facility B.Chain link fence D. Multiple fences
caused by human action.
 Natural Hazard – is the act or  Full View Fence- This is a kind of fence that
situation caused by natural provides visual access through the fence.
phenomenon, like floods,
typhoons, earthquakes, etc.
103. An
inquiry into
the
character,
reputation,
discretion,
integrity,
morals and
loyalty of an
individual in
order to
determines
person
suitability for
appointment
or access to
classified
matter.
A. Local Agency check

B. Background Investigation
C. National Agency Check
D. Personnel Security Investigation
 National Agency Check- It consists of

LAC supplemented by investigation of
the records and files of the following
agencies: PNP, ISAFP, NBI, CSC, Bureau
of Immigration and Deportation and
other agency.
 Local Agency Check- Refers to the
investigation of the records and files of
agency in the area of principal
residence of the individual being
investigated like Mayor, Police, Fiscal,
Judge.
 Background Investigation – a check
made on an individual usually seeking
employment through subjects records in
the police files, educational institutions,
place of residence, and former
employers.
104. The importance of the firm or

installation with reference to the national
economy security.
A. Relative vulnerability C. Relative program
B.Relative criticality D. Relative security
 Relative Vulnerability – is the susceptibility

of the plant or establishment to damage,
loss or disruption of operation due to
various hazards.
105. Private security agencies have

to be registered with the:
A. SEC C. DTI
107. A private security Guard who is escorting a A. Any of these
big amount of money or cash outside his area B. Secretary, DILG
of jurisdiction shall be issued with a- C. Chairman, NAPOLOCOM
A. Firearms C. Duty Detail Order D. C/PNP
B.Mission Order D. None of These
108. What is
the duration of
the Basic
Security
Guard
Course?
A. 150 Hours C. 48 Hours
B.72 Hours D. 300 Hours
Classification and Duration Period of training
 Basic Security Guard Course (Pre-

Licensing Training Course)- 150 Hours
 Re-Training Course- 48 Hours
 Security Officers Training Course- 300 Hours
 Basic Supervisory Course- 48 Hours
 Security Supervisor Development Course
 Other Specialized Training Course
109. All EXCEPT one are the line leadership staff:
A. Detachment Commander
B. Chief Inspector
C. Post-in-Charge
D. Security Supervisor 1
Line Leadership Staff

 Security Supervisor 3- Detachment
Commander- the field or area commander
of the agency.
 Security Supervisor 2- Chief Inspector-
responsible for inspecting the entire
area coverage by the detachment.
 Security Supervisor 1- Inspector- responsible
for the area assigned by the chief inspector
or the detachment commander.
110. Barbed wire

fences standard
wire is twisted,
double strand, 12
gauge wire with 4
point barbs spaces
in an equal part.
Barbed wire
fencing should not
be less than
high
excluding the top
guard.
A. 8 feet C. 9 feet
B.7 feet D. 6 feet
Barbed Wire Fences (Semi-Permanent)
Specifications
 Standard barbed wire is twisted double

strand, 12 gauge wires, with 4 point barb
spaced on equal distant part.
 Barbed wire fencing should not be less than
7 feet high, excluding the top guard.
 Barbed wire fencing must be firmly affixed
to post not more than 6 feet apart.
 The distance between strands will not
exceed 6 inches and at least one wire will be
interlock vertical and midway between
posts.
111. Who exercises the power to remove,

for cause, license issued to security guards.

112. What device designed to
type of prevent entry into
alarm is a building, room
best suited container, or
for doors hiding place, and
and to prevent the
windows? removal of items
A. Photoelectric C. Audio detection without the
B.Metallic foil D. Vibration Detection consent of the
owner
 Photoelectric or Electric Eye Device - A A. Padlocks C. Code Operated
light beam connected by a wire to control B.Locks D. Combination Locks
station and when an intruder crosses the
beam he breaks the contact with the  Padlock- A portable and detachable lock
photoelectric coil which thus activates having or sliding hasp which passes through
the alarm. a staple ring or the like and is then made fast
 Audio Detection Device - It is a or secured.
supersensitive microphone speaker  Code-Operated Locks - They are open
sensor that is installed in walls, ceilings, by pressing a series of numbered buttons in
and floors of the protected area, Any the proper sequence.
sound caused by attempted forced entry  Combination Locks - A lock that requires
is detected by file censor. manipulation of dials according to a
 Vibration detection device - Any predetermined combination code of numbers
vibration caused by attempted force or letters
entry is detected by the sensor.
113. Is the
process of
conducting
physical
examination
to
determine
compliance
with
establishme
nt security
policies and
procedures?
A. Security Education C. Security Inspection
B.Security Planning D. Security Survey
Security Planning- Is a corporate and

executive responsibility. It involves knowing the
objectives of the security and the means and
the method to reach those objectives or goal
must then evolve.
 Security Survey- Is the process of

conducting an exhaustive physical
examination and thorough inspection of
all operation system and procedures of
a facility
 Security Education - The basic goal
is to acquaint all the employees the
justification behind the security
measures and to insure cooperation at
all times.
114. What is the last phase of Security Education?

A. Initial Interview C. Conference
B.Dissemination D. Security promotion
Phases of Security Education

 Initial Interview
 Training Conference
 Refresher Conference
 Security Reminders
 Security Promotion
 Special Interview
 Debriefing
115. A
mechanical,
electrical,
hydraulic or
electronic

116. A type of protective alarm system where incandescent lamps used in pinpointing
the protective alarm located outside the potential
installation.  Street Lights - produced diffused light rather than
A. Local Alarm system C. Central Station System direction beam.
B.Auxiliary System D. Proprietary
 Local Alarm by chance System - This is a local

alarm in which a siren or bell is sounded with
no predicable Response.
 Auxiliary System - In this system installation
circuits are led into local police or fire
department by lease telephone line
 Proprietary System - It is the same as the
central station system except that it is
owned by, operated and located in the
facility
117. In which the badge or pass coded for

authorization to enter specific areas issued to
an employees who keeps it in the possession
until his authorization is change or until he
terminates.
A. Single Pass C. Pass exchange system
B.Visitors pass system D. Multiple Pass System
 Pass Exchange System- Which he

exchange one-color coded pass at the
entrance to the controlled area is issued to
an employee who keeps it in his possession
until his authorization or until he terminates.
 Multiple Pass System- Multiple copies of passes
are issued to an individual with the same
photograph. The individual exchange his
badge for another color or markings at the
entrance. Once inside, if he needs to enter a
restricted area, he exchanges it for another
color acceptable in that area.
118. It is placed on the floor in such a position

that tellers may activate the alarm by placing the
front of their foot to engage the activation bar
A. Bill traps C. Knee or Thigh Buttons
B.Foot Rail Activator D. Double Squeeze Button
 Bill Traps - It is also known as Currency

Activation, when currency is removed
from the devices, the alarm is activated.
 Knee or Thigh Buttons - It is installed inside the
deck or teller station so they can be activated
by knee or thigh pressure.
 Double Squeeze Button - It requires pressure
on both side of the device and therefore the
probability of accidental alarm is reduced.
119. These are

wide beam units,
used to extend
the illumination in
long, horizontal
strips to protect
the approaches to
the perimeter
barrier; it
projected a
narrow,
horizontal and
from 15 to 30
degrees in the
vertical plane
A. Fresnel Lights C. Floodlights
B.Street Lights D. Search lights
 Floodlights - projects light in a

concentrated beam. Best used in
boundaries, building or fences. Otherwise
known as reflectorized or spotlight.
 Searchlights - highly focused

120. The following Firearms are allowed are storage
to be issued to a private security guard devices which are
under normal condition: usually designed
I. Cal .50; to be at least
II. Cal .45; fire resistant.
III. Cal .38; A. 3 hours C. 6 hours
IV. Magnum .22; and B.24 hours D. 12 hours
V. 12 Gauge Shotgun.
A. II, III, IV C. III, IV, V

B.II, III, IV, V D. I, II, III, IV, V
121. What is
the required
capital
investment for
organization of
private
security
agency?
A. P 500,000 C. P 1,000,000
B.P 100,000 D. P 50,000
New applicants to operate shall be required

to obtain a minimum capitalization of
ONE MILLION (P1, 000, 000.00) pesos
with a minimum bank deposit of FIVE
HUNDRED THOUSAND (P500, 000.00)
pesos in order to start its business
operations.
122. One who steals with preconceived

plans and takes away any or all types of
items or supplies for economic gain?
A. Normal Pilferer C. Casual Pilferer
B.Regular Pilferer D. Systematic pilferer
 Casual Pilferer – one who steals due

to his inability to resist the unexpected
opportunity and has little fear of
detection.
123. The metallic container used for

securing documents or small items in
an office or installation refers to:
A. Safe C. File room
B.Vault D. None of these
124. Chain link fences must be

constructed in material
excluding the top guard?
A. Seven feet C. Four feet
B.Six feet D. Five feet
Chain Link Fences (Permanent Structure)

Specifications
 Must be constructed in 7 feet

material excluding the top guard
 Must be of 9 gauge or heavier
 Mesh opening must not be larger
than 2 inches
125. The
following
things are used
as barrier,
which serves
as a deterrent
to the possible
intruder in an
Industrial
Complex,
EXCEPT:
A. Human C. Doors
B.Fences D. NONE
126. Vaults
127. A lock which is commonly installed in safe 131. The
deposit boxes and is deemed pick proof since it following
is operated by utilizing combinations of a dial. are
A. None C. Card Operated Locks principles
B.Combination lock D. Disc Tumbler locks of Physical
Security,
 Card-Operated Locks - Coded card
EXCEPT:
notched, embossed or containing an
embedded pattern of copper flocks. A. There is impenetrable Barrier.
 Disc Tumbler Locks - Also known as wafer B. Surreptitiously and non-surreptitiously entry.
tumbler type, has flat metal tumblers with C. Defense is depth - barrier after barrier.
open center fitted into lock case, commonly D. Intelligence requires continuous security
used for Automobile Industry which affords measures.
delay up to 7 to 10 minutes.
132. For a
128. The Security
maximum agency, how
number of much is the
firearms allowed registration
to possess by a fee for each
PSA should not security
exceed by units. guard?
A. 30 C. 500 A. 2,000.00 Php C. 20.00 Php
B.70 D. 1000 B.50.00 Php D. 100.00 Php
Use of Firearms Payment of fees and licenses

 Number of firearms shall not exceed one
(1) for every two (2) Security Guard. (1:2)  For Agency
 For Temporary licensed, one hundred  The sum of two thousand pesos (P
(100) guards, an initial of at least 30 2,000.00) as national license fee
licensed firearms. payable to the National Treasurer.
 For regular licensed two hundred guards  The sum of twenty pesos (P 20.00)
(200), at least 70 pieces of licensed as payment for registration fee for
firearms. each security guard employed.
 For Individual
129. What type of gaseous discharge lamp  One hundred pesos (P 100.00) per
emits a blue- green color? year for Security Consultant,Security
Officer and Private Detectives
A.Sodium vapor lamp  Fifty (P 50.00) pesos per year for
B.Mercury vapor lamp Security Guard payable at the Chief
C.Gaseous-Discharge Lamp Finance Office, HQ PNP.
D.Quartz lamp
Sodium Vapor Lamp- Type of Gaseous 133. Security
Discharge lamp that emit Yellow Clearance is a
Light. certification by a
 Quarts Lamp- These lamps emits very responsible
bright white light and instant on almost authority that the
as rapidly as the incandescent lamp. person described
 Gaseous-Discharge Lamp- it is very is cleared to
economical to use but for industrial access and
security it is not acceptable due to long classify matters
time of lighting. It requires 2 to 5 minutes at appropriate
to light. levels. Interim
 Incandescent Lamps- These are common clearance will
light bulbs that are found in every home. remain valid for a
They have the advantage of providing period of from
instant illumination the date of
issuance.
130. What type of security deals with the A. 1 year C. 4 years
industrial plants and business enterprises where B.2 years D. 5 years
personnel, processes, properties and operations
are safeguarded?  Final Clearance- Effectivity Five Years
A. Personal security C. Operational security
B.industrial security D. bank security 134. The term
used in England
 Personal Security- Involves the protection for lock pickers,
of top-ranking officials of the safecrackers and
government, visiting persons of illustrious penetrators of
standing and foreign dignitaries. Also restricted areas
called VIP security. or room.
 Operational Security- This involves the A. Peterman C. Pick Lockers
protection of processes, formulas, and B.Thug D. Peterpan
patents, industrial and manufacturing
activities from espionage, infiltration, 135. The tenure of a security guard is:
loss, compromise or photocopying. A. Six Months
 School Security- Security involving not only B. Co-terminus with the service contract
facilities but also the students or pupils. C. Two years
D. Contractual
136. Which among the following is

not an advantage of a full-view
fence, except:
A. It allows visual access to the
installation which aids the intruder
in planning
B. It allows the intruder to become
familiar with the movements of
persons in the installation.
C. It creates shadows which could
prevent concealment of the
intruder.
D. None of these

137. Every registered PSA are mandatory to B.1:5 D. 1:1
give surety bond which shall answer for any
valid and legal claims against such agency filed
by aggrieved party. How much is the Surety
bond of PSA with 500-799 guards.
A. 50, 000 C. 150, 000
B.100, 000 D. 200, 000
 Surety Bond
o Agency with 1-199 guards – P 50,000.00
o Agency with 200-499 guards – P100,000.00
This bond shall answer for any valid and legal

claims against such agency filed by aggrieved
party.
138. What type of investigation involves all

aspect and details about the circumstances of a
person?
A. partial background investigation

B. personnel security investigation
C. complete background investigation
D. national agency check
 Partial Background Investigation -

investigation of the background of the
individual but limited only to some of
the circumstances of his personal life.
139. The exposure and the teaching of

employees
on security and its relevance to their work is:
A. Security Inspection C. Security Education
B.Security Orientation D. Security Survey
140. It is under physical security which

provides sufficient illumination to areas
during hours of darkness.
A. Protective Lighting C. Standby Lighting
B.Emergency Lighting D. Moveable Lighting
 Standby Lighting- This system is similar to

continuous lighting but it is turn on manually
or by special device or other automatic
means.
 Moveable Lighting- This consist of stationary or
portable, manually operated searchlights.
The searchlights may be lighted continuously
during the hours of darkness nor only as
needed, it is just a supplementary to other
protective or security Lighting.
 Emergency Lighting- This standby lighting may
be utilized in the event of electric failure,
either due to local equipment or commercial
failure.
 Stationary Luminary- This is a common type
consisting of series of fixed luminous flood
a given area continuously with overlap
141. In order to be
qualified as a Security Consultant, you must
have year/s
experience in the operation and management of
security business.
A. At least 5 years C. At least 10 years
B.At least 1 year D. At least 3 years
142. What is the

ratio of the
security guard to
their licensed
firearm is needed
after operating for
six months.
A. 1:3 C. 1:2

143. Wha A. Partially Correct C. Partially Wrong
t type of B.Absolutely Correct D. Absolutely Wrong
gaseous
discharge
lamp is
useful in
areas
where
insects
predomin
ate?
A. Mercury vapor lamp

B. Sodium vapor Lamp
C. Quartz lamp
D. Gaseous Discharge Lamp
 Amber color does not attract

insects at night.
144. What is an act governing the

organization and management of private
security agency, company guard force
and government security forces?
A. RA 8574 C. RA 4587
B.RA 5478 D. RA 5487
145.Wire fencing can be barbed wire, chain

link or concertina. Chain link are for .
A. Solid structure
B. Permanent structure
C. Least permanent structure
D. Semi- permanent structure
 Barbed Wire Fences (Semi-Permanent)

 Concertina Wire Fences (Least Permanent)
146. It is more comprehensive

investigation than the NAC & LAC since it
includes thorough and complete
investigation of all or some of the
circumstances or aspects of a person’s
life is conducted?
A. Personnel Security Investigation

B. Background Investigation
C. Partial Background Investigation
D. Complete Background Investigation
147. The unobstructed area maintained on

both sides of a perimeter barrier on the
exterior and interior parallel area to afford
better observation of the installation refers
to:
A. Clear zone C .Complimentary zone
B.Open zone D. Free zone
148. The extension period for a license to

operate issued upon a PSA that lacks the
required minimum number of guards is:
A. 1 month C. 6 months
B.2 years D. 1 year
149. Which of the following types of

lock is generally used in car doors?
A. Warded lock C. Lever lock
B.Disc tumbler lock D. Combination lock
150. Which among the following

aspects of Security is the weakest of
them all?
A. Physical security
B. Personnel security
C. Personal Security
D. Document and information security
151. <There is no impenetrable barrier=. The

statement is-
152. It refers to
any structure or 158. It refers to
physical device records that are
capable of irreplaceable;
restriction, reproduction of
deterring or this record does
delaying illegal not have the same
access to an value as the
installation. original.
A. Animal Barrier C. Perimeter Barrier A. Vital Documents
B.Barrier D. Energy Barrier B. Important Documents
C. Useful Documents
 Perimeter Barrier- A medium or structure which D. Non- Essential Documents
defines the physical limits of an installation or
area to restrict or impeded access thereto
 Animal Barrier – Animals are used in partially
providing a guarding system like dogs and
geese.
 Energy Barrier – It is the employment of
mechanical, electrical, electronic energy
imposes a deterrent to entry by the
potential intruder.
153. It is normally provided at main perimeter

entrances to secure areas located out of doors,
and manned by guards on a full time basis.
A. Guard Control Stations C. Tower
B.Tower Guard D. Control Stations
 Tower/Guard Tower – house-like structures

above the perimeter barriers. It gives a
psychological effect to violators.
154. Any officer

or enlisted man of
the AFP or
uniform member
of the PNP
honorably
discharged/separ
ated or retired
from the service
are exempted
from the
requirements of a
private detective.
The statement is-
A. False C. Absolutely True
B.Partially True D. Maybe False
155. The following are the areas to be lighted:

a. Parking Areas;
b. Thoroughfare;
c. Pedestrian Gates;
d. Vehicular Gates; and
e. Susceptible Areas.
A. a, c, e C. a, b, c, d
B.a, c, d, e D. a, b, c, d, e
156. An additional overhead of barbed wire

placed on vertical perimeter fences fencing
upwards and outward with a 45* angle with
three to four strands of barbed wires spread
6= apart.
A. Top guard C. Fence Top
B.Barbed Wire D. None of these
157. When are security guards deputized by the

PNP Chief or local mayor to have police authority
within their assigned area of responsibility?
A. When there is an employee’s strike

B.When the company is in retrenchment
C. During times of emergency
D. When there is a crime committed inside
the establishment

Types of Documents 163. The
following
 Class II – Important Documents- This are
includes records, the reproduction of exempted
which will close considerable expense from Pre-
and labor, or considerable delay. licensing
 Class III – Useful Document- This include training.
records whose loss might cause 1. Holder of a Degree of Bachelor of Laws
inconvenience but could b readily 2. Holder of Degree of Bachelor of Science in
replaced and which would not in the Criminology;
meantime present an insurmountable 3. Graduate of CI Course offered by NBI
obstacle or any PNP training school;
 Class IV – Non-essential Documents- 4. Veterans and retired
These records are daily files, routine in military/police personnel; and
nature even if lost or destroyed, will not 5. Honorably discharged military/police
affect operation or administration. This personnel.
class represents the bulk of the records
which should not be attempted to A. 1, 2, 3, and 5 C. 1, 3, and 5
protect. B.1, 2, 3, and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
159. It is the 164. The

importance minimum age
of firm with requirement for
reference to Security
the national Manager or
economy Operator of a
and security agency
security. is:
A. Relative Operation A. 18 yrs. Old C. 25 yrs. Old
B. Relative Security B.50 yrs. Old D. 35 yrs. Old
C. Relative Vulnerability  18 years Old- minimum age
D. Relative Criticality of Operation qualification for SG.
 50 years Old – Maximum age
160. A new qualification for SG.
Private
security
agency that
has been
issued a
temporary
license to
operate is
good for how
many years?
A. One C. Two
B.Three D. Four
 PSAs with 200-1000 guards – a regular

license to operate good for two (2)
years
161. The
removal of the
security
classification
from the
classified
matter.
A. Segregation C. Declassify
B.Reclassify D. Exclusion
162. The
form of
security
that
employs
cryptogra
phy to
protect
informati
on refers
to:
A. Document and information security
B. Operational security
C. Communication security
D. Industrial security

165. The following are the categories of 173. These
automatic alarm system, EXCEPT: provides access
A. Photoelectric C. Electric Eye Device within the
B.Audio detection D. Bill Traps perimeter
barrier and
166. Which of the following is NOT a false key? should be
A. picklock or similar tool . locked and
B. A duplicate key of the owner. guarded.
C. A genuine key stolen from the owner. A. Gates and Doors
D. Any key other than those intended by B. Side-Walk Elevator
the owner. C. Utilities Opening
D. Clear Zones
167. The Normal weight of a safe is at
least: 174. A fact finding
A. 500 lbs. C. 750 lbs. probe to determine
B.1000 lbs. D. 600 lbs. a plant adequacy
and deficiency in
168. The minimum all aspects of
number of guards security, with the
required for a corresponding
company security recommendation
force is: is:
A. 1000 C. 30 A. security inspection C. security education
B.100 D. 200 B.security training D. security survey
 For PSAs – a minimum of two hundred (200) 175. What unit of PNP handles the processing
and maximum of one thousand (1,000). and issuances of license for private security
personnel?
169. It refers A. PNP SOSIA C. PNP FED
to a system B.PADPAO D. PNP SAGSD
use in big
installation 176. What is the most common type of human
whereby hazard?
keys can A. Sabotage C. Pilferage
open a group B.Theft D. Subversion
of locks.
A. Key Control C. Master Keying 177. What is the security force maintained and
B.Change Key D. Grand Master Key operated by any private company/ corporation
for its own security requirements?
 Key control- is the management of keys in A. GSU C. CSF
a plant or business organization to prevent B.PSA D. PD
unauthorized individual access to the keys.
 Change key - A key to single lock within Types of Security Guard
a master keyed system.  Private Security- A security guard hired
 Sub-Master Key - A key that will open all by client belonging to private security
the locks within a particular area or agency.
grouping in a given facility.  Government Security- A security guard
 Master Key - A special key capable recruited and employed by the government
of opening a series of locks.
 Grand Master Key - A key that will open 178. What type of
everything involving two or more master controlled area
key groups. requires highest
degree of security?
170. PADPAO stands for: A. Limited C. Restricted
A. Philippine Association of Detective and B.Special D. Exclusive
Protective Agency Operators, Inc.
B.Philippine Alliance of Detective and Protective  Restricted Area - It refers to an area in
Agency Operators, Inc. which personnel or vehicles are controlled
C. Philippine Association of Detective for reasons of security.
and Protector Agency Operators, Inc.  Limited Area - It is a restricted area in
D. Philippine Agencies of Detective and which lesser degree of control is required
Protective Associations Operators, Inc. than in an exclusion area but which the
security interest would be compromised by
171. It refers to a protection against any type uncontrolled movement.
of crime to safeguard life and assets by
various methods and device. 179. File room is a
A. Physical Security C. Perimeter Security cubicle in a
B.Operational Security D. Security building
constructed a
172. All EXCEPT one are the qualifications little lighter than
of a security officer. a vault but bigger
size. One of the
A. Has graduated from a Security specifications of
Officer Training Course. file room should
B. Holder of Masters Degree. be feet
C. Retired personnel of the PNP or AFP. high.
D. Physically or mentally fit. A. 12 C. 36
B.24 D. 48
Specifications of File Room
 Should be 12 feet high
 Interior cubage should not be more
than 10,000 cubic feet
 Water-tight door, fire-proof for 1 hour
180.
Concertina wire should be feet
long and 3 feet diameter.
A. 20 feet C. 40 feet
B.30 feet D. 50 feet

181. What type of security lighting is 188. The highest rank in security
focused to the intruder while the guard agency organizational structure:
remains in the comparative darkness? A. Security Executive Director
A. Controlled lighting C. Fresnel light B. Chief Security Director
B.Emergency lighting D. Glare- projection C. Security Staff Director
D. Security Staff Director
 Controlled Lighting Type- The lighting is
focused on the pile of items, rather Security Management Staff
than the back ground.  Security Director (SD)-Agency Manager/Chief
Security officer- responsible for the entire
182. What is the system of natural or manmade
operation and administration/management
barriers placed between the potential intruder
of the security agency
and the object, person and matter being
 Security Executive Director (SED) - Assistant
protected?
agency manager/Assistant chief security
A. Communication security officer- automatically the security
B. Document security executive director, assists the agency
C. Physical security security director and takes operational and
D. Barrier administrative management when the
manager is absent.
183. The following are the purposes of  Security Staff Director (SSD) - Staff director for
Security Survey, EXCEPT: operation and administration- He is also
A. To ascertain the present economic status responsible for the conduct of investigation
B.To determine the protection needed and training.
C. To make recommendations to improve
189. A heavily constructed fire and burglar
the overall security
resistance container usually a part of the
D. None of these
building structure use to keep, and protect cash,
documents and valuables materials.
184. License to Operate (LTO) is a License
A. Vault C. Safe
Certificate document which is issued by
B.File Room D. None of these
authorizing a person to engage in
employing security guard or detective, or a
190. Juan Esperanza is a security guard, after
juridical person to establish, engage, direct,
his Tour of Duty, what shall he do with his
manage or operate a private detective agency.
Firearm?
A. Secretary of DILG
A. Return the Firearm for safekeeping in the
company’s Vault.
B.Chief, PNP
B. Turnover to the next security guard on
C. Security and Exchange Commission
duty.
D. President
C. Bring home the firearms for easy responses.
D. Deposit the Firearm inside the drawer
185. One of the specifications of
of the guards table.
a barbed wire fence is that the distances
between strands will not exceed and at least 191. Any physical structure whether natural
one wire will be interlock vertical and midway or man-made capable of restricting,
between posts. deterring or delaying illegal or unauthorized
A. 3 inches C. 6 inches access.
B.4 inches D. 7 inches A. Perimeter Fences C. Wire Fences
B.Moveable Barrier D. Barrier
186. Clear Zone of must be established
between the perimeter barrier and structure 192. A company owned protective alarm with
within the protected areas. unit in a nearest police station of fire department.
A. 20 feet or more C. 40 feet or more A. Proprietary Alarm C. Auxiliary Alarm
B.30 feet or more D. 50 feet or more B.Central Alarm D. Security Alarm
20 feet or more between the perimeter barrier 193. It is Lighting equipment which produced
and exterior structure. (Outside) diffused light rather than direction beam. They
are widely used in parking areas
187. Which among A. Street Lights C. Search Lights
the following B.Flood Lights D. Fresnel Lights
statements is
FALSE? 194. PSAs with
cancelled/revoked licenses shall cease to operate,
A. Protective Lighting diminish visibility so that
and with days after having been
intruders can be seen, identified or
duly notified of such cease operation order, shall
apprehend.
immediately deposit all its firearms with the FEO.
B. Protective Lighting makes easier for
A. 7 days C. 21 days
guards to identify employees during night
B.3 days D. 30 days
time.
C. Protective Lighting gives
Psychological fear, which serves as a
deterrent.
D. Protective Lighting can reduce the
number of stationary guards.

195. It is a test for safe’ to determine if the 201. The patrol
sudden rise in temperature will not cause the strategy which
safe to rupture. If the safe can withstand 2000 employs bait or
0F for 30 minutes without cracking or opening
distracter to in
then it has passed the test. order to catch
A. Fire Endurance Test criminals is known
B. Fire and Impact Test as:
C. Burning Test A. High visibility patrol
D. Explain Hazard Test C. Target Oriented patrol
B.Low visibility patrol
Test for Fire Resistance
D. Decoy patrol
 Fire Endurance Test- A safe should not
have any one time a temperature 350
0F.  Low Visibility - This patrol tactic is designed to
increase the number of apprehension of law
 Fire and Impact Test- Its objective is
violator to engage in certain types of crimes
to determine the strength of a safe to
 High Visibility – Marked police Car and
resist the collapse of a building during
Poilce inj Uniform. Primary objective is
fire.
Crime Prevention.
196. Services of any security personnel shall
 Target Oriented Patrol - It is patrol strategy
be terminated on the following grounds:
which is directed towards specific persons
1. Expiration of contract;
or places.
2. Revocation of license to
exercise profession; 202. Barangay Tanod is included in
3. Conviction of crime involving moral what component of Integrated Patrol
turpitude; System?
4. Loss of trust and confidence; and A. Fixed Component
5. Physical and mental disability. B. Auxiliary Component
A. 1, 2, 4, and 5 C. 1, 3, 4, and 5 C. Secondary Component
B.1, 2, 3, and 4 D. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 D. Patrol Component
197. For every security guard the basic load  Fixed Components - include the different
of their Firearm is- police station headquarters, PCP, police
A. 50 rounds C. 30 rounds visibility points, and traffic post.
B.25 rounds D. Unlimited  Patrol Components - include the air patrols;
the line beat patrols, mobile patrols and
 50 rounds- basic load of a firearm detective repressive patrols.
 Auxiliary Components - include the
198. The following are the specifications of a
security guards deployed in area,
Vault:
the traffic enforcer, barangay
I. Walls, ceilings and floor should be 12
tanods, volunteers and NGO’s.
inches thick;
II. Not more than 5,000 cubic feet in size; 203. Report prepared by the patrol officer
III. Doors should be 1 1/2 inches thick upon reaching the end of the line beat, and
made of steel; and before returning to the point of origin.
IV. Floor should be elevated by 4 inches. A. Daily Patrol Report C. Situation Report
A. I, III, IV C. I, II, III B.Investigation Report D. Incident Report
B.I, II, IV D. I, II, III, IV
Daily Patrol Report – after the Tour of Duty
199. Practical Test or exercise of a plan or
any activities to test its validity. 204. The ideal police response time is:
A. Practice C. Dry run
A. 3 minutes C. 5 minutes
B.Rehearsal D. Trial B.7 minutes D. 10 minutes
200. A fixed point or location to which an officer 205. Persons, Place, thing, situation or
is assigned for duty: condition possessing a high potential for
A. Post C. Beat criminal attack or for the creation of problem
B.Area D. Route necessitating a demand for immediate police
service:
 Route - the length of street or streets,
A. Hazard C. Opportunity
designated for patrol purposes also
referred to as line beat. B.Perception of Hazard D. Police Hazard
 Beat - an area designed for patrol
 Hazard – it refers to any person, place,
purposes, whether foot or
thing, situation, or condition which, if allowed
motorized.
to exist may induce an accident or cause the
 Sector - an area containing two or
commission of a crime.
more beats, routes or posts.
 District - a geographical subdivision of 206. The most
a city for patrol purposes, usually with expensive patrol
its method and gives
own station. the greatest
 Area - A section or territorial division of opportunity to
a large city. develop sources
of information is:
A. Foot Patrol C. Marine Patrol
B.Mobile Patrol D. Helicopter Patrol

207. Walking closed to the building at night is operated very quietly
a tactic in patrol which makes the policemen and without
less visible during the night. The primary attracting attention.
purpose is: A. Mobility and wide area coverage.
A. To surprise criminals in the act of B. Reduced speed and greater area
committing a crime covered.
B. To have sufficient cover C. Shorter travel time and faster response.
C. To attract less attention D. Mobility and stealth
D. D, For safety of the Patrol officer
214. What is the most
208. The excellent method of
following are Patrol in San Juanico
included in the Bridge?
cause and effect A. Foot Patrol C. K-9 Patrol
of team policing. B.Automobile Patrol D. Bicycle Patrol
a. Reduce public fear on crime;
b. lessen the crime rate;
c. Facilitate career development;
d. Diminish police morale; and
e. Improve police community relation.
A. a, b, e C. a, b, d, e
B.a, c, d, e D. a, b, c, e
209. This patrol

tactic differs from
traditional patrol
methods in that
patrol methods;
patrol officers
perform specific
predetermined
preventive
functions on a
planned
systematic basis:
A. Target Oriented Patrol
B. High-Visibility Patrol
C. Low-Visibility Patrol
D. Directed deterrent Patrol
210. Small alleys like those in the squatter’s area

can be best penetrated by the police through.
A. Foot patrol C. Bicycle patrol
B.Mobile patrol D. Helicopter patrol
211. Integrated patrol system is the total

system used to accomplish the police visibility
program of the PNP. The Police officers in Police
Community Precincts render 24 hours duty with
prescribed divisions of:
A. 2 shifts C. 4 shifts
B.3 shifts D. every other day
shift.
212. The objective of this Patrol is to reduce

or totally prevent the desire of human being
to commit crime.
A. Preventive C. Proactive
B.Reactive D. High Visibility
 Proactive Patrol- Deployment of Patrol

personnel in their respective Area of
Responsibility with definite
objectives.
 Reactive Patrol- An old concept in
patrolling wherein officers and units drive
around their area of responsibility waiting
for something to happen or waiting for a
call that they will respond.
213. Bicycle
patrol has the
combined
advantage of
since
they can be
215. When was the first automobile patrol danger of causing
initiated in the Philippines and the First Chief death or injury to
of the Mobile patrol bureau of Manila Police the police officer
Department was Isaias Alma Jose? or any other
A. May 7, 1954 C. May 17, 1954 person, and that
B.May 14, 1957 D. March 10, 1917 the use of firearm
does not create a
216. As a Patrol danger to the
officer, when public and
checking outweighs the
suspicious likely benefits of
persons, places, its non-use. In
buildings/ firing upon a
establishments moving vehicle,
and vehicles the following
especially during parameters
night-time, be should be
prepared to use considered
your service EXCEPT:
firearm and
Flashlight should A. Accessibility or the proximity of the
be- fleeing suspect/s with the police officer and
A. Nearby the body, to other persons.
have an easy searching of a B.The capability of the fleeing suspect/s to
possible target. harm in certainty the police officer or other
B. Tightly away from the body to avoid persons
making you a possible target. C. The intent of the fleeing suspect/s to harm
C. Close at hand to your firearm the police officer or other p
to threaten possible adversary. D.The kind of vehicle of the fleeing suspect/s to
D. None of these avoid traffic accident.
220. When Patrol

217. What is officer visually
your priority observe a
as a Patrol weapon during
officer when pat-down search,
responding a more secure
to Calls for search position
Police may be:
Assistance?
A. Arrest criminals C. Securing the area A. Standing position
B.Aiding the injured D. Extort Money B. Lying Face down Position
C. Hands placed against a stationary object,
218. T and feet spread apart.
he D. All of these
follow
ing
are
the
dutie
s of
Patrol
Supe
rvisor
s:
1.Make a patrol plan;
2. Designate and select the members of
the patrol team/s;
3. Inspect the members of the patrol on
the completeness;
4. Render hourly report of location
and situation; and
5. Resolve conflicts/differences
between neighbours.
A. II, III, IV, V C. II, III, IV

B.I, II, III, IV D. I, II, III, V,
219. As a
rule, moving
vehicle shall
not be fired
upon, except
when its
occupants
pose
imminent

221. All except one are the types of the people to the
specialized patrol method: police:
A. Marine Patrol C. Air Patrol A. Horse Patrol C. Bicycle Patrol
B.Canine Patrol D. Foot Patrol B.Automobile Patrol D. Foot Patrol
222. A uniformed patrol officers work in  Automobile Patrol - It separates public

generally judged by his- from the Police.
i. Knowledge of all problems in the community

ii. Residents developed good public relations
iii. Ability
iv. His capability to solve crimes that happened
in his area
223. Can the Patrol officers disperse

unlawful assemblies?
A. True C. False
224. In Police Radio System, What frequency

is needed in the police department?
A. 300, 000 KM per Seconds
B. 30 – 300 MHz
C. Above 30 MHz
D. NONE
 Radio waves- The radio or

electromagnetic waves travel as fast as the
speed of light at 186, 000 miles per
second or 300, 000 kilometers per second.
 30 – 300 MHz – intended for short distances
transmission.
225. Which of
the following
is NOT TRUE
about patrol?
A. It is the backbone of the police department
B.It is the essence of police operation
C. It is the nucleus of the police department
D.It is the single largest unit in the police
department that can be eliminated
226. It is
usually used
for traffic,
surveillance,
parades
and special
events.
A. Random Foot Patrol C. Fixed Foot Patrol
B.Moving Foot Patrol D. Line Beat Patrol
 Moving Foot Patrol – It is used when then

there is considerable foot movement such
as business and shopping center, family
dwellings and the like.
o Line beat patrol – it is used in securing
certain portion of the road.
o Random foot Patrol – It is used in
checking residential buildings,
business establishments, dark alley,
and parking lots.
227. The following are patrol activities, except:

A. Arrest of alleged criminals
B.Responding to emergency calls
C. Inspection services
D. Preparation of investigation reports
228. This type of

patrol maintains
better personal
contact with the
members of the
community ideal in
gaining the trust
and confidence of
229. The patrol pattern which is usually A. Straightway C. Crisscross
done at the last hour of duty to ascertain B.Sector D. Zigzag
that nothing happened in the area of
responsibility of the patrol officer is:
A. Clockwise pattern
B. Zigzag pattern
C. Counter clockwise pattern
D. Crisscross pattern
 Clockwise Patrol Pattern -

Rectangular/square size of beat; done in
the start of 8 hours tour of duty.
 Zigzag/Free Wheeling Patrol Pattern - Done
by patrolling the streets within the
perimeter of the beat not at random but
with definite target location where he
knows his presence is necessary.
 Straightway and Criss-Cross Patrol
Pattern - Hazard oriented patrol; Easiest
to observe the movement of the patrol
officer.
 Cloverleaf Pattern - A highway
intersection designed to route traffic
without interference, by means of a
system of curving ramps from one level
to another, in the form of a Four (4) leaf
clover
230. The following are the advantages

of Foot Patrol. EXCEPT:
A. It involves larger number of personnel
B.It develops greater contact with the public
C. It insures familiarization of area
D. It promotes easier detection of crime
231. Dogs are of great assistance in search

and rescue as well as in smelling out drugs
and bombs. What do you call the large dog
with drooping ears and sagging jaws and
keenest smell among all dogs, formerly used
for tracking purposes?
A. German shepherd C. Bloodhounds
B.Doberman pinscher D. WOLVES
 German Shepherd- the most frequently

used and high scoring dog for police
work
 WOLVES (Wireless Operational Link and
Video Exploration System) – It is the
system of attaching miniature camera
and transmitter to a search dog which
makes the dogs the eyes and ears of his
handler.
232. The best method of patrol to be

done in sector is:
A. Foot C. Automobile
B.Bicycle D. Helicopter
233. A supervisor’s span of control is

usually computed in terms of number
of:
A. Superiors to whom he reports
B. Superiors from whom he takes orders
C. Subordinates directly reporting to him
D. Any of these
234. Frequent
beat changes prevent a police officer
from becoming with
people, hazards, and facilities on his
beat.
A. Well Acquainted C. Sluggish
B.Energetic D. Unfamiliar
235. The patrol pattern to be followed

after the clockwise and before the
counter-clockwise?
236. The 243. Psych
two-man patrol became due to ology of Omniprescense means .
increase attack of police officer by militant, A. Low Visibility C. High Visibility
dangerous section to be patrolled and many riots B. Reactive D. Proactive
demonstration in the street.
A. Unnecessary C. Necessary
B.Voluntary D. Redundant 244. X wanted to
commit suicide
237. A police strategy which aims to by jumping in a
directly involve members of the 13th floor
community in the maintenance of peace building. Which
and order by police officers. of the following
A. Integrated Police System should be the
C. Detective Beat System first thing to do
B.Comparative Police System by the Patrol
D. Community Oriented Policing System officer who first
arrived at the
Integrated Patrol System scene?
A. Urge no to jump
 Considered as the best way of immersing
B. Call nearest relative
policemen in various activities of a
C. Clear the area
particular area and to demonstrate to the
D. Report immediately to Station
populace the commitment of the Police to
serve and protect the community.
245. What is the
 It is response to the requirement of
most realistic
Police Visibility.
advantage of the
Detective Beat System - enhancing the efficiency motorcycle patrol
and effectiveness of the PNP’s investigation over the other
capability patrol methods?
A. Low cost C. Visibility
238. Which among the following routine patrol B.Speed D. Security
duties, is the least likely to become completely
a function of automobile patrol is the checking 246. 1st
of- Statement- The
A. Security of business establishment. objectives of Patrol
B.Street light outrages. officers are
C. Roadway defects and damaged traffic signs. different from
D. Illegal posting of signs and other advertisement. ordinary Police
Officer.
239. It is the most disadvantage of fixed post
for patrolmen in areas where police hazards 2nd Statement- Patrol is the ears and eyes of
are serious is that, it usually- Police Organization.
A. Encourages laxness on the part of Patrolman.
B.Lays the patrolman open to 3rd Statement- Patrol plays a major role in
unwarranted charges. determining the quality of justice to be served in a
C. Wasteful of manpower. community.
D. Keeps the patrolman out of sight or
hearing when quick mobilization is needed. 4th Statement- All police function had been
vested to the patrol division.
240. Patrol weaken the potential offenders
A. The 1st and 4th statements are correct
belief in the-
B. The 2nd and 3rd statements are correct
A. Opportunity for graft.
C. The 1st and 3rd statements are incorrect.
B. Existence of an opportunity to effectively
D. All statements are correct
violate the law.
C. Effectiveness of Police Administration.
D. Police bureau’s willingness to use 247. The basic
specialized squads. purpose of patrol is
most effectively
241. Team Policing is said to be implemented by
originated in : police activity
A. Aberdeen, Scotland C. Lyons, France which-
B.Vienna, Austria D. London, England
A. Provides for many types of specialized
242. They are considered as the first to utilize patrol, with less emphasis on routine.
dogs for patrolling: B.Minimize the prospective lawbreaker aspiration
A. Egyptians C. English to commit crime.
B.Chinese D. American C. Influences favorable individual and group
attitudes in routine daily associations with
the police.
D. Intensifies the potential offender’s expectation
of apprehension.
248. What is the

new concept,
police strategy
which
integrates
the police
and
community
interests into
a working
relationship
so as to
produce the
desired
organizationa
l objectives of
peacemaking
?
A. Preventive patrol C. Community Relation
B.Directed Patrol D. Team policing
249. What is the appropriate patrol method

that is most ideally suited to evacuation and
search- and-rescue operations?
A. Motorcycle C. Automobile
B.Helicopter D. Horse
 Automobile – To carry an Extra

equipment by the Patrol Officers

250. If the external patting of the suspect’s following are
clothing fails to disclose evidence of a weapon advantages of the
the next procedure of the Patrol officer is: use of Radio in
A. Conduct a complete search. Police Work:
B. The Patrol officer shall arrest the suspect.
C. No further search may be made. I. Simple Installation Process;
D. Turnover the suspect to the II. Cost of transceivers has relatively gone down;
immediate supervisor. III. The ease in the use of radio equipments;
IV.Availability of safeguards in the transmission of
251. During Civil classified operational information.
Disturbances,
what may be A. I, II, III C. II, III, IV
utilized when B.III, IV, I D. I, II, III, IV
demonstrators
become unruly
and aggressive
forcing troops to
fall back to their
secondary
positions?
A. Tear Gas C. Water Cannon
B.Truncheon D. Shield
 Tear gas - may be utilized to break up

formations or groupings of
demonstrations who continue to be
aggressive and refused to disperse
despite earlier efforts.
252. The factors to

be considered in
determining the
number of patrol
officers to be
deployed in an
area are the
following:
a. Size of the area;
b. Topography;
c. Crime rate and;
d. Possible problems to be encountered.
A. a, c, d C. a, b, d
B.b, c, d D. a, b, c, d
253. The patrol

strategy which is
best on populous
areas such as
markets, malls,
and ports is:
A. Blending patrol C. Reactive patrol
B.Decoy patrol D. Plainclothes patrol
254. Going left

while patrolling
upon reaching
every intersection
until reaching the
point of origin is
following what
pattern?
A. Clockwise C. Zigzag
B.Counter clockwise D. Crisscross
255. All but

one are the
advantages of
Bicycle Patrol:
A. Can report regularly to the command
center.
B. Can operate quietly and without
attracting attention.
C. C. It is inexpensive to operate .
D. It can cover areas that are not accessible
by patrol cars.
256. The
257. The advantage of:
Purpose of
conducting A. One Man Patrol Car
de-briefing B. Two Man Patrol Car
after patrol C. Foot Patrol
is- D. Canine Patrol
A. To integrate the police and the community 263. The least

interest into a working relationship.B. To desirable of all
remind the patrol on the strict observance of police shifts due
the PNP Operational Procedures. to lack of
C. To assess its conduct and make activities:
necessary corrective measures on A. Afternoon Shift C. Morning Shift
defects noted. B.Night Shift D. None of these
D. All of the Above
264. Time
258. The between the call
members of of the Police to
the Patrol arrival at the
teams shall scene of an
form and incident:
assemble at A. Response Time C. Call Time
the police B.Duration Time D. Critical Time
unit
 Response time - It refers to the running time of
headquarter
the dispatched patrol car from his position
s at least
where the assignment was received and the
before
arrival at the scene.
the start of
their shift for
accounting-
A. 10 minutes C. 1 hour
B.30 minutes D. 15 minutes
259. The
police must
make an
effort to
ascertain
and amaze
upon the law
abiding
citizens and
would be
criminals
alike that
the police
are always
existing to
respond to
any
situation at
a moment’s
notice and
he will just
around the
corner at all
times. This
statement
refers to:
A. Police Omnipresence
B. Police Patrol
C. Police Discretion
D. Integrated Patrol
260. A patrol beat refers to a:

A. Number of crimes to be solved
B. Location of police headquarters
C. Number of residence to be protected
D. Geographical area to be protected
261. Team members of the decoy may

dress themselves in a manner designed to
help them blend the neighborhood where
they are deployed.
A. Absolutely False C. Absolutely True
262. <Personality clash is reduced=, it is the

265. The percentage of police officers assigned 270. It is a <frisk= or external feeling of the outer
in patrol is: garments of an individual for weapons only.
A. 20% C. 40% A. Frisking C. Search
B.25% D. 50% B.Spot Check D. Pat-down Search
 Criminal Investigation – 15%  Spot Check/Accosting - is the brief stopping of
 Traffic Function – 10% an individual, whether on foot or in a vehicle,
 Vice and Juvenile Related Functions – based on reasonable suspicion/probable
10% cause, for the purpose of determining the
 Administrative Function – 10% individual’s identity and resolving the
 Auxilliary Functions – 5% officer’s suspicion concerning criminal
activity.
266. Refers to the actual stopping or accosting
of armed and dangerous person or persons, 271. It is one by patrolling the streets within
aboard a vehicle or on foot, including the power the perimeter of the beat not at random but
to use all necessary and legal means to with definite target location where he knows
accomplish such end. his presence is necessary.
A. Dragnet Operation A. Target Oriented C. Zigzag
B. Hasty Checkpoint B.Clockwise D. Criss-Cross
C. High-Risk Arrest
D. High Risk Stop 272. Foot patrol is the oldest form of patrol;
 Dragnet Operation - is a police the following are the advantages of Foot
operation purposely to seal-off the patrol, EXCEPT:
probable exit points of fleeing suspects
from the crime scene to prevent their A. Easy to supervise and fix responsibility for
escape. action taken.
 High Risk Arrest - is the actual restraint of B.It enables patrol officers to cover a
armed persons following a high-risk considerable area
stop. C. Inspire more Public confidence.
 Hasty Checkpoint - is an immediate D. The officer can actually get to know the
response to block the escape of lawless physical layout of his beat better.
elements from a crime scene, and is also
established when nearby checkpoints 273. The word Patrol was derived from
are ignored or during hot pursuit the French word which means to go through
operations. paddles.
A. Patroulier C. Patroul
267. Which among the following activities during B.Politeia D. Politia
post-patrol or post-deployment phase is not
included? 274. The concept of Unity of command is:
A. Formation & Accounting A. No one should have more than one boss.
B. Inspection & recall of Equipment B.Arrangement of officers from top to bottom.
C. Debriefing/Report Submission C. Number of subordinates that a Superior
D. Briefing can effectively supervise.
D. Conferring certain tasks, duties,
268. It refers to a computer that is installed and responsibilities to subordinates.
inside a patrol car which allows patrol officer to
have an access from the Headquarters files and 275. Which among the following Patrol Method
other Law Enforcement Agencies which are used is appropriate when responding to quick
in order to expedite their operation. emergency call?
A. Mobile Data Terminal A. Motorcycle Patrol C. Automobile Patrol
B. Vehicle-Mounted TV B.Air Patrol D. Foot Patrol
C. High Intensity Emergency Lighting Plan
D. CCTV 276. The following are the advantages of
Regular post.
 Vehicle-Mounted TV – It refers to a Video I. Patrol officer becomes thoroughly
Camera which is attached and installed in a familiar with the various post
patrol car with a high-resolution and wide conditions;
angle lens. II. Patrol officer takes more pride and
 High Intensity Emergency Lighting Plan – It interest in improving the conditions
refers to a heavy duty light that can on his post resulting in better public
provide two (2) million candle power of relations and cooperation from the
light. residents;
III. Favoritism will be lessened because
269. The first organized patrol for policing of transitory assignments; and
purposes was formed in London. This patrol IV. The patrol officer moral is enhanced,
pattern is usually done at the last hour of duty to since a steady post is an indication
ascertain that nothing happened in the area of of public acceptance of his work.
responsibility of the patrol?
A. Straight C. Crisscross A. I, II and III C. I, II, and IV
B.Clockwise D. Counter clockwise B.II, III, and IV D. I, II, III, and IV

277. Detective Beat System is one of the  Hot Pursuit (Cross Jurisdictional Pursuit) - (also
concrete responses of the PNP in reinventing the termed in the US as fresh pursuit)
field of investigation. Who is the NCRPO Chief immediate, recent chase or follow-up
who introduces this DBS? without material interval for the purpose of
A. Dir. AlmaJose C. Dir. Romeo Pena taking into custody any person wanted by
B.Dir. Sonny Razon D. Dir. Rene Sarmiento virtue of a warrant, or one suspected to
have committed a recent offense while
 Dir. Almajose – First Chief of Mobile Patrol
fleeing from one police jurisdictional
in Manila.
boundary.
278. The type of  Pre-Determined Area - is the specific or
Patrol which projected spot where the armed and
requires special dangerous person or persons would pass
skills and or likely to pass and so tactically located
training: as to gain calculated advantage against
A. TV C. Air said person or persons.
B.Automobile D. Foot
286. The advisable cruising speed in
automobile patrol ranges from:
279. Traditional
A. 20-25 mph C. 60-80 kph
foot patrolling
B.20-25 kph D. 50 kph
in the
Philippines was
287. It is the primary objective of police
initiated on:
patrol operations:
A. August 10, 1917 C. August 7, 1901
A. Crime Prevention
B.November 22, 1901 D. March 17,
B. Preservation of Peace and Order
1901
C. Law enforcement
D. All of these
280. In police communication, 10-74 means:
A. Negative C. Need Assistance
 Preservation of peace and order - It is the
B.Caution D. Unable to copy
fundamental obligation of the Police and
it is the most important function
Some APCO TEN SIGNALS
performed by the patrol service
 10 – 0 Caution
288. Doubling the
 10 – 1 Unable to copy/Change Location
level of routine
 10 – 50 Accident
patrol is a patrol
 10 – 70 Fire Alarm
strategy called:
 10 – 78 Need Assistance
A. Reactive Patrol C. Directed Patrol
 10 – 90 Bank Alarm
B.Preventive Patrol D. Proactive Patrol
281. This patrol tactic would result to
improvement of police omnipresence: 289. If a patrol
officer needs to
A. Target Oriented Patrol respond to a crime
B. High-Visibility Patrol incident faster but
C. Low-Visibility Patrol undetected, then
D. Directed deterrent Patrol the best patrol
method that he
282. Police should employ is:
Community Precincts are mandatorily led by an A. Bicycle patrol C. Automobile patrol
officer with the rank of with a B.Motorcycle patrol D. Foot patrol
minimum of 30 personnel including the
commander divided into 3 shifts. 290. In the
anatomy of crime,
A. Sr. Inspector or Superintendent this refers to the
B. Supt. To Sr. Supt. act of a person
C. Sr. Supt. To C/Supt. that enables
D. C/Insp. To Supt. another to
victimize him:
283. The smelling sense of dog is up to how
A. Instrumentality C. Opportunity
many
B.Motive D. Capability
times more sensitive than human’s sense of smell?
A. One thousand times C. One hundred times
 Motive - It is the basis why the people will
B.Ten thousand times D. Ten million times
commit crime or it is what induces the
people to act.
284. Transfer of knowledge from one person to
 Instrumentality - it is the means used in
another through common medium and channel.
executing the crime
A. Information C. Communication
B.Police Communication D. Radio 291. The factors to
be considered in
285. Refers to a location where the search, determining the
which is duly authorized by the PNP, is number of patrol
conducted to deter/prevent the commission of officers to be
crimes, enforce the law, and for other legitimate deployed in an
purposes. area are the
A. Hot Pursuit C. Public Place following, except:
B.Police Checkpoint D. Pre-Determined Area A. Size of the area
B. Topography

C. Possible problems to be encountered
D. Neither of them
292. The
patrol
strategy
which
brings the
police and
the people
together in
a
cooperative
manner in
order to
prevent
crime:
A. Integrated Patrol C. Team policing
B.Reactive patrol D. Proactive patrol

293. The theory in patrol which states that 298. The following are benevolent
police officers should conduct overt police services performed by the Patrol officers:
operations in order to discourage people from I. Preventing the actual commission of crimes.
committing crime refers to: II. Rendering first aid for accident victims;
A. Theory of police omnipresence III. Mediate in family quarrels; and
B. Low police visibility theory IV. Give relief assistance to disaster victims;
C. Low profile theory
D. Maximum deterrence theory A. I, II, III C. II, III, IV
B.III, IV, I D. I, II, III, IV
294. The
principle of
patrol force 299. All but one are the dogs best suited for
organization police work except:
which states that A. Askals C. Chihuahua
patrol officers B.Rottweiler D. All of these
should be under
the command
of only one man
refers to:
A. Span of control
B. Unity of command
C. Chain of command
D. Command responsibility
Organization Principles
 Span of Control - refers to the number of
officers or subordinates that a Superior
supervises without regard to the
effectiveness or efficiency of the
supervision.
 Delegation of Authority - is the assignment
of tasks, duties, and responsibilities to
subordinates while at the same time
giving them the power or right to control,
command, make decisions, or otherwise
act in performing the delegated
responsibilities.
 Chain of Command - the arrangement
of officers from top to bottom on the
basis of rank or position and authority
 Command Responsibility - dictates that
immediate commanders shall be
responsible for the effective supervision
and control of their personnel and
unit.
295. The elimination of the opportunity of

people to commit crime as a result of patrol.
A. Crime prevention
B. Crime intervention
C. Crime suppression
D. Crime deterrence
296. What type of Patrol method is

appropriate when mobility is needed in small
alleys?
A. Motorcycle Patrol C. CCTV
B.Automobile Patrol D. Foot Patrol
Motorcycle Patrol – mobility in wider area
297. Under the Integrated Patrol System,

the primary objective of patrol activity is:
A. To prevent commission of crime.
B.Integrate the police and the community
C. Constant and Alert Patrolling.
D.Visibility and Omniprescence.

300. What law provides for the creation of medium size police station.
the National Intelligence Coordinating iv. Patrol Officers can help collect intelligence
Agency? information by initiating good public relations.
A. EO 389 C. EO 1012
B.EO 1040 D. EO 246
305. Wire tapping
 EO 389- ordered that the Philippine operations in our
Constabulary be one of the four services of country is strictly
the Armed Forces of the Philippines, prohibited but it
enacted on December 23, 1940 can be done at
 EO 1012- transferred to the city and the commander’s
municipal government the operational discretion since it
supervision and direction over all INP units tends to collect
assigned within their locality; issued on July intelligence
10, 1985 information.
 EO 1040- transferred the administrative control A. Partly True C. Partly False
and supervision of the INP from the Ministry B.Wholly True D. Wholly False
of National Defense to the National Police
Commission
301. A person who breaks intercepted codes.

A. Crypto Analyst C. Cryptographer
B.Cryptography D. Code breaker
 Cryptography- It is defined as an art

and science of codes and ciphers.
 Cryptographer- It refers to a person who is
highly skilled in converting message
from clear to unintelligible forms by use
of codes and cipher.
302. Agent who is a

member of
paramilitary group
organized to harass
the enemy in a hot
war situation.
A. Guerilla C. Propagandist
B.Provocateur D. Strong Arm
Kinds of Action Agent

 Espionage Agent- Agent who
clandestinely procure or collect
information.
 Propagandist- Agents who molds
the attitudes, opinions, and actions
of an individual group or nation.
 Saboteur- Agents who undertakes positive
actions against an unfriendly power,
resulting in the loss of use temporarily or
permanently of an article or others.
 Strong Arm- Agent who is made to
provide special protection during
dangerous phase of clandestine
operations.
 Provocateur- Agent who induces
an opponent to act to his own
detriment
303. It is a type of
Cover which alters
the background
that will
correspond to the
operation.
A. Multiple C. Natural
B.Artificial D. Unusual
 Multiple- Includes different cover

 Natural- Actual or True Background.
304. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
i. Intelligence Officer can submit his information

report any time since it is to processes.
ii. All intelligence information’s are collected by
clandestine method.
iii. Counter Intelligence is not much needed in a
306. If information comes with a low reliability
and doubtful accuracy, will this information be
discarded or refused acceptance?
A. Maybe Yes C. Yes
B.No D. Maybe No
307. In selection and recruitment of informers

the best factor to be considered is:
A. Age C. Access
B.Educational Attainment D. Body built
308. It is otherwise known as the <Anti-

Wiretapping Act= which prohibits wiretapping
in our country.
A. RA 1700 C. RA 4200
B.RA 7610
D. CA 616
 RA 1700 – Ant-Subversion Act

 CA 616 - Act to punish espionage and
other Offenses against National
Security
 RA 7610 - Special Protection of
Children Against Abuse, Exploitation
and Discrimination Act
309. Security Clearance is a

certification by a responsible authority that the
person described is cleared to access and
classify matters at appropriate levels. Interim
clearance will remain valid for a period of
from the date of issuance.
A. 1 year C. 5 years
B.2 years D. 4 years
 Final Clearance – 5 years
310. How will you evaluate the intelligence

report of Agent Buanko with an evaluation
rating of D2?
A. Completely reliable source – doubtfully
true information
B.Unreliable source – probably true information
C. Fairly reliable source – possibly true information
D.Not Usually reliable source – probably
true information
311. It is a process or method of

obtaining information from a captured
enemy who is reluctant to divulge
information.
A. Wiretapping C. Bugging
B.Elicitation D. Tactical Interrogation
 Elicitation - The process of extracting

information from a person believes to be
in possession of vital information
without his knowledge or suspicion.
 Bugging - The use of an equipment or tool
to listen and record discreetly
conversations of other people.
 Wiretapping - A method of collecting
information thru interception of
telephone conversation.
312. The term of office of the members of

the PLEB is
A. 6 years
B.3 years
C. 6 years without re-appointment
D. None of the above
313. He directs the organization in conducting

the clandestine activity.
A. Target C. Sponsor
B.Agent D. Support Agent
 Target- Person, place or things against Eye". He was credited for establishing
which the clandestine activity is to be
conducted.
 Agent- It refers to a person who conducts
the clandestine Operations to include
Principal Agents, Action Agents, and
Support Agents.
314. It refers to an associate of the subject

who follows him to detect surveillance.
A. Convoy C. Decoy
B. Subjct D. Surveillant
 Decoy- A person or object used by the

subject in attempt to elude Surveillant
 Surveillant – is the plainclothes
investigator assigned to make the
observation.
 Subject – is who or what is observed. It can
be a person, place, property, and vehicle,
group of people, organization or object.
315. It is a type of Agent used in collecting

information who leaks false information to
the enemy.
A. Double Agent C. Expendable Agent
B.Agent of Influence D. Penetration Agent
Types of Agent used in collecting of Information
 Agent of Influence- Agent who uses

authority to gain information
 Agent in Place- Agent who has been
recruited within a highly sensitive
target
 Penetration Agent- Agent who have
reached to the enemy, gather
information and able to get back without
being caught.
 Double Agent- An enemy agent, who
has been taken into custody, turned
around and sent back where he came
from as an agent of his captors.
316. It is one of the Functional Classification of

Police Intelligence which refers to the
knowledge essential to the prevention of crimes
and the investigation, arrest, and prosecution of
criminal offenders.
A. Internal Security Intelligence
B.Public Safety Intelligence
C. Intelligence
D. Preventive Intelligence
 Internal Security Intelligence (INSINT) – refers

to the knowledge essential to the
maintenance of peace and order.
 Public Safety Intelligence (PUSINT) – refers to
the knowledge essential to ensure the
protection of lives and properties
317. Intelligence is the end product resulting

from the collection, evaluation, analysis,
integration, and interpretation of all available
information. What is considered as the core of
intelligence operations?
A. Dissemination C. Analysis
B.Mission D. Planning
318. He is regarded as the "Father of
Organized Military Espionage".
A. Alexander the Great
B.Frederick the Great
C. Karl Schulmeister
D. Arthur Wellesley
 Sir Arthur Wellesly- Regarded as the

"Greatest Military Spymaster at All Time".
 Karl Schulmeister- famous as "Napoleon's
counter intelligence conducted by the subject.
against spies.  Personal Contact Assignment – the
 Alexander the great - He was able investigator required to develop the
to identify those disloyal ones by friendship and trust of the subject.
ordering the communication letters  Multiple Assignment – The investigator is
opened and was successful in tasked to cover two (2) or more of the above
curtailing the decline of esprit de specific assignments simultaneously, it can
corps and morale of his men. produce extensive information with
minimum expenses but more prone to
319. There are compromise.
four categories
of classified 322. It is a type of intelligence activity which
matters; top deals with defending the organization against its
secret, secret, criminal enemies?
confidential, A. Line Intelligence C. Counter-Intelligence
and restricted. B.Strategic Intelligence D. Tactical Intelligence
To distinguish
one against the  Line or Tactical Intelligence – it is the
other, their intelligence information which
folder consists directly contributes to the
of different accomplishment of specific
colors. What objectives and immediate in nature.
will be the  Strategic Intelligence - This is intelligence
color of the information which is not immediate
document operational but rather long range.
which requires
the highest 323. What is the evaluation of an intelligence
degree of report which is <usually from a reliable source
protection? and improbable information=?
A. Red C. Black A. C-5 C. B-5
B.Blue D. Green B.B-3 D. C-3
 Secret (RED)
 Confidential (BLUE)
 Restricted (BLACK)
320. What
verse of the
Holy Bible that
includes the
biblical
indication of
the beginning
of
Intelligence?
A. Number 13:17 C. Number 3:17
B.Number 17:13 D. Number 17:3
321. A certain
locality is
identified to be
a major source
of illicit drugs,
to resolve this
issue
intelligence
officer was
deployed to
live in the area
for a
considerable
amount of time
to find out the
authenticity of
such reports.
A. Social assignments
B.Work assignments
C. Organizational assignments
D.Residential assignments
 Work Assignment – getting employed

where the investigator can observe the
activities of the subject at his place of
work.
 Social Assignments – Frequent
places of entertainment and
amusement habitually being visited

EVALUATION GUIDE FOR COLLECTED INFORMATION who is expected to
commit a crime at a
certain location.
Reliability of Accuracy of
A. Stake out C. Rough Shadowing
Information Information Source of the Information
B.Shadowing D. surveillance
CODE: CUFNUR CODE: CPPDIT
 Surveillance – is the covert, discreet
A – Completely 1 – Confirmed T – Direct Observation by a observation of people and places for the
Reliable By Other commander or Unit
purpose of obtaining information
Sources
B – Usually Reliable 2 – Probably True U – Report by a penetration
or resident agent
C - Fairly Reliable 3 – Possibly True V – Report by an AFP trooper
or PNP personnel in operation
D – Not Usually Reliable 4 – Doubtfully True W – Interrogation of a
captured enemy or agent
E – Unreliable 5 – Improbable X – Observation by a
government or civilian
employee or official
F – Reliability Cannot 6 – Truth Cannot Be Y – Observation by a member

Be Judged Judged of populace
Z - Documentary
REMINDER: You should LEARN BY HEART

this Evaluation Guide
324. It is a form of investigation in which

the operative assumes a cover in order to
obtain information
A. Overt operation C. Undercover assignment
B.Covert operation D. clandestine operation
325. What is evaluation of the intelligence

report gathered by Agent Fukymo Mikuto which
is “Fairly Reliable and doubtfully true
information?
A. D C. C-4
B.C-5 D. D-5
326. The following must be observed

during surveillance:
a. Meet the subject eye to eye;
b. Avoid contact on the subject;
c. Recognize fellow agent;
d. If burnt out, drop subject and;
e. Adapt inconspicuous clothing.
A. a, c, d C. b, d, e
B.b, c, d, e D. a, b, c, e
327. In
surveillance, the
following are done
to alter the
appearance of the
surveillance
vehicle, EXCEPT:
A. Changing license plates of surveillance vehicle
B.Putting on and removing hats, coats and
sunglasses
C. Change of seating arrangement within
the surveillance vehicle
D. Keep the cars behind the subject car.
328. A is
usually for the
purpose of waiting
for the anticipated
arrival of the
suspect who is
either wanted for
investigation or
concerning the identities or activities of purposes for
subjects. which it is being
 Moving Surveillance or Shadowing or tailing regarded.
– simply the act of following a person. A. Overt Operation C. Surveillance
 Rough Shadowing – employed B.Covert Operation D. Analysis
without special precautions, the
subject maybe aware of the  Covert Operation – Information are procured
surveillance; employed also when clandestinely
the subject is a material witness and
must be protected from harm or 333. Investi
other undesirable influences. gation of
the records
329. In the Intelligence and files of
function, the black list includes forces. agencies in
A. Unwanted C. Friendly the area
B.Neutral D. Unfriendly and
residence of
330. They are responsible for foreign the
intelligence of United Kingdom and it is individual
also referred as Box 850 because of its old being
post office box number. investigate
A. Security Service (MI-5) d.
B.Secret Intelligence Service (MI-6) A. CBI C. NAC
C. Government B.PBI D. LAC
Communication Headquarters
 National Agency Check- It consists of LAC
D. Defense Intelligence Staff
supplemented by investigation of the records
UK Intelligence Agency
• Security Service (MI-5 or Military

Intelligence Section 5) – Internal
Counter-Intelligence and Security agency
also responsible for internal
Security of United Kingdom.
• Government Communications
Headquarters (GCHQ) - responsible for
providing signals intelligence (SIGINT) and
information assurance to the UK government
and armed forces.
•Defense Intelligence Staff (DIS) - is a
collector of intelligence through its
Intelligence Collection Group (ICG)
331. Known as the Prussia's "King of

Sleuthhounds" as minister of police he
studied the use of propaganda and
censorship as well as utilizing statistical
intelligence accounting.
A. Napoleon Bonaparte C. Wilhem Steiber
B.AKBAR D. Delilah
 Napoleon Bonaparte- "One Spy in the

right place is worth 20,000 men in the
field". He organized two Bureau of
Interest.
 Akbar- The "Great Mogul" and wise
master of Hindustan employed more
than 4,000 agents for the sole purpose
of bringing him the truth that his throne
might rest upon it.
 Delilah- A biblical personality who was
able to gain information by using her
beauty and charm.
332. If the
information or
documents
are procured
openly
without
regard as to
whether the
subject of the
investigation
becomes
knowledgeabl
e of the
purpose or
and files of the following agencies: PNP,  Principal Agent- Leader or management
ISAFP, NBI, CSC, Bureau of Immigration Agent in clandestine operation usually
and Deportation and other agency. undertaken by the case officer.
 Background Investigation – a check made on
an individual usually seeking employment
through subjects records in the police files,
educational institutions, place of residence,
and former employers.
 Complete Background Investigation- it is a
type of BI which is more comprehensive,
that consist of detailed information
regarding the subject.
334. The end product resulting from the

collection, evaluation, analysis, integration, and
interpretation of all available information
regarding the activities of criminals and other
law violators for the purpose of affecting their
arrest, obtaining evidence, and forestalling plan
to commit crimes.
A. Police Intelligence
B.National Intelligence
C. Miltary Intelligence
D. Departmental Intelligence
 National Intelligence- integrated product of

intelligence developed by all government
departments concerning the broad aspect of
national policy and national security.
 Department of Intelligence – the intelligence
required by department or agencies of the
government to execute its mission and
discharge its responsibilities.
 Military Intelligence – refers to the knowledge
by the military institution essential in the
preparation and execution of military plans,
policies and programs.
335. It is considered as the most secured

method of disseminating the information to the
user of classified matters is by means of:
A. Debriefing C. Conference
B.Cryptographic method D. Seminar
336. It refers to the combination of all
analyzed data to form a logical picture or
theory.
A. Integration C. Evaluation
B. Recording D. Interpretation
 Recording – is the reduction of

information into writing or some other
form of graphical representation and the
arranging of this information into groups
related items.
 Evaluation – is the determination of the
pertinence of the information to the
operation, reliability of the source of
or agency and the accuracy of the
information.
 Analysis- This is the stage in which the
collected information is subjected to
review in order to satisfy significant
facts and derive conclusion there from.
 Interpretation- Process of determining the
significance of new information in the
possible alternatives.
337. It refers
to the person
who conducts
the
clandestine
Operation.
A. Agent C. Support Agent
B.Action Agent D. Principal Agent

 Support Agent- Agent who is establishment under surveillance.
engaged in activities which  Live Drop- Refers to a place where agents
supports the clandestine or informants leave their messages to the
operations and or the action agent other Agents.
in his operations
338. It is claimed that 99% of information

is obtained from conspicuous sources and
1% of information is obtained from
clandestine sources. Clandestine means.
A. Observable C. Overt
B.Visible
D. Covert
339. An E-3 intelligence report means:
A. The information comes from
completely reliable sources and Improbable
true.
B.The information comes from
Unreliable sources and probably true.
C. The information comes from
Fairly Reliable sources and doubtfully
true.
D.The information comes from
Unreliable sources and possibly true.
340. The following are methods of
Surveillance Detection, EXCEPT:
A. Use of Bait and Changing Pace
B.Convoy and Watching Procession
C. Entering Crowded buildings
and concealment to movement
D. Retracting the cause and
Window Shopping
343. The process of assigning higher
category of document or information
according to the degree of security
needed.
A. Reclassify
C. Classify
B.Upgrading
D. Declassify
 Classify – Assigning of Information

or material to one of the four
security classification after
determining that such information
requires security as prescribed by
PNP regulation 200-012.
 Reclassify – The act of changing
the assigned classification of a
document or material.
 Declassify – The removal of the
security classification from classified
document or material.
 Compartmentation – The granting of
access to classified document or
information only to properly cleared
persons when such classified
information is required in the
performance of their official duties,
and restricting it to specific physical
confines when feasible.
345. The purpose of evaluation and

analysis is to determine if the information
is true and-
A. Reliable C. Accurate
B.Correct D. Probably true
347. It refers to a place, building or

enclosed area where police undercover men
meet for debriefing or reporting purposes.
A. Safe house C. Log
B.Live Drop D. Decoy
 Log – chronological records of

activities that took place in the
348. It is more comprehensive than the NAC possession of power
or LAC, which includes some or all of the
circumstances.
A. National Agency Check
B.Background Investigation
C. Complete Background Investigation
D. Personnel Security Investigation
349. Greeting of Fellow Surveillant is

encouraged. The statement is –
A. Yes C. NO
B.Absolutely Correct D. False
350. What specialist group of CIA that was

established to research, create and manage
technical collection discipline and equipment.
A. National Clandestine Service
B.Directorate of Intelligence .
C. Directorate of Support
D. Directorate of Science and Technology
 National clandestine Service (Formerly

known as Directorate of Operations)-
responsible for collecting intelligence
mainly from clandestine sources and
covert action.
 Directorate of Intelligence (DI)- Responsible
for providing timely and accurate all
source of intelligence analysis.
 Directorate of Support- Provides everything
that the CIA needs to accomplish its
mission.
351. The persons

listed in are allowed to
enter a certain establishment or building.
A. Access list C. Black List
B.Blue Print D. Silver list
352. The deliberate destruction, disruption,

or damage of equipment, a public service, as
by enemy agent or dissatisfied employees.
A. Subversion C. Sabotage
B.Espionage D. None of these
 Subversion - acts designed to destabilize

or overthrow the authority of a ruling
power.
 Espionage - the secret collection of
information, or intelligence, that the
source of such information wishes to
protect from disclosure.
353. In order to
secure the intelligence the surveillance
Operation center, the stationary
surveillance must before leaving.
A. Conduct Surveillance Detection
B.Conduct Debriefing
C. Conduct Post-Surveillance Operation
D. Conduct Interrogation
354. It deals with the demographic and

psychological aspects of groups of people.
A. Sociological Intelligence
B.Economic Intelligence
C. Biographical Intelligence
D. Political Intelligence
 Political Intelligence – deals with Domestic

and Foreign affairs and relation of
government operations
 Economic Intelligence – deals with the extent
and utilization of Natural and Human
resources to the industrial potential of the
Nations
 Biographical Intelligence – deals with
individual personalities who have actual
 Geographical Intelligence – deals the planning on how intelligence is to be
with the natural as well as manmade collected, the intelligence officer must have
features of the physical environment thorough knowledge of the .
of man considered from the point in A. The strength of the area where the
view of military operations information will be gathered
 Scientific Intelligence – deals with the B.Where they will be collecting the information
progress of the research and C. Available sources of information
development as it affects the economic
and military potential of a nation.
355. Which among the following principles

of intelligence deemed to be the most
important?
A. Intelligence requires continuous
security measures
B.Intelligence and operation are interdependent
C. Intelligence must be available on time
D. Intelligence must be flexible
356. It is the careful inspection of a place to

determine its suitability for a particular
operational purpose.
A. Casing C. Loose Tail
B.Close Tail D. Stakeout
 Loose tail – employed where a

general impression of the
subject’s habits and associates is
required.
 Close tail – extreme precautions are
taken against losing the subject is
employed where constant
surveillance is necessary.
357. In Foot Surveillance, “Call – Off” means that

–
A. Termination of Surveillance
B.Actual Surveillance
C. Stake – out and Pick up of the Subject
D. On target Requirements and Instruction
358. It refers to the most dangerous

type of informant.
A. Women C. Double Crosser
B.False D. Anonymous
 Anonymous-Unidentified or
unknown informants
 False Informant- reveals information
of no consequences, value or stuff
connected within thin air.
 Frightened Informants- weakest
link in criminal chain, motivated by
anxiety.
 Self-Aggrandizing- moves around
the center of criminals delight in
surprising the police about bits of
information.
 Mercenary- Information for sale
needed something for exchange of
information.
 Double-Crosser- He wants to get
more information from the police
more than he gives.
 Legitimate- operators of business
desire to give information for
legitimate reasons.
359. It is the transforming of coded

message into plain text.
A. Coding C. Encrypting
B.Decoding D. Reclassify
 Coding-It is the changing of message

from plain clear text to unintelligible
form also known as <Encrypting=.
360. After

D The vulnerabilities of the possessor B.Special informer D. Confidential Informant
of intelligence
361. He often dresses as a beggar & went to the

street of Rome to gather first hand information,
he is considered as the greatest military
strategist.
A. Alexander the Great C. Hannibal
B.Frederick the Great D. Genghis Khan
362. If information comes with a low reliability

and doubtful accuracy, will this information be
discarded or refused acceptance?
A. Yes C. True
B.No D. False
363. It is one of the Functional Classification of

Police Intelligence which refers to the
knowledge essential to the prevention of crimes
and the investigation, arrest, and prosecution of
criminal offenders.
A. Internal Security Intelligence
B. Criminal Intelligence
C. Public Safety Intelligence
D. Preventive Intelligence
364. If the information or documents are

procured openly without regard as to whether
the subject of the investigation becomes
knowledgeable of the purpose or purposes for
which it is being regarded.
A. Overt Operation C. Clandestine
B.Surveillance D. Covert Operation
365. Which of the following is the most

common reason why an informer gives
information to the police?
A. Monetary Reward C. Popularity
B.Revenge D. As a good citizen
366. A method of collecting information

thru interception of telephone
conversation.
A. Bugging C. Wire Tapping
B.Code name D. NONE
367. Is the condition, situation, and

circumstance the enemy’s’ area of
consideration that render the criminal groups
susceptible to damage, deception, or defeat by
the police organization.
A. Conclusion C. Capabilities
B.Vulnerabilities D. Evaluation
368. It is the general statement describing

the current police internal defense, internal
development, psychological operation and
responsibilities of the organization
A. Area of operation
B.Capabilities of organized crime
C. the crime situation
D.the mission
369. It is defined as evaluative and

interpreted information concerning
organized crime and other major police
problems.
A. Military Intelligence C. Military Information
B.Police Intelligence D. Police Investigation
370. The term appropriate for someone who

gives information in exchange for a reward is:
A. Informer C. Informant
 Informants- Any person who hand B.Departmental Intelligence
over information to the agents which C. International Intelligence
is relevant to the subject. The D. Social Intelligence
informant may openly give the
information clandestinely and choose
to remain anonymous.
371 Developing security consciousness

among policemen forms part of
enhancing .
A. Line intelligence C. strategic intelligence
B.counter intelligence D. artificial intelligence
372. It is a type of Support Agent who

obtains money when needed for
operational use.
A. Procurer of Funds C. Safe house Keeper
B.Communication Agent D. Surveillant
 Surveillant- Agent who observes persons

and places of operations of interest.
 Safe house Keeper- Agents who
manages and maintains a safe house
for clandestine operations like
meetings, safe heavens, training,
briefing, and debriefing.
 Communication Agent- Agent
who is detailed as securing of
clandestine communications.
373. What is the evaluation rating of

Unreliable and Possibly true?
A. C-2 C. E-2
B.E-3 D. C-3
374. Phase of intelligence covering the

activity devoted in destroying the
effectiveness of hostile foreign activities and
the protection of information against
espionage, subversion and sabotage.
A. Passive Intelligence
B.Counter Intelligence
C. Line Intelligence
D. Demographic Intelligence
379 All except one are interrelated to one

another.
A. Fixed Surveillance
B.Stakeout Surveillance
C. Stationary Surveillance
D.Active Surveillance
380. The agent will gain access to the

subject by going to the different hang out
places of the subject.
A. Social Assignment
B.Residential Assignment
C. Work Assignment
D. None of these
381. A person who informs solely for the

pecuniary or other material gain he is to
receive.
A. Gratitude C. Repentance
B.Remuneration D. Vanity
382. National Intelligence Coordinating

Agency is led by a-
A. Director C. General
B.President D. Director-General
383. Integrated product of intelligence

developed by all government departments
concerning the broad aspect of national
policy and national Security.
A. National Intelligence
384. In Foot Surveillance “Debriefing” means: B. Decipher D. Coding
A. Actual Surveillance
B.Collation of Report and Analysis of Significant 394. The protection resulting from the application
Observation of various measures which prevent or delay the
C. Preparation of reports and its submission enemy or unauthorized person in gaining
D. Observe time information through communication.
A. Communication Security
385. Factors to be considered in choosing a B.Physical Security
“Safe House” EXCEPT: C. Document Security
A. Concealment, Utility, and Suitability D. Internal Security
B.Activity of the people in neighborhood and
location of Police Outpost 397. It is a certification by a responsible
C. Complete Description of Entrance, Exits authority that the person described is cleared
and Escape Routes to access and classify matters at appropriate
D.Operational Technical Requirements levels.
A. Security Clearance
386. Which of the following statement is FALSE? B.Document Clearance
A. Classified information must not be discussed C. Interim Clearance
with friends and members of the family. D. Nome of these
B. Classified information should be known only
by one person. 398. Refers to an attack amounting to actual
C. Cabinets with classified documents must or eminent threat to the life, limb, or right of
be secured with padlocks and security the person claiming self-defense.
measures at all times. A. Imminent Danger C. Unlawful Aggression
D. All classified documents must be B.Just Cause D. None of these
safeguarded.
399. The police officer may stop an individual
387. It refers to the person who conducts for the purpose of conducting a spot
the surveillance. check/accosting only when-
A. Surveillant C. Subject A. Probable Cause Exist
B.Interrogator D. Interviewee B . Notion to commit crime
C. Rational Grounds
 Interrogator- person who conduct
D.Reasonable Suspicion
Interrogation
388. The following are objectives of 399. X evaluates the information as usually
Casing EXCEPT: reliable and probably true.
A. Security of an Agent A. C-4 C. B-3
B.Planning for Surveillance and preparation B.B-2 D. C-5
of Search
C. Suitability of Sites for personal meeting 400. Mossad is the National Intelligence agency of
D. Verification .
A. Russia C. Philippines
389. The purpose of evaluation and analysis is B.Israel D. Pakistan
to determine if the information is true and-
 Russia - Federal Security Service of Russian
A. Reliable C. Correct
Federation
B.Probably true D. Accurate
 Philippines- National Intelligence
Coordinating Agency
390. It refers to those measures, which seek
 Pakistan - Inter-Services Intelligence
actively to block the enemies’ effort to gain
information or engage in espionage,
subversion,
401. Law enforcement in China was carried out by
and sabotage. which developed in both chu and jin
A. Counter Intelligence kingdom of the Spring and Autumn period.
B.Passive Counter Intelligence A. Watch man C. Prefect
C. Active Counter Intelligence B.Gendemarie D. Constabulary
D. Intelligence
402. First Female Filipino commissioned officer in
 Passive CI Measures – protection of a UN integral mission.
classified and sensitive information to the A. P /D Rodolfo A. Tor C. Insp. Anrisa I. Mitra
unauthorized through secrecy, B.SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas
communication security, and other various D. None of these
safeguards.
 SPO2 Ester A. Marcidas – First Non-
391. All EXCEPT one should be considered Commissioned officer in a UN
in conducting stationary surveillance. integral Mission
A. Preparation  P/D Rodolfo A. Tor – First Commissioned
B.Financial Requirement officer in UN Integral Mission
C. Personnel, Supply/Equipment and Security
D. Coverage of Operation 403. New York Police
Department (NYPD) have limited jurisdiction
392. Undercover operation is also known as; on :
A. Roping C. Bait A. USA C. New York
B.Clandestine D. Loose B.None of these D. Los Angeles
393. It is defined as an art and science of 405. In the etymology of the word police
codes and ciphers. the ancient word “Polisoos” referred to a
A. Cryptography C. Cryptanalysis
person who ?

A. Enforcing Law C. Civil Policy
B.Guarding a City D. Citizenship 418. It is being acknowledge by Federal
Bureau Investigation and INTERPOL to be the
406. During the middle ages, there were “Asia’s Finest” police force and in having, set
two guard officer of the kingdom of France with up the foundation for the social stability of
police responsibilities those are the Marshal of Hong Kong and has won a good reputation as
France and : one of the safety cities in the world.
A. Constable of France C. Queens Royal Guard A. Philippine National Police
B.Scotland Yard D. Constabulary B.Hong Kong Police Force
C. Japan Police Department
408. The typical number of Detectives roughly D. National Police Agency
of police service personnel:
A. 75% C. 5 to 10% 419. It is the highest possible rank in
B.15 to 25% D. 7 to 10% Australia Police Force:
A. Commissioner General C. Director General
409. In USA, FBI only have jurisdiction over B.Commissioner D. Director
federal crimes or those with an interstate
components. The statement is:  Director General – Philippine
A. Correct C. Partially Correct National Police
B.False D. partly False  Director – BJMP and BFP
 Commissioner General - highest position
410. This pertains to all those forms of policing in Japan Police Organization
that, in some sense transgress national borders:
A. International Policing 420. The code of secrecy of Mafia:
B.Global Policing A. Omerta C. Morse
C. National Policing B.Nostra Compra D. Cosa Nostra
D.Transnational Policing
421. INTERPOL stands for:
411. In US, he introduced police reforms to
include educational requirement for police A. International Police
officer: B. International Organization of Police
A. James Q. Wilson C. Sir Robert Peel C. International criminal Organization
B.August Volmer D. O.W. Wilson D. International Criminal Police Organization
 Robert Peel – Father of Modern 422. The supreme governing body of

policing System the INTERPOL is the:
 O.W. Wilson - responsible in reducing A. Executive Assembly C. Major Assembly
corruption and introduced B.National Assembly D. General Assembly
professionalism in Winchita, Kansas and
Chicago Police Department 423. The general Secretariat office of the
INTERPOL is run by the:
412. The motto of Hongkong Police force: A. Director General C. Supervisor
A. Law and Order B.Inspector General D. Secretary General
B.Knowledge is Safety
C. Serve and Protect 425. The police rank in Japan that is called
D.We serve with pride and Care Keishi:
A. Policeman C. Chief Superintendent
413. Where do you can find the so called Police B.Superintendent D. Senior Superintendent
Ombudsman? It’s outside review organization
for police officer whose are changed of 426. It is the counterpart of Police
committing any form of misconduct: Community Precinct in Japan:
A. Northern Ireland C. England A. Keishi C. Koban
B.China D. Japan B.Omerta D. Keiban
414. Throughout the United Kingdom, the 427. In Japan it is not considered as a rank but
rank structured of police force is identical up it is the highest position in Japan Police
to the rank of? Organization:
A. Chief Constable C. Chief Inspector A. Commissioner Secretariat
B.Chief Superintendent D. Inspector B.Commissioner
C. Chairman
415. In USA, what state are among the first to D.Commissioner General
hire women and minorities as police officer.
A. Massachusetts C. California 428. The Japan’s Police Organization is headed by
B.New York D. Washington a Commissioner General who is appointed by:
A. Japans Emperor
416. In Taiwan police Agency, what is the B.Prime Minister
comparable rank to inspector or sub- C. National Public Safety Commission
lieutenant? D. Japan Commission
A. Police Rank 4
B.Police Supervisor Rank 4 429. The lowest rank in Singapore Police
C. Police Officer Rank 1 Force:
D. Police Supervisor Rank 1 A. Junsa C. Constable
B.Sergeant D. Police Officer
417. In Taiwan National Police Agency, what is
the lowest possible rank of its police personnel? 430. Irish Police are called:
A. Police Rank 1 C. Police Officer Rank 1 A. Militsiya C. Constable
B.Investigator 1 D. Constable B.Police Force D. Garda Socha
431. The following are the language of that will be looked upon by the entire
communication used by the Gen. populace in the world.
Secretariat:  Revolutionary - is the category of terrorist
a. French; group which is dedicated to overthrow an
b. Mandarin;
c. English;
d. Arabic; and
e. Spanish.
A. b, c, d, e C. d, a, c, e
B.c, d, e D. a, b, c, d, e
432. It States that the yardstick of police

proficiency relies on the absence of
crime.
A. Home rule C. Continental
B.Old police service D. Modern police service
433. The first secretary general of the

Interpol.
A. Oskar Dressler C. Ronald K. Noble
B.Johann Schober D. Aberdeen Scotland
Johann Schober - The first president of the Interpol
435. Group of highly specialized armed men who

inflict fear and uses violence to accomplish their
objectives with a usual international scope of
activity.
A. Organized Crime
B.Transnational Crime
C. Transnational Organized crime
D.Terrorist
 Organized Crime - Group activities of

three or more persons, with hierarchical
links or personal relationships, which
permits their leaders to earn profits or
control territories or markets, internal or
foreign, by means of violence, intimidation
or corruption, both in furtherance of
criminal activity and to infiltrate the
legitimate economy.
 Transnational Crime - a continuing
illegal activity of group of person which is
primarily concerned with the generation
of profits, irrespective of national
boundaries as a result of globalization.
 Transnational Organized crime - is a crime
perpetuated by organized criminal group
which the aim of committing one or more
serious crimes or offenses in order to
obtain directly or indirectly, a financial or
other material benefits committed
through crossing of borders or
jurisdictions
436 Is the terrorist group which was founded by

Osama Bin Laden in 1980?
A. Al Qaeda C. Jihad
B.Mafia D. Nuestra Costra
 Mafia – is a term used to describe a

number of criminal organizations
around the world.
 Jihad - refers to the holy war by
members of the Islamic religion against
the Jews
438. It is the category of terrorist organization

which is aimed in achieving political autonomy
or religious freedom.
A. Revolutionary C. Separalist
B.Ethnocentric D. Political
 Ethnocentric - is the category of terrorist

organization which is aimed at
establishing a dominant or superior race
established order and replacing it with program is satisfied.
a new political or social structure.
 Political - is the category of terrorist 442. It is a center created by Executive Order
group which aims in restructuring No. 62 to establish a shared database among
the society. concerned agencies for information on
 Nationalistic - those who commit criminals,
acts of violence due to their loyalty or
devotion to their country.
439. It is the anchor of the

investigation of all crimes committed
via the internet:
A. Dynamic IP Address
B.Internet Protocol Address
C. Static IP Address
D. Website
 ISP – stands for Internet Service

Provider. It provides internet service to
internet users.
 IP Address – series of numbers
assigned by an Internet Service
Provider to an internet user when it
connects to the Internet
 Dynamic IP Address – a type of IP
Address that changes every time the
internet user accesses his Internet
Service Provider. It is usually
assigned to dial-up or base speed
broadband service subscribers
 Static IP Address – a type of IP
Address that is constant regardless of
the time or number of attempts the
internet user accesses the internet. It
is usually assigned to High-Speed
Internet Users.
 Website – a portfolio of a person /
organization / entity / company
which is posted on the Internet for
accessibility worldwide.
440. It is the act of illegally accessing the

computer system or network of an
individual, group or business enterprise
without the consent of the party’s system:
A. Computer Fraud C. Hacking
B.Cracking D. Theft
 Hacking - is the act of illegally

accessing the computer
system/network of an individual,
group or business enterprise
without the consent or approval of
the owner of the system.
 Cracking - is a higher form of
hacking in which the unauthorized
access culminates with the process of
defeating the security system for the
purpose of acquiring money or
information and/or availing of free
services
441. It refers to a Code written with the

intention of replicating itself.
A. Trojan Horse
C. Worm
B.Logic Bomb
D. Computer Virus
 Worm spread itself to other

computers without needing to be
transferred as part of a host.
 Trojan horse - is a file that appears
harmless until executed. Trojan
horses do not insert their code into
other computer files
 Logic bomb - a set of instructions
secretly inserted into a program that
is designed to execute if a particular
methodologies, arrests and convictions on 451. It refers to a kind of retirement where PNP
transnational crime commissioned and non-commissioned officer may
retire and be paid separation benefits
A. Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes
corresponding to a position two ranks higher than
(PCTC)
his/her rank:
B. National Commission on Anti
A. Retirement in the next higher grade
Hijacking (NACAH)
B.Compulsory retirement
C. International Criminal Police Organization
C. Early retirement program
(ICPO)
D. Optional Retirement
D. Philippine National Police (PNP)
443. An order strengthening the operational, 452. It is a part of the PNP but enjoining an
administrative and information support system independence from the PNP. It has an
of the PCTC. Under this EO, the centre shall investigative and adjudicatory power over
exercise general supervision and control over PNP members.
NACAHT, ICPO, PNP or DILG A. Internal Affairs Service
A. EO 100 C. EO 465 B.National Police Commission
B.EO 465 D. EO 789 C. People’s Law Enforcement Board
D. National Appellate Board
444. Considered as the major concerns of
the PCTC, EXCEPT: 453. In police operational planning the use of
the wedge, squad diagonal or deployed line
A. Information Exchange would be probable used for:
B. Strategic studies and capacity building A. Arm confrontation C. Relief Operation
C. Law enforcement coordination B.Civil Disturbance D. VIP Security
D. none of these
453. Organized in 1712 for the purpose of
445. A decree codifying the law on carrying the regulations of the Department of
Illegal/unlawful Possession, manufacture, Dealing State; this was armed and considered as the
in, acquisition or disposition of firearms, mounted police.
ammunitions or explosions A. Carabineros De Seguridad Publica
A. RA 9165 C. RA 9372 B.Guadrilleros
B.RA 8294 D. RA 8792 C. Guardia Civil
D. Metropolitan Police Force
 RA 8792 - Electronic Commerce Act 454. What is the appropriate training course
 R.A. 9165 – Comprehensive Dangerous for POIII to SPOI?
Drug Act of 2002 A. Officers Senior Executive Course
 RA 9372 - Human Security Act of 2007 B.Officer Basic Course
 PD 1866 as amended by RA 8294 - Illegal C. Senior Leadership Course
Possession of Firearms and Explosive D.Junior Leadership Course
 RA 9745 - Anti-Torture Law of 2009
 RA 9995 - Anti-Photo and Video 455. Reasons for suspension or withdrawal
Voyeurism Act of 2009 of deputation of local chief executives as
 RA 9775 - Anti-Child Pornography Act of representative of the NAPOLCOM:
2009 I. Repeated unauthorized absences;
 RA 10088 - Anti-Cam cording Act of 2010 II. Abuse of authority;
III. Habitual tardiness;
446. What is the highest rank of police officer IV. Providing material support to criminals; and
in Japan? V. Engaging in acts inimical to national security.
A. KEISHI SOKAN C. KEISHI SO
B.KEISHI KAN D. KEIBU-HO A. I, II, III, V C. II, V, IV, I
B.I, II, IV, III D. I, II, III, IV, V
447. The founder of the Texas Rangers and
known 456. Planning for emergencies of a specific
to be the “Father of Texas”. nature at known locations.
A. Stephen Austin C. Vernon Knell A. Functional Plan C. Time Specific Plans
B.Dave Batista D. Johann Schober B.Tactical Plans D. Operational Plans
449. The following have summary dismissal 457. A retired PNP uniformed
powers over errant police members. personnel can get the lump sum of his
a. District Director; retirement benefits for the period of the first
b. Chief of Police; .
c. Regional Director; A. 10 years C. 5 years
d. Chief, PNP; B.6 years D. 2 years
e. PLEB; and
f. NAPOLCOM. 458. Specific
Qualifications may be waived like Age, Height,
A. a, b, d, f C. c, d, f Weight and Education, only when the number of
B.b, d, e D. a, c, e, f qualified applicants falls below the minimum
annual quota. Appointment status under a
450. Amado Perez joined the PNP in 1996. She waiver program is .
was 29 years old then. What year will Amado will A. Temporary C. Probationary
retire? B.Permanent D. Regular
A. 2016 C. 2023
459. No officer who has retired or is retirable within

B. 2012 D. 2031 from his compulsory retirement age
be appointed as chief of the PNP.

A. Three months C. Six months 469. Refers to the actual restraint of armed
B. One year D. Two years persons following a high-risk stop.
460. is given to any PNP member

who has exhibited act of conspicuous and
gallantry at the risk of his life above and beyond
the call of duty.
A. Meritorious Promotion
B.Special Promotion
C. Regular Promotion
D. On-the-Spot Promotion
461. Which among the following has no

promotional authority over the members of
the PNP?
A. Deputy Director General
B.Director General
C. President of the Philippines
D. Regional Director
462. The establishment of a formal structure

of authority through which works and divisions
are arranged, defined and coordinated refers
to:
A. Planning C. Organizing
B.Staffing D. Directing
463. In regard to the police planning function,

it may be said that:
A. Planning is essentially order giving.
B.Planning is essentially decision making in
advance of action.
C. Policemen must plan carefully than
their supervisors.
D. The higher the job in the organization,
the shorter the time-lag between planning
and execution.
464. The National Bureau of Investigation, was

patterned by the Federal Bureau Investigation,
it was organized by R.A. 157. What law
reorganized the NBI?
A. R.A 9708 C. R.A 6040
B.R.A. 2678 D. R.A. 9262
465. The IAS can recommend promotion of

the members of the PNP or the assignment of
PNP personnel to any key position. The
statement is:
A. Partly True C. Partly False
B.Absolutely True D. Absolutely False
466. The following are the offenses for

which a member of the PNP may be charged
administratively:
I. Oppression;
II. Misconduct;
III. Neglect of Duty;
IV. Violation of law; and
V. Incompetence.
A. I, II, IV, V C. I, II, III, IV

B.V, II, III, I D. IV, III, IV, I, II
467. The police function in which patrol belong

is:
A. Line function C. Administrative function
B.Staff function D. Auxiliary function
468. The planning responsibility of the PNP

chief and other high ranking PNP officials is
known as:
A. Broad external policy planning
B.Incremental planning
C. Internal policy planning
D. Radical planning

A. Dragnet Operation C. Hasty Checkpoint with full term
B.High -Risk Arrest D. High Risk Stop D. None of these
 Dragnet Operation - police

operation intentionally to seal-off
the probable exit points of fleeing
suspects from the crime scene to
prevent their escape.
 Hasty Checkpoint - is an immediate
response to block the escape of
lawless elements from a crime
scene, and is also established when
nearby checkpoints are ignored or
during hot pursuit operations.
 High Risk Stop - actual stopping of
armed and dangerous persons,
aboard a vehicle or on foot, including
the power to use all necessary and
legal means to accomplish such end.
470. Maximum period wherein a police

officer may be suspended from service by
the Chief PNP:
A. 180 days C. 60 days
B.90 days D. 30 days
Disciplinary Authorities for Breach of Internal

Discipline
 Chief of Police- NOT EXCEEDING FIFTEEN

(15) DAYS
 Provincial Directors- NOT
EXCEEDING THIRTY (30) DAYS
 Regional Director- NOT EXCEEDING SIXTY
(60) DAYS
471. The IAS can recommend promotion

of the members of the PNP or the
assignment of PNP personnel to any key
position. The statement is-
A. YES C. NO
B.Wholly Correct D. Wholly False
472. Who has the disciplinary authority in

citizen’s complaint when the penalty
imposed is not exceeding fifteen (15) days?
A. City/Municipal Mayor C. Chief of Police
B.Provincial Director D. PLEB
 City/Municipality Mayors- not less

than SIXTEEN but not exceeding
THIRTY (30) DAYS
 People’s Law Enforcement Board
(PLEB)- exceeding THIRTY (30)
DAYS, or by DISMISSAL
473. The law that governs the Code of

Conduct and Ethical Standards for officials
and employees of the Government –
National or Local.
A. R.A. 7160 C. R.A. 7610
B.R.A. 6713 D. R.A. 9263
 RA 7160 – Local Government Code

 RA 7610 - Special Protection of
Children against Abuse,
Exploitation and Discrimination
 RA 9263 – BFP and BJMP
Professionalization Act of 2004
474. How vacancy filled up in the

commission, except through expirations
of term?
A. It shall be filed up for the unexpired
term only with the capacity for regular
appointment for another full term.
B.It shall be filed up for the unexpired term
only without re appointment.
C. It shall be filed up by another person
484. If we are seeking for an arrest of
wanted person with a view to extradition.
475. Under the police reform and reorganization A. Blue Notice
law, a Field training Program for all PNP C. Red Notice
uniformed members is required for permanency B.Black Notice
of their appointment consisting of 12 months. D. Purple Notice
Basic areas of actual experience and assignment
during this period shall be on: Types of Notice by INTERPOL
A. Patrol, traffic and investigation  Yellow Notice- To help locate missing
B.Patrol, investigation and Intelligence persons, often minors, or to help
C. Patrol, Public Relations and auxiliary services identify persons who are unable to
D. Traffic, investigation and Intelligence identify themselves.
 Blue Notice- To locate, identify or
476. Based on NAPOLCOM MC# 95-013, the obtain information on a person of
following are the factors considered in promotion: interest in a criminal investigation.
a. Educational Attainment;  Black Notice- To seek information
b. Personality traits; on unidentified bodies.
c. Potential;  Green Notice- To warn about a
d. Service reputation; and person's criminal activities if that
e. Physical Fitness. person is considered to be a possible
threat to public safety.
A. a, c, d, e C. b, e, c, a  Orange Notice- To warn of an event,
B.d, b, c, a D. a, b, c, d, e a person, an object or a process
representing an imminent threat and
477. At 48 years old, Supt. Andres Matapang danger to persons or property.
is due to be promoted. Who has the authority  Purple Notice- To provide information
to promote him to his next rank? on modi operandi, objects, devices and
A. Chief, PNP C. CSC concealment methods used by
B.Secretary, DILG D. President criminals.
478. Fr. Bogart Roman was born on December 484. What is the name of the acclaimed first
11, 1964; He opted to join the Philippine formally organized modern police force in
National Police in March 1999. Is he qualified to the world?
join the PNP? A. Interpol C. Scotland Yard
A. Yes C. Wholly True B.New York Police District D. Texas rangers
B.No D. Wholly False
485. The following are the law enforcement
479. In times of war or other national principles enunciated by the Father of Modern
emergency declared by the Congress the Policing System, except:
President may extend such term of office from A. Prevention of crime is the basic mission of
depending on the gravity of the police
the situation. B.The police must have full respect of the citizenry
A. Six months to one year C. The police are the public and the public are
B.One year to two years the police
C. One to six months D. No free man shall be imprisoned except by
D. Five months to one year final judgment
E.None of the above
480. POIII Floyd Macanochie, receives 19,
870.00 base pay since he was promoted. After 487. The period of time elapsed since the oath
five years from promotion, what would be his of office was administered is termed
monthly base pay after adding his longevity A. Tour of duty C. Term of office
pay? B.On duty D. Length of service
A. 21, 857.00 C. 19, 970.00
B.24, 870.00 D. 31, 549.00 488. The NAPOLCOM shall affirm, reverse or
modify personnel disciplinary actions involving
481. If the police plan of Municipality X can carry demotion or dismissal from the service imposed
out the purpose or goal of the police station then upon members of the PNP by the Chief PNP
the plan is considered . through the:
A. Feasible C. Acceptable A.PLEB C. RAB
B.Suitable D. Adaptable B.NAB D. C/PNP
482. The 489. Promotion by virtue of position shall

PNP Internal Affairs Service is headed by a police be granted after:
officer with the rank of and a A. 6 months C. 2 years
designation as Inspector-General. B.1 year D. 18 months
A. Deputy Director General C. General
B.Director D. C/Superintendent 490. Breach of internal discipline committed
by any member of the PNP shall be brought to
483. The shift that receives most of the call of the office of the Chief of Police or equivalent
the public which are directly related to police supervisor if the penalty imposed covers the
function, it is considered as the busiest among period of:
them all. A. Not exceeding 15 days
A. Afternoon shift C. Day shift B.Not exceeding 60 days
B.Midnight shifts D. Night Shift C. Not exceeding 30 days
D. Dismissal
 Night Shift – Least Desirable shift

491. Any PNP member shall be dismissed  Hezbollah – Party of God
immediately from the service after due notice  Ayman Al Zawahiri – 2011-Present
and summary hearings if it was proven that he commander of Al Qaeda
went on AWOL for a continuous period of:
A. 30 days or more C. 15 days or more 501. PNP in-service training programs are
B.20 days or more D. 60 days or more under the responsibility of the;
A. PNP Directorate for Plans
492. The city or municipal mayor shall develop B.PNP Directorate for Human Resource and
an integrated community public safety plan Doctrine Development
pursuant to: C. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records
A. E.O. 309 C. E.O. 903 Management
B.RA No. 6975 D. RA No. 8551 D. PNP Directorate for Comptrollership
It is the total number of police officers assigned in
493. The Statute of Winchester introduced patrol duties.
the system known as:
A. Keepers of the peace C. Curfew 502. Who is responsible in determining
B.Watch and ward D. Justice of the peace whether there is a permit for the holding of
the public assembly?
494. Which of the following is a characteristic A. Immediate Superior C. Ground Commander
of effective plan? B.Commanding Officer D. Chief of Police
A. give police department a clear direction
B. increase personnel involvement 503. The following are the things to be done
C. clearly define objectives and goals after armed confrontation, EXCEPT:
D. contain a degree of flexibility for A. Check whether the situation still poses
the unforeseen imminent danger
B.Conduct debriefing on all involved PNP
495. As a operatives
general rule, a patrol officer on foot during C. Submit the fact-finding report
day time should walk the curb: D. Evacuate the wounded to the nearest hospital
A. Outside C. Inside E.None of these
B.Near D. Far
504. The IAS shall also conduct, motu propio of
496. The following are the duties the following cases:
and responsibilities of Patrol
officers: I. incidents where a police
a. Conduct home visitations when a circumstance personnel discharges a firearm;
warrants, dialogues with the residents in their II. incidents where death, serious physical
beat; injury, or any violation of human
b. Report occurrences and conditions which rights occurred in the conduct of a
relate to crime, public peace, order and safety; police operation;
c. Observe and monitor public gatherings, III. incidents where evidence was
prevent disorders and disperse unlawful compromised, tampered with, obliterated,
assemblies; or lost while in the custody of police
d. Assist personnel of responsible agencies/unit personnel;
in facilitating the flow of traffic at busy IV. incidents where a suspect in the
intersections/roads within his Area of custody of the police was seriously
Responsibility (AOR) and; injured; and
e. Inspect and/or conduct surveillance in various V. Incidents where the established rules
places of business establishments and other of engagement have been violated.
installation and remove hazards to public safety.
A. I, II, IV and V C. II, III, IV, and V
A. b, c, d C. c, e, a, b B.I, II, III, and IV D. I, II, III, IV and V
B.e, b, d, c D. a, b, c, d, e
497. Which among the following is not included 497. The nature of which, the police officer is
in a Patrol Plan? free from specific routine duty is the definition
A. Organization Detail of Personnel of
C. Stand-by points A. “on duty” C. “Active Service”
B.Spot Report B.“Length of Service” D. <off duty=
D. Area Coverage
 Length of Service- The period of time
elapsed since the oath of office was
498. The terrorist group Abu Sayyaf is
administered.
formerly included in what terrorist group?
 Active Service- shall refer to services
A. MILF C. MNLF
rendered as an officer and non-officer, cadet,
B.Al Qaeda D. NPA
trainee or draftee in the PNP
499. The Koban policing system is adopted in: 498. The first step a dispatcher must take when
A. Japan C. Malaysia a felony-in-progress call has been received
B.Korea D. Thailand through telephone or by direct alarm signal is
to?
500. The word “Abu Sayyaf” in Arabic literally A. assigns an investigator to investigate the witness
means- B.clears the air for emergency broadcast
A. The Sword Bearer C. The Base C. call the investigators to report to crime scene
B.Islamic Congregation D. Hezbollah D. sends augmentation force
 Jemaah Islamiyah - Islamic 499. How many years of non-promotion before

Congregation a PNP Member can be attrited?
 Al Qaeda – The Base A. 5 years C. 2 years
B.10 years D. 18 Months

 Attrition by Relief - Those who have been 506. Whenever possible, pat-down searches
relieved for just cause and have not been should be conducted by-
given an assignment within TWO (2)
YEARS after such relief shall be retired or
separated
 Attrition by Demotion in Position or Rank -
who shall not be assigned to a position
commensurate to his or her grade within
EIGHTEEN (18) MONTHS after such demotion
shall be retired or separated
500. What is the main purpose why police car

or police officers are not allowed to be sent in
the scene of a Kidnap for ransom?
a. To avoid unnecessary actions for
the kidnappers
b. To avoid disturbances in the negotiation
c. To avoid any indication that police have been
informed of the KFR incident
d. To avoid failure in surveillance of the
KFR activities inside the warehouse
501. Which among the following, is not a

applicable legal parameter during rallies, strikes,
demonstrations or other public assemblies,
under the pertinent provisions of the Public
Assembly Act of 1985 (Batas Pambansa Bilang
880), the Labor Code of the Philippines, as
amended and other applicable laws.
A. Exercising Maximum Tolerance

B. No arrest of any leader, organizer, or
participant shall be made during the
public assembly, unless he violates
any pertinent law as evidence
warrants.
C. In case of unlawful aggression, only
reasonable force may be employed to
prevent or repel it.
D. Directly employment of tear gas and water
cannons.
502. Which of the following is considered as

the most important factor in formulating an
effective patrol strategy?
A. training of station commander
B.rank of the patrol commander
C. adequacy of resources of police station
D. salary rates of police personnel
503. The peace-keeping detail shall not be

stationed in the picket line (or confrontation
line) but should be stationed in such manner
that their presence may deter the commission
of criminal acts or any untoward incident from
either side. The members of the peace-keeping
detail shall stay outside a radius from the
picket line.
A. 50 feet C. 50 meter
B.100 feet D. 100 meter
504. Police officers are required to give the

suspect Miranda Warning, during Spot checks
and pat down searches. The statement is-
A. Partially C. Correct
B.Partially Wrong D. Wrong
505. The following are the circumstances which

may justify pat-down search, EXCEPT:
A. The appearance and demeanor of the
suspect
B. The time of the day and the location
where the pat-down search took
C. Where the police officer handles
several suspects
D. None of these

A. Day time to avoid ambush or the court in civil cases and of administrative
Surprise attack. bodies on controversies within their jurisdiction
B. At least two police officers, one to shall be acted
perform the search while the other
provides protective cover.
C. the aid of civilian to act as a witness
during the search.
D. Civilian to avoid any issue thereof.
507.Which of the following is not included in

the patrol function?
A. Respon.se for citizen calls for assistance
B. Investigation of crimes after this is
reported to the investigation section
C. Routine preventive patrol
D. Inspection of identified hazards
508. During police intervention

operations, the duty to issue a warning is
not absolute before he could use force
against an offender.
A. Correct C. Partially Correct
B.Wrong D. Partially Wrong
509. In transporting Detention Prisoner, if

transported by a patrol jeep, the subject
must be-
A. Seated on the left rear seat and a

PNP escort shall sit at the rear on the
Right side facing the subject
B. Seated on the Right rear seat and a
PNP escort shall sit at the rear on
the left side facing the subject
C. Seated on the Left rear seat and a
PNP escort shall sit at the rear on
the left side facing the subject
D. Seated on the Right rear seat and a
PNP escort shall sit at the rear on the
Right side facing the subject
510. Which among the following

should be observed during the patrol
operations?
A. Render after-patrol report
B.Buddy System
C. Kabit System
D. Render Hourly Report
511. During rallies, strikes, demonstrations or

other public assemblies, employment of tear
gas and water cannons shall be made under
the control and supervision of the-
A. Ground Commander C. Incident Commander
B.Immediate Commander D. Superior Officer
512. What should be the action of patrol

officers, when responding to Calls for Police
Assistance, except?
A. Stop the car at some distance away

from the scene.
B. Focus all efforts to arrest criminals
C. Determine the crime committed.
D. None of these
513. Where should the patrol officer

turnover the information and pieces of
evidence gathered at the crime scene?
A. SOCO team C. Immediate Supervisor
B.Responding unit D. Medico Legal Officer
514. Request for police assistance in the

implementation of final decisions or orders of

upon by the appropriate police office. The B. 150 meters D. 300 meters
request is filed at least prior to the actual
implementation. 521. Provides for methods of apprehending a
A. 3 days C. 10 days criminal by an act of the complainant shout to
B.5 days D. 15 days call all male residents to assemble and arrest
the suspect.
515. In cases of armed confrontation wherein A. Tun Policing C. Hue and Cry
a suspect dies, the Team Leader of the B.Statute of 1295 D. Courts of the Star Chamber
operating unit shall?
 Courts of the Star-Chamber (1487) - The room
A. He shall immediately undertake the set-up is formed in a shape of a star and
necessary investigation and processing judges were given great powers such as the
of the scene of the encounter. power to force testimony from a defendant
B. After the Investigation, He shall leading to a great abuse of power or brutality
immediately request the SOCO team on the part of the judges.
to conduct Crime Scene Processing.  Statute of 1295 - the law that mark the
C. He shall submit the incident for inquest beginning of the curfew hours, which
before the duty Inquest Prosecutor prior demanded the closing of the gates of
to the removal of the body from the London during sundown.
scene.  Tun Policing System - A system of policing
D. He shall report immediately to his emerged during the Anglo-Saxon period
superior for the proper undertakings to whereby all male residents were required
be done. to guard the town
516. PNP personnel who will 522. Refers to a location where the search,
point/profile suspected vehicle subject which is duly authorized by the PNP, is
for checkpoint: conducted to deter/prevent the commission of
A. Search Sub-Team C. Security Sub-Team crimes, enforce the law, and for other legitimate
B.Spotter D. Investigation Sub-team purposes.
A. Clear Zone C. Public Place
 Team Leader (TL) - shall lead and take
B.Police Checkpoint D. Pre-Determined Area
responsibility in the conduct of checkpoint
preferably an officer with the rank of at
523. Electronic blotter is a computerized
least Police Inspector;
system, which was accepted by the courts,
 Spokesperson - TL or member who is solely in
prosecutors’ office and the public in general.
charge of communicating with the motorists
What police office is using this kind of blotter?
subject for checkpoint;
A. Makati C. Cebu
 Investigation Sub-team - in charge of
B.Baguio D. Davao
investigation and documentation of
possible incidents in the checkpoint to 524. Marcos is a robber who is looking at the
include issuance of Traffic Citation Ticket earrings of Josephine while Insp. Gonzales is
(TCT) or Traffic Violation Report (TVR); standing near Josephine, Marcos plan to rob is
 Search/Arresting Sub-Team - designated not weaken by existence of Insp. Gonzales but
to conduct search, seizure and arrest, if the
necessary;
 Security Sub-Team - tasked to provide for successful robbery is prevented.
security in the checkpoint area; and recommended.
 Blocking/Pursuing Sub-Team - team tasked to A. 200 meters C. 100 meters
block/pursue fleeing suspects/vehicle.
517. During Checkpoints, who are allowed to

display high-powered firearms and are
positioned where they can best provide security
to the Checkpoint team including themselves.
A. Security Sub-Team C. Search Sub-Team
B.Blocking/pursuing Sub-team D. A and B
518. As much as practicable, who shall lead the

PNP contingent detailed to assist the Sheriff
during the demolition activity.
A. Immediate Superior C. Ground Commander
B.Commissioned Officer D. Chief of Police
519. Police officers shall, upon receipt of a

complaint or report or information that a child
has been or is being abused, maltreated,
discriminated, exploited, neglected, or
abandoned, or is under imminent danger of being
abused or exploited, shall take immediate action
thereon, but under no circumstance shall be
beyond ?
A. 12 hours C. 36 hours
B.24 hours D. 48 hours
520. In designating a “safe” assembly area,

well away from the threatened structure, out of
line-of- sight of the building and well clear of
windows. A minimum distance of is
A. Ambition C. Intention
B.Motive D. Opportunity
525. Police personnel whose

rank at the time of his retirement is
Superintendent shall retire with the rank of
:
A. Superintendent C. C/Superintendent
B.Sr. Superintendent D. C/Inspector
526. Which among the following terms

is not related to each other?
A. Hot Pursuit C. Fresh Pursuit
B.Cross Jurisdictional Pursuit D. Bright Pursuit
527. General
information regarding the incident shall
be released without clearance from the :
A. Chief of police C. Ground Commander
B.Incident Commander D. Immediate
Superior
528. Which of the following is not true

about patrol?
A. It is the backbone of the

police department
B. It is the essence of police operation
C. It is the single largest unit in the
police department that can be
eliminated
D. It is the nucleus of the police department
E. It is the operational heart of the
police department

529. The low informers and unreliable
renegades of value chiefly in spreading false
information to the enemy.
A. Common Spies C. Double Spies
B.Spies of Consequences D. None
530. Refers to utilization of units or elements of

the PNP for purpose of protection of lives and
properties, enforcement of laws, maintenance
of peace and order, prevention of crimes, arrest
of criminal offenders and etc.
A. Deployment C. Operation
B.Service D. Employment
Deployment- shall mean the orderly and

organized physical movement of elements or
units of the PNP within the province, city or
municipality for purposes of employment
-END-
“In everything you do always put GOD first and He

will guide you and reward your efforts with
Success.=– NMK12

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Criminal Detection Investigation (Makilala Institute of Science and Technology)

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 Continental - policemen are regarded as

 Inspector Rank: Dentists, optometrists, nurses,

9. The following are functions in a

 Primary or Line Functions- functions that

10. If the annual quota for the year 2013 is

The PNP shall reserve TEN PERCENT (10%) of its

11. The law that empowered the police

 R.A. 157- created the National Bureau

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17. Captain Matako is a commissioned officer of

A. Inspector C. Senior Inspector

18. How many Deputy Director General ranks are

Deputy Director General ranks

 DDG for Administration (2nd in Command)

19.The highest rank in the BJMP is .

A. Four star general C. Director

 Chief- highest position in the PNP, with the

20. It is defined as the determination in advance of

 Police Planning - it is an attempt by police

21. What is the minimum police-to-population

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o 1:500 – nationwide average

22.What kind of force is needed during

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 MAYOR – Shall choose from the (5) FIVE

27.The head of the IAS shall have a designation of

24.It is the premier educational institution for

PNPA- created pursuant to Section 13 of PD

25.It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s

 NAPOLCOM - shall exercise administrative

26.The following are the grounds for Patrol

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28. As per the

 there shall be at least one (l) PLEB for

30.The following are the upgraded

31.All of the following are members of the

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38.SPO1 Last and SPO2 First report to the

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A. Pastor Jayson Lopez, who is appointed

 Field Training Program. – All uniformed

A. Directorate for Plans

47.What is the rank equivalent of PNP

 Chief Superintendent – Brigade General

48.The Philippine National Police will recruit 300

 For a new applicant, must not be less than

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 SLC- SPOII to SPOIII

52.The head of the National Capital

 Regional Director -with the rank of

53.Under the waiver program, who

A. Jude who just earned 72 units in college

54. Republic Act 6975 is otherwise known as .

 National Appellate Board - shall decide

 The PLEB decision of the suspension is final

58. Who shall

 Police Entrance Examination – taken by

NOTE: Police officers, who are Licensed

59. SPOIV Rudolf

A. Regional Director or office of the PNP for