Based on MSBTE I- Scheme

Emerging Trends in Mechanical Engineering

(22652)

Unit- 1 : Recent Trends in Automobile Engineering.

Unit- 2 : Heat Engineering.

Unit- 3 : Recent Trends in Manufacturing Industries.

Unit- 4 : Energy Audit and Management.

Unit- 5 : Agriculture Equipment and Post Harvest Technology.

(Version - 1.1)

Unit- 1 : Recent Trends in Automobile Engineering

1. HEV is a type of hybrid vehicle that combines

a. ICE system with Electrical propulsion system.

b. Petrol engine with diesel engine.

c. ICE system with HCCI system

d. None of above.

Submit

Your answer is: __

2. HEV is mainly preferred because

a. IT reduces CO2 emission.

b. It reduces Exhaust gas toxic emission.

c. It improves power train dynamics

d. All of above.

Submit

Your answer is: __

3. Which type of hybrid uses 36 to 42 volts?

a. Mild hybrid

b. Medium hybrid

c. Full hybrid

d. Strong hybrid

Submit

Your answer is: __

4. Which type of hybrid is capable of propelling the vehicle using just the electric motor?

a. BAS type

b. Strong (full) hybrid

c. Medium hybrid

d. Mild hybrid

Submit

Your answer is: __

5. In series type hybrid vehicle.

a. Wheels are powered only by ICE

b. Wheels are powered both ICE and Electric motor.

c. Wheels are powered only by Electric motor.

d. None of above.

Submit

Your answer is: __

6. In parallel type hybrid vehicle.

a. Wheels are powered only by ICE

b. Wheels are powered both ICE and Electric motor.

c. Wheels are powered only by Electric motor.

d. None of above.

Submit

Your answer is: __

7. Which type of hybrid electric design costs the least?

a) Strong hybrid design

b) Series hybrid design

c) Parallel hybrid design

d) BAS design

Submit

Your answer is: __

8. How many cells are used in a 12 volt car battery?

a. 2

b. 4

c. 6

d. 8

Submit

Your answer is: __

9. The power actually developed inside the engine cylinder is called as

a. Indicated power

b. Frictional power.

c. Brake power.

d. None of these

Submit

Your answer is: __

10. The battery is an electrochemical device, which means battery

a. Makes chemicals by mechanical means

b. Uses chemical action to provide electricity

c. Has curved plates instead of flat plates

d. Does not use an electrolyte

Submit

Your answer is: __

11.Which type of hybrid electric vehicle has idle stop operation

a. Strong hybrids only

b. Strong, mild, and medium hybrids

c. Mild hybrids only

d. Medium hybrids only

Submit

Your answer is: __

12. Electric motors are better than an internal combustion engine to propel a vehicle because
_________.

a) They produce high torque at low speeds

b) They do not burn fuel and therefore do not release carbon dioxide into the environment

c) They are quiet

d.All of the above are correct

Submit

Your answer is: __

13. All of the following are characteristic of a hybrid electric vehicle (HEV), except _________.

a) High voltages (safety issue)

b) Lower fuel economy

c) Lower amount of carbon dioxide released to the atmosphere

d. Quiet

Submit

Your answer is: __

14. The amount of current a battery can produce is controlled by the:

a. Plate thickness

b. Plate surface area

c. Strength of acid

d. Discharge load.

Submit

Your answer is: __

15.How many volts are produced in each cell of a battery.

a. 2.1

b. 6.0
c. 9.6

d. 12.0

Submit

Your answer is: __

16. The plates of discharge battery are:

a. Two similar metals in presence of an electrolyte.

b. Two similar metals in presence of water.

c. Two dissimilar metals in the presence of an electrolyte.

d. Two dissimilar metals in the presence of an water.

Submit

Your answer is: __

17. A battery’s reserve capacity is measured in:

a. amperes

b. watts

c. amp-Hours

d. minutes

Submit

Your answer is: __

18. The preferred method of recharging a “dead “battery is

a. fast charging.

b. slow charging.

c. cycling the battery.

d. with a VAT- 40

Submit

Your answer is: __

19. The capacity of a battery is usually expressed in terms of

a. Volts

b. Amperes

c. Weight

d. Ampere hours

Submit

Your answer is: __

20.Li-ion Cobalt batteries has specific energy.

a. 90-120 Wh/kg

b. 100-150 Wh/kg

c. 150-250 Wh/kg

d. 30-50 Wh/kg

Submit

Your answer is: __

21.Li-ion Manganese batteries has specific energy.

a. 90-120 Wh/kg

b. 100-150 Wh/kg

c. 150-250 Wh/kg

d. 30-50 Wh/kg
Submit

Your answer is: __

22.Li-ion Phosphate batteries has specific energy.

a. 90-120 Wh/kg

b. 100-150 Wh/kg

c. 150-250 Wh/kg

d. 30-50 Wh/kg

Submit

Your answer is: __

23. Normal AC charging charge at rate of around

a. .7.70to 22 Kw

b. 50 Kw or more

c. 2.5 Kw.

d. 10 Kw

Submit

Your answer is: __

24. Fast AC charging charge at rate of around

a. a.7.70to 22 Kw

b. 50 Kw or more

c. 2.5 Kw.

d. 10 Kw

Submit
Your answer is: __

25. DC fast charging charge at rate of around

a. a.7.70to 22 Kw

b. 50 Kw or more

c. 2.5 Kw.

d. 100 Kw

Submit

Your answer is: __

26.The air bag sensors will only deploy in an accident that is equal or greater than----- crash.

a. a.35 kmph

b. b.30kmph

c. 25kmph

d. 20kmph.

Submit

Your answer is: __

27. ACC stands for

a. Automatic control system

b. Adaptive cruise control

c. Applied cruise control

d. Automatic cruise control

Submit

Your answer is: __

28. Air bag is made up of

a. Plastic.

b. Cotton fabric

c. Nylon fabric.

d. leather fabric

Submit

Your answer is: __

29. Higher speed AEB system scans up to------- meters.

a. 100

b. 200

c. 300

d. 400

Submit

Your answer is: __

30. Adaptive cruise control monitors

a. Speed and distance of the vehicle ahead.

b. Pedestrian,

c. object or animal.

d. Dash board, door or seat.

Submit

Your answer is: __

31. When danger of a collision is detected by ACC, it provides

a. Red warning light.

b. An audible alert

c. Actuators control throttle valve and brake.

d. All of above.

Submit

Your answer is: __

32. ESP system is designed to stabilize the vehicle during.

a. Accident.

b. Start and stop.

c. Cornering Maneuvers.

d. None of above.

Submit

Your answer is: __

33.Electronic stability control works in conjunction with vehicle’s

a. ABS

b. ACC

c.AEB

d. LCV

Submit

Your answer is: __

34. Forward collision warning system uses following to detect a vehicle or object
a. Light detection and ranging.

b. Electronic stability program.

c. Automatic detection system.

d. Automatic monitor system.

Submit

Your answer is: __

35. In active Integration system.

a. Reactive measures are taken.

b. Active measures are taken

c. Pre-emptive measures are taken.

d. a and b of above.

Submit

Your answer is: __

36. In passive Integration system.

a .Reactive measures are taken.

b. Active measures are taken

c. Pre-emptive measures are taken.

d.a and b of above.

Submit

Your answer is: __

37. Which of following is not a passive safety segment?

a. Seat belt.
b. Air bags.

c. Crumple zones.

d. Traction control

Submit

Your answer is: __

38. Which of following is active safety segment?

a) Seat belt.

b) Air bags.

c) Adaptive cruise control.

d) Whiplash protection.

Submit

Your answer is: __

39. The function of antilock brake system(ABS) is that

a. Reduces the stopping distance

b. Minimizes the brake fed.

c. Maintains directional control during braking by preventing wheels from locking.

d. prevents nose dives during braking and thereby postpones locking of the wheels.

Submit

Your answer is: __

40.The negative plates of lead acid battery has.

e. Lead peroxide (PbO2)

f. Spongy lead (Pb)

g. Lead sulphate (PbSO4)

h. Slphuric acid (H2SO4)

Submit

Your answer is: __

41. The positive plates of lead acid battery has.

a. Lead peroxide (PbO2)

b. Spongy lead (Pb)

c. Lead sulphate (PbSO4)

d. Slphuric acid (H2SO4)

Submit

Your answer is: __

42. The purpose of transmission in automobile is

a. To vary the speed of automobile

b. To vary the torque at the wheels.

c. To vary the power of automobiles.

d. None of these

Submit

Your answer is: __

43. The seat belt tensioners are built in the

a. Front seats

b. Shoulders anchors

c. Seat belt retractors

d. Seat belt buckles

Submit

Your answer is: __

44. The function of an alternator in an automobile is,

a. Supply electric power.

b. converts mechanical energy to electrical energy

c. Continually recharges the battery

d. Partly converts engine power to electric power.

Submit

Your answer is: __

45. The petrol engines are also known as

a. Spark ignition (S.I.) engines

b. Compression ignition (C.I.)engines

c. Steam engines

d. None of these

Submit

Your answer is: __

46. The Diesel engines are also known as

a. Spark ignition (S.I.) engines

b. Compression ignition (C.I.)engines

c. Steam engines

d.None of these
Submit

Your answer is: __

47. When the battery is half charged (50%), the specific gravity of acid in a battery is

a. a.0.74

b. b.1.00

c. c.1.12

d. d.1.19

Submit

Your answer is: __

48. The main task of battery in automobile is to

a. a.Supply electricity to alternator

b. b.Act as reservoir of stabilizer of electricity

c. c.Supply electricity to vehicles electric system at all times while engine is running.

d.Supply large amount of power to turn the starter motor when engine being started

Submit

Your answer is: __

49. A battery can be charged by

a. Adding distilled water

b. adding sulphuric acid

c. Appling the voltage in reverse direction to that of charging.

d. Appling the voltage in same direction to that of charging.

Submit
Your answer is: __

50. The composition of electrolyte in fully charged battery is that

a. The electrolyte is pure distilled water

b. The electrolyte is pure sulphuric acid

c. The electrolyte is a mixture of 64% distilled water and 36% of sulphuric acid by weight

d. The electrolyte is a mixture of 90% distilled water and 10% of sulphuric acid by weight

Submit

Your answer is: __

51. The discharged lead acid battery has on its plates

a. Lead peroxide (PbO2)

b. Spongy lead (Pb)

c. Lead sulphate (PbSO4)

d. Sulphuric acid (H2SO4)

Submit

Your answer is: __

52. Traction control system (TCS) in automobiles controls the

a. Vibrations on steering wheel

b. Engine power during acceleration

c. Torque that is transmitted by tyres to road surface

d. Stopping distance in case of emergency.

Submit

Your answer is: __

53. The specific gravity of acid in fully charged battery is

a.1.00

b.1.28

c.1.82

d.2.81

Submit

Your answer is: __

54. With increase of battery temperature specific gravity of electrolyte

a. Increases

b. Decreases

c. Remains same

d. None of these.

Submit

Your answer is: __

55. How many cells are used in 12 v car battery

a.2

b.4

c.6

d.8

Submit

Your answer is: __

56.In 1930-32 _________has introduced Electrical Vehicle concept

Robert Adnderson

Anderson Flocken

Charles Kettering

John Ford

Submit

Your answer is: __

57. Toyota, Japan had developed in around 1997 "Prius" as

First Diesel Car

First EV

First Hybrid

First Fuel Cell car

Submit

Your answer is: __

58.Today in India Trucks and Buses use which type of fuel?

Petrol

Diesel

LPG

Methanol

Submit

Your answer is: __

59.First car arrived in India in which year

1890

1893

1897

1901

Submit

Your answer is: __

60.Abbreviation HEVs stands for what

Highly Efficient Vehicles

Hybrid Electric Vehicles

Highly Economic Vehicles

Highly Engineered Vehicles

Submit

Your answer is: __

61.Abbreviation SUVs stands for what

Supply Unit Vehicles

Sub-urban Utility Vehicles

Short Urban Vehicles

Super/ Sport Utility Vehicles

Submit

Your answer is: __

62. Technology growing for the future Cars will be

FuelCell
Electrical Vehicles

Hybrid Vehicles

Duel fuel vehicle

Submit

Your answer is: __

63.Choose the EV present on the Indian road

Mercedes-Benz S-Class

Honda City

Mahindra TUV

Mahindra e20

Submit

Your answer is: __

64.Tata – Altroz is a ______________car

EV

Hybrid

Petrol

Diesel

Submit

Your answer is: __

65. Recently launched EV in two wheeler category in India

Bajaj - Pulsar

Bajaj - CT
Bajaj – Chetak

Bajaj - Avenger

Submit

Your answer is: __

66. Which is not the type of hybrid?

Mild

Micro

Strong

Mini

Submit

Your answer is: __

67. Nisan Leaf is ...

PHEV

EV

HEV

EREV

Submit

Your answer is: __

68. PHEV Stands for

Plug-in battery electric vehicle

Plug-in hybrid petrol vehicle

Plug-in hybrid electric vehicle

Plug-in hybrid electronic vehicle

Submit

Your answer is: __

69. Which car run on battery and power by ICE

EREV

PHEV

EHEV

EICE

Submit

Your answer is: __

70.Parallel hybrid with two clutches vehicle runs on

Only on Battery

Battery and Engine

Only ICE

None of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

71. In Axle split parallel system

Both axle are powered

Front axle powered

Rear axle powered

No axle powered
Submit

Your answer is: __

72. Series - parallel hybrid is

Mild hybrid

Micro hybrid

Strong hybrid

Mini hybrid

Submit

Your answer is: __

73. Most important parameter for EV batteries is

Range

Refuelling

Acceleration

All of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

74. A Battery cell doesn't contain

Anode

Cathode

Polarizer

Electrolyte

Submit
Your answer is: __

75.Which one is primary battery

Acid Lead

Li-ion

Sodium - ion

Non of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

76.In Lithium ion polymer battery ________act as electrolyte

Li

Polymer

Sodium

Submit

Your answer is: __

77.In Lithium ion batteries ions temporarily stored in cage of

Graphite or Silicon

Metal oxide

Carbon

Li

Submit

Your answer is: __

78. PEM fuel cell stands for

Proton exchange matter

Proton electrolyte membrane

Proton exchange membrane

Peroxide exchange membrane

Submit

Your answer is: __

79. Which issue is important in EVs

Fuel

Charging stations

Braking

Life

Submit

Your answer is: __

80. Which one of the following is passive safety system

Automatic braking

Air Bags

Traction control

Side mirror

Submit

Your answer is: __

81. AEB Stands for

Automatic Electric Brake

Automatic Emerging Braking

Automatic Emergency Braking

Automatic Electronic braking

Submit

Your answer is: __

82. ACC stands for

Adaptive Central Control

Adaptive Cruise Center

Automatic Cruise Control

Adaptive Cruise Control

Submit

Your answer is: __

83. ECU in vehicle controls

Equipment

Engine

Emergency system

Electronic system

Submit

Your answer is: __

84. TCS stands for control of

Brake traction

Wheel traction

Engine traction

Electronic traction

Submit

Your answer is: __

85. Anti collision system work as

Passive safety

Non of the all

Active safety

all of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

86. EVs are equipped with generally ___________ motors

DC motors

AC induction motors

stepper motors

DC shunt motors

Submit

Your answer is: __

87. Batteries power used for EVs are measured by parameter

Ammeter
Current hour

Voltage hours

Ammeter hours

Submit

Your answer is: __

88. Long form of ESP is

Electronic Stability Parameter

Electronic Stability Power

Electronic Stability Program

Electronic Steering Power

Submit

Your answer is: __

89. Skidding of vehicle after braking can be control by

ASB

ASC

BCS

ABS

Submit

Your answer is: __

90. Battery electrical hazard can be safely handle by....

Safety gloves

Googles
Seat belt

Air Bags

Submit

Your answer is: __

91. Identify the hybrid vehicle system which having at least two clutches

Parallel hybrid with two clutches

Power split Hybrid

Series Parallel Hybrid

Parallel hybrid with one clutch

Submit

Your answer is: __

92. Electrical power measure in

Kilowatt

Kilowatthour

Voltage

Coulomb

Submit

Your answer is: __

93. Multi-meter use to measure

Voltage

Ampere

Resistance
All of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

94. In fuel cells popular fuel used is

Oxygen

Water

Hydrogen

Carbon

Submit

Your answer is: __

95. Material used for air bag manufacturing is generally.....

Nylon

Rubber

Fibre

Glass wool

Submit

Your answer is: __

96. The Hybrid and EVs are developing day by day due to

To reduce CO2 emission

To increase total power-train dynamics

Reduce toxic emission

All of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

97. Regenerative braking used for

Engine power

Battery recharge

Heat dissipation

Traction control

Submit

Your answer is: __

98. Indian Government announced a FAME scheme for Electrical Vehicle adoption, FAME stands for

Full Adoption and Manufacturing of EVs

Faster Applications and Manufacturing of EVs

Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of EVs

Faster Adoption and Maintaining of EVs

Submit

Your answer is: __

99. Which of the following is not charging method for EVs

DC Slow charging mode

AC Slow charging mode

DC Fast charging mode

AC Fast charging mode

Submit
Your answer is: __

100. Long form of LIDAR

Light Detection and Radar

Light Derivation and Ranging

Light Detection and Ranging

Light Detection and Rating

Submit

Your answer is: __

101. Air bag inflation system contains

Sodium Nitrate

Sodium Azide

Sodium Oxide

Sodium Peroxide

Submit

Your answer is: __

102. ACC monitor the ________ of the vehicle ahead to maintain safe distance without driver
intervention

Braking

Light focus

Acceleration

Speed and distance

Submit

Your answer is: __

103. Traction control used in cars to

Control grip and stability system

Control light system

Control braking system

Control steering system

Submit

Your answer is: __

104. In APIC system of cars vision sensors are

Camera

RADAR

Ultrasonic

All of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

105.Okinawa Praise is the .....

EV three wheeler

EV two wheeler

EV Four wheeler

All of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

106. What is LVDT used to measure?

a) Gas temperature

b) Engine speed

c) Crank angle

d) Large displacement

Submit

Your answer is: __

107. What is mechanical efficiency?

a) The ratio of friction power to brake power

b) The ratio of the brake power to indicated power

c) The ratio of indicated power to friction power

d) The ratio of friction power to indicated power

Submit

Your answer is: __

108. What is volumetric efficiency?

a) A measure of the power of the engine

b) A measure of the speed of the engine

c) A measure of pressure rise in the cylinder

d) A measure of breathing capacity of the engine

Submit

Your answer is: __

109. Which of the following is not an expression power?

a) P=VI

b) P=I2R

c) P=V2/R

d) P=I/R

Submit

Your answer is: __

110. Which of the following statements are true?

a) Power is proportional to voltage only

b) Power is proportional to current only

c) Power is neither proportional to voltage nor to the current

d) Power is proportional to both the voltage and current

Submit

Your answer is: __

111. A 250V bulb passes a current of 0.3A. Calculate the power in the lamp.

a) 75W

b) 50W

c) 25W

d) 90W

Submit

Your answer is: __

112. Kilowatt-hour(kWh) is a unit of?

a) Current
b) Power

c) Energy

d) Resistance

Submit

Your answer is: __

113. The SI unit of power is?

a) kW(kilo-watt)

b) KCal/s(KCal per second)

c) Ws(watt-second)

d) J/h(joules per hour)

Submit

Your answer is: __

114. Which among the following is a unit for electrical energy?

a) V(volt)

b) kWh(kilowatt-hour)

c) Ohm

d) C(coloumb)

Submit

Your answer is: __

115. Out of the following, which one is not a source of electrical energy?

a) Solar cell

b) Battery
c) Potentiometer

d) Generator

Submit

Your answer is: __

116. A battery converts___________

a) Electrical energy to chemical energy

b) Chemical energy to electrical energy

c) Mechanical energy to electrical energy

d) Chemical energy to mechanical energy

Submit

Your answer is: __

117. Materials which easily allow the passage of electric current are known as ______

a) Insulators

b) Conductors

c) Dielectrics

d) Semi-conductors

Submit

Your answer is: __

118. Which of the following statements are true with regard to resistance?

a) Resistance is directly proportional to a length of the wire

b) Resistance is directly proportional to an area of cross section of the wire

c) Resistance is inversely proportional to the length of the wire

d) Resistance is inversely proportional to the resistivity of the wire

Submit

Your answer is: __

119. The resistance of insulators __________

a) Increases with an increase in temperature

b) Decreases with an increase in temperature

c) Remains the same with an increase in temperature

d) Becomes zero with an increase in temperature

Submit

Your answer is: __

120. Materials having resistance almost equal to zero is _______

a) Semi-conductor

b) Conductor

c) Superconductors

d) Insulators

Submit

Your answer is: __

121. It is preferable to connect bulbs in series or in parallel?

a) Series

b) Parallel

c) Both series and parallel

d) Neither series nor parallel

Submit

Your answer is: __

122. Batteries are generally connected in______

a) Series

b) Parallel

c) Either series or parallel

d) Neither series nor parallel

Submit

Your answer is: __

123. Many resistors connected in series will?

a) Divide the voltage proportionally among all the resistors

b) Divide the current proportionally

c) Increase the source voltage in proportion to the values of the resistors

d) Reduce the power to zero

Submit

Your answer is: __

124. What affect do petrol and diesel engines have on the environment? Click on the correct statement

a) They help deplete natural resources and contribute to increasing CO2 emissions

b) They help deplete natural resources and reduce CO2 emissions

c) They contribute to increasing CO2 emissions but help reduce global warming

d) They contribute to increasing SO2 emissions

Submit
Your answer is: __

125. Which vehicle uses a high-voltage battery?

a) Electrical

b) Hybrid

c) Both

d) None

Submit

Your answer is: __

126. Which vehicle has the smallest number of principle components?

a) Electrical

b) Hybrid

c) Diesel

d) Petrol

Submit

Your answer is: __

127. What is meant by the term regeneration?

a) It’s when electricity is generated during deceleration and braking

b) It’s when the battery is charged during engine idling

c) It’s when the battery is recharged from the mains supply

d) It’s when the battery is discharged

Submit

Your answer is: __

128. How can you identify a high-voltage cable?

a) They are coloured red

b) They have the wording “high-voltage” etched into their insulation

c) They are coloured orange

d) They are coloured black

Submit

Your answer is: __

129. What makes the risk of an electric shock from a high-voltage battery possibly more dangerous than
that from an AC circuit?

a) The higher voltage

b) The lower amperage

c) The greater available amperage

d) The lower voltage

Submit

Your answer is: __

130. What voltage is likely to be available from the battery of an electric vehicle or hybrid?

a) 12

b) 24

c) 300

d) 1.5

Submit

Your answer is: __

131. Sir Rudolf Diesel invented diesel engine in which year?

1905

1916

1920

1913

Submit

Your answer is: __

132. The torque available at the contact between road and driving wheel is called

Brake power

Friction power

Tractive effort

Engine torque

Submit

Your answer is: __

133. If ‘V’ is vehicle speed(in metres/min) and ‘R’ is radius of driving wheel(in metres) then the rpm of
the driving wheel is given by

rpm = V/2pR

rpm = 2pV/R

rpm = pR/V

rpm = pV/R

Submit

Your answer is: __

134. The force that opposes the motion of a vehicle is

Rolling resistance

Gradient resistance

Wind or air resistance

All of the mentioned

Submit

Your answer is: __

135. One Horse Power(H.P) is approximately equal to _____ Watts.

810

545

634

746

Submit

Your answer is: __

136. A heat engine converts heat energy from fuel combustion or any other source into which type of
work

Electrical work

Mechanical work

Pressure work

None of the mentioned

Submit

Your answer is: __

137. Which of these is a power absorbing heat engine

Steam engine
Petrol engine

Air compressor

None of the mentioned

Submit

Your answer is: __

138. Petrol Engine operate on which of these cycles

Otto cycle

Rankine cycle

Carnot cycle

Stirling cycle

Submit

Your answer is: __

139. In a Diesel cycle engine, combustion occurs at

Constant pressure

Constant temperature

Constant volume

Constant heat

Submit

Your answer is: __

140. A 150 c.c. two-stroke petrol engine running at 5000 rpm can develop a maximum brake power of

15 kW

10 kW
5 kW

1 kW

Submit

Your answer is: __

141. The transmission system transmits _________ from engine to wheels.

Speed

Power

Current

Pressure

Submit

Your answer is: __

142.Which of these falls under LMV(Light Motor Vehicle) category based on capacity?

Motorbikes

Cars

Buses

Trains

Submit

Your answer is: __

143. On what principle does the braking system in the car work?

Frictional force

Gravitational force

Magnetic force
Electric force

Submit

Your answer is: __

144. Generally which brakes are on the front wheels?

Drum brake

Disk brake

Shoe brake

Double shoe brake

Submit

Your answer is: __

145. What is the colour of a positive plate of a lead-acid battery?

White

Grey

White

Brown

Submit

Your answer is: __

146. What should a fully-charged 6 cell automotive battery indicate?

12 V

12.6 V

The specific gravity of 1.29 at 32 ?

12.6 V and the specific gravity of 1.29 at 32?

Submit

Your answer is: __

147. Where are the electro-optical sensors used?

Position and speed measurement

Piston temperature measurement

Cooling water flow measurement

Lubricating oil flow measurement

Submit

Your answer is: __

148. What is the main use of the strain gauge?

To measure viscosity

To measure velocity

To measure temperature

To measure pressure & Force

Submit

Your answer is: __

149.Abbreviation HEVs stands for what

Highly Efficient Vehicles

Hybrid Electric Vehicles

Highly Economic Vehicles

Highly Engineered Vehicles

Submit
Your answer is: __

150.Which of the following is not a part of the transmission system

Clutch

Axles

Wheels

Gear box

Submit

Your answer is: __

151.An automobile chassis does not include which one of the following parts

Shock absorbers

Steering system

Differential

Brakes

Submit

Your answer is: __

152.The electrical system of an automobile contains which of the following

Battery

Alternators

Lighting systems

All of the mentioned

Submit

Your answer is: __

153.‘Maruti 800’ is a

Sub-compact car

Compact car

City car

Sports car

Submit

Your answer is: __

154.What is actual power delivered by the engine known as?

Shaft power

Horse power

Brake power

None of the mentioned

Submit

Your answer is: __

155.If ‘T’ is torque(in Nm) and ‘N’ is speed(in rpm) then the required expression for Brake power ‘B.P’ in
kWs is

2pNT/6000

2pNT/60000

pNT/6000

pNT/60000

Submit

Your answer is: __

156.HEV stands for

a. Hybrid electric vehicle

b. Electric vehicle.

c. Hybrid engine vehicle

d. Hybrid electric van

Submit

Your answer is: __

157.Following is the type of IC engine.

a. Motor engine

b. Diesel engine

c. Hybrid engine

d. Electric engine

Submit

Your answer is: __

158.Function of electric motor

a. To store energy

b. To start engine

c. To stop engine

d. Transform the electric energy

Submit

Your answer is: __

159.Function of electric battery is

a. To store energy

b. To convert energy

c. To transfer energy

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

160.Function of inverter is

a. To convert AC to DC

b. To convert DC to AC

c. To convert current

d. To convert Voltage

Submit

Your answer is: __

161.Function of electric generator is

a. To store energy

b. To convert AC to DC

c. To convert DC to AC

d. To produce electricity

Submit

Your answer is: __

162.Following is the type of hybrid vehicle based on structure of driven train

a. Parallel hybrid
b. Micro hybrid

c. Mild Hybrid

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

163.Following is the type of hybrid vehicle based on degree of hybridization.

a. Micro hybrid

b. Mild hybrid

c. Full hybrid

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

164.In Series hybrid vehicles wheels are powered by

a. IC engine

b. Electric motor

c. Diesel engine

d. Petrol engine

Submit

Your answer is: __

165. In Parallel hybrid vehicles wheels are powered by

a. IC engine

b. Electric motor
c. Diesel engine

d. a & b of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

166.. Following is the type of series-parallel hybrid vehicle.

a. Toyota Prius

b. Toyota Camry

c. Honda Civic

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

167. Following is the lowest level of vehicle hybridization

a. Mild hybrid

b. Micro hybrid

c. Full Hybrid

d. None of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

168. Mahindra Scorpio is the example of

a. Mild hybrid

b. Micro hybrid

c. Full Hybrid
d. Strong hybrid

Submit

Your answer is: __

169. Mild hybrid vehicles

a. Can run on battery only

b. Cannot run on electric battery alone

c. Need support of IC engine

d. b & c of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

170. Strong hybrid vehicles

a. Can run on battery only

b. Cannot run on electric battery alone

c. Can run on IC engine

d. a & c of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

171.PHEV stands for

a. Plug in hybrid vehicle

b. Plug in hybrid electric vehicle

c. P type hybrid vehicle

d. P type hybrid electric vehicle

Submit

Your answer is: __

172. The main limitation of HEV is

a. It adds more weight to vehicle

b. It is more difficult to build

c. More price

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

173. The main benefit of an electric machine, compared to an ICE, is

a. Constant high torque at low speed

b. Very high efficiency

c. Energy recovery capability

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

174. A hybrid electric vehicle performs following function.

a. Engine idle start/stop

b. Electric torque assistance

c. Energy recuperation

d. All of above

Submit
Your answer is: __

175. BEV stands for

a. Better electric vehicle

b. Battery electric vehicle

c. Best electric vehicle

d. All of above.

Submit

Your answer is: __

176. Okinawa is the

a. Indian company launched electric scooters.

b. Indian company launched electric motors

c. Indian company launched electric three wheelers

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

177. Li-ion, Sodium Nickel Chloride, Sodium sulpher are examples of

a. Chemicals

b. Companies

c. Batteries

d. None of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

178. EVSE stands for

a. Electric vehicle Supply energy

b. Electric vehicle supply equipment

c. Electric vehicle supply efficiency

d. All of above.

Submit

Your answer is: __

179. Function of EVSE is

a. To supply electric energy to recharge electric vehicles

b. To supply electric energy to increase efficiency

c. To supply electric energy to recharge IC engine

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

180. Which of following is the charging mode for EV batteries?

a. DC fast charging mode

b. AC fast charging mode

c. AC slow charging mode

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

181. Which of following system detect a vehicle or object in front?

a. ESP

b. ACC

c. LIDAR

d. AEB

Submit

Your answer is: __

182. In active system

a. Reactive measures are taken

b. Pre-emptive measures are taken

c. All of above

d. None of above.

Submit

Your answer is: __

183. In passive system

a. Reactive measures are taken

b. Pre-emptive measures are taken

c. Integration system is adopted

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

184. This of following is not the category of AEB.

a. Pedestrian detection system

b. Adaptive detection system

c. Higher speed AEB system

d. Low speed AEB system

Submit

Your answer is: __

185. An ACC equipped vehicle has

a. Accelerator pedal actuator

b. Radar sensor with main controller

c. Actuator controller and indicator

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

186. ESP system is designed to

a. Stabilize the vehicle during cornering maneuvers

b. Control vehicle in poor visibility

c. Apply emergency braking

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

187. Traction control system (TCS) in automobiles controls the

a. Vibrations on steering wheel

b. Engine power during acceleration

c. Torque that is transmitted by tyres to road surface

d. Stopping distance in case of emergency.

Submit

Your answer is: __

188. Which of following is not a passive safety segment?

a. Seat belt.

b. Air bags.

c. Crumple zones.

d. Traction control

Submit

Your answer is: __

189. The function of antilock brake system(ABS) is that

a. Reduces the stopping distance

b. Minimizes the brake fed.

c. Maintains directional control during braking by preventing wheels from locking.

d. prevents nose dives during braking and thereby postpones locking of the wheels

Submit

Your answer is: __

190. APIA links

a. Adaptive cruise control

b. Anti collision system

c. Existing active safety devices with passive safety systems

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

191. A danger control module computes

a. Closing velocity

b. Opening velocity

c. Activity control

d. Hazard potential

Submit

Your answer is: __

192. LIDAR stands for

a. Lane detection and ranging

b. Light detection and ranging

c. Line detection and ranging

d. Link detection and ranging

Submit

Your answer is: __

193. Level -1 public DC chargers has output voltage of

a. 10V/15V

b. 30V/40V

c. 42V/72V
d. 100V/200V

Submit

Your answer is: __

194. Integrated active passive system offers passengers

a. Best protection at all times

b. Limited injury to occupants in the event of an accident

c. a& b of above

d. None of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

195.Level -2 public DC chargers has output voltage of

a. Up to 1000V

b. Up to 200V

c. Up to 100V

d. Up to 240V

Submit

Your answer is: __

Unit- 2 : Heat Engineering

1. Process boiler is a boiler with a capacity of rated maximum input of ......... or more that serves a
process

a. 90KW

b. 10KW

c. 25KW
d. 50KW

Submit

Your answer is: __

2.Potato processing is example of steam processing in _____________ industry

a. Dairy

b. Breweries

c. Food

d. Fruit

Submit

Your answer is: __

3.A process boiler is operated with certain kind of fuel for

a. Hot water

b. Hot water or steam

c. Superheated steam

d. None of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

4.The process boilers steam generation capacity ranges from

a. 100 kg/h to 55000 kg/h

b. 50 kg/h to 55000 kg/h

c. 25 kg/h to 55000 kg/h

d. 175 kg/h to 55000 kg/h

Submit

Your answer is: __

5.Following is not processed under dairy industries

a. Milk power

b. Ultra heat treatment

c. Fermentation

d. Pasteurization

Submit

Your answer is: __

6.Sugar industry boilers are generally fired by

a. Coal

b. Coke

c. Bagasse

d. Wood

Submit

Your answer is: __

7.It is the liquid formed when steam passes from the vapour to the liquid state.

a. Condensate

b. Evaporate

c. Emulsified

d. Distillate

Submit
Your answer is: __

8.An arrangement of pipes by which water of condensation can be returned to the boiler is called

a. Steam line

b. Steam trap

c. Steam Loop

d. Steam tap

Submit

Your answer is: __

9.Which allows only condensate and gases to drain from steam pipe lines

a. Traps

b. Locks

c. Loops

d. Taps

Submit

Your answer is: __

10. Following is the Steam traps type

a. Mechanical

b. Temperature

c. Thermodynamic

d. All of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

11. The enthalpy in which phase change occurs is____

a. Sensible

b. Latent

c. Superheated

d. Critical

Submit

Your answer is: __

12. The dryness fraction ‘x’ of steam has range from

a. 1-10

b. 0-10

c. 0-1

d. 1-2

Submit

Your answer is: __

13. The temperature of steam having only pure steam and no moisture is called

a. Humid

b. Wet

c. Dry saturated

d. Dry bulb

Submit

Your answer is: __

14. The difference between superheated and saturated temperature is

a. Degree of superheat

b. Degree of saturated

c. Dry bulb

d. Wet bulb

Submit

Your answer is: __

15.The generation steam based on common thermodynamics cycle known as

a. Bryton cycle

b. Otto Cycle

c. Rankine cycle

d. Erricson cycle

Submit

Your answer is: __

16. Supercritical pressure is the steam pressure above____

a. 200bar

b. 221.2bar

c.212.2bar

d. 250bar

Submit

Your answer is: __

17.Supercritical Temperature is the steam temp above_____

a. 100 oC

b. 374.15 oC

c. 200 oC

d. 273 oC

Submit

Your answer is: __

18. Subcritical boilers works ________bar steam pressure

a. Less than 220

b. Between 220-250

c. Above 220

d. Above 250

Submit

Your answer is: __

19. Supercritical boilers works ________bar steam pressure

a. Less than 220

b. Between 220-250

c. Above 220

d. Above 250

Submit

Your answer is: __

20. Ultra supercritical boilers works ________bar steam pressure

a. Less than 220

b. Between 220-250

c. Above 220

d. Above 250

Submit

Your answer is: __

21. Following is the natural cooling tower type

a. Forced

b. Induced

c. Hyperbolic

d. Parabolic

Submit

Your answer is: __

22. Cooling towers are used to

a. reject heat to the atmosphere

b. to remove process heat

c. to cool hot water from condenser

d. all of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

23. The factors affecting cooling of water in a cooling tower are

a. Temperature of air

b. Humidity of air
c. Height of tower

d. all of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

24. The ___________cooling tower required less ground area

a. Hyperbolic

b. Forced

c. Induced

d. Evaporative

Submit

Your answer is: __

25. The process of reusing heat energy that would disposed of or released to atmosphere is called

a. WHO

b. WHR

c. WHP

d. WHH

Submit

Your answer is: __

26. Condensate recovery pump is the equipment of

a. Waste ice recovery

b. Waste steam recovery

c. Waste water recovery

d. Waste condensate recovery

Submit

Your answer is: __

27. What is long form of HRSG

a. Heat recovery steam generators

b. Heat recovery state generators

c. Heat recovery steam governor

d. Heat recovery start generator

Submit

Your answer is: __

28. The long form of HCCI engines is

a. Heterogeneous charge compression ignition

b. Homogeneous charge compression initiator

c. Homogeneous chare compression ignition

d. Homogeneous charge combustion ignition

Submit

Your answer is: __

29.. The temperature difference creates an electric potential by

a. Seebeck effect

b. Peltier effect

c. Thomson effect

d. All of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

30. HPPS stands for

a. Hybrid pneumatic Peltier system

b. Homogeneous pneumatic power system

c. Hybrid Pneumatic power system

b. None of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

31. Exhaust gas can be transform into shaft work through the turbine to generate electricity using

a. ETT

b ETC

c. ETE

d. EEE

Submit

Your answer is: __

32. Waste Heat Boiler can be used in refrigerating system like

a. Vapour Compression System

b. Vapour Absorption System

c. Vapour recovery system

d. Condensate system

Submit
Your answer is: __

33. A sizable disk which rotates between two side-by-side ducts, one a cold gas duct and other hot gas
duct is called

a. Heat roll

b .Heat Wheel

c. Heat Pipe

d. Heat bulb

Submit

Your answer is: __

34. A device can transfer 100 times more thermal energy than copper is called

a. Heat Pipe

b. Heat Wheel

c. Heat ball

d. Heat conductor

Submit

Your answer is: __

35. Recuperator is the device

a. WHR

b. Conductor

c. Evaporator

d. Conductor

Submit

Your answer is: __

36. _________ is a device used for recover heat from flue gases to heat the water supplied to boiler.

a. Evaporator

b. Air pre heater

c. Economiser

d. Condenser

Submit

Your answer is: __

37. Which is not the type of steam traps ?

a. Bimetallic

b. Float

c. Thermodynamic

d. None of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

38. In this type of condenser exhaust fan mounted above the device..

a. Hyperbolic

b. Forced draft

c. Induced draft

d. Natural draft

Submit

Your answer is: __

39. Typical temperature available for WHR in furnaces is

a. 500

b. above 650

c. below 200

d. 100

Submit

Your answer is: __

40.The waste heat of about 200-600 deg centigrade is available at the exit of

a. Furnaces

b. Exhaust from engines

c. Air compressor

d. Door leakage from combustion chambers

Submit

Your answer is: __

41. To recover about 100% heat from system following thermodynamic cycle is used

a. Brayton cycle

b. Organic Rankine Cycle

c. Ericson cycle

d. Rankine cycle

Submit

Your answer is: __

42. For low temperature combustion and ultra low emission following IC engine cycle is suitable
a. Diesel

b. HCCI

c. DI

d. SI

Submit

Your answer is: __

43. Using HPPS car can be run on

a. Petrol

b. Air

c. Diesel

d. Hydrogen

Submit

Your answer is: __

44. Air preheater is _________ used to WHR

a. Boiler mounting

b. Boiler accessories

c. Boiler safety

d. Boiler condenser

Submit

Your answer is: __

45. Absorption chiller system is used in

a. Vapour compression system

b. Lithium bromide absorption system

c. Vapour air system

d. Steam absorption device

Submit

Your answer is: __

46. Two different metal strips are used in _______the steam trap

a. Float

b. Thermodynamic

c. Bimetallic

d. inverted

Submit

Your answer is: __

47. Fermentation process is related to ___________ industry

a. Food

b. Milk

c. Breweries

d. Paper

Submit

Your answer is: __

48. At critical point

a. Water get converted directly into steam

b. It is the highest sensible temperature

c. Latent heat is almost zero

d. All of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

49. Amount of energy required to raise the unit mass of matter through unit degree temperature is
called

a. Heat

b. Specific Heat

c. Specific Energy

d. Energy value

Submit

Your answer is: __

50. USC boilers has efficiency in the range of

a. 44-46 %

b. 30-35 %

c. 35-40 %

d. Above 50%

Submit

Your answer is: __

51.Steam turbines are used for

a. Large marine propulsion

b. Electric power generation

c. Direct drive of fans, compressors, pumps

d. All of these

Submit

Your answer is: __

52.The expansion of steam in a nozzle follows

a. Carnot cycle

b. Rankine cycle

c. Joule cycle

d. Stirling cycle

Submit

Your answer is: __

53.An economiser _________ the steam raising capacity of a boiler.

a. Increases

b. Decreases

c. Has no effect on

d. None of these

Submit

Your answer is: __

54.Which of the following is a fire tube boiler?

a. Locomotive boiler

b. Babcock and Wilcox boiler

c. Stirling boiler

d. All of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

55.The performance of a boiler is measured by the

a. Amount of water evaporated per hour

b. Steam produced in kg/h

c. Steam produced in kg/kg of fuel burnt

d. All of these

Submit

Your answer is: __

56.The critical pressure ratio for initially superheated steam is __________ as compared to initially dry
saturated steam.

a. More

b. Less

c. Same

d. None of these

Submit

Your answer is: __

57.An air preheater is installed

a. Before the economiser

b. Before the superheater

c. Between the economiser and chimney

d. Before condenser

Submit
Your answer is: __

58.Pick up the wrong statement about critical condition of steam

(a) latent heat is zero

(b) liquid directly becomes steam

(c) specific volume of steam and liquid is same

(d) this is the maximum pressure limit

Submit

Your answer is: __

59.A major advantage of waste heat recovery in industry is

a. Reduction in pollution

b. Increased efficiency

c. Both a and b

D.None of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

60.In a low to medium temperature waste heat recovery system, the most suitable device is

a. Economizer

b. Heat wheels

c. Air pre-heater

d. Recuperator

Submit

Your answer is: __

61. An economizer is provided to reuse flue gas heat for

a. Preheating the boiler feed water

b. Preheating the combustion air

c. Preheating the stock

d. Preheating fuel

Submit

Your answer is: __

62.In industrial operations fluids with temperature less than __________ are set as the limit for waste
heat recovery because of the risk of condensation of corrosive liquids

a. 80 °c

b. 100 °c

c. 120 °c

d. 200 °c

Submit

Your answer is: __

63. The waste gases coming out from gas turbine exhausts are of the order of:

a) 370-540

b) 450 – 700

c) 700-800

d) 250-440

Submit

Your answer is: __

64.In a low to medium temperature waste heat recovery system which of the device is most suitable

a) Economizer

b) Heat wheels

c) Air preheater

d) Recuperator

Submit

Your answer is: __

65. In subcritical boiler plant steam pressure is,

a. Less than 220 bar

b. Between 220-250 bar

c. Above 250 bar.

d. None of above.

Submit

Your answer is: __

66. In Super critical boiler plant steam pressure is

a. Less than 220 bar

b. Between 220-250 bar

c. Above 250 bar.

d. None of above.

Submit

Your answer is: __

67. In ultra Super critical boiler plant steam pressure is

a. Less than 220 bar

b. Between 220-250 bar

c. Above 250 bar.

d. None of above.

Submit

Your answer is: __

68. A cooling tower is,

a. Steam cooling device

b. Heat rejection device

c. Water cooling device

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

69. In power plants hot water from condenser is cooled in

a. Cooling tower

b. Heat exchanger

c. a& b of above

d. None of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

70. Average efficiency of subcritical boiler is,

a. Up to 36%
b. up to 45%

c. up to 90%

d. Less than 45%

Submit

Your answer is: __

71. Average efficiency of supercritical boiler is,

a. Up to 36%

b. up to 45%

c. up to 90%

d. Less than 45%

Submit

Your answer is: __

72. Average efficiency of ultra super critical boiler is,

a. Up to 36%

b. up to 45%

c. up to 90%

d. Less than 45%

Submit

Your answer is: __

73. CO2 emission in subcritical boiler is

a. 766-789 Gm/kWh

b. 722 Gm/kWh
c. More 722 Gm/kWh

d. 1000 Gm/kWh

Submit

Your answer is: __

74. CO2 emission in super critical boiler is

a. 766-789 Gm/kWh

b. 722 Gm/kWh

c. More 722 Gm/kWh

d. 1000 Gm/kWh

Submit

Your answer is: __

75. CO2 emission in ultra super critical boiler is

a. 766-789 Gm/kWh

b. 722 Gm/kWh

c. More 722 Gm/kWh

d. 1000 Gm/kWh

Submit

Your answer is: __

76. Hyperbolic cooling tower cools

a.480000 gallons per second

b. 480000 gallons per minute

c. 480000 gallons per hour

d. 480000 gallons per day

Submit

Your answer is: __

77. WHR is

a. Water heat recovery system

b. Waste heat recovery system

c. Wheel heat recovery system

d. working heat recovery system

Submit

Your answer is: __

78. WHR can reduce

a. Waste water

b. Steam temp

c. Emission of H2

d. Emission of co2

Submit

Your answer is: __

79. Process boilers are used in dairy industry for

a. Milk powder

b. Liquid milk pasteurization

c. Ultra heat treatment on milk.

d. All of above
Submit

Your answer is: __

80. Steam is used in sugar industry for

a. Evaporation & sugar drying

b. Juice extraction

c. Sugar cane drying

d. a & b of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

81. Medium and low pressure steam is used in paper & pulp industry for

a. To burn bark chips

b. To moisturize paper stock

c. To heat and softening pulp wood.

d. B & c of above.

Submit

Your answer is: __

82. Steam traps are used

a. To trap heat

b. To drain condensate

c. To drain steam

d. None of above

Submit
Your answer is: __

83. Difference between steam and condensate is sensed by

a. condenser

b. Steam loop

c. Boiler

d. Steam trap

Submit

Your answer is: __

84.In industry about --------- % of energy is rejected as waste heat.

a. 5-10

b. 10-20

c. 20-50

d. 50-60

Submit

Your answer is: __

85.HCCI stands for

a. Hydrogen charge compression engine

b. Homogeneous charge compression engine

c. Homogeneous compound compression engine

d. Hydrogen compound compression engine

Submit

Your answer is: __

86. Thermoelectric effect refers to phenomenon where by a temperature difference creates an potential
including

a. Seebeck effect

b. Peltier effect

c. Thomson effect

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

87. Heat wheels are

a. Waste heat recovery system

b. Steam generation system

c. Condensate recovery system

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

88.Electric turbo compounding (ETC) system based on

a. Brayton cycle

b. Rankine cycle

c. Seebeck effect

d. Peltier effect

Submit

Your answer is: __

89. Heat pipe is

a. Condensate absorbing and transferring system

B.Thermal energy absorbing and transferring system

c. External energy absorbing and transferring system

d. None of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

90. HRSG system is used when it is necessary to recover heat from

a. Waste steam

b. Waste hot water

c. Fuel

d. Hot gas stream

Submit

Your answer is: __

91. HCCI stands for

a. Hydrogen charge compression engine.

b. Homogeneous charge compression ignition.

c. Homogeneous charge compression engine.

d. Hydrogen charge compression ignition.

Submit

Your answer is: __

92. In hydrogen generation WHR system ------- is output.

a. H2CO2

b. CH3OH

c. H2O

d. MNO3

Submit

Your answer is: __

93. Thermoelectric materials are

a. Energy based materials.

b. Efficient materials.

c. Thermal materials

d. Semiconductor materials

Submit

Your answer is: __

94.Phenomenon where Temperature difference creates an electric potential is

a. Thermoelectric effect.

b. Thermodynamic effect.

c. Both of above

d. None of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

95. HPPS stands for

a. High speed pneumatic power system

b. Hybrid pneumatic power system.

c. High power pneumatic power system

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

96. HPPS recover energy from

a. High power

b. Braking phase

c. Combustion phase

d. b & c of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

97. Pneumatic hybridization engine offers

a. Improved fuel economy

b. Reduced emission

c. Reduced energy

d. a & b of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

98. Waste energy of exhaust gas is classified as

a. Thermal energy

b. Pressure energy
c. Kinetic energy

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

99. By electro turbo compounding, fuel economy can be improved by

a. 10%

b. 15%

c. 20%

d. 5%

Submit

Your answer is: __

100. The steam generated in WHB may be used for

a. Cooling applications

b. To run boilers

c. Heating applications

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

101. To receive optimal quality steam from WHB

a. Pneumatic power system is necessary.

b. Steam separator and steam trap is necessary

c. Combustion phase is necessary

d. None of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

102. Following is not the component of absorption chiller

a. Heat wheel

b. Condenser

c. Generator

d. Evaporator

Submit

Your answer is: __

103. Heat wheel is the

a. Heat recovery system

b. Water recovery system

c. Heat flow system

d. Evaporator system

Submit

Your answer is: __

104. In rotary gas heat generator

a. Heat transferred from incoming gas to exhaust gas

b. Heat transferred from incoming gas to exhaust steam

c. Heat transferred from exhaust gas to incoming gas

d. Heat transferred from exhaust gas to water

Submit

Your answer is: __

105. The application of Heat wheel is

a. Ventilation and Heating system

b. Heating and Ventilation system

c. Heat pipe transfer system

d. Heat matrix system

Submit

Your answer is: __

106. Heat pipe require minimum maintenance because

a. It does heating.

b. There is no contact of water

c. It has many moving parts

d. No moving part

Submit

Your answer is: __

107. Heat pipe is

a. Thermal energy absorbing and transferring system

b. Vapor travel and cooling system

c. Heat exhaust system

d. Heat condensation system

Submit
Your answer is: __

108. The thermal output from single process boiler is

a. 38MW

b. 35 MW

c. 30MW

d. None of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

109. Process boilers are mostly used in dairy industry for

a. Ultra –heat treatment of milk

b. Milk Pasteurization

c. Destroy dieses causing microorganisms

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

110. Process boilers used in sugar industry for

a. Steam condensate

b. Cutting sugar cane

c. Raw sugar process

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

111. Steam is used in paper & pulp industries to

a. Pack papers

b. Heat chemicals

c. Heat process

d. Heat line

Submit

Your answer is: __

112. The difference between steam and condensate is sensed by

a. Steam traps

b. Condenser

c. Boiler

d. Evaporator

Submit

Your answer is: __

113. Steam traps allow only to drain

a. Steam and water

b. Steam and gas

c. Condensate and steam

d. Condensate and gas

Submit

Your answer is: __

114. Which of following boiler has less C02 EMISSION?

a. Sub critical boiler

b. Super critical boiler

c. Ultra super critical boiler

d. Sub super critical boiler

Submit

Your answer is: __

115. Which of following boiler has less average efficiency?

a. Sub super critical boiler

b. Super critical boiler

c. Ultra super critical boiler

d. Sub critical boiler

Submit

Your answer is: __

116. In power plants the hot water from condenser is cooled in

a. Heat exchanger

b. Condenser

c. Cooling tower

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

117. Which of following factor doesn’t affect cooling of water in a cooling tower?
a. Temperature of cold water

b. Temperature of air

c. Arrangements of plates in tower

d. Size and height of tower

Submit

Your answer is: __

118. ------ Between cold entering air and warm existing air results in natural draft of air in Hyperbolic

Cooling tower.

a. Velocity difference

b. Density difference

c. Gravity difference

Submit

Your answer is: __

119. Waste heat recovery is a process of

a. CO2 Emission

b. Heat integration

c. Chemical processing

d. Climate changing

Submit

Your answer is: __

120. Indirect benefit of waste heat recovery is

a. Reduces carbon monoxide

b. Reduces oil sludge

c. Reduces sour gas

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

121. HRSG stands for

a. High recovery steam generator

b. Heat reducing steam generator

c. Heat recovery steam generator

d. Horizontal steam recovery generator

Submit

Your answer is: __

122. The efficiency of heavy truck diesel engine is

a. Less than 42%

b. Greater than 42%

c. Approximately 60%

d. None of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

123. Match the following

A. Fuel energy wasted in coolant heat transfer I . 13%

B. Air charging coolers consumes II. 8%

C.Friction and Radiation consumes III. 15%

D.Exhaust gas recirculation period consumes IV. 3%

Submit

Your answer is: __

124. Which of the following boiler has higher power generation cost Rs/kW?

a. Super critical

b. Ultra super critical

c. Sub critical

d. Critical

Submit

Your answer is: __

125. Exhaust gas recovery of up to 20%, Decreases fuel cost equal to

a. 5%

b. 7%

c. 10%

d. 15%

Submit

Your answer is: __

126. Heat pipe can transfer -------times more thermal energy than copper

a. 25

b. 50

c. 75
d. 100

Submit

Your answer is: __

127. Condensate recovery pump uses------------ to pump condensate

a. Hot water

b. Cold water

c. Steam

d. None of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

128. WHR is essential for increasing efficiency in the

a. Petroleum industries

b. Chemical process industries

c. Petrochemical

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

129. In a cooling tower water is made to trickle down

a. Turbulent flow

b. Drop by Drop

c. Uniform flow

d. Rotary flow
Submit

Your answer is: __

130. Following is not a type of STEAM TRAP

a. Temperature

b. Humidity

c. Thermodynamic

d. Mechanical

Submit

Your answer is: __

Unit- 3 : Recent Trends in Manufacturing Engineering

1. Artificial intelligence is the system which

a) Interpret the data

b) Learn the data

c) Achieve specific goals

d) All of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

2. Smart Manufacturing not used to

a) Increase productivity

b) Enhance sustainability

c) Reduce innovation

d) Economic better performance

Submit

Your answer is: __

3. Smart manufacturing connected with

a) Factory automation

b) Robotics

c) Additive manufacturing

d)All of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

4. The first industrial revolution is also called

a) CAD/CAM cycle

b) Conventional cycle

c) Advance cycle

d) Traditional cycle

Submit

Your answer is: __

5. The steam power is used in ..... industrial revolution

a) Third

b) Second

c)First

d) Fourth

Submit
Your answer is: __

6. The mass production is one of teh ket factor related to .... revolution

a) Third

b) Second

c)First

d) Fourth

Submit

Your answer is: __

7. Long form of CAD is

a) Computer Aided Drafting

b) Computer Aided Drawing

c) Computer Aided Design

d) Computer Aided Device

Submit

Your answer is: __

8. What is long form of CNC

a) Computer Numerical Control

b) Computer Number Control

c) Computer Numerical Center

d) Computer Number Control

Submit

Your answer is: __

9. Effective use of electricity start in ..... revolution

a) Third

b) First

c) Second

d) Fifth

Submit

Your answer is: __

10. Following is not the computer network

a) WAN

d)LAN

c) TAN

d)MAN

Submit

Your answer is: __

11. MAN stands for

a) Metropolitan area network

b) Material accredited net

c) Many antenna network

d) Mass area network

Submit

Your answer is: __

12. What is long form of FMS

a) Facial mass system

b) Factual manufacturing system

c)Flexible manufacturing system

d) Flexible mass system

Submit

Your answer is: __

13. LAN, FMS, GI, CIM are the part of which revolution

a) Third

b) First

c) Second

d) Fifth

Submit

Your answer is: __

14. The total manufacturing approach which is control by computer is

a) CNC

b) FMS

c)CIM

d)Robotics

Submit

Your answer is: __

15. The digitization start in the ........ revolution

a) Third

b) First

c) Second

d) Fifth

Submit

Your answer is: __

16. The internet is used first time to bridging digital and physical environment in.....revolution

a) Third

b) First

c) Forth

d) Fifth

Submit

Your answer is: __

17. Following is the not element of smart manufacturing

a)IOT

b)AI

c)Big data

d) Punch card

Submit

Your answer is: __

18. IOT stands for

a) Internet of things
b) International of things

c) Internet of thoughts

d) Internet of time

Submit

Your answer is: __

19. Take odd one out from following IOTs

a) Communication

b) Action

c) Emotions

d) Intelligence

Submit

Your answer is: __

20. ERP stands for

a) Enterprise Resource Planning

b) Entrepreneurship Resource Planning

c) Enterprise Record Planning

d) Enterprise Resource Platform

Submit

Your answer is: __

21. Sensors enable physical vehicles are

a) Electrical Vehicles

b) Automated Guided Vehicles (AGV)

c) Cranes

d) Hoist

Submit

Your answer is: __

22. In wireless communication RFID stands for

a) Radio transmission

b) Radio frequency internet

c) Radio frequency identification

d) Radio fibre identification

Submit

Your answer is: __

23. Following is the wireless communication

a) WAN

b) LAN

c) Intercom

d) RFID

Submit

Your answer is: __

24. Following is the wired communication

a) RFID

b) Wifi

c)LAN
d) Bluetooth

Submit

Your answer is: __

25. IIOT stands for

a) Internet of things

b) Industrial internet of things

c) Internet industrial things

d) Internet interfacing things

Submit

Your answer is: __

26. IOT applications includes

a) Preventive maintenance

b) Inventories and logistics

c) Supply chain management

d All of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

27. Enabling, improving, leveraging data which turn into actionable transmission is called

a) Digital data

b) Digital transformation

c) Digital collection

d) Digital processing
Submit

Your answer is: __

28. The conversion of living or non living physical entity into digital replica is called

a) Digital image

b) Digital twin

c) Digital picture

d) Digital data

Submit

Your answer is: __

29. Digital Twin is created for enhancing

a) Analysis capability

b) Overhaul maintenance

c) Performance

d) All of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

30. .....Branch of science that develop intelligence machines

a) IQ

b) AI

c) BQ

d) Robot

Submit
Your answer is: __

31. Following is not the type of AI

a) Artificial Narrow Intelligence (ANI)

b)Artificial General Intelligence (AGI)

c) Artificial Middle Intelligence (AMI)

d)Artificial Super Intelligence(ASI)

Submit

Your answer is: __

32. The best use of AI in medical field is

a)Analyze the complicated medical data

b)Treatment technique selection

c)Make predictions or decision

d)All of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

33. To store, manage, process data from remote location is called

a)Cloud computing

b)Internet server

c)Internet of things

d)Hard disk storage

Submit

Your answer is: __

34.Coud computing servers are paid as

a) Prepaid

b)Pay-per-use

c)Pay back

d) Non of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

35.Coud computing benefits are

a)Reduce IT cost

b)Flexibility of work practices

c)Access to updates

d)All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

36. The process perform with nominal human assistance is called

a)Hybrid control

b)Automation

c)Closed loop control

d)Artificial intelligence

Submit

Your answer is: __

37. In reference to automation take odd one out from following

a)Enhance productivity

b)Increase workforce

c)Reduce worker fatigue

d)Save money

Submit

Your answer is: __

38. Following is not elements of automated system

a)Power

b)Program

c)Worker

d)Control system

Submit

Your answer is: __

39. The most common used power source in automated system is

a)Diesel power

b)Steam power

c)Electric power

d)Magnetic power

Submit

Your answer is: __

40. The control in an automated system can be

a)Closed loop

b)Middle loop

c)Isolated loop

d)Actuator

Submit

Your answer is: __

41. The physically control action in automation is carried by

a)Sensors

b)Controller

c)Actuator

d)System

Submit

Your answer is: __

42.Following is not the actuator

a)Electric motor

b)Pneumatic cylinder

c)Hydraulic cylinder

d)Pressure control valve

Submit

Your answer is: __

43.USA principal of automation stands for

a) Understand, Simplify, Automate

b) Understand, System, Automate

c) Universal, system, Automate

d) Understand, Simplify, Actuate

Submit

Your answer is: __

44. Following is the strategies of automation

a)Specialization of operation

b)Combined operation

c)Integration of operation

d)All of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

45.Following is the strategies of automation

a)Increased flexibility

b)Process control and optimization

c)CIM

d)All of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

46. Integration of all factory operation at one level is called

a)Computer Integrated Manufacturing (CIM)

b)Optimization
c)Simultaneous operation

d)Integrated operations

Submit

Your answer is: __

47. Following is not the merit of automation

a)Increased productivity

b)Increased cost

c)Increased quality

d)Increased consistency of output

Submit

Your answer is: __

48. Following is the merit of automation

a)Security threats

b)Excessive development cost

c)Improved healthiness of process

d)Displaces workers due to job replacement

Submit

Your answer is: __

49. The automation system in which the sequence of operations are fixed is called

a)Flexible automation

b)Programmable automation

c)Fixed automation
d)Closed automation

Submit

Your answer is: __

50. The automation which accommodate different product as per configuration is called

a)Flexible automation

b)Programmable automation

c)Fixed automation

d)Closed automation

Submit

Your answer is: __

51. The automation which can use to produce variety of product is called

a)Flexible automation

b)Programmable automation

c)Fixed automation

d)Closed automation

Submit

Your answer is: __

52. For high volume of product ...... type of automation is suitable

a)Flexible automation

b)Programmable automation

c)Fixed automation

d)Closed automation
Submit

Your answer is: __

53. For variety of product ........ type of automation is suitable

a)Flexible automation

b)Programmable automation

c)Fixed automation

d)Closed automation

Submit

Your answer is: __

54. For few variety of product with middle volume of production following type of automation is suitable

a)Flexible automation

b)Programmable automation

c)Fixed automation

d)Closed automation

Submit

Your answer is: __

55. For few variety of product with middle volume of production following type of automation is suitable

a)Soft automation

b)Hard automation

c)Middle automation

d)Upper automation

Submit
Your answer is: __

56. Following is not the emerging application of automation

a)Retail food and drink industry

b)Automated mining

c)Automated video surveillance

d)None of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

57. The structure of robot is called

a)Manipulator

b)Controller

c)Anatomy

d)Elbow

Submit

Your answer is: __

58. The robot base, arm and wrist comprises

a)Controller

b)Manipulator

c)Arm

d)Yaw

Submit

Your answer is: __

59. The robot brain is called

a)Manipulator

b)Control system

c)Arm

d)Joints

Submit

Your answer is: __

60. Following is not the robot programming method

a)Lead through

b)Programming language

c)Simulation or offline programming

d)Binary coding

Submit

Your answer is: __

61. It is the device used in robot to interact with environment

a)Joints

b)Actuator

c)End effectors

d)Program

Submit

Your answer is: __

62. The programming languages used for robots controlling are

a)Python

b)C/C++

c)Java

d)All of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

63. The end effectors which physically grasp by direct impact is called

a)Impactive

b)Ingressive

c)Astrictive

d)Contiguities

Submit

Your answer is: __

64. The end effectors which physically penetrate the surface is called

a)Impactive

b)Ingressive

c)Astrictive

d)Contiguities

Submit

Your answer is: __

65. The end effectors which apply suction force is called

a)Impactive

b)Ingressive

c)Astrictive

d)Contiguities

Submit

Your answer is: __

66. The end effectors which for adhesion is called

a)Impactive

b)Ingressive

c)Astrictive

d)Contiguities

Submit

Your answer is: __

67.The sensors use to detect intensity of light is called

a)Proximity

b)Light

c)Sound

d)Temperature

Submit

Your answer is: __

68.The sensors use to detect intensity of light is called

a)Proximity
b)Light

c)Sound

d)Temperature

Submit

Your answer is: __

69.The microphone is used to sense

a)Proximity

b)Light

c)Sound

d)Temperature

Submit

Your answer is: __

70.The sensors use to measure acceleration is called

a)Proximity

b)Light

c)Acceleration

d)Temperature

Submit

Your answer is: __

71.The thermocouple is used as sensor is the type of

a)Proximity

b)Light
c)Acceleration

d)Temperature

Submit

Your answer is: __

72. Following is the type of robot applications

a)Arc welding

b)Spot welding

c)Cutting, grinding

d)All of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

73. Material loading and unloading by robot is the application of

a)Picking

b)Tending

c)Packing

d)Palletizing

Submit

Your answer is: __

74. Bio printing or shape changing technology is also called

a)3D Printing

b)Bio manufacturing

c)4D Printing
d)4D Scanning

Submit

Your answer is: __

75. The additive manufacturing of product layer by layer is called

a)4D Printing

b)3D Printing

c)2D Printing

d) 1D Printing

Submit

Your answer is: __

76. The product react with parameters by virtue of time are manufactured by

a)4D Printing

b)3D Printing

c)2D Printing

d) 1D Printing

Submit

Your answer is: __

77. In 4D Printing SMP stands for

a)Shine memory polymers

b)Share matrix polymer

c)Shape matrix polymers

d)Shape memory polymers

Submit

Your answer is: __

78. Stereo Lithography is a photo polymerization techniques used in

a) 3D & 4D Printing

b) Photography

c)Film development

d)Computer printer

Submit

Your answer is: __

79. LCEs stands for

a) Liquid crystalline elastomers

b) Liquid crystalline polymer

c) Liquid crystal electricity

d) Liquid crystal electrograph

Submit

Your answer is: __

80. In Biomedical 4D printing application used for human bone marrow stem cells mainly use

a) Soybean oil epoxidized

b) Groundnut oil epoxidized

c) Coconut oil epoxidized

d) None of the above

Submit
Your answer is: __

81. For human wound healing, 4D printing technique used is

a)Cell transfer force

b)Cell traction force (CTF)

c)Cell transfer fact

d) Cell traction fact

Submit

Your answer is: __

82. Capturing 3D shape is termed as

a)3D Printing

b)3D Shaping

c)3D Scanning

d)3D Picturing

Submit

Your answer is: __

83. The purpose of 3D scanning is

a) To collect real world object data

b)Recreate design in the 3D form

c)Bridge the gap between physical and digital world

d) All of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

84. Following is not the type of 3D scanning process

a)Contact

b)Surface

c)Non contact

d)Active

Submit

Your answer is: __

85. Following is the type of active 3D Scanning

a)Stereoscopic

b)Photometric

c)Time of flight

d)Silhouette

Submit

Your answer is: __

86. Following is the type of Passive 3D Scanning

a)Triangulation

b)Structured light

c)Time of flight

d)Silhouette

Submit

Your answer is: __

87. The scanning done by recording X,Y,Z position using probe is

a) Non contact

b)Active

c)Contact

d)Probing

Submit

Your answer is: __

88. CMM stands for

a)Center Measuring Machine

b)Coordinate Measuring Machine

c) Coordinate Measuring Method

d)Coordinate Machine Method

Submit

Your answer is: __

89. Time of flight 3D scanning is

a)Non contact type

b)Passive Contact Type

c) Active Contact Type

d)None of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

90. In Active non contact type method .... ....emissions used for scanning
a)Light

b)Ultrasound

c)X-ray

d)All of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

91. In Passive non contact type method .... ....emissions used for scanning

a)Light

b)Ultrasound

c)Infrared

d)X-ray

Submit

Your answer is: __

92. .......this type of scanning is very cheap as compare to other

a)Contact

b)Active non contact

c)Passive non contact

d) Probing

Submit

Your answer is: __

93. 3D CAD modelling is the application of 3D scanning used in

a)Education
b)Quality

c)Construction

d)Animation

Submit

Your answer is: __

94.In animated films .....this technique is used to create digital 3D models

a)Printing

b)Painting

c)3D scanning

d)Drafting

Submit

Your answer is: __

95. The dental in-plants is the application of

a)3D Printing

b)3D scanning

c)4D Printing

d)Robotics

Submit

Your answer is: __

96. CPS stands for

a) Cyber position system

b) Cyber physical system

c)Cyber partial system

d)Cyber practical system

Submit

Your answer is: __

97.CPPS stands for

a)Cyber partial production system

b)Cyber position production system

c)Cyber physical production system

d)Cyber practical production system

Submit

Your answer is: __

98.Increase in work stamina can be define by.........smart manufacturing

a)Interoperability

b)Modularity

c)Compositionality

d)Heterogeneity

Submit

Your answer is: __

99.The optimum setup is expressed in smart manufacturing by

a)Interoperability

b)Modularity

c)Compositionality
d)Heterogeneity

Submit

Your answer is: __

100. The different things under one roof in smart manufacturing system is

a)Interoperability

b)Modularity

c)Compositionality

d)Heterogeneity

Submit

Your answer is: __

101. Robot performs hazards and monotonous tasks with

a. Tireless precision.

b. Robot anatomy.

c. Contact services.

d. Accuracy

Submit

Your answer is: __

102. Structure of robot is also known as.

a. Robot accuracy

b. Robot condition

c. Robot manipulator

d. Robot anatomy
Submit

Your answer is: __

103. Following is an important feature of Industrial Robot

a. Can be reprogrammed.

b. Controlled by computers.

c. Consistent and accurate

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

104. Robot Body-and-arm used for

a. Orientation of object.

b. Positioning of object in the robot’s work volume.

c. Positioning of object beyond the robot’s work volume

d. None of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

105. Robot wrist assembly used for

a. Positioning of object beyond the robot’s work volume

b. Positioning of object beyond the robot’s work volume

c. Orientation of object

d. All of above

Submit
Your answer is: __

106. This programming language provide good platform to automate, teach, and post process

robot programs.

a. C

b. C++

c. Python

Submit

Your answer is: __

107. MATLAB helps Industrial Robot to find

a. Engineering solutions based on mathematics.

b. To produce advanced graphs.

c. To implement control system

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

108. Match the following. D. Impactive IV. Physically penetrate the surface of object C. Ingressive III.
Suction force applied to object surface B. Astrictive II. Require direct contact for adhesion A. Contiguities
I. Grasp by direct impact upon object

a. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

b. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

c. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

d. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D- III

Submit
Your answer is: __

109. Following is end effectors used for glass fiber handling.

a. Contiguities

b. Astrictive

c. Ingressive

d. Impactive

Submit

Your answer is: __

110. Robotic automation for machine tending is the process of

a. Welding

b. Loading and unloading

c. Painting

d. Pickling

Submit

Your answer is: __

111. 4-D printing is fundamentally based in

a. Stereo Lithography

b. Photo polymerization

c. Molecular printing

d. Deformation

Submit

Your answer is: __

112. 4-D printing utilizes a network of ------------ that vary in size and material properties.

a. Fibers

b. Molecules

c. Metals

d. Materials

Submit

Your answer is: __

113. Following is material used for 4D printing.

a. Liquid crystal elastomer

b. Shape-Memory polymer

c. Photo curable liquid resin

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

114. This material is used for human bone marrow mesenchymal stem cell growth.

a. Liquid crystal elastomer

b. Shape-Memory polymer

c. Photo curable liquid resin

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

115. CTF technique regulates

a. Angiogenesis

b. Metastasis

c. Wound healing

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

116. 4-D printed materials responses to factor such as

a. Temperature

b. Humidity

c. Pressure

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

117. 4-D printing can also be used for

a. Drug Injection

b. Drug pipe

c. Drug capsules

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

118. By using smart materials 4-d printing can be used for

a. Smart valves and sensors

b. Smart pipe line

c. Smart control system

d. None of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

119. Difference between 3D and 4D printing is that

a. 4-D Objects are more rigid.

b. 3-D objects are more flexible

c. 4-d printed objects can print automatically

d. 4-D printed objects can transform over time

Submit

Your answer is: __

120. 3-D scanning is used in medical field for

a. Body part replacement

b. Study of body part

c. Surgical procedure

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

121. The main demerit of Automation is

a. Possible security threats

b. Reduced direct human labor

c. Reduce some work related injuries

d. Free up workers

Submit

Your answer is: __

122. Following is not the type of automation

a. Programmable automation

b. Combined automation

c. Fixed automation

d. Flexible automation

Submit

Your answer is: __

123. Following is the unique feature of fixed automation

a. Flexibility to deal with changes

b. Most suitable for batch production

c. Continuous production of variable mixtures of product

d. Inflexible in accommodating product changes

Submit

Your answer is: __

124. Following automation has high product verity

a. Programmable automation.

b. Flexible automation
c. Fixed automation

d. Combined automation

Submit

Your answer is: __

125. Following automation is used for high product volume

a. Programmable automation.

b. Flexible automation

c. Fixed automation

d. Combined automation

Submit

Your answer is: __

126. The following is the unique feature of soft automation

a. Continuous production with variable mixture of products

b. Continuous production of same products

c. Continuous production in mining

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

127. Following is the recent and emerging application of automation

a. In mining process

b. Video surveillance

c. Retail food and drinking industry

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

128. In business process automation is used for

a. Improve service delivery

b. Increase service quality

c. Achieve digital transformation

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

129. Match the following. D. Fourth Industrial Revolution IV. PLC C. Third Industrial Revolution III. CPS B.
Second Industrial Revolution II. Power loom A. First Industrial Revolution I. Assembly line

a. A-I, B-III, C- IV, D- II

b. A-II, B-I, C- IV, D-III

c. A-II, B-I, C-III, D- IV

d. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Submit

Your answer is: __

130. In this Industrial revolution transfer lines was used for mass production

a. First industrial revolution.

b. Second industrial revolution.

c. Third industrial revolution.

d. Fourth industrial revolution.

Submit

Your answer is: __

131. Following is important IOT application

a. Increase productivity by 75%

b. Increase productivity by 50%

c. Increase productivity by 25%

d. Increase productivity by 10%

Submit

Your answer is: __

132. Digital transformation is the

a. Move from Physical to Digital.

b. Business to organization

c. Process to acceleration

d. Analog to digital

Submit

Your answer is: __

133. Following is the digital twin application in smart manufacturing

a. Ability to rapidly act and react to change data

b. Enhancing resources overhaul maintenance

c. Mix digital technology and accelerate

d. All of above

Submit
Your answer is: __

134. AI is intelligence machine thinking and working like humans for example

a. Learning and planning

b. Speech recognition

c. Problem solving

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

135. Cloud computing means

a. Storing and accessing data and programs over hard drive

b. Emphasizes the creation of BIG data

c. Storing and accessing data and programs over internet

d. Comprehensive digital representation of data

Submit

Your answer is: __

136. Following is the benefit of cloud computing

a. Problem solving

b. Access to automatic updates

c. ON-OFF control

d. Global control

Submit

Your answer is: __

137. What is the need of automation?

a. Globalization

b. Productivity

c. Save money

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

138. Following is not the basic element of Automated system

a. Power

b. Program

c. Productivity

d. Control system

Submit

Your answer is: __

139. USA stands for

a. Understand the existing process

b. Simplicity the process

c. Automate the process

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

140. In Integration of operation

a. Several work stations are linked together

b. Several parts are linked together

c. Several operators are limked together

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

Unit- 4 : Energy Audit and Management

1.By definition, energy audits emphasis on energy use by

a)Verification

b)Monitoring

c)Analysis

d)All of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

2.Energy efficiency, consumption level, benefits can be scientifically managed by

a) Energy Audit

b)Energy Conservation

c)Energy Management

d)Energy utilization

Submit

Your answer is: __

3. “The judicious and effective use of energy to maximise profits and enhance competitive positions”.
This can be the definition of:

a) Energy conservation

b) Energy management

c) Energy policy

d) Energy Audit

Submit

Your answer is: __

4. The objective of energy management includes

a) Minimising energy costs

b) minimising waste

c) Minimising environmental degradation

d) all the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

5. One unit of electricity is equivalent to ___ kcal heat units.

a) 800

b) 860

c) 400

d) 680

Submit

Your answer is: __

6. The percentage of energy saved at the current rate of use, compared to the reference year rate of
use, is called

a) Energy Utilization

b) Energy Performance

c) Energy Efficiency

d) None

Submit

Your answer is: __

7.Energy manger should be well versed with

a) Manufacturing and processing skills

b) Managerial and technical skills

c) Technical and marketing skills

d) Managerial and commercial skills

Submit

Your answer is: __

8.An energy policy does not include

a) Target energy consumption reduction

b) Time period for reduction

c) Declaration of top management commitment

d) Future production projection

Submit

Your answer is: __

9. The tool used for performance assessment and logical evaluation of avenues for improvement in
Energy management and audit is

a) Fuel substitution

b) Monitoring and verification

c) Energy pricing

d) Bench marking

Submit

Your answer is: __

10.The various types of the instruments, which requires during audit need to be

a) easy to carry

b) easy to operate

c) inexpensive

d) all of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

11.The objective of Energy Management is

a)Optimum energy procurement

b)Minimize energy cost

c)Minimize environmental effect

d) all of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

12.Govenment of India has set up BEE under provision of

a)EC Act 2001

b)Electricity act 2003

c)Energy act 2006

d)None of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

13. The standard and labelling scheme was launched on

a)Apr 2016

b)May 2006

c)Jan 2010

d)May 2016

Submit

Your answer is: __

14.A star rating is based on ..........order of energy efficiency from 1 to 5

a) Average

b) Descending

c)Ascending

d)Lowest

Submit

Your answer is: __

15.The following label allow to compare the energy consumption of similar products

a)Endorsement
b)Comparative

c)Variable

d)Standardized

Submit

Your answer is: __

16. The ........ label provides certification about highly energy efficient product

a)Endorsement

b)Comparative

c)Variable

d)Standardized

Submit

Your answer is: __

17. Out of following is the mandatory labelling product

a)Ceiling Fans

b)Laptop

c)Room air conditioner

d)Washing machine

Submit

Your answer is: __

18. Out of following is the voluntary labelling product

a)Frost free refrigerator

b)Laptop
c)Room air conditioner

d)Distribution transformer

Submit

Your answer is: __

19. The S & L can not be registered for

a)Company

b)Process

c)Model

d)None of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

20. ISEER stands for

a) Indian Seasonal Energy Efficiency Ratio

b) Indian Sensitive Energy Efficiency Ratio

c) Indian Service Energy Efficiency Ratio

d)Indian Second Energy Efficiency Ratio

Submit

Your answer is: __

21. Energy Efficiency Ratio in BTU/hr/W equals to

a) 4.18 x EER W/W

b) 9.81 x EER W/W

c)3.413 x EER W/W

d)EER W/W

Submit

Your answer is: __

22. As low the EER the star rating will be

a)Same

b)Maximum

c)Low

d)High

Submit

Your answer is: __

23. Arrange the ascending start ratings with EER values

a)1-3-2-4

b) 1-2-3-4

c) 4-3-2-1

d) 4-2-3-1

Submit

Your answer is: __

24. Energy monitoring and targeting is built on the principle of “ _____”.

a) “production can be reduced to achieve reduced energy consumption”

b) “Consumption of energy is proportional to production rate”

c) “You cannot manage what you do not measure”

d) None of the above.

Submit

Your answer is: __

25. One of the following is not the element of energy monitoring & targeting system

a) Recording the energy consumption

b) comparing the energy consumption

C) Controlling the energy consumption

d) Reducing the production

Submit

Your answer is: __

26.Poor scattering on trend line of production Vs Energy consumption indicates ___.

a) poor level of control

b) good level of control

c) both the above

d) none of above.

Submit

Your answer is: __

27. The empirical relationship used to plot production Vs Energy consumption is (Y= energy consumed
for the period; C = fixed energy consumption; M = energy consumption directly related to production; X=
production for same period).

a) X=Y+MC

b) Y=Mx+C

c) M=Cx+Y

d) None of above
Submit

Your answer is: __

28. The energy used by any manufacturing process varies with

a) production volume

b) type of process

c) resource input

d) All the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

29. The best way of correlating production and energy data in any plant is…..

a) Text format

b) Graphical representation

c) Oral communication

d) None

Submit

Your answer is: __

30. For any company, energy consumption mostly relates to……..

a) Profits

b) Inventory

c) Production

d) All the above

Submit
Your answer is: __

31. What is CUSUM?

a) Cumbersome

b) Cumulative Sum

c) Calculated Sum

d) None

Submit

Your answer is: __

32. A CUSUM graph follows a random fluctuation trend and oscillates around.

a) 100

b) 100%

c) 0

d) none of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

33. To draw a CUSUM chart following data is required

a) Monthly energy consumption& monthly production

b) Monthly specific energy consumption and turn over

c) Monthly profits and production

d) None

Submit

Your answer is: __

34. What is specific energy consumption?

a) energy consumption per month

b) Energy consumed per unit of production

c) energy consumption per year

d) none of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

35.Data required to plot a moving annual total is ____.

a) production

b) energy

c) both the above

d) none the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

36. Energy and production data is useful to calculate……

a) Specific Energy Consumption

b) Specific Fuel consumption

c) Specific Cost

d) None

Submit

Your answer is: __

37.What type of data is useful to find out the fixed energy consumption?

a) SEC Vs production

b) SEC Vs Energy

c) Production Vs energy

d) None

Submit

Your answer is: __

38. What do you mean by “toe”

a) Total oil equivalent

b) Tons of effluent

c) Tons of oil equivalent

d) none of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

39. Energy audit steps can be

a)Gather preliminary data

b)Conduct plant visit

c)Analyze & report results

d)All of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

40.Following is not the audit phase

a)Pre Audit Phase

b)Audit Phase

c)Post Audit Phase

d)Follow up

Submit

Your answer is: __

41. Initial site visit is required and carried out in

a)Pre Audit Phase

b)Audit Phase

c)Post Audit Phase

d)Follow up

Submit

Your answer is: __

42. Finalization of Audit team is the task of

a)Pre Audit Phase

b)Audit Phase

c)Post Audit Phase

d)Follow up

Submit

Your answer is: __

43.Planning of time frame of audit is the phase of

a)Pre Audit Phase

b)Audit Phase

c)Post Audit Phase

d)Follow up

Submit

Your answer is: __

44.Creating awareness can be done in

a)Pre Audit Phase

b)Audit Phase

c)Post Audit Phase

d)Follow up

Submit

Your answer is: __

45.Energy consumption by each department can be collected during

a)Pre Audit Phase

b)Detailed Audit Phase

c)Post Audit Phase

d)Follow up

Submit

Your answer is: __

46.Energy management training program conducted during

a)Pre Audit Phase

b)Detailed Audit Phase

c)Post Audit Phase

d)Follow up

Submit

Your answer is: __

47. Amount and type of fuel and material used can be collected during

a)Pre Audit Phase

b)Detailed Audit Phase

c)Post Audit Phase

d)Follow up

Submit

Your answer is: __

48. Conduct survey and monitoring is the phase of

a)Pre Audit Phase

b)Detailed Audit Phase

c)Post Audit Phase

d)Follow up

Submit

Your answer is: __

49.Detail trial of each equipments and data collection is

a)Pre Audit Phase

b)Detailed Audit Phase

c)Post Audit Phase

d)Follow up

Submit

Your answer is: __

50.Identification of ENCON (Energy conservation opportunities is under

a)Pre Audit Phase

b)Detailed Audit Phase

c)Post Audit Phase

d)Follow up

Submit

Your answer is: __

51.Cost benefit analysis is carried out in

a)Pre Audit Phase

b)Detailed Audit Phase

c)Post Audit Phase

d)Follow up

Submit

Your answer is: __

52.Reporting and presentation to top management is

a)Pre Audit Phase

b)Detailed Audit Phase

c)Post Audit Phase

d)Follow up
Submit

Your answer is: __

53. Action plan for future is carried out in

a)Pre Audit Phase

b)Detailed Audit Phase

c)Post Audit Phase

d)Follow up

Submit

Your answer is: __

54.Periodic review is taken under

a)Pre Audit Phase

b)Detailed Audit Phase

c)Post Audit Phase

d)Follow up

Submit

Your answer is: __

55.CO2 measurement of Fyrite kit is based on (EA)

a) Weight basis (dry)

b) Volume basis (dry)

c) Weight basis (wet)

d) Volume basis (wet)

Submit
Your answer is: __

56. Non contact speed measurements can be carried out by

a) Tachometer

b) Stroboscope

c) Oscilloscope

d) Speedometer

Submit

Your answer is: __

57. Infrared thermometer is used to measure

a) Surface temperature

b) Flame temperature

c) Flue gas temperature

d) Hot water temperature

Submit

Your answer is: __

58. Find out the ‘odd’ among the following choices for fuel substitution for industrial sector of India.

a) LDO with LSHS

b) coal with rice husk

c) natural gas for fertilizer plant

d) LPG for soft coke

Submit

Your answer is: __

59. Air velocity in ducts can be measured by using ___ and manometer

a) Orifice meter

b) Borden gauge

c) Pitot tube

d) Anemometer

Submit

Your answer is: __

60. The distance can be measure during audit by

a)Thermometer

b)Light meter

c)Tape measure

d)Combustion analyser

Submit

Your answer is: __

61.Illumination level can be checked by

a)Thermometer

b)Light meter

c)Tape measure

d)Combustion analyser

Submit

Your answer is: __

62.Waste heat temperature can be measure by

a)Thermometer

b)Light meter

c)Tape measure

d)Combustion analyser

Submit

Your answer is: __

63.Combution efficiency can be measure by

a)Thermometer

b)Light meter

c)Tape measure

d)Combustion analyser

Submit

Your answer is: __

64.Electrical measuring instruments are use to measure

a)KVA

b)KW

c)PF

d)All of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

65.Power factor of the electrical supply should be

a)1

b)0

c)0.5

d)0.1

Submit

Your answer is: __

66. The household energy meter is

a)An indicating instrument

b)A recording instrument

c)An integrating instrument

d)None of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

67. The meter constant of single phase energy meter is expressed in terms of

a)Readings in kWh

b)W/kWh

c)Amps/kW

d)Volts/kWh

Submit

Your answer is: __

68.Combustion analyser used to measure various gases such as

a) Oxygen
b)Carbon dioxide

c)Nitrogen oxides

d) All of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

69.The combustion efficiency is calculated by

a)Fyrite

b)Fuel efficiency Monitor

c)Contact thermometer

d)Infrared thermometer

Submit

Your answer is: __

70.To measure different amount of volumes in the gases like O2 or CO2 .... can be used

a) Combustion analyser

b) Thermometer

c) Fyrite

d) Non contact flow meter

Submit

Your answer is: __

71. Thermocouples are use for

a) Contact type temperature measurement

b) Contact type volume measurement

c)Non Contact type temperature measurement

d) Contact type pressure measurement

Submit

Your answer is: __

72. Furnace temperature can be measure by

a)Thermocouple

b) Infrared thermometer

c)Thermometer

d)gyroscope

Submit

Your answer is: __

73. The air velocity in the pipe can be measure using

a)Pitot tube

b)Pyroscope

c)Water meter

d)Lux meter

Submit

Your answer is: __

74.The non contact type flow measuring device are working under

a)Pitot principal

b)Leak detection

c)Doppler effect
d)Anemometer

Submit

Your answer is: __

75.Tachometer is used to measure

a)Velocity

b)Speed

c)Light

d)Volume

Submit

Your answer is: __

76. To detect leak in the compressed air are normally measure

a)Stroboscope

b)Oscilloscope

c) Ultrasonic leak detector

d)Non of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

77. A photocell which detect light output by using instrument called

a)Oscilloscope

b)Fyrite

c)Lux meter

d)Stroboscope
Submit

Your answer is: __

78.The energy strategies of companies have the principle of

a) restoring and preserving the environment

b) reducing wastes and pollutants

c) educating the people about energy conservation

d) all of these

Submit

Your answer is: __

79. The main objective of energy management is to

a) Minimize energy cost

b) Minimum environmental effects

c.)Maintain optimum energy procurement and utilization

d) All of these

Submit

Your answer is: __

80. Energy management is a key component of

a) Environmental management

b) Carbon management

c) Nitrogen management

d) Water management

Submit
Your answer is: __

81. ---------- is the key activity for energy efficiency improvement.

a. S & L.

b. BEE.

c. ACT.

d. ECC

Submit

Your answer is: __

82. The ultimate aim of energy audit is

a. To increase economic benefit

b. Reduce production cost

c. To save energy

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

83. Star rating ranging from 1 to 5 is provided to the products registered with BEE

a. Descending order of energy efficiency

b. Ascending order of energy efficiency

c. Efficient order of energy efficiency

d. Saving order of energy efficiency

Submit

Your answer is: __

84. Following is the product on which labeling is mandatory

a. LPG stove

b. Ballast

c. Colour TV

d. Induction motor

Submit

Your answer is: __

85. Following is the product on which labeling is voluntary

a. Room air conditioner

b. Direct cool refrigerator

c. Washing machine

d. Distribution transformer

Submit

Your answer is: __

86. There are TWO types of labels

a. Comparative and Endorsement Label

b. Voluntary and mandatory label

c. Quality and assurance label

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

87. BEE star rating is based on

a. Test report

b. Model registration fee

c. How energy efficient each product is

d. Product category and information

Submit

Your answer is: __

88. The appliances with lowest energy consumption are given

a. Least star

b. Most star

c. Big star

d. Small star

Submit

Your answer is: __

89. Small label can be found in appliances which usually

a. Consume more electricity

b. Don’t consume more energy

c. Gives more energy

d. Don’t give more energy

Submit

Your answer is: __

90. Big label shows information of

a. E-filing

b. Product list under labeling

c. Price list under labeling

d. Yearly energy consumption

Submit

Your answer is: __

91. More star more

a. Saving

b. Cost

c. Energy efficient

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

92. You can’t manage what you don’t measure is the principle of

a. Energy Audit

b. Energy monitoring and targeting

c. Energy management

d. Standards and labeling

Submit

Your answer is: __

93. Match the following % share of fuels based on energy bill.

A. HSD I. 45%
B. Electricity II. 38%

C. LPG III. 12%

D. Furnace Oil IV. 5%

Submit

Your answer is: __

94. Following energy source is having high conversion factor Kcal

a. LPG

b. Furnace oil

c. HSD

d. None of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

95. Cumulative Sum represents

a. Difference between base line and up-coming consumption

b. Difference between base line and cumulative consumption

c. Difference between base line and actual consumption

d. Difference between base line and variable consumption

Submit

Your answer is: __

96. First step of conservation of energy is

a. Energy management

b. Energy labeling
c. Star rating

d. Energy audit

Submit

Your answer is: __

97. Following are the types of energy audit

a. Primary and secondary

b. Preliminary and detailed

c. Actual and Theoretical

d. Consumption and Utilization

Submit

Your answer is: __

98. Vortex shading flow meter is used to measure

a. Velocity

b. Discharge

c. Acceleration

d. Energy output

Submit

Your answer is: __

99. Finalization of audit team is a task of

a. Post audit phase

b. Audit phase

c. Pre audit phase

d. Continuous phase

Submit

Your answer is: __

100. The information to be collected during detailed audit includes

a. Energy cost and tariff data

b. Sources of energy supply

c. Process and material flow diagrams

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

101. Following is the baseline data that audit team should collect

a. Fuel consumption

b. Steam consumption

c. Water consumption

d. All of above.

Submit

Your answer is: __

102. While purchasing fuel following factor is considered

a. LDO factor

b. LPG factor

c. Quality factor

d. LSH factor
Submit

Your answer is: __

103. Illuminations level is measured by

a. Stroboscope

b. Lux meter

c. Leak detector

d. Manometer

Submit

Your answer is: __

104. Match the following A. Fyrite I. Measures oxygen and temperature of flue gas B. Fuel efficiency
monitor II. Measures air velocity in ducts C. Pitot tube III. Used for measurement of O2 & CO2 D.
Stroboscope IV. Non contact speed measurement

a. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

b. A- III, B-II, C- I, D- IV

c. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

d. A-II, B- III, C- IV, D- I

Submit

Your answer is: __

105. Which of the following is not the safety equipment for energy audit?

a. Thermometer

b. Safety glasses

c. Gloves

d. Breathing masks
Submit

Your answer is: __

106. Following is the key instrument for energy audit

a. Light meter

b. Voltmeter

c. Watt meter

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

107. Soft coke is substituted in residential use by

a. LDO

b. LPG

c. LSHS

d. COAL

Submit

Your answer is: __

108. In textile process industry oil fired thermic fluid heater is replaced by

a. Coconut chip fired boiler

b. LDO fired boiler

c. LPG fired boiler

d. Coal fired boiler

Submit
Your answer is: __

109. Following are the two ways to reduce energy dependency

a. Energy conservation and efficiency

b. Energy efficiency and conservation

c. Energy conservation and substitution

d. Energy minimizing and substitution

Submit

Your answer is: __

110. System efficiency can be maximized by

a. Eliminating steam leakage

b. Maximizing condensate recovery

c. Adopting combustion control

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

111. Production factor is the

a. Ratio of current year’s production to last year’s production

b. Ratio of current year’s production to reference year’s production

c. Ratio of reference year’s production to last year’s production

d. Ratio of reference year’s production to current year’s production

Submit

Your answer is: __

112. DEA does the evaluation of

a. Energy generation, utilization and distribution

b. Energy efficiency, cost, and billing

c. Energy condition, rating and Operation

d. Energy saving, comparison and performance

Submit

Your answer is: __

113. Plant energy performance monitoring compares

a) Plant energy efficiency and cost.

b) Plant energy use at reference year with subsequent years

c) Energy production and consumption

d) Plant energy input and output

Submit

Your answer is: __

114. Following is the example of energy substitution

a. Replacement of LPG system by Coal

b. Replacement of LDO System by Kerosene

c. Replacement of steam based system by solar system

d. All of above

Submit

Your answer is: __

115. Standards and labeling program introduced in

a. 2003

b. 2004

c. 2005

d. 2006

Submit

Your answer is: __

116. Government of India has setup BEE under the provision of

a. EC- Act 2003

b. EC- Act 2002

c. EC-Act 2001

d. EC- Act-200

Submit

Your answer is: __

117. Every star rating of AC saves up to ------- energy

a. 10%

b. 14 %

c. 20%

d. 35%

Submit

Your answer is: __

118. BEE 5 star rating AC saves up to------- energy

a. 15-20%

b. 10-15%

c. 5-10%

d. 20-25%

Submit

Your answer is: __

119. Monitoring and Targeting programs reduces annual energy cost of industrial sector

between

a. 1 and 5 %

b. 5 and 20 %

c. 10 and 15%

Submit

Your answer is: __

120. Combustion efficiency of fossil fuel burning machine is estimated by

a. Combustion efficiency monitor

b. Combustion light meter

c. Combustion analyzer

d. Combustion power factor

Submit

Your answer is: __

Unit- 5 : Agriculture Equipment and Post Harvest Technology

1. In 1951, there were only....... tractors available in India

a) 8625

b)8635

c)7850

d)262200

Submit

Your answer is: __

2.The extend of percentage area under draught animals in India is about

a)50%

b)55%

c)57%

d)45%

Submit

Your answer is: __

3.The level of mechanization is about 95% in the developed country like

a)USA

b)China

c)Brazil

d)India

Submit

Your answer is: __

4. In India farming mechanization is highest in the state like

a)Maharashtra

b)Madhya pradesh

c)Andra pardesh

d)Haryana

Submit

Your answer is: __

5.The highest share of farming operation mechanism is for

a)Soil working & Harvesting

b)Seeding and planting

c)Protection

d)Irrigation

Submit

Your answer is: __

6.The indigenous tractor manufacturing started in India by Eicher Ltd in

a)1951

b)1961

c)1971

d)1981

Submit

Your answer is: __

7. The tractors are manufactured in variety of horse power ranging from

a)20-25 HP

b)30-40HP

c)20-50 HP

d)10-20HP

Submit

Your answer is: __

8. The use of tractors in India is limited due to

a)Small land holding

b)Lack of repairs

c)Lack of trained man power

d)All of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

9.Farm machinery training centers in India situated at

a)Budni(MP)

b)Hissar(Haryana)

c)Anantpur(AP)

d)All of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

10. On the basis of structure design tractors can be classified as

a)Wheel tractor
b)General purpose tractor

c)Row tractor

d)Special purpose tractor

Submit

Your answer is: __

11. On the basis of structure design tractors can be classified as

a)General purpose tractor

b)Crawler tractor

c)Row tractor

d)Special purpose tractor

Submit

Your answer is: __

12. On the basis of structure design tractors can be classified as

a)General purpose tractor

b) Row tractor

c)Power tiller

d)Special purpose tractor

Submit

Your answer is: __

13. On the basis of purpose tractors can be classified as

a)General purpose tractor

b) Row tractor
c) Special purpose tractor

d)All of the above

Submit

Your answer is: __

14.Walking type tractor is also called

a)Wheel tractor

b)Crawler tractor

c)Power tiller

d) None of the above

Submit

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15.Endless chain is used as a wheel in ...... type

a)Wheel tractor

b)Crawler tractor

c)Power tiller

d) None of the above

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16.Selection of tractor depends on

a)Land holding

b)Cropping pattern

c)Soil condition
d)All of the above

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17.The small capacity diesel engine walking tractor is called

a)Wheel tractor

b)Crawler tractor

c)Power tiller

d) None of the above

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18.Tilage is the operation provides

a)deep seed beds

b)add fertility and humus to soil

c)increase water absorbing capacity

d) All of the above

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19.Following is not the secondary tillage operation

a) harrow

b)leveller

c)mould board plough

d)clod crushers
Submit

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20. Following is the Primary tillage operation

a) harrow

b)leveller

c)mould board plough

d)clod crushers

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21. Following is the Primary tillage operation

a) harrow

b)leveller

c)disc plough

d)clod crushers

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22. Following is the Primary tillage operation

a) harrow

b)leveller

c)subsoil plough

d)clod crushers

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Your answer is: __

23. Following is the Primary tillage operation

a) harrow

b)leveller

c)chisel plough

d)clod crushers

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24. Following is the secondary tillage operation

a) harrow

b)leveller

c)clod crushers

d)All of the above

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25. Following is the type of tillage

a) Minimum

b) Strip

c)Rotary

d)All of the above

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26.The residue material left on the surface in the following type of tillage

a) Minimum

b) Mulch

c) Strip

d)Rotary

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27.In country plough ..... this part support and stabilize at required depth

a)Share

b)Shoe

c)Body

d)Beam

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28.Mold board having following type

a)Stubble

b)Sod

c)Slat

d)All of the above

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29.There are few accessories for plough such as

a)Jointer

b)Coulter

c)Furrow wheel

d)All of the above

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30. Select the advantage of disk plough

a)It is more useful for deep ploughing.

b)It can be used in stony and stumpy soil c)without much danger of breakage.

c)A disc plow works well even after a considerable part of disc is worn off in abrasive soil.

d) All of the above

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31.Following type of blade is not used in rotor

a)L-type blade

b)U-type blade

c)Twisted blade

d)Straight blade

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32. Deep tillage can be perform using

a)Disk plough

b)Country plough

c)Chisel plough

d)Mold board plough

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33.Swallow depth tillage can be perform using

a)Country plough

b)Harrow

c)Chisel plough

d)Disk plough

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34.The type of harrow is

a)Disc harrow

b)Spring tooth harrow

c)Spike tooth harrow

d)All of the above

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35. This harrow use to through the soil in opposite direction

a)Single action harrow

b)Double action harrow

c)Offset action harrow

d)Non of the above

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36. It is use for smoothen and level the soil after ploughing

a)Single action harrow

b)Spike tooth harrow

c)Offset disc harrow

d)Non of the above

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37.This harrow is used for hard and stony soils

a)Single action harrow

b)Spike tooth harrow

c)Spring tooth harrow

d)Non of the above

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38. This harrow is a good pulveriser and good for mulching also

a)Acme harrow

b)Spike tooth harrow

c)Spring tooth harrow

d)Non of the above

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39. This is use to smoothening the soil and crushing the weeds

a)Acme harrow

b)Patela

c)Spring tooth harrow

d)Non of the above

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40. This is made up of wooden triangular frame

a)Acme harrow

b)Patela

c)Triangular harrow

d)Non of the above

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41.It work like sweep on soil beds

a)Acme harrow

b)Patela

c)Triangular harrow
d)Blade harrow (Bakhar)

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42. It work like sweep on soil beds same as Bakhar

a)Acme harrow

b)Patela

c)Triangular harrow

d)Guntaka

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43. It is used to for making ridges by collecting soil

a)Leveller

b)Puddler

c)Bund former

d)Cultivator

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44.Use to form ‘V’ shape bund in the soil

a)Leveller

b)Puddler

c)Ridger

d)Cultivator
Submit

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45.It is used in paddy fields to kill the weeds and churns the soil

a)Leveller

b)Puddler

c)Bund former

d)Cultivator

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46.The functions perform between ploughing and harrowing is done by

a)Ploughing

b)Puddler

c)Leveller

d)Cultivator

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47.Cultivator is use for

a)Destroy the weeds

b)Aerate the soil

c)Sow the seed

d)All of the above

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Your answer is: __

48. Types of cultivator is

a)Disc

b)Rotary

c)Tine

d)All of the above

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49. The cultivator used in obstacles encountered soil easily

a)Spring loaded tines

b)Rigid tines

c)a) & b)

d)None of the above

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50.To scattered the seeds in large surface randomly following sowing method is useful

a)Drilling

b)Broadcasting

c)Dibbling

d)Transplanting

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51.Placing the seed in hole is the method of sowing called

a)Drilling

b)Broadcasting

c)Dibbling

d)Transplanting

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52.Dropping the seed in furrow lines is the sowing method called

a)Drilling

b)Broadcasting

c)Dibbling

d)Transplanting

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53.A man dropping seeds behind the plough is called

a)Drilling

b)Seed dropping behind the plough

c)Dibbling

d)Transplanting

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54.Preparing the seed in nursery and planted in field is called

a)Drilling

b)Broadcasting

c)Dibbling

d)Transplanting

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55.The spacing between seeds remaining constant at the sowing time is called

a)Hill droping

b)Broadcasting

c)Dibbling

d)Transplanting

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56.Row to row and plant to plant distance is uniform in sowing method called as

a)Drilling

b)Check row planting

c)Dibbling

d)Transplanting

Submit

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57.The device used to continuous sowing in furrows at uniform rate is called

a)Drilling

b)Broadcasting

c)Seed drill

d)Transplanting

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58.A seed metering mechanism with adjusted flute is called

a)Cup feed

b)Internal double run

c)Fluted feed

d)None of the above

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59.A double faced wheel for large and small seeds is the example of seed mechanism called

a)Cup feed

b)Internal double run

c)Fluted feed

d)None of the above

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60.British seed drills use the mechanism having hopper and delivery tube is called

a)Cup feed
b)Internal double run

c)Fluted feed

d)None of the above

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61.The weeder used in rain fed, operated manually, is called

a)Engine operated weeder

b)Cono weeder

c)Dry weeder

d)Sweep

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62.Uprooting and burying weds especially in rice crop is called

a)Engine operated weeder

b)Cono weeder

c)Dry weeder

d)Sweep

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63.For weeding in cotton, sugarcane, maize following weeder is used

a)Engine operated weeder

b)Cono weeder
c)Dry weeder

d)Sweep

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64.Weeder having ‘V’ shape shovels with bevel edged wing and suitable for row crops is called

a)Engine operated weeder

b)Cono weeder

c)Dry weeder

d)Sweep

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65.Reverse shovels with curved tynes are used in weeder called

a)Junior hoe

b)Cono weeder

c)Dry weeder

d)Sweep

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66. Sprayers are used to protect plants from harmful microorganisms like

a)herbicides

b)Fungicides

c)insecticides
d)all of the above

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67.The spray used for more than 400 litres / hector is called

a)High volume

b)Low volume

c)Ultra low volume

d)None of the above

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68.The spray used for 5 litres per hector is called

a)High volume

b)Low volume

c)Ultra low volume

d)None of the above

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69.The spray used for 5 to 400 litres per hector is called

a)High volume

b)Low volume

c)Ultra low volume

d)None of the above

Submit

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70. The equipment used for spraying dust is called

a)Sprayer

b)Booster

c)Duster

d)None of the above

Submit

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71. The operation of cutting, picking, plucking digging or any combination of these for removing the
whole crop or edible part of the crop from either under the ground or above the ground is called

a)Sowing

b)Harvesting

c)Threshing

d)Binding

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72.Harvesting tools can be classified as

a)Manually operated tools

b)Animal drawn implements

c) Power driven machines

d) All of the above

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Your answer is: __

73. The machine which cuts the crops and ties them into a neat and uniform sheaves is known as

a). reaper binder

b). mower

c). harvester

d). None

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74. The machine used to cut herbage crops is called

a). reaper

b). windrower

c). mower

d). Harvester

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75. Swinging knives are used in

a). cylindrical mower

b). horizontal rotary mower

c). flail mower

d). reciprocating mower.

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76. In India over----- different crops are cultivated.

a. 100.

b. 150.

c. 250.

d. 350.

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77. Production of tractors commenced in India during

a. 1960-61

b. 1961-62

c. 1964-65

d. 1966-67

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78. Following state has the highest average arm intensity

a. Maharashtra

b. Karnataka

c. Uttarpradesh

d. Punjab

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79. India is recognized, the world over as a leader in the manufacture of

a. Petrol and diesel engine

b. Agriculture equipment and machinery

c. Electric motors and machinery

d. House hold equipments

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80. Indian agriculture sector provides

a. Food security and Employment

b. Marketing and skilled manpower

c. Agriculture equipment and machinery

d. Tractors and spare parts

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81. Following country is having the highest farm mechanization

a. U.S.

b. Brazil

c. China

d. India

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82. This is the first tractor manufacturer in INDIA

a. MAHINDRA

b. EICHER

c. TATA

d. L&T

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83. This is the limiting factor in farm mechanism

a. Lack of trained manpower

b. Lack of suitable farm machines

c. Lack of repair and servicing centers

d. All of above

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84. Following is not the type of tractor on the basis of structural-design

a. Wheel tractor

b. Crawler tractor

c. Crop tractor

d. Walking tractor

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85. Flow diagram for transmission of power shows, Power from main clutch is given first to

a. Steering clutch and Tilling attachment

b. Transmission gear and Tilling clutch

c. Wheels and engine

d. Steering clutch and Tilling clutch

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86. Normally V- belts are used to transmit power because

a. V- belts are having high strength

b. V-belts divides power in operation

c. V-belts do not spread out

d. V-belts having high efficiency and work as shock absorber

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87. Soil Tillage enables roots of the crop to

a. Penetrate and spread into the soil

b. To hold crop straight

c. Grow properly without water

d. Penetrate rocks and stones

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88. Objective of Tillage is

a. To destroy and prevent weeds

b. To reduce soil erosion

c. To destroy the insects

d. All of above

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89. This is one of the types of Tillage

a. Absorber Tillage

b. Mulch Tillage

c. Clutch Tillage

d. All of above

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90. Match the following A. Tool I. Mechanical manipulation of soil B. Implement II. Individual working
element C. Machine III. Equipment having no driven moving part D. Tillage IV. Capable of performing
useful work

a. A-IV, B-I, C-IV, D-III

b. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

c. A- II.B-III, C-IV, D-I

d. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

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91. Ploughing means

a. Opening upper crust of soil

b. Primary Tillage operation

c. Break and invert soil

d. All of above

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92. Share of plough

a. Penetrates into soil and breaks

b. It supports and stabilize plough

c. It is beam of plough

d. Enable operator to control plough

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93. Following is not the Sowing method

a. Drilling

b. Dibbling

c. Transplanting

d. Mounting

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94. IN Hill dropping

a. Dropping seeds in furrow lines

b. Dropping seeds at fixed spacing

c. Placing seeds in holes

d. Preparing seeds in nursery

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95. Hand atomizer has

a. Versatile and simple power operated

b. Container has Separate pumping

c. Inside built in pump

d. Separate nozzle and releaser

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96. This machine which is used to cut crops and deliver them in a uniform manner in a row

a. Sickle

b. Windrower

c. Mower

d. Chamber

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97. Match the following. A. Windrower I. It is used for harvesting crops and cutting other vegetations B.
Sickle II. It is used for cutting grasses and forage C. MowerIII. Is a machine to cut herbage crops and
leave them in swash D. Cutter bar IV. It is a

a. A- II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

b. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

c. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

d. A-Iv, B-III, C-I, D-II

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98. This machine separates grains from harvested crop and provides clean grain.

a. Thresher

b. Agitator

c. Boom

d. Duster

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99. The main function of combine is

a. Combine crop and grain

b. Separate seed and grain

c. Collecting crop in container

d. Collecting grains in container

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100. The importance of post harvest technology is

a. To improve economy and standards

b. To meet food requirement of growing population

c. To collect grains in hopper

d. All of above
Submit

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101. Important sectors of agro processing industries are

a. Fish processing

b. Milk processing

c. Grain processing

d. All of above

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102. The main purpose of agriculture processing is

a. To create innovation

b. To reduce field work

c. To minimize qualitative and quantitative Deterioration of material.

d. All of above

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103. India is second largest producer of

a. Fruits and vegetables

b. Oil and Grains

c. Pineapples and mangos

d. Jams and Jellies

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104. Match the following % production of processed fruits. A. Jams and Jellies I. 4% B. Juice and fruit
pulp II. 12% C. Pickles III. 10% D. Tomato products IV. 27%

a. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

b. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

c. A-III, B-I, C-II,D-IV

d. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

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105. The NCAP aims to develop ------------------------- cooling strategy

a. Smart cooling

b. Sustainable

c. Comprehensive

d. All of above

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106. NCAP stands for

a. National cooling active plan

b. National cooperative action plan

c. National cooling action plan

d. National cooling action process

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107. The cold chain is a temperature controlled conduit from

a. Consumer to source

b. Destination to factory

c. Source to consumer

d. Farm to factory

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108. India is the largest producer and exporter of

a. Black Tea

b. Sugar cane

c. Cotton

d. Wheat

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109. India has poultry export to

a. Germany and UK

b. Maldives and Oman

c. U.S. and China

d. Iran And Iraq

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110. This country ranks first in world for cattle population

a. Indonesia

b. Malaysia

c. Japan

d. India

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111. The main objective of NCCD is

a. To recommend standards and protocols for cod chain infrastructure

b. Suggest guidelines for human resource development

c. Recommend appropriate policy framework for development of cold chain

d. All of above

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112. In India cold chain is applied successfully in

a. Dairy supply chain

b. Meat supply chain

c. Poultry supply chain

d. Fruits and vegetables supply chain

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113. For spraying small trees and crops following sprayer is used
a. High volume spray

b. Low volume spray

c. Ultra low volume spray

d. Effective spray

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114. Following is the infrastructure component of cold chain

a. Ripening units

b. Harvesting unit

c. Oil extraction nit

d. Sugarcane processing unit

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115. Globally the majority share of cold chain is seen in

a. Dairy and frozen goods

b. Fresh fruit and vegetable

c. Poultry and egg processing

d. All of above

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