Surgery 5th SEM MCQs Ans

Department of Surgery-1 044-44/ - ( )
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Тests for 3rd year students «General surgery»
Control and measuring means For the final assessment of knowledge, skills
andabilities on discipline
Discipline code: OH3202

Name of the specialty: 6B10101 – “General Medicine”
Amount of study hours/credits: 120 hours (4 credits)
Course and study semester: 3/5
Control and measuring means: Test questions for the exam
Shymkent, 2023у.
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Minutes №____
Since « ___ » ____________ 2023у.
Head of the department,

doctor of medicalscience, dotsent Zhumagulov K.N.
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Q. Specify the antiseptic related to oxidizing agents?

@ hydrogen peroxide, potassium permanganate
@ carbolic acid
@ chloramine
@ mercury oxycyanide
@ boric acid
Q. The purulent wound was drained with a tampon with a hypertonic saline solution. What type
of antiseptic is used?
@ physical
@ biological
@ mechanical
@ chemical
@ mixed
Q. What bleeding is distinguished by anatomical classification?
@ arterial, venous, capillary, parenchymal
@ hidden internal, hidden external
@ primary, secondary
@ arly, late
@ ternal, internal
Q. What is a hematoma?
@ accumulation of blood limited to tissues
@ hemorrhage in parenchymal organs
@ accumulation of blood in the joint cavity
@ blood impregnation of soft tissues
@ accumulation of blood in the pleural or abdominal cavity
Q. What are the phases of shock?
@ erectile, torpid
@ initial, intermediate, terminal
@ lightning fast, acute
@ erectile, terminal
@ fainting, collapse
Q. The Algover shock index is the ratio:
@ pulse rate to systolic pressure
@ systolic pressure to diastolic
@ diastolic pressure to systolic
@ respiratory rate to pulse rate
@ ulse rate to respiratory rate
Q. Specify the symptom of a closed bone fracture:

@ pathological mobility
@ subcutaneous emphysema
@ an increase in the absolute length of the limb
@ bleeding
@ spring resistance in the nearest joint
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Q. What splint should be used for transport immobilization in case of hip fracture?
@ Dieterichs
@ Kuzminsky
@ mesh
@ Belera
@ Ilizarov apparatus
Q. Which wound is more likely to develop infection?

@ bitten
@ cut
@ chopped
@ located on the face
@ scalped
Q. There is a wound with a limited area of necrosis of the skin edge. What needs to be done?
@ excise dead skin

@ drain the wound
@ apply a bandage with Vishnevsky ointment
@ apply a bandage with hypertonic saline
@ assign UHF to the wound
Q. What prevents the development of pyogenic microbes?

@ strong immunity
@ beriberi
@ the presence of dead tissues, hematomas
@ cachexia
@ anemia
Q. What is phlegmon?
@ diffuse inflammation of the cellular tissue
@ inflammation with accumulation of pus in the joint
@ limited inflammation of the cellular tissue
@ purulent inflammation of the sebaceous glands
@ purulent inflammation of the sweat glands
Q. Which of the following diseases is most often complicated by purulent infection?

@ diabetes
@ chronic renal failure
@ closed brain injury
@ heart defects
@ malignant tumor
Q. What is called acute osteomyelitis?

@ purulent inflammation of the bone marrow
@ specific inflammation of bone tissue
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@ purulent inflammation of the articular bag

@ tuberculous lesions of the vertebrae
@ purulent inflammation of the fascial spaces of the extremities
Q. The causative agents of surgical sepsis do not include:

@ Proteus
@ Pseudomonas aeruginosa
@ Staphylococcus aureus
@ hemolytic streptococcus
@ Escherichia coli
Q. One of the most important components of treatment for sepsis is:

@ antibiotic therapy
@ massage
@ physical therapy
@ physiotherapy procedures
@ vitamin therapy
Q. Specify the primary chronic form of hematogenous osteomyelitis:

@ Brody's abscess
@ typhoid osteomyelitis
@ arthritis
@ bone tuberculosis
@ bone syphilis
Q. Blood for bacterial culture in sepsis must be taken:

@ with chills and at the height of the temperature reaction
@ at normal body temperature of the patient
@ immediately after the temperature drops
@ 6-12 hours after the withdrawal of antibiotics
@ only when antibiotics appear
Q. The leading role in the pathogenesis of tetanus is played by the exotoxin secreted by the
pathogen:
@ tetanospasmin
@ leukocidin
@ hyaluronidase
@ tetanohemolysin
@ streptokinase
Q. An abscess is a collection of pus:

@ in tissues distant from the primary focus
@ in body cavities
@ in the area of the primary focus
@ in the medullary canal
@ under the periosteum
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Q. Which type of Asepsis eliminates all microorganisms?

@ Surgical Asepsis
@ Medical Asepsis
@ All asepsis
@ None of the Above
@ all of the Above
Q. Which method of Asepsis allows lotion to be applied?
@ Medical Asepsis
@ Surgical Asepsis
@ No asepsis method allows lotion to be applied
@ All asepsis methods allow lotion to be applied
@ None of the Above
Q. Which method of asepsis requires hands to be held downwards while rinsing?
@ Medical Asepsis
@ Surgical Asepsis
@ All asepsis methods
@ No asepsis methods
@ None of the Above
Q. The chain of infection requires a means of transmission. Which of the following is NOT a
means of transmission?
@ Sneezing
@ Air
@ Contaminated food
@ Dirty hands
@ Dirty arms
Q. The primary reason for aseptic procedures is to
@ Protect patients and health care providers
@ Protect patients
@ Wipe out all bacteria in the office
@ None of the above
@ All of the above
Q. Which of the following statements about homeostasis are false?
@ Emergency surgery should cause little disturbance to homeostasis.
@ It is defined as a stable state of the normal body.
@ The central nervous system, heart, lungs, kidneys and spleen are the essential organs that
maintain homeostasis at a normal level.
@ Elective surgery should cause little disturbance to homeostasis.
@ Return to normal homeostasis after an operation would depend upon the presence of co-
morbid conditions.
Q. In stress response, which of the following statements are false?
@ The changes cannot be modified.
@ It is graded.
@ Metabolism and nitrogen excretion are related to the degree of stress.
@ In such a situation there are physiological, metabolic and immunological changes.
@ The mediators to the integrated response are initiated by the pituitary.
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Q. Which of the following statements are true?

@ Cells change from aerobic to anaerobic metabolism when perfusion to tissues is reduced.
@ The product of aerobic respiration is lactic acid.
@ The product of anaerobic respiration is carbon dioxide.
@ The accumulation of lactic acid in the blood produces systemic respiratory acidosis.
@ all of the above
Q. Which of the following statements regarding hypovolemic shock are true?
@ The vascular resistance is high.
@ It is associated with high cardiac output.
@ The venous pressure is high.
@ The mixed venous saturation is high.
@ The base deficit is low.
Q. Which of the following statements about ischaemia-reperfusion syndrome is correct?
@ It is seen after the normal circulation is restored to the tissues following an episode of
hypoperfusion.
@ This refers to the cellular injury because of the direct effects of tissue hypoxia.
@ The increased sodium load can lead to myocardial depression.
@ It usually does not cause death.
@ all of the above
Q. In which of the following cases might tachycardia accompany shock?
@ Hypovolaemia due to gastrointestinal (GI) bleeds
@ Patients on beta-blockers
@ Patients with implanted pacemakers
@ Fit young adults with normal pulse rate of 50/min
@ Cardiogenic shock.
Q. What is the most frequent complaint made by patients in whom suxamethonium
(succinylcholine) has been used?
@ Diffuse muscle pains
@ Pain at the site of injection
@ Prolonged action in those with pseudocholinesterase deficiency
@ Diplopia
@ An increase in body temperature
Q. Lidocaine can be injected intravenously, but what is the main reason why bupivacaine should
not be injected into a vein during local anaesthesia?
@ It is cardiotoxic.
@ It lasts longer.
@ It is often used with adrenaline.
@ It can cause methaemoglobinaemia.
@ It may cause convulsions.
Q. What is the extra risk involved when a Bier’s block is used for lower-limb surgery?
@ That toxicity is more likely.
@ The difficulty in adequately exsanguinating the limb
@ The cuff is more likely to deflate.
@ Because adrenaline cannot be used
@ That failure is likely to be morefrequent
Q. Patients vary greatly in their requirement for postoperative analgesia. What is the best way to
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assess adequacy of pain relief?

@ Ask the patient to measure the pain.
@ Measure the degree of tachycardia.
@ Assess the level of hypertension.
@ Look for tachypnoea.
@ Examine for wound splinting.
Q. Which of the following is associated with too much analgesia?
@ Depression of conscious level
@ Hypocarbia
@ Agitation
@ Deep vein thrombosis
@ Small tidal volumes.
Q. Which of the following statements with regard to diathermy are false?
@ Shave the patient’s hair over the site for the diathermy plate the day before the operation.
@ Ensure good contact between the patient and the plate.
@ Check the plate if the patient is moved during surgery.
@ Place the plate as close to the operative site as possible.
@ Make sure that the patient is not touching any earthed metal objects.
Q. Which of the following statements regarding use of a tourniquet are false?
@ The theatre charge nurse has overall responsibility in its use.
@ Distal neurovascular status must be checked before and after its use.
@ The tourniquet must be placed as proximally as possible.
@ The tourniquet must be placed snugly enough so as not to slide during the operation.
@ Always note the time of inflation and deflation
Q. In a transfer and patient set-up on the operating table, which of the following
statements are true?
@ All of the above
@ Although the operating table is padded, make sure that pressure areas have additional
padding.
@ Limbs not involved in surgery should be especially protected to prevent nerve
damage.
@ Eyelids should be taped to protect the corneas.
@ Extra precautions are needed if the patient is to be held in a lateral position.
Q. In scrubbing, which of the following statements are false?
@ If the surgeon has a suspected infected lesion, it is sprayed with iodine and covered with a
sterile dressing before gloving.
@ The first scrub of the day should take about 5 min from start to drying.
@ A sterile scrubbing brush and nail cleaner are used for 1–2 min at the first scrub provided the
surgeon stays within the theatre suite in between cases.
@ After applying disinfectant, the arms are washed from distal to proximal with hands up and
elbows flexed.
@ Drying, using a towel for each side, should start with the fingers and work across the hand
and up the arm.
Q. In skin preparation prior to operation, which of the following statements are true?
@ All of the above
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@ In preparing open wounds, aqueous solutions are used.

@ For intact skin, alcohol-based solutions may be used.
@ Prepare the skin from the incision site outwards.
@ Heavily contaminated areas are prepared last, with the swab being discarded.
Q. Which of the following groups constitute ‘high-risk’ patients? Exclude the wrong answer
@ Ethnic minority
@ Elderly
@ Significant co-morbidities
@ Emergency surgery
@ Complex major surgery
Q. Which of the following are preventable factors of mortality in high-risk patients? Exclude the
wrong answer
@ Advanced age
@ Pain
@ Insufficient patient monitoring
@ Lack of early intervention as complications develop
@ Inadequate critical care facilities.
Q. This is used in patients considered to be at risk of perioperative myocardial ischaemia.
@ Prophylactic perioperative beta-blockade
@ Arterial pressure monitoring
@ Cardiac output monitoring
@ Goal-directed therapy
@ Non-invasive ventilation
Q. This is invaluable in critically ill patients who require IV fluid replacements or vasoactive
infusions to stabilise their circulatory status.
Q. This is used to measure cardiac output to guide IV fluid administration.
@ Oesophageal Doppler
Q. This refers to treatment aimed at achieving predefined levels of oxygen delivery to tissues.
This improves cardiac output, renal output, complication rates and patient survival.
Q. This facilitates immediate recognition of haemodynamic changes, especially in an unstable
patient, and enables repeated blood sampling for arterial blood gases.
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Q. This is delivered via a tight-fitting mask and is helpful in postoperative respiratory
management. The main benefits are the absence of need for a general anaesthetic and intubation.
Q. Which of the following statements are false?
@ Monofilament non-absorbable sutures are easy to use in tying secure knots.
@ Polymeric synthetic suture materials cause minimal inflammatory reaction.
@ The integrity of polypropylene sutures in holding tissues together can last indefinitely.
@ Braided suture material can be a nidusfor infection.
@ Absorption is more predictable and complete with absorbable sutures.
@ Hand needles are ideal for skin closure.
@ Cutting needles are used for skin and aponeurosis.
@ Round-bodied needles are used for closure of laparotomy wounds.
@ Needles with a loop-suture should be used for laparotomy closure.
@ In arterial suturing, double-ended needlesutures are used.
@ Large-bowel anastomosis must be done only by one-layer technique.
@ The bowel ends being anastomosed must be well mobilised so as not to create tension in the
anastomosis.
@ Synthetic polymers are to be used for intestinal anastomosis.
@ In vascular anastomosis the needle must pass from within outwards.
@ Polypropylene-like sutures with indefinite integrity must be used for vascular anastomosis.
@ Postoperative deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is classically diagnosed by Homan’s sign.
@ Infusion and certain monitoring systems can cause complications.
@ Abdominal surgical wounds may compromise postoperative respiratory function.
@ The commonest cause of postoperative hypotension is bleeding or insufficient fluid
administration.
@ Oliguria is defined as urinary output of less than 0.5 mL/kg per h.
Q. Which of the following is not a cause of acute shortness of breath on the first postoperative
day?
@ Pulmonary embolism
@ Atelectasis
@ Myocardial infarction
@ Chest infection
@ Pneumothorax.
Q. After an anterior resection, which of the following conditions are causes of postoperative
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hypotension within the first 12–24 h? exclude the wrong answer

@ Leakage of bowel anastomosis.
@ Postoperative bleeding
@ Epidural anaesthesia or excessive morphine
@ Inadequate fluid replacement
Q. Which of the following statements are false with regard to deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
@ Clinical diagnosis is very obvious
@ Obese patients are more prone to DVT
@ Hip and knee replacement surgery are high risk
@ Confirmation is by venography and/or duplex Doppler ultrasound (US)
@ Optimum hydration is essential to prevent DVT.
Q. Which of the following statements with regard to postoperative vomiting are false?
@ All abdominal operations must routinely have a nasogastric tube inserted preoperatively.
@ Inadequate analgesia can be a cause of postoperative vomiting.
@ Metoclopramide and cyclazine can help.
@ Pulmonary aspiration may inadvertently occur.
@ Wound dehiscence is a distinct possibility.
Q. Which of the following statements with regard to postoperative oliguria are false?
@ Oliguria is defined as <1 mL urine/kg of body weight per h.
@ The commonest cause is inadequate fluid replacement.
@ Patients undergoing an operation for obstructive jaundice are particularly susceptible.
@ Renal US is carried out to look for hydronephrosis from blocked ureters.
@ Inotropic support may be necessary.
Q. A 22 year old man has had an acute, painful, red right eye with blurring of vision for one day.
He had a similar episode one year ago and has had episodic back pain and stiffness relieved by
exercise and diclofenac for four years.
What is the SINGLE most likely cause of his red eye?
@ Iritis
@ Chorioretinitis
@ Conjunctivitis
@ Episcleritis
@ Keratitis
Q. A healthy baby boy is born at term to a woman who was unwell with confirmed acute
hepatitis B during pregnancy. The mother is very concerned that she may have infected the baby
with hepatitis B.What SINGLE preventative intervention should be given to the baby?
@ Hepatitis B vaccine and hepatitis B immunoglobulin
@ Full course of hepatitis B vaccine
@ Hepatitis B immunoglobulin alone
@ Hepatitis B vaccine as single dose
@ None until hepatitis B status confirmed
Q. A two year old boy fell off his tricycle, hurting his arm. He got up and started to cry but
before there was any sound he went pale, unconscious and rigid. He recovered after 1-2 minutes
but remained pale. After an hour he was back to normal. His mother says she was afraid he was
going to die and that he had a similar episode three months previously after he fell down some
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steps.
What SINGLE investigation is indicated?
@ None
@ Computed tomography scan of the head
@ Electroencephalogram
@ Full blood count
@ Skeletal survey
Q. At laparoscopic surgery for gallstones, a trocar is inserted through the midline of the anterior
abdominal wall just below the umbilicus.Which SINGLE structure(s) would be pierced?
@ Linea alba
@ Conjoint tendon
@ External and internal oblique muscles
@ External oblique aponeurosis and internal oblique muscle
@ Rectus abdominus muscle
Q. A 65 year old man had closure of colostomy performed five days ago. He is not systemically
unwell. There is a tender, localised fluctuant swelling 4 cm in diameter in the wound.
What is the SINGLE most appropriate management?
@ Local exploration of wound
@ Abdominal support
@ Antibiotics
@ Laparotomy and re-suture
@ Observation
Q. A 78 year old man has collapsed. He has had a severe headache for 12 hours and had an upper
respiratory tract infection three days ago. He has a temperature of 39.2°C, a pulse of 122
beats/minute, a blood pressure of 84/60 mmHg and a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/minute but
his chest is clear. He has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 10 and some neck stiffness. He has
been started on high-flow oxygen.
What is the SINGLE most appropriate immediate management?
@ Intravenous fluids; intravenous antibiotic
@ Intravenous antibiotic; computed tomography brain scan
@ Intravenous antibiotic; lumbar puncture
@ Intravenous fluids; computed tomography brain scan
@ Intravenous fluids; lumbar puncture
Q. A 27 year old woman who takes the combined oral contraceptive pill has had painless vaginal
spotting and discharge for three days. Her last menstrual period, which lasted four days, finished
10 days ago. Her last cervical smear two years ago was normal. Abdominal and vaginal
examinations are normal apart from a mild ectropion with contact bleeding.
What is the SINGLE most appropriate initial investigation?
@ Endocervical swab
@ Cervical smear
@ Colposcopy
@ Endometrial biopsy
@ Pelvic ultrasound scan
Q. A four year old girl has had a temperature of 38.5°C for two days and has not wanted to eat
her food. Yesterday she developed a sore throat and small, painful ulcers inside her mouth.
Today she has small blisters on the palms of her hands and soles of her feet which are painful but
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not itchy.
What is the SINGLE most likely underlying cause?
@ Coxsackie virus
@ Herpes simplex virus
@ Streptococcus pneumoniae
@ Varicella zoster virus
Q. Which of the following regarding blood pressure in shock are false?
@ Blood pressure is increased by reduction in stroke volume and peripheral vasoconstriction.
@ Elderly patients who are normally hypertensive may present with a ‘normal’ blood pressure.
@ Children and fit young adults are able to maintain blood pressure until the final stages of
shock.
@ Hypotension is one of the last signs of shock.
@ Beta-blockers may prevent a tachycardicresponse.
Q. Which of the following statements about compensated shock are false?
@ The perfusion to the skin, muscle and GI tract is increased.
@ The preload is preserved by the cardiovascular and endocrinal compensatory responses.
@ Tachycardia and cool peripheries may be the only clinical signs.
@ Patients with occult hypoperfusion for more than 12 hours have a significantly higher
mortality rate.
@ all of the above
@ Administration of inotropic agents to an empty heart will help to increase diastolic filling and
coronary perfusion.
@ In all cases, regardless of classification, hypovolaemia and preload must be addressed first.
@ The oxygen-carrying capacity of both colloids and crystalloids is zero.
@ Hypotonic solutions are poor volume expanders and should not be used in shock except in
conditions of free water loss or sodium overload.
@ all of the above
Q. Which of these statements about mixed venous saturation are false?
@ Accurate measurements are via analysis of blood drawn from a line placed in the superior
vena cava (SVC).
@ The percentage saturation of oxygen returning to the heart from the body is a measure of the
oxygen delivery and extraction by the tissues.
@ The normal mixed oxygen saturation levels are 50–60 per cent.
@ Levels below 50 per cent indicate inadequate oxygen delivery consistent withhypovolaemic
shock.
@ High mixed venous saturation levels are seen in sepsis.
Q. Which of the following about reactionary haemorrhage are false?
@ It is associated with infection.
@ This is delayed haemorrhage occurring within 24 h after operation.
@ It is usually caused by dislodgement of clot, normalisation of blood pressure or slippage of
ligature.
@ It can be significant, requiring re-exploration.
@ None of the above
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Q. Which of the following about blood transfusion are false?

@ A haemoglobin level of 10 g/dL or less is now considered a typical indication.
@ Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) is considered as the first-line therapy in coagulopathic
haemorrhage.
@ Cryoprecipitate is useful in lowfibrinogen states and in factor VIII deficiency.
@ Patients can pre-donate blood up to 3 weeks before surgery for autologous transfusion.
@ None of the above
Q. A 7-year-old boy with nut allergy develops stridor and collapses after eating a snack. He
requires airway and breathing support. His BP is 60/38 mmHg.
@ Anaphylactic shock
@ Septic shock
@ Cardiogenic shock
@ Hypovolaemic shock – haemorrhagic
@ Neurogenic shock
Q. A 78-year-old man with known ischaemic heart disease (IHD) complains of chest pain and
collapses. His pulse is irregular and BP is 74/48 mmHg. ECG shows features of an anterolateral
myocardial infarction (MI).
@ Cardiogenic shock
@ Neurogenic shock
@ Endocrinal shock
Q. A 76-year-old male is brought to the hospital with persistentdiarrhoea and vomiting for the
past 4 days. He has been unable to keep his food down and feels very tired. On examination he is
very dehydrated. His pulse is 128/min and his BP is 88/52 mmHg.
@ Hypovolaemic shock – non-haemorrhagic
@ Neurogenic shock
@ Endocrinal shock
Q. A 55-year-old woman with poorly controlled hypothyroidism is found comatose. She is
hypothermic. Her pulse is irregular and her BP is 96/70 mmHg.
@ Endocrinal shock
@ Neurogenic shock
Q. A 28-year-old motorist is brought to the A&E after a road traffic accident (RTA). He has
sustained an isolated injury to his back and has motor and sensory deficits in both lower limbs.
His pulse is 122/min and his BP 100/62 mmHg.
@ Neurogenic shock
@ Endocrinal shock
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Q. A 19-year-old male is brought to the hospital after sustaining an abdominal injury while
playing rugby. He is complaining of left upper abdominal pain and has some bruising over the
same area. His pulse is 140/min and his BP is 100/82 mmHg.
@ Neurogenic shock
@ Endocrinal shock
Q. A 86-year-old woman is admitted with a haemoglobin (Hb) of 5.6 g/dL. The HO prescribes 4
units of blood. These 4 units are transfused over a period of 6 h. Four hours later the patient is
found to be having difficulty in breathing. Chest examination reveals fine creps bilaterally. Chest
X-ray confirms pulmonary oedema.
@ Fluid overload
@ Haemolytic transfusion reaction due to incompatibility
@ Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
@ Hypocalcaemia
@ Infection
Q. A 28-year-old male is taken to a nearby hospital after sustaining injuries while on a safari in
Africa. He has lost a lot of blood and is hence given 2 units of blood transfusion. He develops
fever and chills with rigors the next day. Peripheral blood smear demonstrates malarial
parasite.
@ Infection
@ Fluid overload
@ Hypocalcaemia
Q. A 38-year-old man requires several units of blood transfusion due to multiple injuries
sustained as a result of a fall. He develops tetany and complains of cicumoral tingling.
@ Hypocalcaemia
@ Fluid overload
@ Infection
Q. A 34-year-old motorcyclist sustains multiple injuries after an RTA. He is brought to the
hospital in severe shock and requires multiple blood transfusions. It is observed that the bleeding
is still uncontrolled and the blood fails to clot.
@ Hypocalcaemia
@ Fluid overload
@ Infectio
Q. The ward is very busy and quite a few staff have phoned in sick. There are two patients (with
the same surnames) needing blood transfusions. The staff nurse points to the blood units on the
table and asks the HCA to start them as she is just going off for her break. The blood
transfusion is started. Within a few minutes the patient is unwell and his urine is haemorrhagic.
He collapses and becomes anuric. He is also found to be jaundiced.
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@ Fluid overload
@ Hypocalcaemia
@ Infection
Q. Second-generation cephalosporin (or gentamicin) and metronidazole
@ Colorectal
@ Vascular
@ Orthopaedic
@ Biliary
@ All of the above
Q. Broad-spectrum cephalosporin (with anti-staphylococcal action) or gentamicin beads
@ Orthopaedic
@ Vascular
@ Biliary
@ Colorectal
@ none of the above
Q. Flucloxacillin with or without gentamicin, vancomycin or rifampicin, if MRSA is a risk
@ Vascular
@ Orthopaedic
@ Biliary
@ Colorectal
@ All of the above
Q. Second-generation cephalosporin.
@ Biliary
@ Vascular
@ Orthopaedic
@ Colorectal
@ None of the above
Q. Lactose-fermenting Gram-negative bacillus, which is the most common cause of UTI.
@ E. coli
@ Streptococcus
@ Staphylococcus
@ Clostridium
@ Proteus
Q. Gram-negative bacillus, which tends to colonise burns and tracheostomy wounds. These can
also case UTI. Hospital strains can acquire resistance transferred through plasmids.
@ Pseudomonas
@ Clostridium
@ E. coli
@ Proteus
@ Bacteroides
Q. Non-spore-bearing anaerobes that colonise the colon, vagina and oropharynx.
@ Bacteroides.
@ Clostridium
@ E. coli
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@ Proteus
@ Pseudomonas
Q. Gram-positive cocci which form chains; causes cellulitis and spreading tissue destruction by
release of enzymes.
@ Streptococcus
@ Staphylococcus
@ Clostridium
@ E. coli
@ Proteus
Q. Non-lactose-fermenting Gram-negative bacillus which is a normal resident of the colon and is
a cause of intra-abdominal infection after bowel surgery.
@ Proteus
@ Streptococcus
@ Staphylococcus
@ Clostridium
@ E. coli
Q. Gram-positive, obligate anaerobes which produce spores; causes serious infections such as
gas gangrene, tetanus and pseudomembranous colitis.
@ Clostridium
@ Streptococcus
@ Staphylococcus
@ E. coli
@ Proteus
Q. Gram-positive aerobic coccus, which forms grape-like clumps; causes wound and prosthesis
infection. Resistant strains (MRSA) can cause epidemics.
@ Staphylococcus
@ Clostridium
@ Streptococcus
@ E. coli
@ Proteus
Q. A 78-year-old nursing home resident who has finished a course of antibiotics recently
presents with severe diarrhoea for the past 3 days. On examination, he is very unwell and in
shock. Abdominal examination reveals generalised distension and tenderness.
@ Pseudomembranous colitis
@ Gas gangrene
@ Necrotising fasciitis
@ Tetanus
@ Surgical wound infection
Q. A 16-year-old boy who had an appendicectomy for a gangrenous appendix 1 week
agopresents with diarrhoea, fever and lower abdominal pain.
@ Pelvic abscess
@ Tetanus
@ Diverticular abscess
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Q. An 80-year-old male presents with a week-long history of left iliac fossa (LIF) pain. This
hasincreased significantly over the last couple of days and is associated with fever and urinary
irritation. On examination he is very unwell and has signs of peritonitis over the LIF with a
vaguely palpable tender mass.
@ Tetanus
@ Pelvic abscess
Q. A young soldier injured in combat develops severe pain over his leg wound. Examination
reveals thin, brown, sweet-smelling exudate with oedema and crepitus.
@ Gas gangrene
@ Tetanus
Q. An immunocompromised patient develops rapidly spreading infection of the abdominalwall
after a laparotomy for peritonitis. He complains of severe pain. Examination reveals extensive
cellulitis with crepitus. Culture swab reveals mixed aerobic and anaerobic
growth.
@ Gas gangrene
@ Tetanus
Q. A 45-year-old male who sustained minor injury 3 weeks ago while gardening presents with
difficulty in swallowing and jaw movements followed by generalised motor spasms. He is
finding it difficult to breathe. On examination you find opisthotonus and respiratory failure.
@ Tetanus
@ Gas gangrene
Q. A 30-year-old female underwent an appendicectomy for an inflamed appendix 4 days ago.
The wound appears red with some seropurulent discharge at one end. She has been febrile
over the past couple of days.
@ Tetanus
@ Gas gangrene
Q. Drainage of an abscess
@ Dirty
@ Clean
@ Clean-contaminated
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@ Contaminated
@ all of the above
Q. No viscus opened
@ Clean
@ Contaminated
@ Dirty
@ none of the above
Q. Gastric and biliary surgery
@ Clean
@ Contaminated
@ Dirty
@ all of them
Q. Wound infection rate 1–2 per cent
@ Clean
@ Contaminated
@ Dirty
@ all of them
Q. Open viscus surgery or gross spillage or inflammatory bowel disease
@ Contaminated
@ Clean
@ Dirty
@ all of them
@ Contaminated
@ Clean
@ Dirty
@ none of them
Q. Wound infection rate < 40 per cent
@ Dirty
@ Clean
@ Contaminated
@ none of them
Q. Wound infection rate < 10 per cent.
@ Clean
@ Dirty
@ Contaminated
@ all of them
Q. A 35-year-old male patient resident of southern India presents with complaints of episodic
severe upper abdominal pain radiating to the back for the last 5 months. He has also
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noticedincreased thirst with polyuria and passage of bulky pale stools. He consumes tapioca as a
staple diet. On examination, the abdomen is unremarkable with no palpable abnormality. His
fasting blood sugar level is 180 mg/dL and plain X-ray of the abdomen shows linear calcification
in the upper abdomen extending across the spine.
@ Tropical chronic pancreatitis
@ Amoebiasis
@ Typhoid fever
@ Lobar pneumonia
Q. A 45-year-old male patient presents with anorexia, gradually increasing pain in the upper
abdomen associated with high-grade fever with night sweats and general malaise for the last 5
days. The pain has been constant and mainly in the right upper abdomen since the previous
day and is aggravated with movement and coughing. He gives a history of having suffered from
bloody diarrhoea about 3–4 weeks previously. On examination there is tender hepatomegaly
5 cm below the costal margin in the right midclavicular line, and there is intercostal tenderness
in the right 5th, 6th and 7th spaces. The liver span is increased to 20 cm on percussion.
@ Amoebiasis
@ Typhoid fever
@ Lobar pneumonia
Q. A 50-year-old male with a history of heavy smoking complains of feeling unwell for a week.
He reports cough productive of yellow-coloured sputum, shortness of breath, pain over the left
upper abdomen and high-grade fever. The examination reveals a respiratory rate of 18/min, with
the presence of bronchial breathing over the left lower zone and a crunching sound witheach
respiration. The abdomen is normal on examination.
@ Lobar pneumonia
@ Amoebiasis
@ Typhoid fever
Q. A 25-year-old female gives a history of high-grade fever with chills for the last 2 weeks, and
diarrhoea for the last 10 days. She is a resident of a working women’s hostel and complains that
several of her colleagues have also been unwell. She also complains of a dragging pain in the
upper left abdomen that gets relieved on taking rest. On examination, she is dehydrated and
febrile. Abdominal examination reveals the presence of a firm splenomegaly almost reaching the
umbilicus.
@ Typhoid fever
@ Amoebiasis
@ Lobar pneumonia
Q. A 55-year-old male presents with complaints of pain in the upper central abdomen for the last
3 hours, associated with heaviness in the left side of the chest and shortness of breath. There is
also associated sweating and a feeling of weakness. The patient has been a smoker for 20 years
and has a history of occasional heaviness along the inner side of the left arm. On examination,
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the pulse rate is 80/min and regular, and blood pressure (BP) is 110/60 mmHg. Abdomen is soft
on palpation and there is no tenderness. Respiratory examination reveals the presence of normal
breath sounds.
@ Amoebiasis
@ Typhoid fever
@ Lobar pneumonia
Q. A 40-year-old male smoker presents with history of projectile non-bilious vomiting for the
past week. The vomitus contains residue of food items eaten previously and is foul-smelling. The
vomiting is associated with bouts of severe upper abdominal colicky pain that are relieved after
vomiting. He gives history of episodes of upper abdominal gnawing pain in the past. On
examination, the patient is dehydrated and has a pulse rate of 100/min and a BP of
100/60 mmHg. There is distension in the epigastrium and umbilical regions with presence of a
succussion splash on auscultation.
@ Gastric outlet obstruction – chronic duodenal ulcer
@ Subacute intestinal obstruction – Koch’s
@ Ascariasis
@ Typhoid enteritis
@ Appendicitis
Q. A 25-year-old male patient, residing in Sri Lanka, presents with history of off-and-on colicky
central abdominal pain over the past 12 months, associated with weight loss that is not
documented. There is a history of diarrhoea alternating with constipation during this period.
Over the last 2 weeks there has been a history of projectile bilious vomiting associated with a
bout of colic. On examination, the patient is pale and dehydrated, and the abdomen has central
fullness with visible bowel loops. The bowel sounds are markedly diminished and there is no
clinically evident free fluid in the abdomen. An erect X-ray of the abdomen reveals the presence
of central abdominal air fluid levels.
@ Ascariasis
@ Typhoid enteritis
@ Appendicitis
Q. A 17-year-old boy gives a history of high-grade fever with chills for the past 2 weeks, and
diarrhoea for the past 10 days. In the last 2 days the colour of the stools has become darker, and
on two occasions there was frank blood in the stools. He studies in a boarding school
and complains that several of his friends have been suffering from fever and diarrhoea in the
last few weeks. On examination, he is dehydrated and febrile. Abdominal examination reveals
the presence of a palpable spleen just below the costal margin. There is associated central
abdominal tenderness.
@ Typhoid enteritis
@ Ascariasis
@ Appendicitis
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Q. A 13-year-old boy is brought to the hospital by his mother with complaints of failure to
thrive. The boy’s height is much less than that of his classmates. There is also a history of
episodes of colicky abdominal pain that are relieved on their own. On examination, the boy
is found to be pale and underweight for his age. The abdominal examination is normal. His
haemoglobin (Hb) is 10.2 g /dL and there are 10 per cent eosinophils in differential count.
@ Ascariasis
@ Typhoid enteritis
@ Appendicitis
Q. A 30-year-old man had an extensive retroperitoneal lymph node dissection for testicular
malignancy 2 days previously. The house surgeon, after having seen the patient in the ward, is
worried as the abdomen seems to be full, with no bowel sounds. Abdominal X-rays show the
presence of multiple air-fluid levels all over the length of the small bowel and the serum
electrolyte levels are within normal limits.
@ Paralytic ileus
@ Acute intestinal obstruction
@ Multiple hydatidosis
@ Ascariasis
@ Adhesive intestinal obstruction
Q. A 45-year-old owner of a dog-breeding farm complains of a gradual abdominal distension
over the last 6 months that has become painful of late. He is otherwise healthy and has no bowel
complaints. Physical examination reveals firm distension of the abdomen which is somewhat
tender on palpation and dull on percussion. There is no other significant finding in the
abdominal examination. A blood count reveals a TLC of 8600 with a DLC showing eosinophils
constituting 12 per cent. An abdominal ultrasound (US) shows the presence of multiple
fluidfilled structures spread all over the abdominal viscera.
@ Ascariasis
@ Paralytic ileus
Q. A 10-year-old boy is brought to the hospital by his mother with complaints of a sudden onset
of severe colicky abdominal pain associated with several episodes of vomiting. There is a history
of failure to thrive and also of the passage of worms per rectum in the past. On examination, the
boy is found to be pale and underweight for his age. The abdomen is distended with palpable
bowel loops. The bowel sounds are exaggerated. His Hb is 10.2 g/dL and there are 12 per cent
eosinophils in differential count.
@ Ascariasis
@ Paralytic ileus
Q. In difficult situations, which of the following statements are true?
@ In patients who cannot give consent because of their illness, e.g. they are unconscious or
there is psychiatric illness, their legal guardian can give consent.
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@ There is no need to explain to children the procedures for which consent has already been
given by their parent/guardian.
@ Children can unconditionally refuse treatment.
@ Therapy can proceed after consent from a carrier in an unconscious patient irrespective of
any previous wishes of the patient.
@ all of the above
Q. In matters of life and death, which of the following are true statements?
@ Decision to withhold treatment should be taken along with another senior clinician and
recorded in detail.
@ The surgeon is always obliged to provide life-sustaining treatment.
@ Confidentiality is absolute.
@ all of the above
@ none of the above
Q. Which of the following statements is false?
@ Conventional X-rays will delineate different soft tissues reliably.
@ Conventional X-rays can be manipulated.
@ Dedicated transducers can help in endocavitary ultrasound (US).
@ Change in the frequency of an US wave can be caused by red blood cells.
@ The higher the frequency of the US wave, the greater the resolution of the image.
Q. In trauma imaging, which of the following statements are false?
@ In a multiply injured patient, CT of head and spine should be the first line of imaging.
@ Focused assessment with sonographyfor trauma (FAST ) helps in detecting intraperitoneal
fluid and cardiac tamponade.
@ CT should not be used when a patient is unstable.
@ US is useful for diagnosing occult pneumothorax.
@ CT is the main imaging method for intracranial, intra-abdominal and vertebral injuries.
Q. Which of the following statements are false with regard to imaging of the acute abdomen?
@ Plain X-ray of KUB ( kidney, ureter, bladder) is the best imaging for suspected ureteric colic.
@ US is a good first-line investigation.
@ CT is the best investigation for acute diverticulitis.
@ US and CT can diagnose the cause and site of bowel obstruction.
@ Plain X-ray is the first-line investigation for suspected perforation or obstruction.
Q. The ability of a doctor to "read" a non-verbal message on the posture, mimicry, and gestures
of the patient is a professionally significant quality that allows ...
@ to conduct more accurate diagnostics
@ improve professional knowledge, skills, skills
@ develop a sense of reliability in the patient
@ to establish psychological contact with a sick person
@ improve the doctor's self-esteem
Q. If the doctor sees that the verbal communication of the patient (complaint) with bronchial
asthma does not correspond to non-verbal behavior (the way he stands, sits, breathes), then the
doctor can think about.
@ simulation
@ dissimulation
@ mutism
@ reflection
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@ affiliation
Q. If the patient deliberately hides the symptoms of his illness, and the doctor, analyzing
nonverbal behavior, reveals the characteristic mimic reactions to pain, restrained gestures, static
poses, indicating a "protective" style of behavior, then one can think of.
@ dissimulation
@ simulation
@ mutism
@ reflection
@ affiliation
Q. If the patient has no speech after the earthquake, and the doctor, in contact with him, assesses
the severity of the lesions, the degree of urgency of medical care, focusing only on visible signs
of damage, as well as on non-verbal behavior characteristics, one can think about.
@ mutism
@ simulations
@ dissimulation
@ reflections
@ affiliations
Q. The doctor and the patient, speaking different languages, do not understand each other and
supplement the verbal communication of the non-verbal with the help of gestures, mimic
reactions, voice intonations. In this case, there is.
@ the language barrier
@ personal barrier
@ mutism
@ simulation
@ dissimulation
Q. In the situation of express diagnostics, it saves the doctor's time.
@ non-verbal communication
@ verbal communication
@ communication skills
@ professionalism
@ professional tolerance
Q. When working with young children, the doctor helps.
@ non-verbal communication
@ verbal communication
@ communication skills
@ professionalism
@ professional tolerance
Q. Nonverbal behavior is not evaluated by.
@ speech
@ interpersonal distance
@ poses
@ paralinguistic communication components
@ mimicry
Q. To the actual non-verbal behavior refers.
@ speech
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@ sighs
@ loudness of voice
@ coughing
Q. Paralinguistic communication components.
@ sighs
@ facial expressions
@ sight
@ gestures
Q. "Life space" - a zone that a person protects from the intrusion of others, regulated in the
process of communication - this is the distance
@ interpersonal
@ social
@ personal
@ intimate
@ public
Q. The dimensions of the "living space" of a person are determined.
@ personality traits
@ density of population in the place of residence
@ psychological microclimate
@ professional activity
@ state of health
Q. The living space of people, whose childhood was held in a big city, in comparison with the
inhabitants of small towns.
@ less
@ more
@ the same
@ depends on age
@ always different
Q. A close presence next to another person causes.
@ mental stress
@ excitement
@ depression
@ aggression
@ indifference
Q. At the expressed introversion the sizes of "vital space".
@ more
@ less
@ the same
@ depends on age
@ always different
Q. At the person with a high vital tone, the raised mood the distance with other people.
@ less
@ more
@ the same
@ depends on age
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@ always different
Q. In the interpersonal interaction of two interlocutors, the distance between them is determined.
@ dimensions of the "living space" of each of them
@ state of health
Q. If between people close, warm, emotional relationship, then the distance between them.
@ less
@ more
@ the same
@ depends on age
@ always different
Q. If the social status of the interlocutor is higher, then the distance.
@ more
@ less
@ the same
@ depends on age
@ always different
Q. When the of surgery is decided, especially if there is a possibility of a lethal outcome, the
doctor uses the distance.
@ intimate
@ personal
@ social
@ irrelevant
@ public
Q. A distance that characterizes "partner communication", that is, communication of people of
equal social status, connected by common activities.
@ intimate
@ personal
@ social
@ irrelevant
@ public
Q. If the patient is given the opportunity to choose the distance of communication during the first
meeting with the doctor, he will be located at a distance.
@ 2m
@ 1m
@ 0.5 m
@ 3m
@ 1.5 m
Q. Meetings are held at a distance.
@ public
@ intimate
@ social
@ optimal
@ personal
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Q. The mutual disposition of the interlocutors helps.

@ "read" the psychological connotation of their relationship
Q. When meeting with a new, unknown person position.
@ "face to face"
@ "beside"
@ sitting back
@ "across the table"
@ leaning towards the patient
Q. Position with partner communication, the presence of psychological contact, the relationship
of cooperation associated with the achievement of common goals.
@ "beside"
@ "face to face"
@ sitting back
Q. Position, meaning the relationship of power, "leader-subordinate," with role distribution, with
the implementation of regulatory prohibitions and regulations governing the provision, its
structure and time of interaction.
@ "face to face"
@ sitting back
@ "beside"
Q. Usually a patient takes a position at a doctor's appointment.
@ on the side of the table
@ "face to face"
@ sitting back
@ opposite
Q. When a doctor leans back while sitting, sitting in a chair or on a chair, the patient may have
an idea that.
@ the interlocutor became bored
@ the interlocutor is interested
@ the interlocutor does not understand
@ the interlocutor is hostile
@ the interlocutor is calm
Q. If the doctor listens, leaning slightly toward the patient, bending his head to the right shoulder
and occasionally, in time with his words, nods his head, the patient will be convinced that in the
interest and complicity of the doctor in the experiences that the patient discloses to him.
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Q. A natural, free, laid-back pose characterizes.
@ psycho-psychological comfort
@ latent stresses
@ non-communication
@ uncertainty
@ psychological discomfort
Q. 1A natural, free, laid-back pose characterizes.
@ psycho-psychological comfort
@ latent stresses
@ non-communication
@ uncertainty
Q. 2A natural, free, laid-back pose characterizes.
@ psychological comfort
@ latent stresses
@ non-communication
@ uncertainty
Q. Pose, witnessing about individual characteristics, openness for communication, readiness for
cooperation.
@ asymmetric
@ symmetrical
@ natural
@ unnatural
@ closed
Q. Pose, indicating the reluctance to communicate, avoidance of relationships with others.
@ closed
@ symmetrical
@ natural
@ unnatural
@ asymmetric
Q. Crossed arms ("Napoleon's pose"), crossed legs (foot on foot); hands in pockets, hidden
behind the back; body and head, deployed away from the partner; a sight directed to the floor, to
the window, to the medical history - these are distinctive features.
@ closed posture
@ symmetrical posture
@ natural posture
@ unnatural posture
@ asymmetrical posture
Q. The body and head are turned towards the interlocutor, a direct look in the face is a pose.
@ open
@ closed
@ natural
@ unnatural
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@ asymmetric
Q. The doctor in the situation of his professional communication with patients is best to avoid
posture.
@ symmetric
@ natural
@ asymmetric
@ open
@ disposable
Q. The movement of the hand, which usually involves the shoulders and the head - this.
@ gesture
@ pose
@ mimic reactions
@ paralinguistic component
@ involuntary movements
Q. We shrug our shoulders in response to the: "How are you?", Raise eyebrows inquiringly, not
hearing the words of the interlocutor, according to the nod of the head instead of saying "Yes". It
is…
@ communicative gestures
@ open posture
@ mimic reactions
Q. The brightness, expressiveness of espressive gestures is determined.
@ features of temperament
@ standard of living
@ state of health
@ environment
Q. Persons with a low level of education, limited vocabulary, experiencing difficulties in the
selection of words with a certain meaning, often help themselves in this, accompanying the
speech gestures
@ expressive
@ corporate
@ international
@ national
@ professional
Q. Coordinated movements of the facial muscles that reflect emotions, moods, feelings are.
@ mimic reactions
@ pose
@ gestures
Q. The most informative, conveying one or another experience in the characteristic mimic
complexes is mimicry.
@ lower face
@ face
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@ forehead
@ eyes
@ upper face
Q. The most informative detail in the person of a person is.
@ line of mouth
@ face
@ forehead
@ eyes
@ cheeks
Q. Horizontal forehead wrinkles, raised eyebrows, wide-open eyes and half-open mouth - this.
@ mimic complex of emotion of surprise
@ complex of emotion of anger
@ characteristic of sadness
@ depressive symptom
@ symptom of fatigue
question>Vertical wrinkles of the forehead, frowning (frowns, eyebrows, narrowed eyes with a
fan of wrinkles indicated in the corners of the eyes, a compressed line of the mouth is.
@ mimic complex of emotion of anger
@ mimic complex of emotion of surprise
@ characteristic of sadness
@ depressive symptom
@ symptom of fatigue
Q. Psychological contact with the interlocutor allows you to feel.
@ eye-to-eye
@ open posture
@ the lowered corners of the lips
@ nasolabial fold expression
Q. A sign of discomfort in a communication situation, indicating an ambivalent attitude toward
others is.
@ "a glancing look"
@ open posture
@ the lowered corners of the lips
@ nasolabial fold flattening
Q. The optimal duration of the look is to feel the psychological contact with the partner without
causing him irritation.
@ 3 seconds
@ 1 minute
@ 30 seconds
@ 2 minutes
@ 10 seconds
Q. A look that lasts from 3 to 10 seconds and causes tension and discomfort between the person
and the person is.
@ close
@ "a glancing look"
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@ aggressive challenge
@ benevolent glance
@ optimal for psychological contact
Q. A look longer than 10 seconds is.
@ aggressive challenge
@ "a glancing look"
@ gaze
@ benevolent glance
@ optimal for psychological contact
Q. People are calm, with high self-esteem, satisfied with themselves and their life situation, with
interpersonal interaction, look into the eyes of the interlocutor compared with insecure people.
@ often
@ gaze
@ equally
@ depending on the environment
@ constantly
Q. The frequency of views is related to.
@ sense of control
@ pose
@ gestures
@ character of personality
Q. A variety of sounds, published by a person in the process of communication, bearing a certain
semantic load, expressing the state, mood of the interlocutor, his attitude to the transmitted
message is.
@ paralinguistic components
@ speech
@ gestures
@ pose
Q. Sign of paralinguistic communication is not.
@ accentuation
@ loudness of speech
@ rate of speech
@ rhythm
@ pause
Q. The combination of loudness and speech frequency is perceived as a sign.
@ conflict
@ good psychological contact
@ positive relationships
@ tranquility
@ strong influence
Q. Attribution to other people of their own psychological traits, transfer to the outside, to others,
their problems - this.
@ projection
@ counterprojection
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@ transference
@ affiliation
@ sensitivity
Q. The patient refers to his treating female doctor as well as in his childhood he treated a mother
who sought help and support in unexpected and difficult situations, experiences the same
feelings of trust, devotion, admiration and love - this.
@ transference
@ counterprojection
@ projection
@ affiliation
@ sensitivity
Q. Transfer to the doctor of negative feelings connected with past negative experience of
building relationships is.
@ negative transfer
@ counterprojection
@ projection
@ affiliation
@ sensitivity
Q. In the relationship with the doctor, the patient experiences feelings of alertness and
tenderness, trust and hostility - this.
@ ambivalence
@ negative transfer
@ counterprojection
@ projection
@ affiliation
Q. The phenomenon of transfer by a doctor to a patient experience of past emotional
relationships with the corresponding expectations, attitudes towards the patient's behavior is.
@ counter transference
@ ambivalence
@ negative transfer
@ counterprojection
@ projection
Q. Emotion, directed to the future, connected with forecasting, anticipation, anticipation of
possible failures, with the formation of appropriate attitudes and attitudes - this.
@ anxiety
@ euphoria
@ depressiveness
@ introvertedness
@ fear
Q. Emotion associated with the experience of the past, when in the imagination again and again
images of past conflicts, psychotraumatic events - is.
@ depressiveness
@ euphoria
@ anxiety
@ introversion
@ fear
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Q. The orientation of the subject on himself, the return to his own sensations, experiences,
cognitive constructs, in his own way, subjectively interpreting the world around him is.
@ introvertedness
@ euphoria
@ anxiety
@ depressiveness
@ fear
Q. As a "communicative barrier", preventing effective communication can not act.
@ extroversion
@ depressiveness
@ lack of intuition
@ low level of empathy
@ inability to respond to the suffering of another
Q. Approach to the patient as an object, bearer of the symptom and syndrome, when the patient
is perceived by the doctor as an "interesting case" - is.
@ professional deformation
@ professional adaptation
@ extroversion
@ affiliation
@ sensitivity
Q. Subjective methods of nursing examination include:
@ patient interview
@ definition of edema
@ the dimension of hell
@ familiarity with the data of medical cards
@ registration
Q. The results of the analysis may be affected by the following factors outside the laboratory:
@ physical and emotional tension of the patient
@ medication
@ body position
@ impact of climate
@ storage conditions of the sample
Q. The optimal method of conflict resolution:
@ cooperation
@ win-lose method
@ method depends on the conflict situation
@ avoiding conflict
@ quarrel
Q. "Open postures" when communicating in the nursing process
are perceived as:
@ signals of trust, consent, goodwill
@ signals of distrust
@ demonstration of hostility
@ unwillingness to talk
@ isolation
Q. Basic mechanisms of interpersonal perception in nursing
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care is:
@ identification, classification, reflection
@ identification, reflection, stereotyping
@ classification, stereotyping, reflection
@ conversion, regression, persistence
@ confrontation
Q. "Closing the posture" of the interlocutor when communicating in the nursing process
testifies:
@ about stiffness, stiffness, negative attitude of the interlocutor to the topic
conversation or partner
@ about low intelligence
@ on reducing the perception of the interlocutor
@ about adaptation to lpu
@ about individuality
Q. Communication phases for nursing care include:
@ the focus on the partner, the reflection of the partner
@ focus on the partner
@ reflection of the partner, transfer of information
information transfer
@ disconnect from the partner
Q. Which of the following statements regarding preoperative investigations are false?
@ Chest X-ray is routinely requested in all patients over 60 years old.
@ A ventricular ejection fraction of less than 35 per cent indicates a high risk of cardiac
complications.
@ A body mass index (BMI) <15 is associated with significant hospital mortality.
@ ECG is usually required in patients above 65 years.
@ HIV testing requires patient consent.
Q. Which of the following statements regarding preoperative management of specific medical
problems are true?
@ Patients with a diastolic pressure above 95 mmHg should have their elective operations
postponed.
@ Elective surgery should be delayed until at least 1 year after a myocardial infarction (MI).
@ There is no need to control tachyarrhythmias preoperatively.
@ Preoperative transfusion should be considered if the Hb level <10 g/dL.
@ In patients with malnutrition, preoperative nutrition therapy should be started 6 weeks prior
to surgery.
Q. Which of the following is a problem associated with surgery in obese patients? Exclude the
wrong answer
@ Pain control
@ Aspiration
@ Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)/embolism
@ Pressure sore
Q. Which of the following is a problem associated with surgery in the jaundiced patient?
Exclude the wrong answer
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@ Clotting disorders
@ Hepatorenal syndrome
@ Infection
@ Poor wound healing
Q. 1Which of the following is a surgical risk in a diabetic patient? Exclude the wrong answer
@ Pain control
@ Infection
@ Pressure sore
@ Poor wound healing
Q. Which of the following is a risk factor for thrombosis? Exclude the wrong answer
@ Young age
@ Pregnancy
@ Smoking
@ Trauma
@ Malignancy
Q. Which of the following is not part of the anaesthetic triad used during surgery?
@ Amnesia
@ Unconsciousness
@ Pain relief
@ Trauma
@ Muscle relaxation.
Q. What is the most significant disadvantage of the laryngeal mask airway (LMA) over an
endotracheal tube?
@ Risk of pulmonary aspiration
@ Failure to provide a competent airway
@ Unreliable placement
@ Enhanced risk of tube obstruction
@ Failure to allow tracheal suction.
Q. What is the most reliable way to ascertain correct placement of an endotracheal tube?
@ Measurement of end-tidal carbon dioxide concentration
@ Detection of a pressure waveform on inflation
@ Direct visualization
@ Detection of breath sounds on auscultation
@ Movement of the chest wall on manual inflation.
Q. 1What is the most frequent complaint made by patients in whom suxamethonium
@ Diplopia
Q. 1Lidocaine can be injected intravenously, but what is the main reason why bupivacaine
should not be injected into a vein during local anaesthesia?
@ It lasts longer.
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Q. 1What is the extra risk involved when a Bier’s block is used for lower-limb surgery?
Q. 1Patients vary greatly in their requirement for postoperative analgesia. What is the best way
to assess adequacy of pain relief?
Q. 1Which of the following is associated with too much analgesia?
@ Hypocarbia
@ Agitation
Q. 2Which of the following statements with regard to diathermy are false?
@ Shave the patient’s hair over the site for the diathermy plate the day before the
operation.
Q. 1Which of the following statements regarding use of a tourniquet are false?
Q. 1In a transfer and patient set-up on the operating table, which of the following statements are
true?
@ All of the above
@ Although the operating table is padded,make sure that pressure areas have additional
padding.
@ Limbs not involved in surgery should be especially protected to prevent nerve damage.
Q. 1In scrubbing, which of the following statements are false?
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elbows flexed.
and up the arm.
Q. 1In skin preparation prior to operation, which of the following statements are true?
@ All of the above
Q. Which of the following groups
constitute ‘high-risk’ patients? Exclude the wrong answer
@ Ethnic minority
@ Elderly
@ Emergency surgery
Q. 1Which of the following are preventable factors of mortality in high-risk patients? Exclude
the wrong answer
@ Advanced age
@ Pain
@ Lack of early intervention as
complications develop
Q. 1This is used in patients considered to be at risk of perioperative myocardial ischaemia.
Q. 1This is invaluable in critically ill patients who require IV fluid replacements or vasoactive
Q. 1This is used to measure cardiac output to guide IV fluid administration.
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Q. 1This refers to treatment aimed at achieving predefined levels of oxygen delivery to tissues.
Q. 1This facilitates immediate recognition of haemodynamic changes, especially in an unstable
Q. 1This is delivered via a tight-fitting mask and is helpful in postoperative respiratory
Q. 1Which of the following statements are false?
@ In arterial suturing, double-ended needle sutures are used.
anastomosis.
@ Polypropylene-like sutures with indefinite integrity must be used for vascular
anastomosis.
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@ The commonest cause of postoperative hypotension is bleeding or insufficient

fluid administration.
Q. 1Which of the following is not a cause of acute shortness of breath on the first postoperative
day?
@ Atelectasis
@ Chest infection
@ Pneumothorax.
Q. 1After an anterior resection, which of the following conditions are causes of postoperative
hypotension within the first 12–24 h?exclude the wrong answer
Q. 1Which of the following statements are false with regard to deep vein
thrombosis (DVT)?
Q. 1Which of the following statements with regard to postoperative vomiting are false?
@ All abdominal operations must routinely have a nasogastric tube inserted preoperatively.
@ Inadequate analgesia can be a cause of postoperative vomiting.
@ Metoclopramide and cyclazine can help.
@ Pulmonary aspiration may inadvertently occur.
@ Wound dehiscence is a distinct possibility.
Q. 1Which of the following statements with regard to postoperative oliguria are false?
@ Oliguria is defined as <1 mL urine/kg of body weight per h.
@ The commonest cause is inadequate fluid replacement.
@ Patients undergoing an operation for obstructive jaundice are particularly susceptible.
@ Renal US is carried out to look for hydronephrosis from blocked ureters.
@ Inotropic support may be necessary.
Q. 1A 22 year old man has had an acute, painful, red right eye with blurring of vision for one
day. He had a similar episode one year ago and has had episodic back pain and stiffness relieved
by exercise and diclofenac for four years.
What is the SINGLE most likely cause of his red eye?
@ Iritis
@ Chorioretinitis
@ Conjunctivitis
@ Episcleritis
@ Keratitis
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Q. 1A healthy baby boy is born at term to a woman who was unwell with confirmed acute
hepatitis B during pregnancy. The mother is very concerned that she may have infected the baby
with hepatitis B.
What SINGLE preventative intervention should be given to the baby?
@ Hepatitis B vaccine and hepatitis B immunoglobulin
@ Full course of hepatitis B vaccine
@ Hepatitis B immunoglobulin alone
@ Hepatitis B vaccine as single dose
@ None until hepatitis B status confirmed
Q. A two year old boy fell off his tricycle, hurting his arm. He got up and started to cry but
before there was any sound he went pale, unconscious and rigid. He recovered after 1-2 minutes
but remained pale. After an hour he was back to normal. His mother says she was afraid he was
going to die and that he had a similar episode three months previously after he fell down some
steps.
What SINGLE investigation is indicated?
@ None
@ Computed tomography scan of the head
@ Electroencephalogram
@ Full blood count
@ Skeletal survey
Q. At laparoscopic surgery for gallstones, a trocar is inserted through the midline of the anterior
abdominal wall just below the umbilicus.
Which SINGLE structure(s) would be pierced?
@ Linea alba
@ Conjoint tendon
@ External and internal oblique muscles
@ External oblique aponeurosis and internal oblique muscle
@ Rectus abdominus muscle
Q. 1A 65 year old man had closure of colostomy performed five days ago. He is not systemically
unwell. There is a tender, localised fluctuant swelling 4 cm in diameter in the wound.
What is the SINGLE most appropriate management?
@ Local exploration of wound
@ Abdominal support
@ Antibiotics
@ Laparotomy and re-suture
@ Observation
Q. 1A 78 year old man has collapsed. He has had a severe headache for 12 hours and had an
upper respiratory tract infection three days ago. He has a temperature of 39.2°C, a pulse of 122
beats/minute, a blood pressure of 84/60 mmHg and a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/minute but
his chest is clear. He has a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 10 and some neck stiffness. He has
been started on high-flow oxygen.
What is the SINGLE most appropriate immediate management?
@ Intravenous fluids; intravenous antibiotic
@ Intravenous antibiotic; computed tomography brain scan
@ Intravenous antibiotic; lumbar puncture
@ Intravenous fluids; computed tomography brain scan
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@ Intravenous fluids; lumbar puncture

Q. 1A 27 year old woman who takes the combined oral contraceptive pill has had painless
vaginal spotting and discharge for three days. Her last menstrual period, which lasted four days,
finished 10 days ago. Her last cervical smear two years ago was normal. Abdominal and vaginal
examinations are normal apart from a mild ectropion with contact bleeding.
What is the SINGLE most appropriate initial investigation?
@ Endocervical swab
@ Cervical smear
@ Colposcopy
@ Endometrial biopsy
@ Pelvic ultrasound scan
Q. 1A four year old girl has had a temperature of 38.5°C for two days and has not wanted to eat
her food. Yesterday she developed a sore throat and small, painful ulcers inside her mouth.
Today she has small blisters on the palms of her hands and soles of her feet which are painful but
not itchy.
What is the SINGLE most likely underlying cause?
@ Coxsackie virus
@ Herpes simplex virus
@ Streptococcus pneumoniae
@ Varicella zoster virus
Q. 1Nonverbal behavior is not evaluated by.
@ speech
@ poses
@ paralinguistic communication components
@ mimicry
Q. 1To the actual non-verbal behavior refers.
@ speech
@ sighs
@ loudness of voice
@ coughing
Q. 1Paralinguistic communication components.
@ sighs
@ sight
@ gestures
Q. 1"Life space" - a zone that a person protects from the intrusion of others, regulated in the
process of communication - this is the distance
@ interpersonal
@ social
@ personal
@ intimate
@ public
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Q. 1The dimensions of the "living space" of a person are determined.

@ personality traits
@ state of health
Q. 1The living space of people, whose childhood was held in a big city, in comparison with the
inhabitants of small towns.
@ less
@ more
@ the same
@ depends on age
@ always different
Q. 1A close presence next to another person causes.
@ mental stress
@ excitement
@ depression
@ aggression
@ indifference
Q. 1At the expressed introversion the sizes of "vital space".
@ more
@ less
@ the same
@ depends on age
@ always different
Q. 1At the person with a high vital tone, the raised mood the distance with other people.
@ less
@ more
@ the same
@ depends on age
@ always different
Q. 1In the interpersonal interaction of two interlocutors, the distance between them is
determined.
@ dimensions of the "living space" of each of them
@ state of health
Q. If between people close, warm, emotional relationship, then the distance between them.
@ less
@ more
@ the same
@ depends on age
@ always different
Q. 1If the social status of the interlocutor is higher, then the distance.
@ more
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@ less
@ the same
@ depends on age
@ always different
Q. 1When the of surgery is decided, especially if there is a possibility of a lethal outcome, the
doctor uses the distance.
@ intimate
@ personal
@ social
@ irrelevant
@ public
Q. 1A distance that characterizes "partner communication", that is, communication of people of
equal social status, connected by common activities.
@ intimate
@ personal
@ social
@ irrelevant
@ public
Q. 1If the patient is given the opportunity to choose the distance of communication during the
first meeting with the doctor, he will be located at a distance.
@ 2m
@ 1m
@ 0.5 m
@ 3m
@ 1.5 m
Q. 1Meetings are held at a distance.
@ public
@ intimate
@ social
@ optimal
@ personal
Q. 1The mutual disposition of the interlocutors helps.
@ "read" the psychological connotation of their relationship
Q. 1When meeting with a new, unknown person position.
@ "face to face"
@ "beside"
@ sitting back
Q. 1Position with partner communication, the presence of psychological contact, the relationship
of cooperation associated with the achievement of common goals.
@ "beside"
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@ "face to face"
@ sitting back
Q. 1Position, meaning the relationship of power, "leader-subordinate," with role distribution,
with the implementation of regulatory prohibitions and regulations governing the provision, its
structure and time of interaction.
@ "face to face"
@ sitting back
@ "beside"
Q. 1Usually a patient takes a position at a doctor's appointment.
@ on the side of the table
@ "face to face"
@ sitting back
@ opposite
Q. 1When a doctor leans back while sitting, sitting in a chair or on a chair, the patient may have
an idea that.
Q. A 40-year-old male smoker presents with history of projectile non-bilious vomiting for the
past week. The vomitus contains residue of food items eaten previously and is foul-smelling. The
vomiting is associated with bouts of severe upper abdominal colicky pain that are relieved after
vomiting. He gives history of episodes of upper abdominal gnawing pain in the past. On
examination, the patient is dehydrated and has a pulse rate of 100/min and a BP of
100/60 mmHg. There is distension in the epigastrium and umbilical regions with presence
of a succussion splash on auscultation.
@ Ascariasis
@ Typhoid enteritis
@ Appendicitis
Q. 1A 25-year-old male patient, residing in Sri Lanka, presents with history of off-and-on
colicky central abdominal pain over the past 12 months, associated with weight loss that is not
documented. There is a history of diarrhoea alternating with constipation during this period.
Over the last 2 weeks there has been a history of projectile bilious vomiting associated with a
bout of colic. On examination, the patient is pale and dehydrated, and the abdomen has central
fullness with visible bowel loops. The bowel sounds are markedly diminished and there is no
clinically evident free fluid in the abdomen. An erect X-ray of the abdomen reveals the presence
of central abdominal air fluid levels.
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@ Ascariasis
@ Typhoid enteritis
@ Appendicitis
Q. 1A 17-year-old boy gives a history of high-grade fever with chills for the past 2 weeks, and
diarrhoea for the past 10 days. In the last 2 days the colour of the stools has become darker, and
on two occasions there was frank blood in the stools. He studies in a boarding school
and complains that several of his friends have been suffering from fever and diarrhoea in the
last few weeks. On examination, he is dehydrated and febrile. Abdominal examination reveals
the presence of a palpable spleen just below the costal margin. There is associated central
abdominal tenderness.
@ Typhoid enteritis
@ Ascariasis
@ Appendicitis
Q. 1A 13-year-old boy is brought to the hospital by his mother with complaints of failure to
thrive. The boy’s height is much less than that of his classmates. There is also a history of
episodes of colicky abdominal pain that are relieved on their own. On examination, the boy
is found to be pale and underweight for his age. The abdominal examination is normal. His
haemoglobin (Hb) is 10.2 g /dL and there are 10 per cent eosinophils in differential count.
@ Ascariasis
@ Typhoid enteritis
@ Appendicitis
Q. 1A 30-year-old man had an extensive retroperitoneal lymph node dissection for testicular
malignancy 2 days previously. The house surgeon, after having seen the patient in the ward, is
worried as the abdomen seems to be full, with no bowel sounds. Abdominal X-rays show the
presence of multiple air-fluid levels all over the length of the small bowel and the serum
electrolyte levels are within normal limits.
@ Paralytic ileus
@ Ascariasis
Q. 1A 45-year-old owner of a dog-breeding farm complains of a gradual abdominal distension
over the last 6 months that has become painful of late. He is otherwise healthy and has no bowel
complaints. Physical examination reveals firm distension of the abdomen which is somewhat
tender on palpation and dull on percussion. There is no other significant finding in the
abdominal examination. A blood count reveals a TLC of 8600 with a DLC showing eosinophils
constituting 12 per cent. An abdominal ultrasound (US) shows the presence of multiple
fluidfilled structures spread all over the abdominal viscera.
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@ Ascariasis
@ Paralytic ileus
Q. 1A 10-year-old boy is brought to the hospital by his mother with complaints of a sudden onset
of severe colicky abdominal pain associated with several episodes of vomiting. There is a history
of failure to thrive and also of the passage of worms per rectum in the past. On examination, the
boy is found to be pale and underweight for his age. The abdomen is distended with palpable
bowel loops. The bowel sounds are exaggerated. His Hb is 10.2 g/dL and there are
12 per cent eosinophils in differential count.
@ Ascariasis
@ Paralytic ileus
Q. 1In difficult situations, which of the following statements are true?
@ In patients who cannot give consent because of their illness, e.g. they are unconscious or
there is psychiatric illness, their legal guardian can give consent.
@ There is no need to explain to children the procedures for which consent has already been
given by their parent/guardian.
@ Children can unconditionally refuse treatment.
@ Therapy can proceed after consent from a carrier in an unconscious patient irrespective of
any previous wishes of the patient.
@ all of them is right
Q. 1In matters of life and death, which of the following are true statements?
@ Decision to withhold treatment should be taken along with another senior clinician
and recorded in detail.
@ The surgeon is always obliged to provide life-sustaining treatment.
@ Confidentiality is absolute.
@ all of them is right
@ all of them is wrong
Q. 1Which of the following statements is false?
@ Conventional X-rays will delineate different soft tissues reliably.
@ Conventional X-rays can be manipulated.
@ Dedicated transducers can help in endocavitary ultrasound (US).
@ Change in the frequency of an US wave can be caused by red blood cells.
@ The higher the frequency of the US wave, the greater the resolution of the image.
Q. 1In trauma imaging, which of the following statements are false?
@ In a multiply injured patient, CT of head and spine should be the first line of
imaging.
@ Focused assessment with sonographyfor trauma (FAST ) helps in detecting intraperitoneal
fluid and cardiac tamponade.
@ CT should not be used when a patient is unstable.
@ US is useful for diagnosing occult pneumothorax.
@ CT is the main imaging method for intracranial, intra-abdominal and vertebral injuries.
Q. 1Which of the following statements are false with regard to imaging of the
acute abdomen?
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@ Plain X-ray of KUB ( kidney, ureter, bladder) is the best imaging for suspected ureteric colic.
@ US is a good first-line investigation.
@ CT is the best investigation for acute diverticulitis.
@ US and CT can diagnose the cause and site of bowel obstruction.
@ Plain X-ray is the first-line investigation for suspected perforation or obstruction.
elbows flexed.
and up the arm.
@ All of the above
Q. 1Which of the following groups constitute ‘high-risk’ patients? Exclude the wrong answer
@ Ethnic minority
@ Elderly
@ Emergency surgery
the wrong answer
@ Advanced age
@ Pain
@ Lack of early intervention as
complications develop
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Q. 2Which of the following statements are
false?
@ In arterial suturing, double-ended needle sutures are used.
anastomosis.
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administration.
day?
@ Atelectasis
@ Chest infection
@ Pneumothorax.
Q. 2Which of the following statements are false with regard to deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
Q. 1The ward is very busy and quite a few staff have phoned in sick. There are two patients
(with the same surnames) needing blood transfusions. The staff nurse points to the blood units on
the table and asks the HCA to start them as she is just going off for her break. The blood
transfusion is started. Within a few minutes the patient is unwell and his urine is haemorrhagic.
He collapses and becomes anuric. He is also found to be jaundiced.
@ Fluid overload
@ Hypocalcaemia
@ Infection
Q. 1Second-generation cephalosporin (or gentamicin) and metronidazole
@ Colorectal
@ Vascular
@ Orthopaedic
@ Biliary
@ All of the above
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Q. 1Broad-spectrum cephalosporin (with anti-staphylococcal action) or gentamicin beads

@ Orthopaedic
@ Vascular
@ Biliary
@ Colorectal
@ none of the above
Q. 1Flucloxacillin with or without gentamicin, vancomycin or rifampicin, if MRSA is a risk
@ Vascular
@ Orthopaedic
@ Biliary
@ Colorectal
@ all of the above
Q. Second-generation cephalosporin.
@ Biliary
@ Vascular
@ Orthopaedic
@ Colorectal
@ none of the above
Q. 1Lactose-fermenting Gram-negative bacillus, which is the most common cause of UTI.
@ E. coli
@ Streptococcus
@ Staphylococcus
@ Clostridium
@ Proteus
Q. 1Gram-negative bacillus, which tends to colonise burns and tracheostomy wounds. These can
also case UTI. Hospital strains can acquire resistance transferred through plasmids.
@ Pseudomonas
@ Clostridium
@ E. coli
@ Proteus
@ Bacteroides
Q. 1Non-spore-bearing anaerobes that colonise the colon, vagina and oropharynx.
@ Bacteroides.
@ Clostridium
@ E. coli
@ Proteus
@ Pseudomonas
Q. 1Gram-positive cocci which form chains; causes cellulitis and spreading tissue destruction by
release of enzymes.
@ Streptococcus
@ Staphylococcus
@ Clostridium
@ E. coli
@ Proteus
Q. 1Non-lactose-fermenting Gram-negative bacillus which is a normal resident of the colon and
is a cause of intra-abdominal infection after bowel surgery.
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@ Proteus
@ Streptococcus
@ Staphylococcus
@ Clostridium
@ E. coli
Q. 1Gram-positive, obligate anaerobes which produce spores; causes serious infections such as
gas gangrene, tetanus and pseudomembranous colitis.
@ Clostridium
@ Streptococcus
@ Staphylococcus
@ E. coli
@ Proteus
Q. 1Gram-positive aerobic coccus, which forms grape-like clumps; causes wound and prosthesis
infection. Resistant strains (MRSA) can cause epidemics.
@ Staphylococcus
@ Clostridium
@ Streptococcus
@ E. coli
@ Proteus
Q. 1A 78-year-old nursing home resident who has finished a course of antibiotics recently
presents with severe diarrhoea for the past 3 days. On examination, he is very unwell and in
shock. Abdominal examination reveals generalised distension and tenderness.
@ Gas gangrene
@ Tetanus
Q. A 16-year-old boy who had an appendicectomy for a gangrenous appendix 1 week ago
presents with diarrhoea, fever and lower abdominal pain.
@ Pelvic abscess
@ Tetanus
Q. An 80-year-old male presents with a week-long history of left iliac fossa (LIF) pain. This has
increased significantly over the last couple of days and is associated with fever and
urinaryirritation. On examination he is very unwell and has signs of peritonitis over the LIF with
a vaguely palpable tender mass.
@ Tetanus
@ Pelvic abscess
Q. 1A young soldier injured in combat develops severe pain over his leg wound. Examination
reveals thin, brown, sweet-smelling exudate with oedema and crepitus.
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@ Gas gangrene
@ Tetanus
Q. An immunocompromised patient develops rapidly spreading infection of the abdominal wall
after a laparotomy for peritonitis. He complains of severe pain. Examination reveals extensive
cellulitis with crepitus. Culture swab reveals mixed aerobic and anaerobic
growth.
@ Gas gangrene
@ Tetanus
Q. 1A 45-year-old male who sustained minor injury 3 weeks ago while gardening presents with
difficulty in swallowing and jaw movements followed by generalised motor spasms. He is
finding it difficult to breathe. On examination you find opisthotonus and respiratory failure.
@ Tetanus
@ Gas gangrene
Q. 1A 30-year-old female underwent an appendicectomy for an inflamed appendix 4 days ago.
The wound appears red with some seropurulent discharge at one end. She has been febrile
over the past couple of days.
@ Tetanus
@ Gas gangrene
@ 1Pseudomembranous colitis
Q. Drainage of an abscess
@ Dirty
@ Clean
@ Contaminated
@ all of the above
Q. No viscus opened
@ Clean
@ Contaminated
@ Dirty
@ all of the above
Q. Gastric and biliary surgery
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@ Clean
@ Contaminated
@ Dirty
@ all of the above
@ Clean
@ Contaminated
@ Dirty
@ all of the above
Q. Open viscus surgery or gross spillage or inflammatory bowel disease
@ Contaminated
@ Clean
@ Dirty
@ all of the above
@ Contaminated
@ Clean
@ Dirty
@ all of the above
Q. Wound infection rate < 40 per cent
@ Dirty
@ Clean
@ Contaminated
@ all of the above
Q. Wound infection rate < 10 per cent.
@ Clean
@ Dirty
@ Contaminated
@ all of the above
Q. 1A 35-year-old male patient resident of southern India presents with complaints of episodic
severe upper abdominal pain radiating to the back for the last 5 months. He has also
noticedincreased thirst with polyuria and passage of bulky pale stools. He consumes tapioca as a
staple diet. On examination, the abdomen is unremarkable with no palpable abnormality. His
fasting blood sugar level is 180 mg/dL and plain X-ray of the abdomen shows linear calcification
in the upper abdomen extending across the spine.
@ Amoebiasis
@ Typhoid fever
@ Lobar pneumonia
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Q. 1A 45-year-old male patient presents with anorexia, gradually increasing pain in the upper
abdomen associated with high-grade fever with night sweats and general malaise for the last 5
days. The pain has been constant and mainly in the right upper abdomen since the previous
day and is aggravated with movement and coughing. He gives a history of having suffered from
bloody diarrhoea about 3–4 weeks previously. On examination there is tender hepatomegaly
5 cm below the costal margin in the right midclavicular line, and there is intercostal tenderness
in the right 5th, 6th and 7th spaces. The liver span is increased to 20 cm on percussion.
@ Amoebiasis
@ Typhoid fever
@ Lobar pneumonia
Q. A 50-year-old male with a history of heavy smoking complains of feeling unwell for a week.
He reports cough productive of yellow-coloured sputum, shortness of breath, pain over the left
upper abdomen and high-grade fever. The examination reveals a respiratory rate of 18/min, with
the presence of bronchial breathing over the left lower zone and a crunching sound with each
respiration. The abdomen is normal on examination.
@ Lobar pneumonia
@ Amoebiasis
@ Typhoid fever
Q. Five days after an esophogectomy for cancer, a 65 year old man develops fever as well as
edema, erythema, and tenderness over the right cheek. Which of the following is TRUE?
@ it is associated with decreased saliva formation
@ it is usually due to streptococcal infection
@ massage of the area is beneficial
@ it can be prevented with antibiotics
@ all of the above
Q. All the following are known complications of heparin administration, EXCEPT?
@ cholestatic hepatic injury
@ skin necrosis
@ arterial thrombosis
@ osteoporosis
@ none of the above
Q. Bacterial factors may aid the development of surgical site infections. Which of the following
statements is NOT correct?
@ Staphylococcus epidermidis contaminating a clean surgical incision will usually result in
infection
@ A thick polysaccride capsule around certain bacteria inhibits phagocytosis.
@ Surface components on gram-negative bacteria (endotoxin) can have a toxic effect on
Neutrophils
@ The ability of a microbe to secrete exotoxins may greatly facilitate infection.
@ all of the above
Q. A 30 year old man is involved in a motor vehicle accident. He requires emergency
splenectomy and open reduction and internal fixation of a left femur fracture. On post-operative
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day two in the Intensive Care Unit, he develops a decreasing level of consciousness (GCS 14)
and severe hypoxemia, necessitating intubation and mechanical ventilation. He was noted to
have petechiae on his chest. The cause of his respiratory failure is likely?:
@ fat embolism syndrome
@ aspiration
@ adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
@ all of the above
@ nosocomial pneumonia
Q. A 29 year old unbelted male driver crashes head first into a bridge while driving under the
influence of alcohol. He is hemodynamically stable and a complete body CT scan reveals the
following injuries; a 2 cm thick subdural hematoma, an aortic aneurysm at the take off of the left
subclavian artery, a ruptured spleen with active extravacation of blood, an open left fracture of
the tibia and fibula. This patient should undergo immediate?
@ laparotomy and splenectomy
@ craniotomy
@ thoracotomy and repair aneurysm
@ open reduction and internal fixation of left open fracture of the tibia and fibula
@ all of the above
Q. The most important prognostic factor in patients with advanced cancer is?
@ Karnofsky score
@ progression of disease during chemotherapy
@ metastatic spread
@ clinical judgement
@ all of the above
Q. Most bacterial abscesses require treatment with drainage and antibiotics however, all of the
following abscesses can be treated with antibiotics alone, EXCEPT?
@ empyema of the gallbladder
@ lung abscess
@ amebic liver abscess
@ tubo ovarian abscess
@ all of the above
Q. 1Which type of Asepsis eliminates all microorganisms?
@ Surgical Asepsis
@ Medical Asepsis
@ All asepsis
@ None of the Above
@ all of the Above
Q. 1Which method of Asepsis allows lotion to be applied?
@ Medical Asepsis
@ Surgical Asepsis
@ None of the Above
Q. 1Which method of asepsis requires hands to be held downwards while rinsing?
@ Medical Asepsis
@ Surgical Asepsis
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@ None of the Above
Q. 1The chain of infection requires a means of transmission. Which of the following is NOT a
@ Sneezing
@ Air
@ Contaminated food
@ Dirty hands
@ Dirty arms
Q. 1The primary reason for aseptic procedures is to
@ Protect patients
@ None of the above
@ All of the above
Q. 1Which of the following statements about homeostasis are false?
morbid conditions.
@ Surgical Asepsis
@ Medical Asepsis
@ All asepsis
@ None of the Above
@ all of the Above
@ Medical Asepsis
@ Surgical Asepsis
@ None of the Above
@ Medical Asepsis
@ Surgical Asepsis
@ None of the Above
@ Sneezing
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@ Air
@ Contaminated food
@ Dirty hands
@ Dirty arms
@ Protect patients
@ None of the above
@ All of the above
morbid conditions.
Q. 1In stress response, which of the following statements are false?
@ The changes cannot be modified.
@ It is graded.
@ Metabolism and nitrogen excretion are related to the degree of stress.
@ In such a situation there are physiological, metabolic and immunological changes.
@ The mediators to the integrated response are initiated by the pituitary.
Q. 1Which of the following statements are true?
@ Cells change from aerobic to anaerobic metabolism when perfusion to tissues is reduced.
@ The product of aerobic respiration is lactic acid.
@ The product of anaerobic respiration is carbon dioxide.
@ The accumulation of lactic acid in the blood produces systemic respiratory acidosis.
@ all of the above
Q. 1Which of the following statements regarding hypovolaemic shock are true?
@ The vascular resistance is high.
@ It is associated with high cardiac output.
@ The venous pressure is high.
@ The mixed venous saturation is high.
@ The base deficit is low.
Q. 1Which of the following statements aboutischaemia-reperfusion syndrome is correct?
@ It is seen after the normal circulation is restored to the tissues following an episode of
hypoperfusion.
@ This refers to the cellular injury because of the direct effects of tissue hypoxia.
@ The increased sodium load can lead to myocardial depression.
@ It usually does not cause death.
@ all of the above
Q. 1In which of the following cases might tachycardia accompany shock?
@ Hypovolaemia due to gastrointestinal (GI) bleeds
@ Patients on beta-blockers
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@ Patients with implanted pacemakers

@ Fit young adults with normal pulse rate of 50/min
@ Cardiogenic shock.
Q. 2What is the most frequent complaint made by patients in whom suxamethonium
@ Diplopia
Q. 2Lidocaine can be injected intravenously, but what is the main reason why bupivacaine
should not be injected into a vein during local anaesthesia?
@ It lasts longer.
Q. 2What is the extra risk involved when a Bier’s block is used for lower-limb surgery?
Q. 2Patients vary greatly in their requirement for postoperative analgesia. What is the best way
to assess adequacy of pain relief?
Q. 2Which of the following is associated with too much analgesia?
@ Hypocarbia
@ Agitation
Q. 1Which of the following statements with regard to diathermy are false?
@ Shave the patient’s hair over the site for the diathermy plate the day before the operation.
Q. 2Which of the following statements regarding use of a tourniquet are false?
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Q. 2In a transfer and patient set-up on the operating table, which of the following
statements are true?
@ All of the above
@ Although the operating table is padded, make sure that pressure areas have additional
padding.
@ Limbs not involved in surgery should be especially protected to prevent nerve
damage.
elbows flexed.
and up the arm.
@ All of the above
Q. 2Which of the following groups constitute ‘high-risk’ patients? Exclude the wrong answer
@ Ethnic minority
@ Elderly
@ Emergency surgery
the wrong answer
@ Advanced age
@ Pain
@ Lack of early intervention as complications develop
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@ In arterial suturing, double-ended needlesutures are used.
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anastomosis.
administration.
day?
@ Atelectasis
@ Chest infection
@ Pneumothorax.
@ Surgical Asepsis
@ Medical Asepsis
@ All asepsis
@ None of the Above
@ all of the Above
@ Medical Asepsis
@ Surgical Asepsis
@ None of the Above
@ Medical Asepsis
@ Surgical Asepsis
@ None of the Above
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@ Sneezing
@ Air
@ Contaminated food
@ Dirty hands
@ Dirty arms
@ Protect patients
@ None of the above
@ All of the above
morbid conditions.
Q. 4 degrees of shock corresponds to blood pressure:
@ below 50mm Hg
@ 100/70
@ 90/60
@ 80/40
@ 120/80
Q. The main difference between shock and collapse:
@ consciousness is preserved
@ reduced A/D
@ reduced reflexes
@ pallor of the skin
@ bradycardia
Q. Operational shock manifests itself:
@ in a sharp drop in A/D
@ in the elongation of the torpid phase
@ loss of consciousness
@ in erectile phase removal
@ in reducing reflexes
Q. ....the shock is more severe depending on the cause that caused it.
@ Burn
@ Generic
@ Operational
<@ Cardiogenic
@ Traumatic
Q. The collapse is characterized by:
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@ changes from the cardiovascular system

@ respiratory changes
@ changes in the activity of the central nervous system.
@ changes in the liver and kidneys
@ change from the endocrine system
Q. The leading sign of the torpid phase of shock is
@ severe CNS depression
@ normal blood pressure
@ increase in blood pressure
@ increasing the CVD
@ psychomotor agitation
Q. For the syndrome of prolonged compression of the limbs is not characteristic, a sign:
@ mechanical asphyxia
@ injury of nerve trunks
@ ischemia of a limb or its segment
@ venous congestion
@ intravascular coagulation of blood
Q. The main factors determining the severity of toxicosis in patients with prolonged compression
syndrome:
@ myoglobinemia and myoglobinuria
@ swelling of the injured limb
@ hyperkalemia and hyponatremia
@ hypercreatinemia and hyperphosphatemia
@ excess histamine and adenylic acid in the blood
Q. It is uncharacteristic for the syndrome of prolonged compression of tissues:
@ traumatic asphyxia
@ local rigor mortis
@ myorenal syndrome
@ crash syndrome
@ tissue necrosis
Q. Pathoanatomic changes in the syndrome of prolonged compression do not include:
@ necrosis of compressed muscles
@ multiple microinfarctions of the heart, lungs
@ necrosis of the convoluted tubules of the kidneys
@ fatty degeneration of the liver with necrosis
@ blockages of the convoluted tubules of the kidneys with myoglobin
Q. For the II period of the syndrome of prolonged compression of tissues , it is characteristic:
@ acute renal failure
@ local changes and endogenous intoxication
@ local infectious complications
@ normalization of kidney function
@ septic shock
Q. For the first period of the syndrome of prolonged compression of tissues is not characteristic:
@ hemodilution
@ hemoconcentration
@ creatinemia
64стр. из 60
@ uremia
@ proteinemia
Q. In determining the severity of clinical manifestations of prolonged compression syndrome ,
the least important is:
@ the presence of beriberi
@ degree of compression
@ compression area
@ compression duration
@ the presence of concomitant damage to internal organs
Q. First aid for prolonged compression syndrome does not include:
@ hemodialysis
@ immobilization of the injured limb
@ bandaging of a damaged limb
@ prescription of painkillers
@ prescription of sedatives
Q. When the liver ruptures , they are sutured:
@ catgut
@ silk
@ nylon
@ lavsan
@ with metal brackets
Q. Rupture of a hollow organ with a closed abdominal injury is not accompanied by:
@ inflammation of the vermiform process
@ stupidity in the sloping places of the abdomen
@ the presence of an intestinal hematoma between
@ development of peritonitis
@ the presence of free gas under the dome of the diaphragm
Q. The most effective instrumental way to diagnose closed abdominal injuries:
@ laparoscopy
@ Ultrasound examination of abdominal organs
@ esophagogastroduodenoscopy
@ thermography
@ radiography
Q. Immediate hazards arising at the time of damage to the hollow organ or for the first time
hours after it:
@ shock
@ pleurisy
@ intestinal obstruction
@ sepsis
@ tetanus
Q. The immediate dangers that are identified in the post-abdominal injury:
@ peritonitis
@ dehydration of the body
@ intestinal obstruction
@ adhesive disease
@ shock
65стр. из 60
Q. Combined injuries are characterized by :

@ the fracture is accompanied by damage to internal organs and the influence of another factor
(pelvic fracture, intestinal rupture and frostbite)
@ multiple bone fractures
@ the fracture is accompanied by damage to the articular capsule
@ the fracture is accompanied by vascular damage
@ the fracture is accompanied by damage to internal organs
Q. A sign of liver damage:
@ peritoneal irritation
@ bloody vomiting
@ hemoptysis
@ excessive salivation
@ bloating
Q. Methods of treatment for hepatic bleeding:
@ operational
@ cold applications
@ heat application
@ sedatives
@ conservative treatment
Q. In case of soft tissue injury, it is not recommended:
@ applying heat
@ anesthesia
@ elevated position
@ applying cold
@ tight bandage
Q. Uncharacteristic period of burn disease:
@ chronic burn toxemia
@ acute burn toxemia
<@ burn shock
@ burn septicemia
@ reconvalescence
Q. With burns of the 2nd degree, recovery occurs in ... days.
@ 6-10
@ 3-5
@ 9-12
@ 14-16
@ 3-4
Q. Burn shock is characterized by:
@ prolonged erectile phase
@ short erectile phase
@ lethargy, drowsiness, sometimes loss of consciousness
@ high temperature up to 400, chills
@ torpid phase is short or absent
Q. An uncharacteristic complication for severe and extensive burns:
@ hypertensive crisis
@ bleeding from mucous membranes
66стр. из 60
@ formation of ulcers on the gastric and intestinal mucosa

@ toxic intestinal paresis
@ hepatic-renal insufficiency
Q. The cause of death in burns is more often a complication:
@ shock
@ toxemia
@ bleeding
@ infection
@ embolism
Q. The damaging effect of penetrating radiation does not depend on:
@ thickness of skin and subcutaneous tissue
@ radiation doses
@ type of irradiation
@ irradiation time
@ body conditions (reactivity, individual sensitivity)
Q. The result of constant exposure to low doses of radiation can be:
@ chronic dermatitis and ulcers with subsequent cancerous degeneration
@ capillarotoxicosis, leukemia, anemia, werlhof's disease
@ osteomalacia
@ destruction of the spinal cord with the development of paresis, paralysis
@ bone destruction
Q. To the patient during the latent period of radiation sickness... not assigned.
@ substitution blood transfusion
@ vitamins g. B
@ glucose with ascorbic acid
@ diphenhydramine
@ calcium chloride
Q. Radiation sickness , depending on the severity of clinical manifestations , is usually divided
into:
@ primary reaction, latent period, period of necrotic changes
@ acute, subacute and chronic
@ acute, chronic progressive, chronic recurrent
@ lightning-fast, acute, chronic
@ acute and chronic
Q. When burned with dry lime , it is observed:
@ colliquation necrosis
@ hyperemia of the skin
@ hemorrhage
@ coagulation necrosis
@ bubble formation
Q. During the period of burn toxemia in the blood , it is noted:
@ increased hemoglobin, erythrocytes, leukocytosis
@ anemia leukocytosis
@ increased hemoglobin, red blood cells, leukopenia
@ anemia leukopenia
@ normal values of hemoglobin, erythrocytes, leukocytes
67стр. из 60
Q. With a burn ... the treatment method is not used.

@ ray
@ open
<@ mixed
@ closed
@ plastic
Q. The area of an adult 's palm from the surface of the body is:
@ 1-1,1%
@ 0,5-0,6%
@ 2-2,1%
@ 3-3,1%
@ 9-9,1%
Q. At the first degree of frostbite , it is carried out:
@ rubbing the skin with alcohol and warming
@ skin plastic surgery
@ opening and removing bubbles
@ amputation of limbs
@ necrotomy
Q. At the II degree of frostbite is carried out:
@ warming, opening bubbles, dressing with ointment
@ amputation of limbs
@ necrotomy
@ cold wiping
@ skin plastic surgery
Q. At the III degree of frostbite is carried out:
@ necrectomy followed by skin grafting
@ rubbing the skin with alcohol
@ warming up
@ applying a compress with Vishnevsky ointment
@ bubble opening
Q. At the IV degree of frostbite is carried out:
@ necrectomy or amputation
@ applying a compress with Vishnevsky ointment
@ warming up
@ rubbing the skin with alcohol
@ bubble opening
Q. To frostbite of the second degree is characteristic:
@ appearance of bubbles
@ necrosis of underlying tissues
@ signs of inflammation
@ swelling and redness of the skin
@ loss of sensitivity
Q. The fabric with the greatest resistance to electric burns:
@ dry skin
@ muscle
@ tendons
68стр. из 60
@ bone
@ vessel
Q. Electric burn, develops under the action of an electric current under a voltage
above ... Watt
@ 24
@ 100
@ 150
@ 50
@ 40
Q. First aid for electric trauma:
@ release the patient from the current
@ artificial lung ventilation
@ closed heart massage
@ warm drink
@ analgesic introduction
Q. The term of appointment of the patient for elective surgery after acute respiratory illness in ...
.
@ month
@ week
@ day
@ 2 months
@ 6 months
Q. Bloodless operation:
@ dislocation reduction
@ pleural puncture
@ biopsy
@ gastric resection
@ tooth extraction
Q. An emergency operation is performed when ... .
@ perforated ulcer
@ moderate bleeding from a stomach ulcer
@ turning an ulcer into cancer
@ varicose veins
@ of chronic cholelithiasis
Q. At ... long-term preoperative preparation is required.
@ kidney transplantation
@ perforated ulcer
@ turning an ulcer into cancer
@ ulcer penetrations
@ moderate bleeding from a stomach ulcer
Q. Complications more common after severe abdominal surgery:
@ intestinal paresis
@ intestinal and stomach paralysis
@ vomiting
@ acute urinary retention
@ intestinal eventration
69стр. из 60
Q. The general preparation for surgery for all patients includes:

@ psychological training
@ gastric lavage
@ performing an enema
@ prevention of vitamin deficiency
@ blood transfusion
Q. Preparation of the operating field during a planned operation is carried out:
@ in the morning before surgery or in the evening
@ the day before
@ upon admission to the emergency room
@ in the preoperative
@ 24 hours before surgery
Q. A disease requiring emergency surgery:
@ perforated stomach ulcer
@ stomach cancer
@ acute gastritis
@ malignant lung tumor
@ varicose veins
Q. A disease that is an absolute contraindication to surgery:
@ inflammatory infiltrate in the shoulder area
@ phlegmon of the anterior surface of the thigh
@ gangrene of the foot
@ sigmoid colon cancer
@ echinococcosis of the liver
Q. The main symptom of acute appendicitis:
@ pain
@ increase in body temperature
@ chair delay
@ the language is overlaid with plaque
@ nausea and vomiting
Q. The main causes of the formation of trophic ulcers of the lower extremities:
@ violation of nervous regulation /trophic/ and vascular tone
@ aneurysm rupture
@ violation of lipid metabolism
@ violation of water-electrolyte metabolism
@ vitamin deficiency
Q. In the conservative treatment of varicose ulcers , it is contraindicated:
@ metered walking with daily path lengthening
@ bed rest with an elevated limb
@ thorough toilet of the skin around the ulcer
@ ensuring the outflow of the discharge from the ulcer
@ physical therapy
Q. Treatment of anthrax happens:
@ conservative only
@ operational only
@ in case of ineffectiveness of conservative therapy-surgery
70стр. из 60
@ early radical surgery

@ minimally traumatic operation-excision of the ulcer
Q. Anthrax is characterized by:
@ scanty bloody discharge
@ copious purulent hemorrhagic discharge
@ periodically bleeding from ulcers
@ constant purulent discharge from the ulcer
@ slight discharge of fetid pus
Q. The causes of embolism of the main vessels are:
@ atherosclerotic cardiomyopathy
@ urolithiasis
@ hypertensive syndrome
@ acute cholecystitis
@ congenital heart defects
Q. Acute arterial thrombosis develops when:
@ atherosclerosis
@ hypothermia of the body
@ burn disease
<@ sharp deterioration of regional blood flow
@ cholecystitis
Q. The main cause of lymphatic circulation disorders:
@ lymphatic vessel abnormalities and compression
<@ arterial and venous thrombosis
@ infection
@ vitamin deficiency
@ age-related vascular changes
Q. Using laparoscopy, it is impossible to determine:
@ type of tumor: benign or malignant
@ abdominal organ damage
@ tumor volume
<@ conclusion of the biopsy
@ the photo of the tumor
Q. Precancerous diseases of the gastrointestinal tract do not include :
@ hemorrhoids
@ chronic anacid gastritis
@ chronic callous ulcer
@ stomach polyp
@ colon polyp
Q. The main complaints of a patient with a malignant neoplasm are not:
@ progressive intermittent lameness
@ rapid fatigue
@ loss of appetite, weight loss
@ nausea in the morning
@ apathy
Q. The consequence of radiation therapy does not lead to:
@ formation of metastases in distant organs
71стр. из 60
@ weaknesses
@ nausea, vomiting
@ sleep disturbance
@ leukopenia
Q. For surgical treatment with a benign tumor, the absolute indication is not:
@ long-term existence of the tumor
@ compression of a neighboring organ
@ permanent injury to the tumor by clothing
@ accelerated tumor growth
@ suspicion of malignant degeneration
Q. For radiation therapy, it is necessary:
@ high sensitivity of tumor cells
@ low sensitivity of tumor cells
@ the presence of necrotic ulcers in the irradiation zone
<@ the appearance of symptoms of radiation sickness
@ the possibility of surgical cure
Q. Cancer develops from:
@ of glandular or integumentary epithelium
@ immature connective tissue
@ of blood vessels
@ of lymph nodes
@ smooth or striated musculature
Q. Electrocardiography - examination method:
@ functional
@ core-magnetic resonance
@ laboratory
@ clinical
@ ultrasonic
Q. Gastric ulcer can be accurately determined by:
@ endoscopy
@ palpation
@ anamnesis collection
@ of ultrasound examination
@ computed tomography
Q. Instrumental research method:
@ computed tomography
@ microbiological research
@ cytological and histological studies
@ blood test
@ urine test
Q. The method used to sterilize soft surgical material: (sheets, balls, tampons, napkins)
@ pressure autoclaving
@ boiling
@ liquid steam autoclaving
<@ dry-burning cabinet
@ cold sterilization
72стр. из 60
Q. Rubber gloves sterilize:

@ in autoclave
@ by ultraviolet rays
@ in formalin solution
@ in a dry-burning chamber
@ in alcohol
Q. Formalin vapors are sterilized:
@ cystoscopes
@ rubber gloves
@ robes
@ surgeon's hands
@ syringes
Q. Syringes are sterilized in:
@ dry-burning cabinet
@ sulema solution
<@ Lugol's solution
@ alcohol
@ formalin
Q. With a solution of chlorhexidine-bigluconate, wash your hands for ... minutes.
@ 3
@ 1
@ 10
@ 8
@ 5
Q. Asepsis is ... .
@ prevention of infection on the wound or in the body
@ destruction of the trapped infection in the wound
@ reduce the amount of infection in the wound
@ limit the amount of infection in the wound
@ removal of foreign bodies and excision of necrotic tissue
Q. The strict mode of the operating unit includes:
@ preoperative, washing, anesthesia
@ washing, sterilization, anesthesia
@ preoperative, corridor, hardware
@ sterilization, operating room
@ preoperative, sterilization, hardware
Q. The alcohol solution stored in a glass container of silk threads is changed once per:
@ 10 days
@ 3 days
@ 5 days
@ 15 days
@ 20 days
Q. In the hospital, reliably and quickly sterilizes surgical instruments in:
@ dry-burning cabinet
@ high-pressure autoclave
@ autoclave under liquid steam
73стр. из 60
@ germicidal lamps
@ radiation exposure
Q. ... it has a pronounced effect in anaerobic infection, with its topical application.
@ Hydrogen peroxide
@ Methylene blue
@ Sulema
@ Iodine
@ Streptocide
Q. The normal autoflora of the skin is considered to be the growth of ... colonies on the plate
@ 5-20
@ 1-2
@ 3-4
@ 30-50
@ 80-100
Q. Proteolytic enzymes, belong to the means of ... antiseptics.
@ biological
@ chemical
@ physical
@ mechanical
@ mixed
Q. For the purpose of ... specific serums, anatoxins are used.
@ passive and active immunization of the body
@ sterilization of the dressing material
@ detoxification of the body
@ destruction of bacteria in the wound
@ detoxification
Q. Capillary bleeding is characterized by:
@ the whole tissue is bleeding
@ blood flows out pulsating
@ dark-colored blood
@ blood flows out under pressure
@ scarlet blood
Q. The cause is more often causing secondary late bleeding:
@ infectious
@ chemical
@ physical
@ mechanical
@ hemodynamic
Q. Minimal blood loss, which is fatal... .
@ 2000
@ 1000
@ 1500
@ 500
@ 3000
Q. The danger of hemorrhage in the pericardium:
@ cardiac tamponade
74стр. из 60
@ hemoglobin drop
@ heart failure
@ heart attack
@ pulmonary insufficiency
Q. An ineffective method of temporarily stopping venous bleeding from the veins of the lower
extremities:
@ create an elevated limb position
@ finger pressure of the vessel
@ maximum flexion of the limb in the joint
@ apply a tourniquet
@ apply clamp
Q. ... a hemostatic swab is removed from the wound.
@ In a day
@ In two days
@ In three days
@ On the fifth day
@ On the tenth day
Q. Foamy blood is observed at ... bleeding.
@ pulmonary
@ esophageal
@ gastric
@ nasal
@ intestinal
Q. A sign that is not characteristic of acute blood loss:
@ hyperthermia
@ pallor of the skin
@ tachycardia
@ vertigo
@ lowering A/D
Q. At ... there is a discharge of scarlet blood from the rectum.
@ hemorrhoids
@ bleeding from dilated esophageal veins
@ bleeding from a stomach ulcer
@ pulmonary hemorrhage
@ bleeding from a 12-duodenal ulcer
Q. Vomiting with scarlet foamy blood is characteristic:
@ for pulmonary bleeding
@ bleeding from the esophagus
@ bleeding from stomach ulcers
@ bleeding from a 12-duodenal ulcer
@ for intestinal bleeding
Q. Stopping bleeding from the bottom of the oral cavity:
@ external carotid artery ligation
@ ligation of the common carotid artery
@ ligation of the facial artery
@ internal carotid artery ligation
75стр. из 60
@ ligation of a vessel in the oral cavity

Q. Physical method of final stopping of bleeding:
@ cold or warm
@ vessel dressing
@ vessel stitching
@ crushing the vessel
@ vascular suture
Q. Method of stopping nosebleeds:
@ tamponade
@ by finger pressure of the vessel
@ pressure bandage
@ by coagulation
@ by applying a clamp
Q. First of all, it should be taken if a patient with an open fracture and bleeding from a damaged
major artery:
@ applying a tourniquet
@ introduction of cardiac and vasoconstrictors
@ introduction of painkillers
@ limb immobilization
@ applying a bandage to the wound
Q. Bleeding is an outpouring of blood ... .
@ in tissues, cavities, in the external environment
@ to the external environment
@ in the body cavity
@ in the body tissue
@ into the external environment and body cavities
Q. The cause of bleeding is not:
@ inflammation
@ vascular injury, neurotrophic processes
@ damage to the vascular wall as a result of injury
@ violation of vascular wall permeability
@ sepsis

Surgery 5th SEM MCQs Ans

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Department of Surgery-1 044-44/ - ( )

Discipline code: OH3202

Since « ___ » ____________ 2023у.

Head of the department,

Q. Specify the antiseptic related to oxidizing agents?

Q. Specify the symptom of a closed bone fracture:

Q. Which wound is more likely to develop infection?

@ excise dead skin

Q. What prevents the development of pyogenic microbes?

Q. Which of the following diseases is most often complicated by purulent infection?

Q. What is called acute osteomyelitis?

@ purulent inflammation of the articular bag

Q. The causative agents of surgical sepsis do not include:

Q. One of the most important components of treatment for sepsis is:

Q. Specify the primary chronic form of hematogenous osteomyelitis:

Q. Blood for bacterial culture in sepsis must be taken:

Q. An abscess is a collection of pus:

Q. Which type of Asepsis eliminates all microorganisms?

Q. Which of the following statements are true?

assess adequacy of pain relief?

@ In preparing open wounds, aqueous solutions are used.

@ Arterial pressure monitoring

hypotension within the first 12–24 h? exclude the wrong answer

Q. Which of the following about blood transfusion are false?

@ Haemolytic transfusion reaction due to incompatibility

Q. The mutual disposition of the interlocutors helps.

@ the interlocutor is hostile

@ It is often used with adrenaline.

@ Prophylactic perioperative beta-blockade

@ The commonest cause of postoperative hypotension is bleeding or insufficient

@ Intravenous fluids; lumbar puncture

Q. 1The dimensions of the "living space" of a person are determined.

@ Subacute intestinal obstruction – Koch’s

@ Synthetic polymers are to be used for intestinal anastomosis.

Q. 1Broad-spectrum cephalosporin (with anti-staphylococcal action) or gentamicin beads

@ All asepsis methods

@ Patients with implanted pacemakers

Q. 3Which of the following statements are false?

@ changes from the cardiovascular system

Q. Combined injuries are characterized by :

@ formation of ulcers on the gastric and intestinal mucosa

Q. With a burn ... the treatment method is not used.

Q. The general preparation for surgery for all patients includes:

@ early radical surgery

Q. Rubber gloves sterilize:

@ ligation of a vessel in the oral cavity

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Since « _ » __________ 2023у.