Aum Sri Sai ram

Sri Sathya Sai University for Human Excellence

G.K (Questions)

1. How many educational institutions are run by our

institution?
a.29
b.38
c.27
d.30

2. Bharath Rashtra Nirman Vidyarthi Nidhi is executed by the

Prashanthi Bala Mandira Trust in partnership with?
a. Rastriya Seva Bharati
b. BAPS(Bochasanwasi Shri Akshar Purushottam
Swaminarayan Sanstha )
c. RSS(Rastriya Swayamsevak Sangh)
d. NMMS(National Means cum Merit Scholarship)

3. In which states of India our educational institutions are

situated?
a. Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Maharashtra
b. Telangana, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh
c. Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana
d. Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Telangana

4. On which Day India’s First Free Medical College(Sri

Madhusudan Sai Institute of Medical Sciences and Research)
was Inaugurated?
a.25 March 2023
b.26 March 2023
c.23 March 2023
d.28 March 2023

5. Which scholarship has been started by our institution?

a. Bharath Rashtra Nirman Vidyarthi Nidhi
b. Bharath Rashtra National Vidyarthi Nidhi
c. Bharath Rashtra Nirman Vidyalaya Nidhi
d. Bhartiya Rashtra Nirman Vidyarthi Nidhi

6. Which educational institutions are located abroad?

a. Singapore, Australia, Malaysia
b. Australia, Laos, Nigeria
c. Singapore, Nigeria, US
d. Laos, Australia, Singapore

7. Which maxim governs the very purpose of this medical

college?
a. Mrithyor Mukshiya Maamritat
b. For the Rural, of the Rural, and by the Rural
c. Sarvesanthu niramaya
d. To serve the unserved, to reach the unreached, and to do the
never done.

8. Which program is supporting medical education?

a. Each one Higher Educate one
b. Each one Medical Educate one
c. Each one Educate one
d. Each one Embrace one

9. On which year of Bhagavan Baba’s birthday, the scheme

‘Bharath Rashtra Nirman Vidyarthi Nidhi’ was launched?
a. November 23, 2020(94th)
b. November 23, 2022(96th)
c. November 23, 2021(95th)
d. November 23, 2023(97th)

10. What is the motto of Sri Sathya Sai University for Human
Excellence.
a. Satyameva Jayate
b. Aham brahma sarvam brahma
c. Aatmano mokshartham Jagath hitayacha
d. Yogaha karmasu kaushalam

11. In which state the new upcoming educational institution is

going to start?
a. Karnataka
b. Telangana
c. Tamil Nadu
d. Andhra Pradesh

12. How many Sanjeevani child heart care centres are there in
India?
a. 7
b. 6
c. 3
d. 5

13. In which year Sri Sathya Sai Aarogya Vahini Programme

Has Started?
a. 2021
b. 2020
c. 2017
d. 2015

14. How many centres for the global Healthcare Footprint

exist? (beyond the nation)
a)10
b)8
c)7
d)5

15. When was Sri Madhusudan Sai Institute of Medical

Sciences and Research inaugurated?

a. 1st March 2023

b. 21st March 2023
c. 25th March 2023
d. 25th March 2022

16. How many Departments are available in Sri Sathya Sai

Rajeswari Memorial Block?
a. 12
b. 6
c. 8
d. 7

17. How many Sathya Sai Health Care facilities are there in
the world?
a. 34
b. 40
c. 35
d. 29

18. The Name Annapoorna is derived from____

a. Hindi
b. Kannada
c. Sanskrit
d. Veda

19. When was Sri Sathya Sai Annapoorna launched?

a. November 2015
b. September 2014
c. January 2015
d. July 2012

20. In how many states Annapoorna has started?

a. 23 states
b. 28 states
c. 25 states
d. 22 states

21. What is the motto of Annapoorna?

a. Let no child go to school hungry ever
b. Let no child go to school hungry never
c. Let no child go hungry ever
d. Let no child go to school ever

22. Who is the director of Annapoorna Trust?

a. Mr. Narasimha Chari Sampath
b. Sri.B N Narasimha Murthy
c. Anand Kumar kadali
d. Mr. Sai Prasad Ivaturi
23. How Many Centres include the Annapoorna breakfast
Across India?
a.35,000+ centres
b.25,000 centres
c.30,000 centres
d.20,000+ centres

24. How many children are benefited by the Annapoorna

currently?
a.60 lakh
b.90 lacks across 55,000 schools
c.45 lakh
d.85 lakh

25. What are the 4’s for child welfare and Nutrition?
a. Vidya ,Vaidya, Vaari ,Vidyuth
b. Vahni, Vayu, Vaari, Vidyut
c. Vari, Vayu, Vahini, Varuna
d. Vayu, Varahi, Vaidya, Vidyut

26. What are the Sustainable goals followed by Annapoorna

Trust?
a.2-zero hungers and 5-gender equality
b.3-good health and well-being
c.17-partnership for the goals
d. All of the above

27. Which state has three capitals?

a. Odisha
b. Punjab
c. Jammu and Kashmir
d. Andhra Pradesh

28. Which capital is known as “Summer Capital”?

a. Jaipur
b. Bhopal
c. Srinagar
d. Kolkata

29. Which state is known as the "Land of Five Rivers" and

what is its capital?
a. Punjab
b. Chandigarh
c. Delhi
d. Mumbai

30. The famous sweet dish "Rosgulla" is associated with

which Indian state?
a. West Bengal
b. Odisha
c. Assam
d. Bihar

31. Masala Pav" is a spicy delicacy associated with which

state in India?
a. Maharashtra
b. Madhya Pradesh
c. Gujarat
d. Rajasthan

32. Which state is famous for pearls

a. Kerala
b. Telangana
c. Uttar Pradesh
d. Rajasthan

33. Which of the following is the capital of ‘God’s own

country ‘?
a. Nagpur
b. Mumbai
c. Thiruvananthapuram
d. Ranchi

34. Which capital is known as the ‘Tiger Capital of India’?

a. Bhopal
b. Ranchi
c. Nagpur
d. Gandhinagar

35. Shore temple is situated in which state of India?

a. Odisha
b. Tamil Nadu
c. Maharashtra
d. Kerala

36. Which Western Indian state is known for being the

birthplace of both Mahatma Gandhi and Sardar Patel, two key
figures in India's independence movement?

a. Maharashtra
b. Gujarat
c. Rajasthan
d. Goa

37. In which state of Northern India is the famous

"Dharamshala Cricket Stadium," one of the highest cricket
grounds in the world, situated?
a. Himachal Pradesh
b. Jharkhand
c. Uttarakhand
d. Punjab

38. Which union Territory is famous for its science beauty,

apple farms and its historical significance and political
complexities?

a. Daman and Diu

b. Lakshadweep
c. Delhi
d. Jammu and Kashmir

39. The union Territory which is situated over 3,000 meters

above the sea level?

a. Andaman and Nicobar

b. Ladakh

c. Chandigarh

d. Jammu and Kashmir

40. What is the capital city of the union territory famously

known for its French colonial heritage and stunning coastline?

a. Puducherry

b. Chandigarh

c. Delhi

d. Jammu and Kashmir

41. Name the smallest union territory of India consisting of

36 islands located in Arabian sea?

a. Daman and Diu

b. Lakshadweep

c. Delhi

d. Ladakh
42. Havelock Island is one of the most popular tourist
destinations in which union territory?

a. Delhi

b. Daman and Diu

c. Andaman and Nicobar

d. Ladakh

43. Gangeshwar temple located in which union territory?

a. Daman and Diu

b. Lakshadweep

c. Delhi

d. Ladakh

44. The country which is located in south east Asia?

a. Malaysia

b. Singapore

c. Netherlands

d. America

45. which country located in Europe continent?

a. Sweden
 b. Malaysia

c. Europe

d. Japan

46. Which ideology aims to ensure equal treatment of all

religions?

a. Socialism
b. federalism
c. Secularism
d. Nationalism

47. What is the key feature of secularism in the Indian

Constitution?

a. Promotion of a specific religion

b. Separation of religion from the state
c. Religious Separation by the state
d. Emphasis on a particular faith

48. Which political ideology reflects a commitment to

achieving social and economic equality in India?

a. Nationalism
b. Liberalism
c. Socialism
d. Federalism

49. What role does democracy play in India's political system?

 a. Advocacy for regional autonomy
b. Preservation of cultural identity
c. Emphasis on environmental conservation
d. Underpinning the political system with regular elections

50. In the Indian political landscape, what does federalism

involve?

a. A centralized government structures

b. Powers distributed between the central government and
states
c. Cultural and political dominance of Hinduism
d. Advocacy for regional autonomy

51. What does Hindutva, or Hindu nationalism, emphasize in

Indian politics?

a. Social and economic equality

b. Preservation of unity and integrity
c. Individual freedoms and human rights
d. Regional autonomy and representation

52. Which ideology allows for regional autonomy

representation in decision making process

a. Nationalism
b. Environmentalism
c. Federalism
d. Socialism

53. Which ideology emphasizes on cultural identity of India

as a Hindu-majority nation
a. Hindutva
b. Regionalism
c. Communalism
d. Federalism

54. Which ideology emphasizes class struggle, social justice,

and the welfare of the working class.

a. Communism
b. Secularism
c. Federalism
d. Environmentalism

55. What is communalism in the context of India?

a. Economic inequality
b. Religious-based identity politics
c. Linguistic diversity
d. Caste discrimination

56. Which community is associated with Hindu

communalism?

a. Hindu
b. Muslim
c. Sikh
d. Christian

57. What is the primary manifestation of Hindu

communalism?

a. Equality promotion
b. Discriminatory practices
c. Linguistic advocacy
d. Cultural preservation

58. Muslim communalism involves:

a. Promoting the interests of all communities

b. Promoting the interests of the Muslim community over
others
c. Advocating for secularism
d. Fostering interfaith dialogue

59. Sikh communalism has been associated with the demand

for:

a. Greater economic opportunities

b. A separate Sikh state, Khalistan
c. Linguistic rights
d. Religious conversion

60. What is a common feature of communalism across

different religious communities in India?

a. Interfaith harmony
b. Economic cooperation
c. Organizing along religious lines
d. Political neutrality

61. How do politicians often exploit communalism for electoral

gains?

a) Promoting secularism
 b) Fostering interfaith dialogue
c) Polarizing voters along religious lines
d) Advocating for economic reforms

62.Which form of communalism involves violence against

religious minorities in India?

a) Sikh communalism
b) Muslim communalism
c) Hindu communalism
d) Christian communalism

63.In the context of India, communalism may result in:

a) Religious tolerance
b) Social harmony
c) Tensions and conflicts between religious communities
d) Linguistic diversity

64.What is the term associated with organizing along religious

lines to protect and promote the interests of a specific
community?

a) Secularism
b) Communalism
c) Pluralism
 d) Socialism

65.When did India's Constitution come into effect?

a) January 1, 1947
b) August 15, 1947
c) January 26, 1950
d) August 15, 1950
66.In the parliamentary system of government in India, who is
the ceremonial head of state?

a) Prime Minister
b) President
c) Lok Sabha Speaker
d) Rajya Sabha Chairman
67.How often are Lok Sabha elections held in India?
a) Every three years
b) Every four years
c) Every five years
d) Every six years

68.What is the primary role of the Rajya Sabha in India's

Parliament?

a) To propose legislation
 b) To represent states
c) To elect the President
d) To conduct Lok Sabha elections
69.Which political party is mentioned as an example of India's
multi-party system?

a) Indian National Congress

b) Bhartiya Janata Party (BJP)
c) Communist Party of India
d) All of the above
70.At what age is the right to vote granted to Indian citizens?
a) 16
b) 18
c) 21
d) 25
71.What is the significance of the federal structure in India?
a) Centralized government
b) Division of powers between central and state
governments
c) Single-party dominance
d) Absence of state governments
72.Which is the highest judicial authority in India?
 a) High Court
b) District Court
c) Supreme Court
d) Constitutional Court
73.What does the term "secularism" in the Indian context
mean?

a) Official state religion

b) Freedom from elections
c) No official state religion
d) religious dominance
74. What challenges does India face in its democratic system,
as mentioned in the content?

a) Overwhelming media influence

b) Economic prosperity
c) Electoral malpractices and corruption
d) Lack of civil society engagement
75. What is the traditional clothing for Malaysian men and
women, respectively, with specific names for each major
ethnic group?
a. Sarong and Sari
b. Baju Melayu and Baju Kurung
c. Cheongsam and Kurta
d. Kebaya and Dhoti

76.Which Malaysian festival is known for the lighting of oil

lamps, feasting, and cultural performances, and is celebrated
by the Indian community?
a. Thaipusam
b. Hari Raya Aidilfitri
c. Deepavali
d. Chinese New Year

77. What is the official language of Malaysia?

a. Chinese
b. English
c. Tamil
d. Malay (Bahasa Malaysia)

78. Why is it important to remove shoes when entering

someone's home or certain places in Malaysian culture?
a. It symbolizes humility and respect.
b. It is a religious requirement.
c. It promotes cleanliness.
d. All of the above.

79. In Malaysian etiquette, why is it customary to use the right

hand for eating and giving/receiving items?
a. It is a religious requirement.
b. The right hand is considered more skillful.
c. The left hand is considered impolite.
d. It is a traditional superstition
80. Which festival is celebrated by the Sinhalese community
in Sri Lanka to mark the Sinhala and Tamil New Year?
a. Vesak
b. Diwali
c. Aluth Avurudu
d. Esala Perahera

81. What is the traditional attire worn by Sri Lankan women

called?
a. Sari
b. Kimono
c. Osariya
d. Cheongsam

82.What is the main language spoken by the Sri Lankan

people?
a. Tamil
b. Sinhala
c. English
d. Hindi
83.Which religion is the majority religion in Sri Lanka?
a. Hinduism
b. Buddhism
c. Islam
d. Christianity

84. What is the official currency of Singapore?

a. Baht
b. Ringgit
c. Singapore Dollar
d. Yen

85. What is the name of the ashram which is located in

Singapore?
a. Sai Anandam
b. Sathya sai nivasam
c. Abode of God
d. Sai Prema foundation

86. What is the nickname often used to refer to Singapore?

a. Lion City
b. Tiger City
c. Dragon City
d. Panda City
87. Singapore is known for its iconic skyscraper. What is its
name?
a. Taipei 101
b. Petronas Towers
c. Marina Bay Sands
d. Burj Khalifa

88. Which event is celebrated on August 9th in Singapore?

a. Independence Day
b. National Day
c. Lunar New Year
d. Vesak Day

89.Can you name any 1 indigenous language of Australia?

a. Kriol
b. Michif
c. Koro
d. Piranha

90.Sydney New Year’s Eve is celebrated on which day?

a. January 1
b. December 31
c. December 30
d. April 1

91.In which year Christianity entered Australia?

a.1788 with British colonial
b. 1789 with British colonial
c.1879 with British colonial
d. 1878 with British colonial

92.What is the main currency of Fiji?

a. Fijian Dollar
b. Fijian Rupee
c. Fijian Yen
d. Fijian Peso

93.What is the capital city of Fiji?

a. Nadi
b. Suva
c. Lautoka
d. Labasa

94.What are the official languages of Fiji?

a. Fijian, Hindi, and Chinese
b. English, Fijian, and Fiji Hindi
c. Fijian, French, and Spanish
d. English, Fijian, and Mandarin

95. Which religious groups are prominent in Fiji?

a. Mostly Buddhist and Shinto
b. Predominantly Christian, with a significant Hindu minority
c. Mainly Muslim and Sikh
d. Primarily animistic and indigenous beliefs

96.What is a well-known Fijian tradition practiced around the

world?
a. Firewalking
b. Coconut harvesting
c. Spearfishing
d. Hula dancing

97.Which festival is widely celebrated in the Igbo culture to

mark the end of the planting season?
a. Durbar festival
b. Eid al-Fitr
c. Onam
d. New Yam Festival (Iri Ji)

98.In Nigerian philosophy, what does the term "I am because

we are" signify?
a. Individualism
b. Ubuntu
c. Dualism
d. Existentialism

99.What is the significance of the concept of Ubuntu in

Nigerian and African philosophies?
a. Emphasis on individualism
b. Valuing interconnectedness and community
c. Focus on personal success
d. Promotion of competition

100.What is the primary language used for government,

education, and business in Nigeria?
a. Yoruba
b. Igbo
c. Hausa
d. English

101.Balancing the need to use resources and also conserve

them for the future’ is________ development.
a. Resourceful
b. Sustainable.
c. supportable
d. None of the above

102. The efficient use of natural resources is a key aspect of

this goal. Which of the following is NOT a natural resource?
a. Water
b. Timber
c. Solar energy
d. Plastic
103.What role does education play in achieving sustainable
development goals (SDGs)?
a. Education is not related to achieving SDGs
b. Education is a barrier to achieving SDGs
c. Education is crucial for raising awareness and achieving
SDGs
d. Education is only important for economic development

104. How does climate change impact efforts to achieve Zero

Hunger?
a. Climate change has no effect on food production
b. It leads to increased agricultural productivity
c. It poses risks to food production, affecting crop yields and
food availability
d. Climate change only affects urban areas, not rural
agriculture

105. What is true? The fight against poverty

a. Is the ultimate goal of the 2030 Agenda

b. Is not a prerequisite for sustainable development
c. Has already been achieved to a large extent
d. All of the Above

106. There are no great discoveries and advances as long as

there is still one unhappy child on earth." That quote is from:
a. Albert Einstein
b. John Lennon
c. Lady Diana
d. All of the above
107. How long does a CEO of one of the global top 5 textile
companies have to work to earn as much as a seamstress in
Bangladesh earns in her entire life?
a. Eight hours
b. Just under four days
c. More than two weeks
d. All of the above

108. Which country bans begging and criminalizes homeless

people?
a. Austria
b. Poland
c. Hungary
d. All of the above

109. With reference to the United Nations’ Sustainable

Development Goals, which of the following is SDG 10?
a. Reduce inequalities
b. Zero hunger
c. Climate action
d. Decent work and economic growth

110. The 10th SDG is interconnected with other SDGs. Which

of the following goals is most closely related to Reduced
Inequalities?
a. No Poverty
b. Gender Equality
c. Decent Work and Economic Growth
d. Inequalities

111. What does the acronym "ESD" stand for?

a. Environmental Science Degree
b. Education for Sustainable Development
c. Ecological Sustainability Directive
d. Ethical and Social Development

112. According to SDG 17, what should be significantly

increased?
a. the exports of developing countries
b. imports from developing countries
c. bilateral trade agreements with developing countries
d. All of the above

113. Many of the least developed countries are dependent on

the world market price for raw materials. What share of the
total export volume do raw materials account for?
a. 40 per cent
b. 60 per cent
c. 80 per cent
d. All of the above

114. What is the primary aim of Sustainable Development

Goal 2 - Zero Hunger?
a. Eliminating all agricultural practices
b. Eradicating poverty
c. Achieving food security and improved nutrition
d. Promoting industrialization in agriculture
115. When is World Wetlands Day celebrated every year?
a. February 02
b. February 03
c. February 04
d. February 05

116. Over ___ billion people depend on marine and coastal

biodiversity for their livelihoods?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

117. Which of the following is NOT a SDG to be achieved by

2030?
a. Space research
b. Quality education
c. Gender equality
d. Zero hunger

118. The concept of sustainable development is related tp?

a. Maximum use of resources

b. The conservation of resources
c. Industrial use resources
d. Development of power resources

119. What is the primary target related to maternal mortality

in SDG 3?
a. Reduce the global maternal mortality ratio to less than 70
per 100,000 live births
b. Achieve universal health coverage
c. End preventable deaths of newborns
d. Ensure access to sexual and reproductive healthcare
services for all.

120. What is the primary focus of SDG 3?

a. Quality Education
b. Gender Equality
c. Good Health and Well-Being
d. Clean Water and Sanitation

121. What percentage of the world's water is potable?

a. less than 3 percent

b. about 20 percent
c. more than half
d. All of the above

122. Why is contaminated water dangerous to the lives

of many people? It contains
a. many pathogens
b. radioactive materials
c. toxic chemicals
d. All of the above

123. When is World Water Day celebrated every year?

a. March 03
b. March 21
c. March 22
d. March 31

124. SDG 13 addresses:

a. Gender Equality
b. Climate Action
c. Good Health and Well-being
d. Quality Education

125. How many SDGs were adopted by the United Nations in

2015?
a. 15
b. 20
c. 17
d. 22

126. Which SDG focuses on ensuring access to clean water

and sanitation for all?
a. SDG 4
b. SDG 6
c. SDG 12
d. SDG 15
127. Which goal aims to end poverty in all its forms
everywhere?
a. SDG 1
b. SDG 5
c. SDG 9
d. SDG 14

128.The SDG related to affordable and clean energy is:

a. SDG 7
b. SDG 10
c. SDG 13
d. SDG 16

129. Which SDG focuses on responsible consumption and

production patterns?
a. SDG 2
b. SDG 8
c. SDG 12
d. SDG 16

130.The primary purpose of the SDGs is to:

a. Address only environmental issues
b. Achieve global economic dominance
c. Promote sustainable development across various
dimensions
d. Serve as a political agenda for specific countries

131. What is the primary goal of the Swachh Bharat Mission

(SBM)?
a. Improving maternal and child health
b. Providing financial protection through health insurance
c. Achieving sanitation and cleanliness
 d. Preventing and controlling HIV/AIDS

132.What is the primary focus of Ayushman Bharat - Pradhan

Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY)?
a. Education for All
b. Financial inclusion
c. Health insurance and financial protection
d. Rural development

133. SDG 16 aims to promote:

a. Decent Work and Economic Growth
b. Peace, Justice, and Strong Institutions
c. Zero Hungered.
d. quality Education

134.Goal 3 of the SDGs is dedicated to:

a. Industry, Innovation, and Infrastructure
b. Sustainable Cities and Communities
c. Good Health and Well-being
d. Life on Land

135. Who is the father of AI?

a. Charles Babbage
b. Alan Turing
c. John McCarthy
d. None of the above

136. Who first discovered AI?

a. Alan Turing
b. Nikola Tesla
c. Isaac Newton
d. Albert Einstein

137. Who is the father of AI in India?

a. Raj Reddy
b. Ratan Tata
c. P Anandan
d. None of the above

138. Who created ChatGPT?

a. Google
b. Microsoft
c. Open AI
d. Apple

139. What is the name of the AI chatbot of Google?

a. Siri
b. Alexa
c. Gemini
d. ChatGPT

140. What type of AI does ChatGPT use?

a. Generative AI
b. General AI
c. Super AI
d. Narrow AI

141. Who introduced the ‘Three Laws of Robotics’?

a. Isaac Asimov
b. Alan Turing
c. John McCarthy
d. None of the above

142. How many queries does ChatGPT receive in a day?

a. 10M+ queries
b. 50M+ queries
c. 20M+ queries
d. 100M+ queries

143. Where did the 2nd Global Forum on the Ethics of AI

take place?
a. New York, USA
b. Geneva, Switzerland
c. Kranj, Slovenia
d. Paris, France

144. Which UN agency is responsible for advocating AI

Ethics?
a. UNESCO
b. WHO
c. UNICEF
d. WTO

145. Which of the following platforms use AI for

recommendations?
a. Google
b. YouTube
c. Netflix
d. All of the Above
146. Which of the following is not a virtual assistant?
a. Siri
b. Alexa
c. Gemini
d. Google Assistant

147. In which year AI was introduced as an academic

discipline?
a. 1947
b. 1980
c. 1956
d. 1920

148. Which of the following organizations promote AI ethics?

a. DARPA [ Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency]
b. CHAI [Center for Human-Compatible Artificial
Intelligence
c. NASCAI [National Security Commission on Artificial
Intelligence]
d. All of the Above

149. Which of the following are primary concerns with use of

AI?
a. AI uses a lot of energy, thereby proving harmful to the
environment.
b. Concern with the right to privacy and data protection.
c. Circulation of misleading information, images, etc.
d. All of the Above
Which is the first AI programming language

150. Which is the first AI programming language?

a. LISP
b. Java
c. C++
d. Python

151. In ChatGPT, what does GPT stand for?

a. General Pre-trained Transformer
b. Generative Pre-trained Transformer
c. Generation Pre-trained Transformer
d. None of the Above

152. Who is the CEO of OpenAI?

a. Sam Altman
b. Satya Nadella
c. Elon Musk
d. None of the Above

153. What is the name of the world’s first AI CEO

? a. Siri
b. Tella
c. Mika
d. Alexa

154. When was ChatGPT launched?

a. November 30, 2022
b. November 30, 2021
c. November 30, 2023
d. November 30, 2020

155. Machines running LISP are also called?

a. AI Workstations
b. Time-sharing Terminals
c. AI Robots
d. None of the above

156. How does an AI agent interact with its environment?

a. Using sensors and perceivers
b. Using only sensors
c. Using only perceivers
d. None of the Above

157. Which of the following is not an obstacle to AI adoption?

a. Lack of skilled individuals and hiring shortages
b. Lack of Governance
c. Complexity of AI systems
d. Enhanced Productivity

158. Which of the following is not a benefit of AI adoption?

a. Reduced operational time
b. Reduced human error
c. Fear of job replacement
d. Better customer service

159. According to IBM report, more than ___% IT

professionals use AI tools to save time.
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 40%

160. Which of the following statements are true about

Artificial Intelligence, Machine Learning and Deep Learning?

a. AI is different from ML and DL

b. ML and DL come under the umbrella of AI
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above

161. The robot dog created by Chinese Scientists is named

a. Alpha Dog
b. Labrador AI
c. Puppy AI
d. Street AI

162. Which was the first AI humanoid robot?

a. Sophia
b. Pepper
c. Deep Blue
d. Nadine

163. When was Deep Blue made?

a. 1985
1985
b. 1995
19875
c. 1990
d. 1995

164. What was the era called when AI companies went

bankrupt?

a. The Great Depression

b. AI Stop
c. AI Winter
d. None of the Above

165.Restriction enzymes were discovered by

a. Smith and Nathans

b. Alexander Fleming

c. Berg

d. None

166. Bacteria protect themselves from viruses by fragmenting

viral DNA with

a. Ligase

b. Endonuclease

c. Exonuclease

d. Gyrase

167. Klenow fragment is derived from

a. DNA Ligase
 b. DNA Pol-I

c. DNA Pol-II

d. Reverse Transcriptase

168. Southern blotting is

a. Attachment of probes to DNA fragments

b. Transfer of DNA fragments from electrophoretic gel to a

nitrocellulose sheet

c. Comparison of DNA fragments to two sources

d. Transfer of DNA fragments to electrophoretic gel from

cellulose membrane

169. ELISA is

a. Using radiolabelled second antibody

b. Usage of RBCs

c. Using complement-mediated cell lysis

d. Addition of substrate that is converted into a coloured

end product

170. The Golden Rice variety is rich in

a. Vitamin C

b. Β-carotene and ferritin

 c. Biotin

d. Lysine

171. The DNA fragments have sticky ends due to

a. Endonuclease

b. Unpaired bases

c. Calcium ions

d. Free methylation

172. Plasmids are used as cloning vectors for which of the

following reasons?

a. Can be multiplied in culture

b. Self-replication in bacterial cells

c. Can be multiplied in laboratories with the help of

enzymes

d. Replicate freely outside bacterial cells

173. The human genome project was launched in the year

a. 1980

b. 1973

c. 1990
 d. 1989

174. The vaccines prepared through recombinant DNA

technology are

a. Third generation vaccines

b. First-generation vaccines

c. Second-generation vaccines

d. None

175. Which is a genetically modified crop?

a. Bt-cotton

b. Bt-brinjal

c. Golden rice

d. All

176. PCR technique was invented by

a. Karry Mullis

b. Boyer

c. Sanger

d. Cohn
177. The first transgenic plant to be produced is

a. Brinjal

b. Tobacco

c. Rice

d. Cotton

178. RNA interference helps in

a. Cell proliferation

b. Micropropagation

c. Cell defence

d. Cell differentiation

179. Which of the following is the quality of improved

transgenic basmati rice?

a. Gives high yield but no characteristic aroma

b. Gives high yield and is rich in vitamin A

c. Does not require chemical fertilizers and growth

hormones

d. Resistant to insects and diseases

180. What is the primary goal of genetic engineering?

a. To create new species

b. To modify genetic material

c. To study the behaviour of genes

d. To clone organisms

181. Which of the following techniques is commonly used in

genetic engineering to cut DNA at specific sequences?

a. PCR

b. Gel electrophoresis

c. Restriction enzymes

d. DNA fingerprinting

182. What is the function of ligase enzyme in genetic

engineering?

a. To cut DNA

b. To join DNA fragments

c. To amplify DNA

d. To identify DNA sequences

183. Which of the following is NOT a potential application of

genetic engineering?
a. Production of genetically modified crops

b. Gene therapy for treating genetic disorders

c. Cloning extinct species

d. Development of vaccines

184. What is the role of plasmids in genetic engineering?

a. They are used to amplify DNA fragments

b. They serve as vectors to introduce foreign DNA into host

cells

c. They are used to cut DNA at specific sequences

d. They are involved in DNA replication

185. Which organism is commonly used as a model organism

in genetic engineering studies?

a. E. coli

b. Yeast

c. Fruit fly (Drosophila)

d. All of the above

186. What is the purpose of using selectable markers in
genetic engineering?

a. To mark the location of specific genes

b. To identify genetically modified organisms

c. To distinguish between different DNA fragments

d. To enable selection of cells that have taken up foreign DNA

187. Which technique is used to introduce recombinant DNA

into animal cells?

a.Electroporation

b. Microinjection

c. Transformation

d. CRISPR-Cas9

188. What does PCR stand for in the context of genetic

engineering?

a. Polymerase Chain Reaction

b. Protein Coding Region

c. Primary Chromosome Replication

d Polymerase Crosslinking Reaction

189.Which of the following is NOT a type of gene editing

tool?

a. CRISPR-Cas9

b. TALENs

c. RNA interference (RNAi)

d. Gel electrophoresis

190. What is the significance of transgenic organisms in

genetic engineering?

a. They are used to produce genetically modified organisms

b. They contain genes from different species

c. They are resistant to diseases

d. They have a higher mutation rate

191.Which of the following is an example of a genetically

modified crop?

a. Golden rice
b. Wheat

c. Barley

d. Millet

192. What is the purpose of gene therapy?

a. To modify the genetic makeup of healthy individuals

b. To cure genetic disorders by replacing or supplementing

defective genes

c. To induce mutations in specific genes

d. To create designer babies

193. What ethical concerns are associated with genetic

engineering?

a. Potential for creating designer babies

b. Environmental impact of genetically modified organisms

c. Unequal access to genetic therapies

d. All of the above

194. Which regulatory bodies oversee the approval of

genetically modified organisms (GMOs) for commercial use?

a. FDA (Food and Drug Administration)

b. USDA (United States Department of Agriculture)

c. EPA (Environmental Protection Agency)

d. All of the above

195.What is a use case factorization in quantum Computing?

a. randomizing data sets
b. emulating language patterns entio fidential
c. optimization of routes
d. doesn’t know this yet.

196.In quantum computing, what is the basic unit of

information?
a. giga
b. qubit
c. bit
d. byte

197 .What does it mean when we say that we are currently in

the noisy, intermediate scale quantum computing stage?
a. Quantum computers have already reached peak
performance and cannot be improved further. Quantum
b. Quantum computers are still in the early theoretical stage,
with no I machines built yet.
c. Some quantum computers can now be purchased cheaply in
stores by individual consumers.
d. Quantum computers are able to solve a number of current
problems, and will continue to advance.

198.What is a current concern regarding the advancement of

quantum computing?
a. Existing cryptography may be easily cracked.
b. Steering qubits towards desired states will introduce bias.
c. Computers will replace human in all decision-making tasks.
d. Algorithmic trading may cause stock market instability.

199.Which technology will quantum computing impact most

significantly?

a. Agile
b. DevOps
c. Extended Reality
d. Artificial intelligence

200.How could quantum computing benefit the Financial

Service Industry?
a.by determining future value of crypto-currencies
b.by predicting market activities months in advance
c.by enabling complex mode to optimize portfolios
d.by guaranteeing double returns for fund managers ns for
fund managers

201.Which problem is more classical effectively solved using

quantum computing rather than classical computer?

a. multiplication of integers
b. sorting elements on a list
c. rearranging terms in equations
d. large database searches

202. How could quantum computing benefit the financial

service industry?

a. By enabling complex modelling to optimize portfolios

b.by determining future value of crypto-currencies
c.by guaranteeing double returns for fund managers
d.by predicting market activities months in advance

203. A mathematician is trying to break down a large number

into smaller prime numbers that, when multiplied, would
arrive at that larger number. what is this process called?

a. exponentiation
b. interference
c. factorization
d. superposition

204. What is a current concern regarding the advancement of

quantum computing?

a. Steering qubits towards desired states will introduce

b. Computers will replace humans in all decision-making
tasks
c. Existing cryptography may be easily cracked.
d. Algorithmic trading may cause stock market instability.

205. How is Accenture addressing the emerging market for

quantum computing technology?

a. by adopting a Quantum-as-a-Service approach using

existing quantum computers
b. by advising our clients to replace all their classical
computers with quantum machines
c. by building our own quantum computers that will be hosted
in Accenture offices
d. by taking a “wait and see” approach until quantum
computers are developed further

206. What is the term for breaking a larger number apart into
smaller numbers that can be multiplied together to get a
specific result?

a. globalisation.
b. hybridisation.
c. industrialisation
d. factorization

207. Why might businesses be interested in using quantum

computers?

a.to create graphics for immersive environments

b.to process extremely large data sets
c.to run mobile apps more quickly
d.to solve Intractable problems

208. What is the purpose of “post-quantum” cryptography?

a.to eliminate all encryption methods programmed on

classical computers
b.to create encryption methods that quantum computers
cannot crack
c.to use quantum computers to create more secure encryption
methods
d.to require users to own quantum computers in order to send
data securely
209. Which part of the drug discovery life cycle can quantum
computing impact the most?

a. regulatory approval
b. molecular simulation
c. clinical trials
d. laboratory testing

210. Which element of Accenture applied quantum computing

strategy directly delivers value to Clients?

a. hosting a data centre for quantum computers

b. solving real-world needs with industry knowledge
c. researching new materials for super-conductivity
d. developing quantum computing chip architectures

211. How is a qubit in quantum computing different from a

regular bit in classical computing?

a. qubit stores information as graphical Images

b. qubit can represent an indeterminate state.
c. A qubit can represent a value as 0 1 2
d. qubit takes up less memory space than a regular bit.

212. What does the term superposition refer to?

a. way to efficiently store encrypted data using qubits.

b. way that algorithms determine combinations of
probabilities.
c. The ability of a qubit to be in indeterminate state.
d. The ability of an algorithm to decrypt data during
processing
213. How will quantum computing affect artificial
intelligence applications?

a. Artificial Intelligence will evolve to become self-aware.

b. Artificial intelligence will instantly solve optimization
problems.
c. Blas in machine learning will be completely eliminated.
d. Machine learning algorithms will become much faster.

214. Which part of the drug discovery life cycle can quantum
computing impact the most?

a. regulatory approval
b. molecular simulation
c. laboratory testing
d. clinical trials

215. Which statement describes the current availability of

quantum computers?

a. They are owned by a few companies, but available to many.

b. They will be developed for home installation within the
next decade.
c. They are widely available and affordable in consumer retail
stores.
d. They are currently only available on certain mobile devices.

216.Why is quantum computing potentially a better fit for

weather forecasting than classical computers?

a. it can store extensive data for better pattern recognition.

b. It can be easily installed at locations around the globe.
c. It can function efficiently when stored at high temperatures.
d. It can perform advanced simulations more efficiently
217. What is a barrier to entry preventing quantum computing
hardware from becoming more widely available?

a. They are limited to solving only intractable problems.

b. They cost companies millions of dollars to manufacture.
c. They are not expected to save data for more than a year.
d. They need to be kept at a constant temperature of 0°C

218. What is meant by “applied quantum computing?”

a. processing simple mathematical functions more quickly

b. installing quantum computers directly in company offices
c. building more advanced quantum computing hardware
d. using quantum computers to solve real business problems

219. Which term describes the action of a qubit that moves

from superposition to 1 or 0 after measurement?

a. collapse
b. decryption
c. switch
d. optimization

220. How is a collapsed qubit similar to a bit?

a. It can stay in a state of superposition.

b. It has numerous potential paths to follow.
c. It has a single value of either O or 1.
d. It is still dependent on its counterparts.

221 What is an example of using quantum computing for

sustainable practices?

a. installing edge computing devices in common public

places.
b. improving the efficiency of batteries on electric cars
c. mining cryptocurrency using multiple connected computers
d. storing large computing in high-altitude conditions

222. Why is quantum computing useful for optimization

problems?

a. It uses human intuition to only explore certain potential

solutions.
b. It divides the intractable complexity into bits to calculate
simple solutions.
c. It can perform operations on a combination of all possible
solutions.
d. It evaluates solutions one by one in a sequential manner.

223. Which term refers to the strong information correlation

between qubits?

a. linear combination
b. coherence
c. entanglement
d. quantum annealing

224. Blockchain networks are much _____ and deal with no

real single point of failure.
a. Simpler
b. Easier to scale
c. Convenient
d. Faster
225.What is the most extreme combined health and economic
crisis in the last century?
a. The Spanish Flu
b. The Black Death
c. The COVID-19 pandemic
d. The SARS outbreak
226. How many health workers are estimated to have lost their
lives to COVID-19 between January 2020 and May 2021?
a. 10,000
b. 50,000
c. 116,000
d. 200,000
227. Apart from COVID-19, what other challenges does
global health need to address?

a. Climate change

b. antimicrobial resistance

c. Urbanization

d. All of the above

228. What is the estimated cumulative economic loss due to

the pandemic by 2024?

a.$1.8 trillion

b.$5.4 trillion

c.$13.8 trillion

d.$20 trillions
229. What organization established a fast-track review
mechanism for COVID-19 guidance?

a. UNICEF

b. CDC

c. WHO

d. Red Cross

230. What is the most common type of COVID-19 vaccine?

a. mRNA vaccine

b. Inactivated virus vaccine

c. Protein subunit vaccine

d. DNA vaccine

231. How many doses are typically required for full

vaccination with most COVID-19 vaccines?

a. One dose

b. Two doses

c. Three doses

d .Four doses

232. Which vaccine was developed by Serum Institute of

India (SII)?

a. Covax in
b. Covid shield

C. Covovax

d. Comirnaty

233. What is the primary purpose of COVID-19 vaccines?

a. To prevent infection

b. To reduce symptoms

c. To achieve herd immunity

d. To cure COVID-19

234. Which age group is currently eligible for COVID-19

vaccination in most countries?

a. Children under 12

b. Children aged 12-17

c. Adults aged 18 and above

d. All age groups

235. What is the recommended interval between the two doses

of the Pfizer-BioNTech COVID-19 vaccine?

a.14 days

b.21 days

c.28 days

d.42 days
236. Which organization oversees the global distribution and
allocation of COVID-19 vaccines?

a. WHO (World Health Organization)

b. CDC (Centres for Disease Control and Prevention)

c. FDA (Food and Drug Administration)

d. UNICEF (United Nations Children’s Fund)

237. What was the primary purpose of the nationwide

lockdown implemented by many countries during the
pandemic?

a. To prevent infection

b. To reduce economic impact

c. To achieve herd immunity

d .To cure COVID-19

238. What type of financial relief measures were introduced

by governments to support businesses during the pandemic?

a. Tax reductions

b. Wage subsidies

c. Unemployment benefits

d. All of the above

239. What was the purpose of the “helicopter money”

payments made to households during the pandemic?
a .To encourage spending

b. To fund healthcare

c. To support businesses

d .To reduce unemployment

240. Which sector faced significant disruptions due to the

lockdowns, impacting millions of informal workers?

a. Healthcare

b. Education

c. Hospitality and retail

d. Agriculture

241. What was the primary impact of the COVID-19

pandemic on government revenues?

a. Increased tax collection

b. Decreased tax collection

c. No impact on tax revenues

d. Shift in tax policies

242. What is the long-term impact of revenue losses on public

services and infrastructure?

a . Improved services

b. Reduced services
c. No impact

d. Increased public debt

243. Which country implemented the “Vivad se Vishwas”

scheme to resolve tax disputes during the pandemic?

a. United States

b. India

c. United Kingdom

d. Australia

244. What was the primary impact of the COVID-19

pandemic on educational institutions?

a. Increased enrolment

b. Shift to online learning

c. Reduced teacher salaries

d. No impact on education

245. Which initiative aimed to transform educational

institutions into world-class centres of learning?

a. New Education Policy (NEP)

b. Digital India campaign

c. Swachh Bharat Abhiyan

d. Make in India program

246. What strategies did governments adopt to ensure
continuity of education during lockdowns?

a. Providing free internet to all students

b .Implementing digital learning platforms

c. Reducing school hours

d. Cancelling exams

247. What role did teacher training play in adapting to online

education?

a. No role

b. Teachers received specialized training

c. Teachers were not involved in online teaching

d. Teachers relied on existing skills

248. What was the focus of the Samagra Shiksha scheme in

India during the pandemic?

a. Improving school infrastructure

b. Enhancing teacher salaries

c .Ensuring inclusive and equitable quality education

d. Promoting vocational training

249.What positive impact did the pandemic have on the

environment?

a .Reduced carbon emissions

b. Increased air pollution
c. No change in environmental conditions
d. Accelerated deforestation
250. What role did teleconsultation play in healthcare during
the pandemic?

a. Reduced access to medical advice

b Increased efficiency in patient care
c. No impact on healthcare services
d. Shifted focus to in-person consultation