Week 1

1. Which of the following best describes the flow of blood through the heart.
- Right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle, body
2. Deviation from the accepted standard of care resulting in injury to the patient is called.
- Negligence
3. The termination of patient care without assuring the continuation of care at the same level or higher
is ------------
- Abandonment
4. What does the term "scope of practice" mean?
- The duties and skills that are legally provided by the EMT-B
5. Select the correct statement regarding implied consent
- Implied consent is based on the assumption that an unconscious patient waved consent
interventions
6. In general, "emacipated minor" is one who
- Is married, economically independent and lives away from home
7. Negligence can be defined as
- A failure to follow reasonable standard of care that results in injury or damage
8. Which of the folliwng terms refer to the back of the body
- Dorsal
9. Which of the following is a major artery that originates from the heart and lies in front of the spine in
thoracic
and abdominal cavities?
- aorta
10. The manubrium is the
- Superior portion of the sternum
11. Oxygen poor blood is returned from the body in which chamber of the heart?
- Right atrium
12. The clear fluid that is produced in the ventricles of the brain and circulated around the coverings of
the Brain
- Cerebrospinal fluid
13. Normal anatomical position is best described as a person standing facing forward with
- Palm facing forward
14. How many liters of blood does the average sized adult man have in his body?
- 5-6 liters
15. The leaf -shaped structure that prevents food/fluid entering the trachea during swallowing is the
- epiglottis
16. Vital signs that should be assessed and recorded in an adult include:
- Pupil size and reactivity
17. Your legal obligation to provide service to a patient while you are on duty (in some cases, even when
you are off
duty) is known as
- Duty to act
18. Mechanism of Injury refers to
- The events and forces that caused the patient's injury
19. The first phase of the initial assignment is the
- Scene size-up
20. Physician responsibility for the clinical and patient care aspects of an EMS system is called
- Medical resource management
21. You are called to the parking lot of a shopping mall for an ill woman. You arrive and the woman was
unresponsive. Her daughter states that her mother is a diabetic. You begin treatment by which form of
consent?
- Implied consent
22. Which of the following is the correct sequence for performing the initial assessment?
- Form a general assessment
- Assess mental status
- Assess circulation
- Establish airway
- Establish breathing
- Establish patient priorities
23. Which of the following are within EMT-B scope of practice?
- Administer oxygen and assessing vital signs
24. A written document that identifies a legal guardian to make a decision for a patient when he/she can
no longer
make such decisions is called
- Durable power of attorney
25. An elderly man is found lying unresponsive to his bed. The patient's wife did not know what caused
the patient's
loss of consciousness. You should first;
- Assess the patient's pulse
26. When a patient inhales normally, the EMT-B should realize that the _____ causes _____ pressure
that result in
air pulled into the thorax.
- Diaphragm, negative
27. Joint connects
- Bone to bone
28. The process of converting sugar to energy in the presence of oxygen produces a waste product
called
- Carbon dioxide
29. You and your partner stopped at a busy intersection in your emergency vehicle when a car is hit
while trying to
make a left turn. Your first consideration should be to:
- Evaluate the safety of the scene
30. You are called to a private home for a 64 year old man complaining of severe chest pain and in
respiratory
distress. The patient's anxious wife meets you at the door and states she is the one who called you. The
patient
is awake, alert and in obvious distress, but repeatedly states he does not want to go to the hospital. He
wants to
"die with dignity". Your best course of action will be to:
- Contact medical control, explain the situation, and request direction about how to proceed.
31. You are called to the scene of a reported rape. Police officers are on the scene. Which of the
statements is
correct regarding this situation?
- Items at the scene should not be moved unless emergency care requires it.
32. You and your partner are treating a wounded police officer, upon returning to your station, a news
show host
calls and requests information regarding the status of the officer. Select the appropriate answer
regarding this
situation:
- You may not disclose any patient information unless you have a written release form from the
patient.
33. Responsibilities of an EMT-B includes:
- Lifting and moving patients
34. You are an EMT-B dispatched to the scene of a shooting. Your first responsibility is to:
- Ensure your own safety
35. Activation of the EMS system begins with:
- Citizen recognition of an emergency situation
36. Unlawfully touching a patient without consent is called
- Battery
37. You are called to a private home for a "possible suicide". You arrive to find a young woman waiting
for you on
the front lawn. She states her boyfriend has locked himself in the house with a gun. He has been
depressed
lately over the recent breakup of their relationship and called her half an hour ago stating he is going to
"end it
all". Your best course of action will be to:
- Wait for the police assistance before entering the house.
38. Which of the following are considered peripheral pulses?
- Brachial and radial
39. Which of the following are examples of signs?
- Decrease skin temperature, bleeding, respiratory distress
40. The rules of expressed consent and refusals are that;
- Must be an informed consent of refusal

Week 2

1. Respiratory rhythm is irregular with alternating periods of apnea and hyperventilation, this
abnormal breathing is characterized as
–Cheyne Stokes breathing
2. You are dispatched to an “unresponsive man” you find the patient has gurgling respiration, this
indicates
-Fluid in the upper airway
3. Approximately how long can the Hepatitis B remain active in dried blood?
-7 Days
4. Which of the following is an advantage of the AED?-the first shock can be delivered within
three minutes to a sudden cardiac arrest adult patient
5. You decide to place an oral airway. How do you measure the size of the airway?- from the
corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw
6. Rigid suction catheters-should be inserted as far as you can visualize
7. A full ‘H’ size oxygen cylinder contains -6900
8. Which of the following is not reliable indicator of hypoperfusion in patient over the age of 6?-
capillary refill
9. The OPQRST acronym is used to evaluate which component of the patient history?-history of
patient illness
10. Desirable features of BVM device include-a clear mask to permit visualization of secretion
during ventilation
11. Wheezing is- high pitched musical sounds caused by an obstruction in the lower airway
12. A fully pressurized M sized oxygen cylinder contains a volume of -3000 Litters
13. Stridor typically indicates-upper airway obstruction
14. The most difficult part of delivering BVM ventilation is –obtaining the adequate mask seal
15. What is the percentage of oxygen in exhaled air?-21%
16. In adults suctioning should be limited to -15 seconds
17. The QRS in the ECG tracing represent-depolarized of the ventricular
18. You are an EMT providing ventilation with a BVM to a patient. You are explaining the use of
BVM to a group of EMT students. Which of the statements most accurately describe the proper
use of BVM-Bag mask ventilation will deliver nearly 100% if with reservoir and a high flow
oxygen rate.
19. You are called to a local convenience store for a fight in the parking lot. The police came secured
the scene when you arrive. Your patient is approximately 20 years old male lying on the ground.
Assessment reveals the patient has RR of 8 with gurgling. Your first action will be-open the
patient’s airway with jaw thrust & suction as needed.
20. Using a BVM without supplemental oxygen delivers oxygen concentration of -21%
21. A high efficiency particulate air indicator mask (HEPA) worn by the emergency care provider
when a patient is suspected of having or has been diagnosed with- meningitis
22. Sign of a severe airway obstruction include:- absence of cough , speech or breathing
23. The device that allows the delivery of oxygen in litters per minute is – flow meter
24. Which of the following is sign or symptom associated with adequate breathing?-rate of 15
breaths per minute for an 18 year old patient
25. The pressure of a gas in a full oxygen cylinder is approximately-2000 psi
26. When inserting OPA to an adult without tongue blade. The airway should be inserted with the
tip- pointing toward the roof of the patients mouth
27. A size M oxygen cylinder shows 1600 psi on the content gauge, this represents-2,496 liters
28. The volume cycled oxygen press red ventilation device- should not be used in infants and
children
29. You are called to a 22 year old woman with shortness of breath. You arrive to find her in obvious
respiratory distress and she tells you she has a history of asthma. Which of the following findings
is most indicative of severe respiratory distress?-disappearance of wheezing
30. After completing evaluation of the safety of the scene and taking appropriate BSI precaution
your next action should be to:-evaluate patients level of consciousness
31. Body substance isolation is an approach to infection control which-all body substances are
considered potentially infectious
32. The earliest signs of breathing difficulty include-restlessness
33. You are called to a 68 year old man in respiratory distress. The patient’s wife is worse for the
past 3 hours. You arrive to find the patient is unresponsive with pulse but no breathing sign of
adequate artificial ventilation include-the patient is artificially ventilated at 10 times per
minute and the chest rises and fall with artificial ventilation
34. After an initial attempt to ventilate a patient fails, you reposition the patients head and re-
attempt to ventilate without success and patient becomes unresponsive (possibly causes is
FBAO) you should-immediately perform CPR
35. To secure delivery of the highest concentration of the oxygen for patient using NRM, you
should-make sure the reservoir bag is pre-inflated
36. The oropharyngeal airway-should not be use in patient with gag reflex
37. The firm ring of cartilage that forms the lower portion of the larynx is the –cricoid cartilage
38. The “P” wave in the ECG represents-atrial depolarization
39. A 65 year old man is complaining of severe chest pain. As you begin your initial examination, be
suddenly clutches his chest and becomes unresponsive. Your first action should be:-perform an
initial assessment
40. The most important means of preventing the spread of communicable disease is-effective hand
washing
41. Define internal respiration
42. List 4 ways artificially ventilate a patient
43. List 2 airway devices that an EMT-B can use to secure the airway.
44. List 4 devices to administer supplemental oxygen to the patient.
45. List 4 oxygen sizes and their litter capacities when full
46. You are called to a 40 year old woman in respiratory distress. To determine the status of the
patients breathing you will assess

Week 3

1. Epinephrine possesses which of the following effects when it is used to treat anaphylaxis?-as a
bronchodilator, it facilitates adequate breathing
2. Congestive heart failure is;-condition in which the heart cannot pump enough blood to meet
the needs of the body tissues
3. Which of the following is most frequently associated with asthma?-wheezing anxiety, shortness
of breath
4. The phase of a seizure characterized by continuous muscle contraction is called the;-clonic
5. While assessing a patient with chest pain, the patient pulse is irregular, this most likely
indicates;-abnormalities in the hearth’s electrical conduction
6. When the insulin level decreases the body turn fat to energy, fat metabolism by the liver result
in the production of- ketones
7. How much is used in initial monophasic defibrillation to a 70 kg adult?- 360 joules
8. The most common cause of death during MI-dysrhytmia
9. Signs and symptoms suggestive of pulmonary embolism include-chest pain, coughing up blood,
sudden onset of respiratory distress
10. The condition characterized by over inflation and destruction changes of the alveolar wall
resulting in loss of lung elasticity and decreased alveolar surface available for gas exchange is;-
emphysema
11. With reference to diving emergencies, which of the following is NOT due to barotrauma.-chokes
12. Severe hypothermia is defined as the presence of signs and symptoms with a core body
temperature below:-30 degrees centigrade
13. Fever, cough and fatigue and night sweats are S/Sx of- tuberculosis
14. Management of an unresponsive, breathing patient with a significant cardiac history would
include the following except:-analyzing the rhythm with an AED
15. The standard lead used for a cardiac monitoring is:-lead 2
16. Which or the following disease can be transmitted by direct contact with respiratory distress?-
meningitis
17. The most significant problem resulting from hypoglycemia –hunger
18. Which of the following assessment would least suggested cardiac compensate???-palpate pain
in chest
19. A 34 y.o. man has been bitten on his left hand by a snake. Management of this patient should
include- removal of jewelry from the affected extremity before swelling begins
20. You are called for an “illness”. You arrive to find a 34 y.o. man an obvious distress. Patient states
that he was spraying the roses with an insecticide and felt suddenly ill. You note he is sweating
& drooling your first action should be to.-remove all contaminated clothing and jewelry while
protecting yourself from contamination
21. In diving emergencies, pneumothorax and air embolism are result of-barotrauma of ascent
22. s/sx of absorb poison include – abdominal pain, unusual breath odors & vomiting
23. General S/Sx of toxic injection include-weakness, dizziness & chills
24. Difficulty of breathing and a barrel chest are typically associated with- COPD
25. You are called to the scene of a incident. Which of the following statement regarding the
situation is incorrect?-any pulseless patient who had been submerged should be resuscitated
26. Which of the following is most seriously affected by barotrauma-respiratory system
27. A 32 y.o. man is stung by bee, has generalized skin rashes facial swelling and in respiratory
distress. when he breaths you hear audible stridor . what does this means?-swelling of the
upper airway structures
28. You are called for a 54 y.o. man found unresponsive by his wife .initial assessment reveals the
patients is apneic and pulseless. Which of the following statement is correct regarding this
situation?-you should perform CPR 5 cycles before attaching AED to the patient
29. In late hypothermia the-pulse is slow bp is low and skin is pale
30. You are evaluating a 50 y.o. female complaining of chest pain your cardiac monitor reveals a
sinus tachycardia. A second look at the cardiac monitor reveals a rhythm resembling ventricular
fibrillation. You should.-you perform a physical assessment of the patient and recheck the
electrode placement
31. Cyanide poisoning has a characteristic smell-bitter almond
32. The progression of responses due to heat exposure is:-heat cramps,heat exhaustion, heat
stroke
33. Children, infants, neonates should be ventilated using;-pressured cycled ventilation
34. When a patient has two or more seizures without regaining consciousness, it is known as-status
epilepticus
35. In a patient suffering from stroke (CVA) who is breathing normally, oxygen should be
administered by:-only if signs of hypoxia is evident
36. Which of the following conditions is not a type of decompression sickness?-pops
37. A 10 y.o. boy has been stung by an insect and stinger is visible at the injection site, you should;-
use the edge of the card or knife to remove the stinger
38. Which of the following is a method of the heat loss?-conduction
39. Early or superficial cold injury is evidenced by sign of-flushed skin
40. Which of the following s/sx is not commonly found in patient suffering from hypoglycemia?-
warm red and dry skin
41. List 3 possible causes of airway construction in asthma
42. List 4 possible complication of MI
43. List atleast 6 safety precautions before you attach the AED to your patient
44. List 4 types of decompression sickness
45. List
46. What is barotrauma?
47. List the 2 most causes of cva/stroke/brain attack
48. Your pt is 40 y.o. with a history of IDDM list 4 questions you should ask in reference to the
patient’s medical condition.
49. Identify the 4 life threatening arrhythmias that EMT-B must able to recognize.
50. List 3 poison where the use of high percentage of oxygen therapy is contraindicated.

Week 4

1. Facial asymmetry visual disturbances inability to speak are signs of

-Brain attack
2. The first step in caring or patient with AMS is –Assure patency of airway
3. Prolapsed umbilical cord describes condition in which the cord is –Presenting through the
vagina before the baby presents
4. Warm dry skin in the patient in neurogenic shock occurs because –vasodilation and loss of
sympathetic tone
5. A 30 year old female was thrown her horse striking her head on a concrete bench before she
hits the ground. She is unresponsive with blood pressure of 74/44 pulse 58 and regular,
respiration 14. Her skin is warm and dry. The examination is remarkable for an abrasion to
her chin and right side of the forehead. You suspect: - neurogenic shock
6. Initial step in the management of every newborn include: -prevention of heat loss opening
the airway and elevation of the neonate
7. Your patient is a 28 y.o. in her 32 weeks AOG. The husband called because she has been
complaining of severe headache and vomiting. You took her VS reveals bp of 146/92 pr 24.
The patient most likely has – pre-eclampsia
8. A patient had head and facial wounds with spurting blood. The appropriate PPE should
include –gloves, goggles mask and gown
9. Which of the ff. are true regarding septic shock? – plasma leaks out the vessels and into the
interstitial space resulting in edema –lactic acidosis occurs as a result of anaerobic
metabolism caused by cellular hypoxia
10. Cardiogenic shock occurs most commonly as a result of – acute myocardial infarction
11. You responded to a trauma pt. the best early indicator of a significant change in tissue
perfusion is –a sudden change in mental status
12. Following the delivery of the newborn the 21 y.o. mother is experiencing severe vaginal
bleeding, HR of 129 bpm and diaphoretic. Management should include – uterine massage
and transport
13. You respond to a man struck by a car he has multiple injuries which MOI would you suspect
to cause severe internal bleeding? –abdomen
14. Who would most likely suffer a painless silent MI? – elderly patient
15. Which of the ff is an early sign of shock? –altered mental status
16. A 25 y.o. woman has severe lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She tells you that
her LMP was 2 months ago. On the basis of this findings you suspects; -
17. The extent / seriousness of internal bleeding is indicated by; -
18. Which of the following is an indication that the newborn’s condition is improving with BLS?
19. Which of the following patient’s cannot received 100% oxygen by NRM -
20. Which of the ff. would be classified as causing obstructive shock?
21. The most common cause of seizures in the child is;
22. Apgar score should be evaluated; -
23. Bleeding upto ________ is normal following NSD. -
24. Which of the ff. is usually found in ob kit? –bulb syringe
25. Which of the ff. S/S are not commonly found in a pt. suffering from hypoperfusion? –hot
and dry skin
26. Your pt. is a victim of an automobile-pedestrian collision. Assuming this pt. has suffered a
musculoskeletal injury in the ff. areas. Which injury has the greatest potential for significant
blood loss – pelvis
27. In relation to blood loss class 3 hemorrhage would be classified as: -up to 40% blood loss
28. The index deformities for what injuries your trauma pt. may have sustained is based
primarily on; -mechanism of injury
29. The severity of shock classified into 3 categories when the body is able to maintain BF and
perfusion is called; -compensated
30. What is the systolic BP below which perfusion to vital organs is considered in adequate? –
70 mmHg
31. Early signs of shock that are actually the body’s compensating mechanism include all of the
ff except: -pale cool skin
32. Which of the ff. is a non hemorrhagic cause of acute abdomen? –appendicitis
33. Caring for an alert 4 y.o. boy who has severe FBAO and adequate peripheral perfusion
includes; -abdominal thrust transport
 34. The most common cause of diabetic emergency is hypoglycemia. The results from; -vomits a
meal
35. A 20 y.o. female complaints of abdominal pain. Correct assessment of the pt abdomen
includes: -palpating the painful last
36. Side effects of oral glucose administration include; -cerebral acidosis if pt is hypoxic
37. A 3 y.o. boy has sudden onset of respiratory distress. The mother denies any recent illness
and fever. You should suspect; -FBAO
38. If meconium is present in fluids at birth it is clear indication of; -fetal distress
39. Prior to delivery if the mother lies in the back she may develop dizziness and drop in BP this
is called; -supine hypotensive syndrome
40. Which of the ff. are S/S of compensated shock? –slight increase in diastolic pressure slight
increase in heart rate and anxiety
41. Identify 4 medical emergencies classified as Geriatric emergencies.
42. Describe the PAT assessment in pediatric medical/ trauma emergency in pre-hospital field.
43. List 3 major components of the circulatory system necessary to ensure normal blood tissue
perfusion.
44. List 4 complication of pregnancy before the age of viability.
45. List 4 medical conditions classified as gynecological emergencies.
46. Enumerate 4 S/S specific to cardiogenic shock.
47. Fill in the blood loss values for the ff classes of hemorrhage
48. Identify the 9 regions of the abdominal cavity.
49. List 4 specific S/S of shock (blood loss) to children
50. Identify 4 signs that would lead you to suspect internal bleeding to an acute
abdomenpatient.

Week 5

1. The major symptoms of chest injury include: -chest pain, shortness of breath and respiratory
distress
2. Which of the ff. is role/responsibility of EMT-B?- patient assessment
3. A blow out fracture is a fracture of the: -orbit
4. Concussion is most accurately described as: -diffuse axonal injury
5. Which of the ff. indicates damage to the brain stem?-decarebrate or decorticate injury
6. Rigid suction catheter; -should be inserted only as far as you can visualize
7. A pt. with bp of 125/80 should have CPP of; -85
8. A pt. could lose up ______ mL if they have a fracture pelvis or bilateral femur; -3000 mL
9. An OPA should be considered in which of the ff. patients? –a 66 y.o. diabetic pt with GCS 6
10. During a rapid trauma assessment you note that there is an open chest wound with blood
bubbling out with it. What should you do next? –placed your gloved hand on the wound
11. Which of the ff. would be considered a critical burn?- a 35 y.o. man with full thickness bum of
the anterior trunk
12. When section of a bone are crushed and fragmented it is called;- comminuted fracture
13. You are responding to a call for a 2 y.o. boy who fell from a 2nd story window. With the MOI you
suspected the primary injury;- head
14. As you are assessing an elderly man who is complaining of severe headache the pt. loses
consciousness. Your first priority in caring for this pt.-assess the pulse
15. When arriving on the scene, EMT-B should;-size up the scene and take BSI precautions
16. You are transporting a head injury patient and en route to the hospital you notice tinged fluid
leaking from the nose. You should;- place a loose sterile dressing on the area
17. When preparing to lift:- your feet should be about shoulder width apart
18. It is important for EMT’s to be aware of child abuse in order to:- recognize and report
suspected cases
19. The nerve fibers which spread the electrical impulses through the myocardium are called; -
purkjie fibers
20. Your pt. presents with unequal pupils. You know that sign is associated with: -severe brain
injury
21. Which of the ff. is an indication of a severe FBAO to a child;- unresponsiveness
22. Your pt. suffered partial thickness burns to his anterior chest and superficial burns to his face.
Your primary concern in the management of this pt.;- swelling of the airway and possible
respiratory compromise
23. When splinting if a severe deformity exists or distal circulation is compressed you will;-
immobilized in the position found
24. Injury to the abdominal organ may cause inflammation to the abdominal lining. This is called;-
peritonitis
25. Suction tubes for Emergency Suctioning should be; -thick walled ,non kinking and wide bore
26. You are called to scene of a rape. Police officers are on the scene. Which of the ff statements is
correct regarding the situations?-items at the scene should not moved unless emergency care
requires it
27. You responded to a pt. who has a “barrel chest”, he is most likely suffering from; -COPD
28. How would you manage a pt. with an implied object in the cheek obstructing the airway? –
remove the implied object
29. Which of the ff is a not s/sx of a potential spinal injury?-unequal pupils or pupils that do not
respond to light
30. An abnormal evisceration should be treated by:- covering with an occlusive dressing
31. An epidural hematoma develops _______ and is usually the result of ______bleeding. –rapidly
arterial
32. Which of the ff conditions is not a type of decompression sickness?-pops
33. Allergies are most commonly associated with which of the ff respiratory conditions?-asthma
34. You are dispatched for a sick 4 y.o. child with a high fever. On your arrival you find out the pt.
leaning forward and drooling. Her mother tells you that she has a sore throat and doesn’twant
to eat. You suspects the child is suffering from.-epiglotitis
35. Increased pressure in the sac surrounding the heart is a result of a hemorrhage is known as:-
cardiac tamponade
36. Open wounds to the abdomen can be so wide and deep that internal organs protrude from the
wound. This is referred to as: -eviceration
37. The stridor associated with anaphylaxis is caused by;-mucosal edema
38. Life threatening complications of femoral fractures are most after caused by:- thigh muscle
contraction displacing the fracture
39. Select the correct statement regarding an emergency move.-a high risk of aggravating a pt’s
spine injury exits when performing an emergency move
40. Which of the ff. is not a sign of head injury?-priapism
41. Emergency medical care of an open soft tissue injury should include application of;- a dry sterile
dressing bandaged securely in place
42. A 77 y.o. woman is suffering from left ventricular failure. Her BP is 166/94. PR 116 and RR is 26.
The pt. should be placed in; - sitting position with legsflat
43. A 19 y.o. female was struck by a car while she was crossing the street a displaying S of shock.
During assessment, you note a contusion on the left hypochondriac. Which of the ff organ has
most likely been injured? -spleen
44. If your initial assessment reveals unstable pt. splinting of extremity injuries;- became a low
priority
45. What is cushing triad?- decreased pulse, elevated BP, altered respiratory patterns
46. The first step in caring for a pt. with severe facial injury is to;- ensure the airway is clear
47. You are called to a local park where a 12 y.o. boy was skateboarding and fell. You arrived to find
the boy sitting on the sidewalk supporting his left wrist with his right arm. In this situation, you
should:- after the rapid trauma assessment perform s focused physical examination
48. Which of the ff statements about splinting is true?- splinting the fracture above and below the
injury
49. Which of the ff. would confirm “flail chest”? – paradoximal chest movement
50. Which of the ff. is most adequate way for treating a responsive pt. with a full segment due to
flail chest? –place a bulky dressing over the injured site
51. Once the body’s head is delivered. If you see the umbilical cord around the baby’s neck you
should; -place your finger on the cord and remove it from around the baby’s neck
52. Jugular venous distension is associated with which of the ff. conditions? -1. Right ventricular
failure 3. Pericardial tamponade 5. Tension pnemothorax
53. During bar fight 22 y.o. man was stabbed in the chest with a large knife. The pt. is pulseless and
apneic and the knife is impaled in the center of the chest. Management should include; -
removing the knife starting CPR and providing rapid transportation
54. How much energy is used in initial monophasic defibrillation to a 70 kg adult?- 360 joules
55. Most ingested poison takes place in the; -small intestine

57 Select the most appropriate statement that should be used to describe a pt’s LOC in EMS; -pt
withdraws from a painful stimuli
58 When confronted with patient who has just rescued from a burning building and has
suffered 15%, 2nd and 3rd degree burn. You immediate priority of care should be. –
oxygenation
59 In a high speed head on RTA/MVA which area of the heart is most likely to sustain damage
due to impact on the right sternum? –right ventricle
60 Your pt was struck with a baseball bat during a fight. The pt. is unresponsive and you
observe bleeding from the left ear. This bleeding should be manage by: -applying a loose
sterile dressing to the ear
61 When treating a pt. with open soft tissue injury your 1st action should be to: -take BSI
precaution
62 You are called to a construction site where a worker has fallen 25 ft. you find out the pt.
unresponsive, your 1st action should be to; - assess the pulse
63 Pale skin color may indicate; -hypoperfusion/shock
64 You are called to a residence for a sick 5 y.o. child when you arrive, you note the child is
unresponsive with RR of 8 bpm and a HR of 40 bpm. Management of the child should consist
of- chest compression, artificial ventilation and transport
65 Clinical findings indicating an injury to the spinal cord include all of the ff except;-
hypertension
66 In tension pneumothorax, the pt. has;- tracheal deviation away from the affected side
67 During the rapid trauma assessment the abdomen for DCAP-BTLS and;- instability
68 Select the correct statement regarding GCS-a scale of 7 represents coma
69 A face striking the wind shield of a car is likely to cause what type of spinal injury-
hyperextension
70 You are called to a scene of a MVA/RTA. Which of the ff correctly reflects the in which you
should proceed on this call?- ensure scene safety take BSI determine MOI and assess the
pt.
71 You are performing secondary survey to a pt who sustained head injury. Identify a specific
signs which pose a threat to the pt. 3
72 Hyperfusion is classified into 3 categories of severity list them
73 List 4 signs of smoke inhalation injury
74 Describe the pathophysiology of neurologic shock.
75 List 3 causes of post partum bleeding
76 What are the normal values of the ECG rhythm
P wave
QRS complex
PR interval
77 List 8 phases of an ambulance call
78 List 4 of the infectious dse that pose a threat to EMT as outline by the OHSA
79 List 4 S/S of tension pneumothorax
80 List 4 specific S/S of respiratory distress
81 Enumerate 7 MOI on the spine
82 List 4 causes seizure in neonate
 83 You are called to the scene of MVA/RTA. List 4 questions to consider when evaluating MOI?
84 An adult has fallen from height . list 3 questions you should ask when evaluating MOI.

Presented below are VS of a pt’s who suffered head injury on an RTA?MVA. identify the clinical
findings of each.

85 _______skin hot and dry, PR 50, RR 10 irregular BP 210/110

86 _______skin warm and dry PR 50 regular RR 20 reg BP systolic 80
87 _______skin cool and sweaty, RR 24 reg and shallow BP systolic 80
88 Describe the most common medical cause of cardiac tamponade
89 List 4 specific S/S that would lead you to suspect internal bleeding to a blunt abdominal
trauma
90 What is meconium and its significance
91 List 4 main categories of injury resulting from trauma to the brain.
92 In a trauma pt enumerate 4 types of musculoskeletal injuries
93 Describe the pathophysiology of tension pneumothorax
94 List 4 factors to determine severity of burn
95 Diierentiate the term –urgent move –emergency move
96 Describe in order the 3 stages of labor and delivery
97 Aside from DCAP-BTLS, list 3 areas you will assess in extremity injuries.
98 Describe the pathophysiology of compartment syndrome
99 What is the meaning of APGAR