08/12/2021 RM-G3

CODE-A3

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456

MM : 720 FORTNIGHTLY TEST SERIES Time : 3.00 Hrs.

(for NEET-2022)

Test – 5
Topics covered :
Physics : Mechanical Properties of Fluids, Thermal Properties of Matter, Thermodynamics, Kinetic
Theory, Oscillations, Waves
Chemistry : Solutions, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics
Botany : Transport in Plants, Mineral Nutrition, Photosynthesis in Higher Plants
Zoology : Excretory Products and their Elimination, Locomotion and Movement, Neural Control and
Coordination, Chemical Coordination and Integration

Instructions :
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer:

SECTION - A (1) Will increase
1. The temperature in degree Celsius, which is half (2) Will decrease
of the temperature in Fahrenheit is (3) Will not change
(1) –40°C (4) May increase or decrease
(2) 0°C 3. The dimensional formula of specific heat capacity
is
(3) 80°C
(1) [M0L2T–2K–1]
(4) 160°C
(2) [ML2T–2K]
2. A meter scale made up of steel has two holes at
its ends. When it is heated to some temperature, (3) [M0L2T–2K–2]
the separation between the holes (4) [ML2T–2K–2]

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Fortnightly Test-5 (RMG3_Code-A3) Regular Medical-2022
4. In a container if nitrogen and neon are mixed 10. The ratio of mean free paths of two gas
then molecules with molecular radii r and 2r
(1) Nitrogen has more r.m.s speed respectively is (Assume number density of gases
(2) Neon has more mean translational kinetic is same)
energy (1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(3) Both have same mean translational kinetic
energy (3) 1 : 2 (4) 4 : 3

(4) Nitrogen has more mean translational kinetic
energy
5. Temperature (T) vs Pressure (P) graph of an
ideal gas for two different volumes V and 2V is
having slopes tan1 and tan2 respectively, as
shown in figure, then
11. Two slabs with given lengths, area of cross-
section and conductivities are joined in series to
form a composite slab as shown in figure. Then
equivalent thermal conductivity of the composite
slab will be

4
(1) 3K (2) K
1 3
(1) tan1 = tan2 (2) tan 1  tan 2
2 3
(3) K (4) K
1 2
(3) tan1 = 4tan2 (4) tan 1  tan 2
4 12. The product of wavelength corresponding to
 a  maximum intensity of radiation and absolute
6. In van der Waals equation  P  2  V  b   RT ,
 V  temperature of a body, is a constant
the dimensionless formula of ‘a’ is (i.e., mT = constant). This fact is
(1) [ML5T–2] (2) [M0L6T0]
(1) Newton’s law of cooling
(3) [ML–1T–2] (4) [ML5T–1]
(2) Wein’s displacement law
7. To increase the rms speed of molecules of a gas
three times, the temperature must be (3) Stefan’s law
(1) Increased 3-times (2) Decreased 3-times (4) Charles’ law
(3) Increased 9-times (4) Decreased 9-times 13. A body cools down according to Newton’s law of
8. If degrees of freedom of a gas are n, then the cooling. The curve which best represents the
C  variation of temperature () of body with time (t)
value of  P  1 is
C
 V  is
n
(1) n (2)
2
1 2 (1) (2)
(3) (4)
n n
9. In a container, pressure of a gas is measured as
100 kPa. If one-fourth of the gas is removed from
the container keeping temperature constant, then
pressure of the remaining gas will be (3) (4)
(1) 25 kPa (2) 50 kPa
(3) 75 kPa (4) 100 kPa

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Regular Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test-5 (RMG3_Code-A3)

14. A uniform metal rod, having Young’s modulus Y, 19. Consider the following two statements:
coefficient of linear expansion  is clamped I. Internal energy of a gas depends on the state
horizontally, between two rigid supports. On of gas.
decreasing the temperature by  thermal stress
II. In an isothermal process change in internal
developed in the rod will be
energy is maximum.
1 
(1) (2) Y  Then the correct option is
2 Y
(1) Only I is correct
Y Y 
(3) (4) (2) Only II is correct
 
15. The volume occupied by 14 g of nitrogen at STP (3) Both I and II are correct
is (4) Neither I nor II is correct
(1) 22.4 litre (2) 44.8 litre 20. The dimensional formula of surface tension is
(3) 11.2 litre (4) 5.6 litre (1) [ML–1T–2] (2) [MLT–2]
16. Two ideal gases undergo adiabatic expansion, (3) [ML2T–2] (4) [ML0T–2]
for which the corresponding P-V diagram is
drawn as shown in the figure. The plot 1 and 2 21. A thin needle of mass 1 g and length 2 cm is
should respectively correspond to placed on the surface of water. If needle is not
sinking into the water then surface tension of the
water is (take g = 10 ms–2 and contact angle
zero)
(1) 1 N m–1 (2) 0.5 N m–1
(3) 0.25 N m–1 (4) 0.025 N m–1
22. A wooden block weighs 10 N in air and 8 N when
(1) N2, He (2) O2, N2 immersed in a liquid. The force of buoyancy
(3) He, O2 (4) N2, CO (in N) is

17. Which of the following graph corresponds to 4

(1) (2) 2
isochoric process? 5
(3) 18 (4) 1
23. In the shown figure, the velocity v3 will be
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

18. A thermodynamic system is supplied 100 calories

of heat. If it does 218 joules of work, then change (1) 7 m/s (2) 3 m/s
in internal energy of the system will be (3) 1 m/s (4) 10 m/s
(1 calorie = 4.18 J)
24. A particle executing simple harmonic motion along
(1) 47.84 J x-axis is given by the equation x = 3 + 2 sint.
(2) 118 J The amplitude of SHM is
(3) 200 J (1) 3 (2) 2
(4) 100 J (3) 5 (4) 1

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Fortnightly Test-5 (RMG3_Code-A3) Regular Medical-2022
25. A simple harmonic motion along x-axis is given 31. The water droplets in free fall are spherical due to
by x = Asint. Then average speed of the particle
(1) Gravity
between x = –A to x = A will be
(2) Viscosity
(1) Zero (2) A
(3) Surface tension
A 2A
(3) (4)
2  (4) Intermolecular attraction
26. A particle is executing SHM along x-axis such 32. Fundamental frequency produced in a closed
that its velocity is 1 cm/s at a displacement of organ pipe is 60 Hz. Then first overtone
2 cm and for velocity 2 cm/s, displacement is frequency will be
1 cm. Then amplitude of SHM (in cm) is
(1) 60 Hz (2) 120 Hz
(1) 5 (2) 6
(3) 180 Hz (4) 30 Hz
(3) 7 (4) 8
33. If velocity of sound in air at a point is v. Then the
27. The equation of SHM along x-axis with amplitude
velocity of sound at another point where pressure
A of a particle, starting from mean position x = 0
as well as density of air is doubled will be
and directed towards negative extreme position is
 v
(1) x = Asint (2) x  A sin   t   (1) v (2)
 2 2

(3) x  A sin  t    (4) x  A cos  t    (3) 2v (4)

v
4
28. The equation of SHM of a particle of mass
100 g, along x-axis is given as, x = 2sin (100t) 34. Two tuning forks A and B of frequencies 300 Hz
(x is in cm, t is in s). Then maximum kinetic and ‘ f’ Hz respectively are sounded together to
energy of the particle will be produce beat frequency of 5 Hz. If fork A is filed
(1) 1 J (2) 2 J then beat frequency gets reduced. Then f (in Hz)
(3) 0.1 J (4) 0.2 J is

29. The speed of the wave pulse generated on the (1) 300 (2) 295
stretched string as shown in figure is (mass per (3) 305 (4) 310
unit length of the string i.e.  = 10 g/cm, hanging
mass = 10 kg) 35. A police van is chasing a thief’s car on a straight
highway with speed of van and car are 20 m/s and
10 m/s respectively. If van is blowing horn of
frequency 620 Hz, then frequency heard by thief
will be (assume velocity of sound in air = 330 m/s)
(1) 660 Hz (2) 600 Hz
(3) 700 Hz (4) 640 Hz
SECTION - B
(1) 10 m/s (2) 10 m/s
36. The equation of a travelling wave on a string is
(3) 1 m/s (4) 0.1 m/s
given as, y  (2 mm)sin[(15.7 m 1 ) x  (31.4 s 1 )t ]
30. Three waves of equal amplitude and same
frequency are superimposed to give resultant (where x is in meter). The wave velocity will be
intensity nine times the intensity of individual (1) 1 m/s
waves. Then the phase difference between
(2) 2 m/s
consecutive waves is
(1) 0° (2) 60° (3) 0.5 m/s

(3) 120° (4) 180° (4) 1.5 m/s

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Regular Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test-5 (RMG3_Code-A3)

37. A transverse wave travelling along positive 41. The pressure-volume (P-V) diagram for the cyclic
x-direction on a string is shown at an instant. process ABC is shown in the figure. The work
The particle having velocity in positive y-axis is done by the gas in the whole cycle is (part AB of
loop is circular)

(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
 2  2
(1) V (2) P
38. The maximum wavelength of a stationary sound 4 4
wave that can be produced in an open organ pipe

of length 1 m is (3) PV (4) All of these
4
(1) 0.5 m (2) 1 m
42. The temperature of hot reservoir of a Carnot
(3) 2 m (4) 0.25 m engine is 1500 K. The temperature of sink
39. A liquid-solid contact is shown in the figure. The required to produce 80% efficiency to the engine
is
contact angle may be
(1) 1200 K (2) 700 K
(3) 500 K (4) 300 K
43. In an open container water is filled upto a height
of 5 m as shown. With the given dimensions of
container, the pressure at the bottom of container
(at point P) is (take atmospheric pressure
1 × 105 Pa, g = 10 m/s2, density of water 1000
kg/m3)

(1) 0° (2) 45°

(3) 90° (4) 108°
40. Volume-temperature (V-T) diagram for an
isobaric process is drawn as shown, then correct
relation between number of moles n1 and n2 of
the gas is

(1) 1 × 105 Pa (2) 1.5 × 105 Pa

(3) 1.8 × 105 Pa (4) 0.5 × 105 Pa
44. Among the following factors, surface tension
does not depend on
(1) n1 > n2
(1) Temperature
(2) n2 > n1
(2) Impurities
(3) n1 = n2 (3) Type of liquid
(4) n1 and n2 cannot be compared (4) Surface area of liquid

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Fortnightly Test-5 (RMG3_Code-A3) Regular Medical-2022
45. A block of density  is floating in a liquid of 48. A thermodynamic system undergoes from state
density  with completely submerged in the liquid 1 to 2 for which Q12 = 10 J and W12 = – 5 J. The
as shown in figure. Then system is further returned to its initial state 1 by a
different path for which Q21 = – 3 J. The total
change in internal energy for the cycle is
(1) Zero (2) 15 J
(3) –8 J (4) 5 J
(1) > 49. A system undergoes a cyclic process in which it
(2) < absorbs Q1 heat and gives out Q2 heat. The
efficiency of the process in  and the work done
(3) =
is W. Then, which of the following statements are
(4) Comparison of and is not possible correct?
46. The energy per unit area associated with a
W
progressive soundwave will be doubled if the a. W  Q1  Q2 b. 
Q1
(1) Amplitude of the wave is increased by 50%
Q2 Q2
(2) Amplitude of the wave is doubled c.  d.   1
Q1 Q1
(3) Amplitude of the wave is increased by 41%
(1) a and b (2) a, b and c
(4) Frequency of the wave is doubled
(3) a, b and d (4) a, c and d
47. Strings of same material of lengths L and 2L and
radii 2r and r vibrate with frequencies 100 Hz and 50. A hole is made at the bottom of the tank filled
150 Hz respectively. The ratio of their tension is with water (density = 1000 kg/m3). If the total
(1) 1 : 9 pressure at the bottom of the tank is 3 atm
(1 atm = 105 N/m2), then the velocity of efflux is
(2) 2 : 9
(3) 3 : 9 (1) 400 m/s (2) 200 m/s

(4) 4 : 9 (3) 600 m/s (4) 500 m/s

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A 54. Unit of rate constant of second order reaction is

51. 100 ml of 2 M NaOH solution is mixed with (1) mol–1 L s–1
900 ml of 4 M NaOH solution. The molarity of the (2) mol L–1 s–1
resultant solution will be
(3) mol–1 L–1 s
(1) 2.8 M (2) 3.2 M
(4) mol–1 L–1 s–1
(3) 3.4 M (4) 3.8 M
55. Calculate osmotic pressure of 0.1 molar glucose
52. Calculate molality of an aqueous solution in solution at 27°C temperature.
which 10 g NaOH is dissolved in 250 g water. (1) 25 atm (2) 50 atm
(1) 1 m (2) 0.1 m (3) 2.5 atm (4) 5 atm
(3) 2 m (4) 4 m 56. The mass of copper deposited at cathode on
53. If rate constant of a reaction is 4.606 × 10–4 s–1 electrolysis of aqueous solution of CuSO4 by
then the time required for the completion of 20% passing 5 ampere of current for 1930 seconds is
of the reaction is nearly (Atomic mass of Cu = 63.5 u; 1 F = 96500 C)
(1) 100 s (2) 980 s (1) 6.35 g (2) 3.18 g
(3) 485 s (4) 48 s (3) 1.6 g (4) 5.1 g

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Regular Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test-5 (RMG3_Code-A3)

57. For the following cell reaction 65. Which among the following is an incorrect
statement?
Ni(s)  Cu2 (aq)  Ni2 (aq)  Cu(s)
(1) Mole fraction of gas in the liquid solution is
 
ENi2
/Ni
 0.25 V and E Cu 2
/Cu
 0.34 V  G° for proportional to the partial pressure of the gas
the reaction is over the solution

(1) –2.2 F (2) –1.18 F (2) Different gases have different KH values

(3) –3.21 F (4) –1.75 F (3) KH is function of nature of gas

58. Limiting molar conductivity of which ion is highest (4) KH of a gas is independent of temperature
at 298 K in water? 1
66. Which is correct plot of ln k vs ?
(1) H+ (2) Na+ T
(3) Mg2+ (4) Ca2+
59. If 0.1 M solution of Al2(SO4)3 is 30% dissociated
then the van’t Hoff factor of the salt is
(1) (2)
(1) 1.5 (2) 2.2
(3) 4.5 (4) 3.8
60. If resistance of conductivity cell filled with NaCl
solution is 50  and conductivity of the solution is
0.015 S cm–1 then the cell constant of the
conductivity cell will be
(3) (4)
(1) 1.25 cm–1 (2) 0.5 cm–1
(3) 0.75 cm–1 (4) 1.50 cm–1
61. 0.1 molal aqueous solution of which compound 67. For a chemical reaction, R  P if H = –75 kJ
will have highest boiling point? (consider mol–1 and activation energy for the forward
complete dissociation of electrolytes) reaction is 50 kJ mol–1 then activation energy for
(1) Glucose (2) KCl the backward reaction will be
(3) CaCl2 (4) CH3COONa (1) 125 kJ mol–1 (2) 25 kJ mol–1
62. Which is incorrect for a solution showing negative (3) 100 kJ mol–1 (4) 150 kJ mol–1
deviation from ideal behaviour? 68. Consider the following statements:
(1) mixH  0 (2) mix G  0 (i) A small amount of the catalyst can catalyse a
large amount of reactants.
(3) mix V  0 (4) mix S  0
(ii) A catalyst does not alter change in Gibbs
63. If 6 g of urea is dissolved in 250 g of water
energy (G) of a reaction.
then the boiling point of the solution
will be (Molar mass of urea = 60 g mol–1; Kb (iii) A catalyst catalyses both spontaneous and
of water = 0.52 K kg mol–1) non-spontaneous reactions.
(1) 101.2°C (2) 100.2°C The correct statements are
(3) 100.8°C (4) 101.5°C (1) (ii) and (iii) only (2) (i) and (ii) only
64. A solution contains 2 mole of n-pentane (3) (i) and (iii) only (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
and 3 mole of n-hexane at 298 K. The vapour 69. Rate constant of a reaction does not depend on
pressure of the solution is (at 298 K, vapour
(1) Temperature
pressure of n-pentane = 200 mm Hg and
n-hexane = 150 mm Hg) (Assume ideal solution) (2) Activation energy
(1) 155 mm Hg (2) 185 mm Hg (3) H of reaction
(3) 170 mm Hg (4) 350 mm Hg (4) Frequency of collisions

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Fortnightly Test-5 (RMG3_Code-A3) Regular Medical-2022

70. In dry cell, anode is made of 

77. If limiting molar conductivity ( m ) of a weak
(1) Zn (2) Cu electrolyte (AB) is 400 S cm2 mol–1 and molar
(3) Graphite (4) Pb conductivity of the electrolyte at a given
 2 concentration is 25 S cm2 mol–1 then the
71. In the following reaction, MnO4  Mn , 0.5
percentage degree of dissociation of the
mole of permanganate ion is reduced to Mn2+ electrolyte at the given concentration will be
ions by passing how much electricity?
(1) 12.5% (2) 6.25%
(1) 5 F (2) 2.5 F
(3) 18.25% (4) 25%
(3) 3.5 F (4) 1F
78. Rate constant for the given decomposition
72. For hypothetical cell reaction reaction A  B + C is 2.5 × 10–3 s–1. If the rate of
A2 (aq)  B(s)  A(s)  B2 (aq) the reaction is 7.5 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1, then the
concentration of A in mol L–1 will be

if Ecell is 0.236 V then the equilibrium constant of (1) 2.5 (2) 3
the reaction at 27°C will be (3) 4.5 (4) 0.5
12 4
(1) 10 (2) 10 79. When the temperature of reaction is increased
6
(3) 10 (4) 108 from 27°C to 37°C, the rate of reaction is
73. Consider the following statements: doubled. The energy of activation for the reaction
is
(i) Molar conductivity increases with decrease in
concentration of weak electrolyte. (1) 300 R ln 2 (2) 9300 R ln 2

(ii) Conductivity decreases with decrease in (3) 310 R ln 3 (4) 410 R ln 2

concentration of weak electrolyte. 80. Which among the following represents the correct
(iii) When concentration approaches zero, the rate of the given reaction?
molar conductivity is known as limiting molar 3A + 2B  C + 3D + 4E
conductivity.
3d[A] 1 d[B]
The correct statements are (1) (2)
dt 2 dt
(1) (i) and (ii) only (2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
1 d[E] 1 d[C]
(3) (ii) and (iii) only (4) (i) and (iii) only (3) (4) 
4 dt 3 dt
74. If the mass ratio of methanol and water in a
81. Incorrect statement among the following is
solution is 4 : 9 then the mole fraction of
methanol in the solution will be (1) For zero order reaction, t1/2  initial
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.1 concentration of reactant [R]0

(3) 0.6 (4) 0.2 (2) Inversion of cane sugar is example of pseudo
first order reaction
75. Half life period of a first order reaction is 30 min.
The rate constant of the reaction is (3) Order of a reaction is experimental quantity
(1) 6.29 × 10–4 min–1 (2) 1.25 × 10–3 min–1 (4) Molecularity of a reaction may be fractional
(3) 2.31 × 10–2 min–1 (4) 6.93 × 10–3 min–1 82. For a zero order reaction the time required for the
completion of 40% of the reaction if the initial half

76. If molar conductivity ( m ) of NaCl, HCl and life period of the reaction is 20 min, is
HCOONa are x, y and z S cm2 mol–1 respectively
(1) 12 min

then  m for HCOOH in S cm2 mol–1 will be (2) 16 min
(1) (y + x – z) (2) (x + y + z) (3) 10 min
(3) (y + z – x) (4) (x –y – z) (4) 8 min

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Regular Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test-5 (RMG3_Code-A3)

83. For the first order reaction, R  P, [R]t vs t graph 88. Which metal(s) will liberate hydrogen gas when
will be ([R]t is concentration of reactant at time t) treated with dilute HCl solution?
(1) Ag (2) Cu
(3) Mg (4) Hg
(1) (2) 89. The concentration term which is independent of
temperature is
(1) Molality (2) Molarity
w
(3)   % (4) Normality
v
(3) (4)
w
90. Calculate molality of 49%   H2SO4 solution
W
(1) 6.5 m (2) 9.8 m
84. A dilute aqueous solution of sodium nitrate is
electrolyzed using platinum electrodes. (3) 5.2 m (4) 8.1 m
The products at anode and cathode respectively 91. Consider the following statements:
are (i) Mixture of phenol and aniline shows negative
(1) Na and H2 (2) O2 and H2 deviation from Raoult’s law.
(3) O2 and Na (4) N2 and H2 (ii) Nitric acid and water form maximum boiling
85. In lead storage battery the electrolyte used is azeotrope.

(1) Paste of KOH and ZnO (iii) Two solutions having same osmotic pressure
at a given temperature are called isotonic
(2) 38% solution of H2SO4 solutions.
(3) Aqueous ZnSO4 The correct statements(s) is/are
(4) Moist paste of NH4Cl (1) (i) and (ii) only (2) (ii) and (iii) only
SECTION - B (3) (i) only (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
86. Consider the following half cell reactions 92. Vapour pressure of carbon tetrachloride at a
Cu 2+
+ 2e  Cu
–
E° = 0.34 V particular temperature is 400 mm of Hg. A non-
volatile, non-electrolyte solid weighing 0.8 g when
Fe3+ + e–  Fe2+ E° = 0.77 V
added to 77 g of carbon tetrachloride the vapour
Pb 2+
+ 2e  Pb
–
E° = –0.13 V pressure of the solution becomes 390 mm of Hg.
Cr3+ + 3e–  Cr E° = –0.74 V The molar mass of solute is (Molar mass of CCl4
is 154 g mol–1. Assume solution to be dilute.)
Strongest oxidising agent based on given E°
values is (1) 120 g mol–1 (2) 64 g mol–1

(1) Cu2+ (2) Fe3+ (3) 50 g mol–1 (4) 32 g mol–1

(3) Pb2+ (4) Cr3+ 93. For a reaction, the rate law is given as,
Rate = k[A]2 [B]–1 [C]2, overall order of the
87. One Faraday electricity is passed through
reaction is
NaCl(l), AlCl3(l), CuSO4(l) kept in three different
vessels using inert electrodes. The ratio of moles (1) –4 (2) 3
of Na, Al and Cu deposited at the electrodes is (3) 2 (4) Zero
(1) 1 : 1 : 1 94. Which of the following aqueous solution is best
(2) 1 : 3 : 2 conductor of electricity?

(3) 6 : 2 : 3 (1) 0.1 M sucrose (2) 0.1 M CH3COOH

(4) 2 : 3 : 4 (3) 0.1 M NaCl (4) 0.1 M NH4OH

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Fortnightly Test-5 (RMG3_Code-A3) Regular Medical-2022

95. If molar conductance of Al2(SO4)3 is  at infinite 98. Calculate depression in freezing point for 0.2 m
dilution then its equivalent conductance at the sodium chloride solution if it gets completely
infinite dilution will be dissociated in aq. solution. [Kf(H2O) = 1.86]
  (1) 7.4°C (2) –7.4°C
(1) (2)
2 6 (3) 0.74°C (4) –0.74°C
 99. Which solution is isotonic to blood cells?
(3) (4) 
3
(1) 9% (w/v) NaCl
96. Which of the following metal can displace Cu2+
(2) 0.9% (w/v) NaCl
from its aqueous solution?
(3) 19% (w/v) NaCl
(1) Zn (2) Ag
(4) 30% (w/v) NaCl
(3) Pt (4) Au
97. Which of the following metal is least reactive in 100. Rate of which order reaction is independent to
aqueous solution? concentration of reactant?

(1) Li (2) Na (1) 1 (2) 2

(3) Ag (4) Pb (3) 3 (4) 0

BOTANY

SECTION - A 105. A plant cell is placed in a hypertonic solution.

101. Both simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion Regarding the movement of molecules, it would
be true to say that
(1) Respond to protein inhibitors
(1) Solute molecule will move from cell to the
(2) Do not require ATP energy hypertonic solution
(3) Are uphill transport (2) Water molecules will move from cell to
(4) Are highly selective in nature surrounding medium

102. Transport of minerals in plants is
(1) From sink to source
(2) Always from roots to other plant organs
(3) From source to the plant parts where it is
required
(4) Always from xylem to phloem
103. Which of the following process in plant(s) is/are
slow and not dependent on a living system?
(3) Plant cell will become turgid due to
movement of water into the cell
(4) There will be no net movement of water
across the cell membrane
106. All of the following are the roles of water in higher
plants, except
(1) It helps in the uptake and distribution of
mineral nutrients
(2) It plays a key role in photosynthesis

(1) Simple diffusion (2) Active transport (3) It helps in the transportation of starch to the
growing parts
(3) Transpiration (4) Both (1) and (2)
(4) It helps in the germination of seeds
104. Select the correct statement w.r.t. aquaporins.
107. Which of the following factors in a tree can be
(1) These are present in the cell walls both positive or negative?
(2) These are found only in aquatic organisms (1) Water potential
(3) These are water channels (2) Solute potential
(4) These are responsible for splitting of water (3) Both water potential and solute potential
molecules (4) Pressure potential
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Regular Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test-5 (RMG3_Code-A3)

108. If solute molecules are added to pure water (i) (ii) (iii)
which is kept at atmospheric pressure then (1) Solvent Higher Lower
(1) Its solute potential will decrease (2) Solvent Lower Higher
(2) Its water potential will increase (3) Solute Higher Lower
(3) Its pressure potential will increase (4) Solute Lower Higher
(4) Its solute potential and pressure potential 114. Which of the following statements is not true for
both will increase osmotic pressure?
109. Which of the following conclusions had been (1) It is hydrostatic pressure
drawn from the girdling experiment done by (2) It develops only in a confined system
Malpighi? (3) Its numerical value is equal to that of osmotic
(1) Water and minerals are translocated in both potential
the directions by xylem (4) Its value is always negative
(2) Both xylem and phloem are responsible for 115. Withdrawal of protoplast of a plant cell from its
the translocation of nutrients wall due to excessive loss of water from cell
(3) Phloem is responsible for the translocation of called
food in one direction (1) Endosmosis (2) Osmosis
(4) Bark is composed of cork, cortex and phloem (3) Imbibition (4) Plasmolysis
110. After the transfer of carbohydrate from sieve tube 116. In plants, symplast pathway is different from
elements to the sink apoplast as in the former

(1) Solute potential in the sink increases (1) Only living parts of the plant body is involved

(2) Osmotic pressure in the sieve tube (2) Only water molecule is transported
decreases (3) Both living and non-living parts of the plant is
involved
(3) Water potential of sieve tube as well as sink
become zero (4) Only organic substances are transported

(4) DPD in the sieve tubes becomes high 117. Some trees do not have root hairs in their roots.
These trees absorb water and minerals
111. Phloem sap does not contains
(1) From the root epidermis which are not
(1) Hormones (2) Cellulose covered with cuticle
(3) Sucrose (4) Amino acids (2) By forming mycorrhizal association
112. All of the following are the chief sinks for mineral (3) By harbouring lichens around their roots
elements in plants, except
(4) Through lenticels formed on their root surface
(1) Apical meristems 118. Most of the minerals are absorbed actively by the
(2) Developing flowers roots because
(3) Young leaves (i) Minerals cannot be diffused in through
cellulosic cell wall.
(4) Germinating seeds
(ii) Minerals are present in the soil as charged
113. Osmosis is the passage of (i) molecules from
ions.
a region of their (ii) concentration to a region (iii) The concentration of minerals in the soil is
of their (iii) concentration through semi- usually lower than that in the root cells.
permeable membrane. The correct reason(s) is/are

Select the option which correctly fill the blanks (1) (ii) and (iii) only (2) (i) and (iii) only
(i), (ii) and (iii). (3) (ii) only (4) (i) only

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Fortnightly Test-5 (RMG3_Code-A3) Regular Medical-2022
119. Guttation occurs through 125. Solution culture technique to grow plants was first
(1) Young stem demonstrated by

(2) Lower surface of leaves (1) Arnon and Stout (2) Cornelius van Niel

(3) Cut ends of roots (3) Julius Von Sachs (4) Ruben

(4) Hydathodes 126. Identify the following statements as true (T) or

false (F) w.r.t. hydroponics and choose the option
120. One of the plant factors that affect the rate of
accordingly.
transpiration is
(A) It can be employed for commercial production
(1) Temperature
of vegetables.
(2) Vapour pressure gradient
(B) This technique is useful for aquatic plants but
(3) Number and distribution of stomata not for terrestrial plants.
(4) Amount of chlorophyll in mesophyll cells (C) It controls soil borne pathogens as well as
121. The conditions that favour the closing of stomata problem of weeding.
are (A) (B) (C)
+
(a) Decreased concentration of K ions in the (1) T F F
guard cells. (2) T F T
(b) Increased concentration of CO2 in the sub- (3) F T T
stomatal cavity.
(4) F F T
(c) Presence of abscisic acid in the leaves.
127. Nitrates present in the soil is reduced to gaseous
(1) Only (a) and (c) nitrogen by the action of which of the following
(2) All (a), (b) and (c) bacteria?
(3) Only (b) and (c) (1) Nitrobacter
(4) Only (a) and (b) (2) Nitrosomonas
122. Least transpiration occurs through (3) Rhizobium
(1) Stomata (2) Bark (4) Pseudomonas denitrificans
(3) Cuticle (4) Lenticels 128. In plants, the primary amino acid from which the
123. If we cut the stem a little above the soil surface, other amino acids are formed through
exudated liquid at the cut end is seen after few transamination is
minutes. This exudation is due to (1) Glutamic acid (2) Aspartic acid
(1) Transpiration pull (3) -ketoglutaric acid (4) Oxaloacetic acid
(2) Humidity in atmosphere 129. The role of leghaemoglobin in the root nodules of
(3) Root pressure legume plants is

(4) Cohesion force between water molecules (1) To create anaerobic condition

124. Select the incorrect match from the following. (2) To provide ammonium ion to nitrogenase

(1) Phosphorus – Component of energy (3) To degrade urea into ureides

related compound in (4) To provide nitrogen to the root cells
organisms 130. The autotrophic organism which can fix nitrogen
(2) Manganese – Macronutrient for plants symbiotically as well as in free living state is
(3) Magnesium ion – Enzyme activator (1) Frankia (2) Azotobacter
(4) Nitrogen – Constituent of chlorophyll (3) Anabaena (4) Nitrosomonas

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Regular Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test-5 (RMG3_Code-A3)

131. Deficiency symptoms of which of the following 137. Photosystem II

elements appear first in the young tissues of (1) Lies on the outer surface of the thylakoids
plants?
(2) Participates in both cyclic as well as non-
(1) Nitrogen (2) Calcium cyclic flow of electrons
(3) Potassium (4) Magnesium
(3) Does not participate in the splitting of water
132. Match the following columns and select the molecule
correct option.
(4) Is found in grana lamellae
Column-I Column-II
138. The assimilatory power(s) produced in cyclic
a. Zinc (i) Involved in pollen photophosphorylation is/are
germination
(1) ATP only
b. Magnesium (ii) Synthesis of auxin
(2) NADPH only
c. Copper (iii) Reversibly oxidised
(3) Both ATP and NADPH
during electron
transport (4) ATP and NADH
d. Boron (iv) Binding of ribosomal 139. Optimum temperature for photosynthesis in C4
subunits plants is
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (1) Equal to that of C3 plants
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (2) Lower than that of C3 plants
133. Chlorosis refers to (3) Higher than that of C3 plants
(1) Death of leaf tissues (4) The same as that for tomato and wheat
(2) Toxicity of chlorine in plants plants

(3) Loss of chlorophyll leading to yellowing of 140. Read the following statements and select the
leaves option which is true for them.

(4) Curling of leaves due to infection of Statement-A : A limiting factor for a biochemical
pathogens reaction directly affects the process if its quantity
is changed.
134. Which organisms were taken by T.W. Engelmann
in his experiment that described the first action Statement-B : A major limiting factor that
spectrum of photosynthesis? influence the rate of photosynthesis is the
concentration of CO2.
(1) Hydrilla and anaerobic bacteria
(1) Both the statements are false
(2) Mint plant and mouse
(3) Hydrilla and aerobic bacteria (2) Both the statements are true

(4) Cladophora and aerobic bacteria (3) Only statement A is true

135. The range of photosynthetically active radiation is (4) Only statement B is true

(1) 390 – 760 Å (2) 400 – 700 nm 141. The cell organelle that is not involved in the
process of photorespiration is
(3) 400 – 700 Å (4) 360 – 590 nm
(1) Chloroplast (2) Peroxisome
SECTION - B
(3) Lysosome (4) Mitochondrion
136. Which of the following statements is not true for
chlorophyll a? 142. In C4 plants, Calvin cycle occurs in

(1) It works as shield pigment (1) Cytosol of mesophyll cell

(2) It is bright or blue-green in chromatogram (2) Chloroplast of mesophyll cell
(3) It is the primary photosynthetic pigment (3) Cytosol of bundle sheath cell
(4) It works as reaction centre in the photosystem (4) Chloroplast of bundle sheath cell

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Fortnightly Test-5 (RMG3_Code-A3) Regular Medical-2022
143. The most abundant enzyme on the Earth is 147. Ammonification is
(1) RuBisCO (1) Conversion of ammonia into nitrate
(2) NADP reductase (2) Conversion of nitrate to nitrite
(3) PEPcase (3) Decomposition of organic nitrogen into
(4) ATP synthase ammonia
(4) Reduction of inert atmospheric nitrogen to
144. To make one molecule of glucose how many
ammonia
NADPH molecules are required?
148. Cellulose microfibrils are oriented _____ rather
(1) 12 (2) 8
than _____, making it easier for the stomata to
(3) 18 (4) 6 open.
145. In chloroplasts, the enzyme that catalyse the (1) Longitudinally, radially
reduction of NADP+ to NADPH + H+ is located
(2) Radially, longitudinally
(1) In the lumen of thylakoid
(3) Radially, obliquely
(2) On the inner side of inner membrane of
(4) Obliquely, radially
chloroplast
149. In a flaccid cell
(3) In between the outer and inner membrane
(1) DPD = OP (2) DPD < OP
(4) On the stroma side of the thylakoid
membrane (3) DPD = 0 (4) DPD > OP

146. Initial phase of mineral absorption
(1) Occur in the area of symplast
(2) Is an active process
(3) Occurs in the area of apoplast
(4) Results in slow uptake of ions into the outer
space of the cell
150. Select the correct option for sequential order of
steps during Calvin cycle from CO2 fixation
(1) Regeneration  Carboxylation  Reduction
(2) Reduction  Carboxylation  Regeneration
(3) Carboxylation  Reduction  Regeneration
(4) Reduction  Regeneration  Carboxylation

ZOOLOGY

SECTION - A 154. On an average _______ mL of blood is filtered by

151. Choose the most toxic nitrogenous waste among the kidneys per minute.
the following options. Choose the option that fills the blank correctly.
(1) Urea (2) Uric acid (1) 200 – 300 (2) 1100 – 1200
(3) Ammonia (4) Creatinine
(3) 4500 – 5000 (4) 6000
152. Right kidney is lower than the left one because of
155. The specialised cells called podocytes are
more space being occupied by the
present in
(1) Spleen (2) Liver
(1) PCT (2) DCT
(3) Stomach (4) Pancreas
(3) Bowman’s capsule (4) Collecting duct
153. The U – shaped blood vessel running parallel to
the Henle’s loop is 156. A posterior pituitary hormone which prevents
(1) Glomerular capillaries wide swings in water balance helping to avoid
dehydration or water overload is
(2) Renal artery
(3) Duct of Bellini (1) Vasopressin (2) Oxytocin

(4) Vasa recta (3) Aldosterone (4) Creatinine

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Regular Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test-5 (RMG3_Code-A3)

157. A fall in GFR can activate the JG cells to release 164. Arrange the events during muscle contraction in
_______ which can stimulate the glomerular correct order
blood flow and thereby bring the GFR back to a. Nerve impulse generates action potential in
normal. Choose the option which fills the blank sarcolemma.
correctly.
b. Cross – bridge formation.
(1) Renin (2) Angiotensin-II
c. Release of calcium ions.
(3) Rennin (4) Erythropoietin d. Signals reaches to sarcoplasmic reticulum.
158. The wall of the atria of the heart releases e. Formation of actin – myosin complex.
A in response to an B in blood volume
f. Muscle contraction.
and pressure. Choose the option which identifies
(1) a  d  c  b  e  f
A and B correctly.
(2) a  d  c  e  b  f
A B
(3) a  d  b  c  e  f
(1) Angiotensin I Increase
(4) a  c  d  b  e  f
(2) Angiotensin II Decrease
165. A single, quick isolated contraction of a muscle
(3) ANF Increase
fibre to a single stimulus of threshold value is
(4) ANF Decrease called
159. Which abnormal constituent can be seen in the (1) Tetany (2) Muscle twitch
urine of a person who is undergoing prolonged (3) Muscle fatigue (4) Rigor mortis
fasting?
166. The repeated contraction of the skeletal muscle
(1) Bile salts (2) Sucrose anaerobically leads to the accumulation of which
(3) Albumin (4) Ketone bodies substance in the muscle?

160. The blood in the artificial kidney flows through (1) Lactic acid (2) Citric acid
channels or tubes bound by (3) Hydrochloric acid (4) Linoleic acid
(1) Heparin infused membrane 167. Extreme rigidity of body after death due to
(2) Cellophane membrane complete depletion of ATP and phosphocreatine
is called
(3) Cellulose membrane
(1) Rigor mortis (2) Muscle fatigue
(4) Bilirubin infused membrane
(3) Cross-bridging (4) Filament sliding
161. Inflammation of urinary bladder is termed as
168. Select the incorrect point of differentiation of red
(1) Nephritis (2) Cystitis muscle fibres and white muscle fibres.
(3) Pyelonephritis (4) Pyuria
Red muscle fibres White muscle fibres
162. A muscle is covered by a sheath of connective
tissue called (1) They have a larger They have a smaller
diameter diameter
(1) Epimysium (2) Fasciculi
(3) Perimysium (4) Endomysium (2) They have more They have less blood
blood capillaries capillaries
163. Monomeric G-actin polymerises to form
(1) Tropomyosin (3) Mitochondria are Mitochondria are less
more in number in number
(2) F-actin
(3) Meromyosin (4) More myoglobin Less myoglobin
content content
(4) Troponin

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Fortnightly Test-5 (RMG3_Code-A3) Regular Medical-2022
169. Select the odd one w.r.t. bones of axial skeleton. (1) a and b only
(1) Ear ossicles (2) Cranium (2) a and d only

(3) Sternum (4) Clavicle (3) a, b and c only

170. Saddle joint is found between (4) a, b, c and d

(1) Radius and carpal 175. In a chemical synapse, the receptors for
neurotransmitters are present on/in the
(2) Carpal and metacarpal of thumb side
(1) Pre-synaptic membrane
(3) Radius and ulna
(2) Synaptic cleft
(4) Tarsals
(3) Post-synaptic membrane
171. The number of thoracic and lumbar vertebrae in
(4) Axon
foetal stage of humans are A and B
176. The temperature regulation center is present in
respectively.
(1) Forebrain
Choose the option that fill the blanks A and B (2) Midbrain
respectively.
(3) Hindbrain
(1) 5 and 12 (2) 24 and 10
(4) Spinal cord
(3) 12 and 5 (4) 14 and 8 177. Which pair of structures distinguish a nerve cell
172. An autoimmune disorder which causes from other type of cell?
inflammation of synovial membrane and increase (1) Nucleus and mitochondria
in synovial fluid which exert pressure that causes (2) Cell body and dendrites
pain is
(3) Vacuoles and fibres
(1) Gout (2) Osteoporosis
(4) Flagellum and medullary sheath
(3) Rheumatoid arthritis (4) Osteomalacia
178. Sympathetic nervous system do not cause
173. Nerve fibres which transmit impulses from (1) Slowing down of peristalsis
tissues/organs to the CNS are
(2) Erection of hair
(1) Afferent fibres
(3) Increase in gastric juice secretion
(2) Efferent fibres (4) Constriction of peripheral arteries and thereby
(3) Motor fibres increase in blood pressure
(4) Both afferent and efferent fibres 179. Krause’s end bulbs are the skin receptors which
are concerned with the sense of
174. consider the following statements about human
nervous system. (1) Touch

a. The CNS lies along the central axis of the (2) Heat

body. (3) Cold

b. CNS includes the brain and the spinal cord. (4) Pressure

c. The nerves are the components of the PNS. 180. CSF is not present in
(1) Ventricles of brain
d. CNS sends regulatory impulses to smooth
muscles and glands. (2) Spinal cord

Choose the option that contains only correct (3) Subdural space
statements. (4) Sub-arachnoid space

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Regular Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test-5 (RMG3_Code-A3)

181. Select the option with correct order of events 187. Which of the following is a hypercalcemic
taking place for a withdrawal reflex or reflex hormone?
pathway. (1) Thyroxine (2) Parathormone
a. The motor neurons carry impulses to the (3) Insulin (4) Glucagon
skeletal muscles.
188. Mineralocorticoids are produced by
b. Initiation of nerve impulses in the sensory or
(1) Pancreas (2) Adrenal gland
afferent neuron leading them to the spinal
cord. (3) Hypothalamus (4) Thymus
c. Interneurons initiate impulses in one or more 189. Complete the following table by selecting the
motor neurons. correct option which identifies A, B, C and D
d. The impulses enter the spinal cord and correctly.
initiate impulses in one or more interneurons. Endocrine Hormone Nature Principle
e. The stimulus is detected by sensory cells of of action
receptors present in the skin. pancreas hormone
(1) e  d  b  c  a (2) e  b  d  a  c -cells B Peptide D
(3) e  b  d  c  a (4) e  d  c  b  a
-cells Insulin C Lowers blood
182. Which of the following is not correct about glucose
choroid layer of eye ball?
(1) It is highly vascular structure -cells A Polypepti Inhibits
de secretion of
(2) It is bluish in colour glucagon and
(3) It prevents internal reflection of light insulin
(4) It contains rhodopsin
A B C D
183. Which of the following membrane gives us the
ability to discriminate between different pitches of (1) Glucagon Stomatostatin Steroid Raises blood
sound? glucose level

(1) Reissner’s membrane (2) Somatostatin Glucagon Amino acid Raises blood
derivative glucose level
(2) Tympanic membrane
(3) Somatostatin Glucagon Peptide Raises blood
(3) Tectorial membrane glucose level

(4) Basilar membrane (4) Glucagon Stomatostatin Polypeptide Raises blood

184. Which of the following is called the master of glucose level

master endocrine gland? 190. The 24-hour (diurnal) rhythm of our body such as
(1) Hypothalamus (2) Pituitary the sleep-wake cycle is regulated by the
(3) Thyroid gland (4) Adrenal gland hormone

185. MSH is secreted from (1) Adrenaline (2) Melatonin

(1) Pars intermedia (2) Pars distalis (3) Calcitonin (4) Prolactin

(3) Pars nervosa (4) Neurohypophysis 191. Which gland is called ‘training school of
T-lymphocytes’?
SECTION - B
(1) Thyroid gland
186. The flap of connective tissue that connects the
two lobes of thyroid gland is called (2) Parathyroid gland

(1) Infundibulum (2) Islet (3) Thymus

(3) Isthmus (4) Intercalated disc (4) Pancreas

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Fortnightly Test-5 (RMG3_Code-A3) Regular Medical-2022
192. Erythropoietin is released by 195. Which hormone acts on the gastric glands and
stimulates the release of gastric juice containing
(1) Heart
digestive enzymes for the digestion of food?
(2) Liver
(1) Gastrin (2) Secretin
(3) Kidneys
(3) Cholecystokinin (4) GIP
(4) GI tract 196. The disorder, acromegaly is associated with
193. Choose the mismatched pair w.r.t. nature of hypersecretion of hormones of
hormone (1) Pineal gland (2) Pituitary gland
(1) TSH – Protein (3) Thymus gland (4) Adrenal gland
(2) Progesterone – Steroid 197. Read the following statements and choose the
correct answer.
(3) ANF – Peptide
Statement-A : Secretin acts on liver and
(4) Melatonin – Protein
stimulate the secretion of bile juice.
194. Identify A, B and C in below given figure. Choose
Statement-B : GIP hormone is secreted from
the correct option. duodenum.
(1) Both statements are correct
(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct
198. Corpora quadrigemina is present in
(1) Forebrain (2) Midbrain
(3) Pons (4) Medulla
199. In humans almost 85% nephrons

A B C (1) Have short loop of Henle

(2) Have long loop of Henle
(1) Medullary Renal Renal pelvis
pyramids column (3) Are devoid of Bowman’s capsule

(2) Renal Medullary Calyx (4) Are devoid of peritubular capillary network
column pyramid 200. Pivot joint is present between

(3) Calyx Bowman’s Renal (1) Radius and ulna

capsule column (2) Phalanges
(4) Renal Renal Medullary (3) Adjacent vertebrae
pelvis column pyramids (4) Tibia and femur



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Edition: 2021-22