28/03/2024 MM : 720 a) (2) (4) a) (4) (@) 4) @) (3) (1) = (2) (4) (4) 4) (2) @) a) 3) @) (1) = (1) @) a) - (3) (3) a) 2) (2) . (3) (2) (2) . (4) 4) (2) a) (2) (1) (1) (1) a) a Medicall IIT-JEE| Foundations Phase-| CODE-A Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-1 10005, Ph.011-47623456 234 ice: Aakash Tower, 8, Pu FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2024 (2) (2) (3) (2) (1) (2) (4) 2) (3) @) - (3) (2) (1) (3) (1) (1) a) 3) (3) (1). - (3) (2) a) (4) (2) (1) (2) (3) . (2) (3) (1) (2) (2) (4) ay a) = (1) 4) (3) . (3) Test -3 Answers 81. (3) 82. (1) 83. (1) 84. (2) 85. (3) 86. (3) 87. (2) 88. (1) 89. (3) 90. (2) 91. (2) 92. (3) 93. (3) 94. (1) 95. (3) 96. (1) 97. (2) 98. (2) 99. (4) 400.(1) 101 (4) 402 (2) 103 (3) 104 (2) 105 (3) 108 (3) 107 (2) 108 (2) 109 (1) 110 (4) 411 (3) 112 (2) 113 (3) 114 3) 118 (1) 116 (3) 117 (1) 118 (1) 119 (2) 120 (4) 424 (1) 122 (4) 123 (2) 124 (3) 125 (4) 126 (2) 127 (2) 128 (2) 129 (3) 130 (4) 131 (2) 432 (1) 133 (4) 194 (2) 135 (1) 196 (4) 137 (4) 138 (2) 199 (2) 440 (3) 141 (3) 442 (1) 143 (3) 144 (3) 145 (3) 146 (2) 147 (2) 148 (2) 149 (4) 150 (1) 151.(3) 152.(4) 153.(2) 154.(1) 155.(4) 156.(3) 187.(2) 158.(4) 159.(4) 160.(1) Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins. 161.(2) 162.(4) 163.(2) 164.(3) 165.(1) 166.(4) 167.(1) 168.(3) 169.(3) 170.(4) 471.(8) 172.(2) 173,(2) 174.(2) 175.(3) 176.(2) 477.(1) 178.(2) 179.(4) 180.(1) 181.(3) 182.(3) 183.(4) 184,(1) 185.(4) 186.(3) 187.(1) 188.(3) 189.(4) 490.(2) 191.(1) 192.2) 193.(4) 194.(4) 495.(3) 196.(3) 197.(4) 198.(3) 199.(2) 200.(4) (ay28/03/2024 MM : 720 @ Phase: CODE-A Aakash Medicall IIT-JEE| Foundations Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-1 10006, Ph.011-47623456 FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2024 Test -3 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins. SECTION-A 1. Answer (1) geo Z g_m G a, 9 Hence, unitot 2 is KS once, unto Ze M8 2. Answer (2) ™m o/ \e 2m am y_-26n? _6Gn? _36n? aaa _-M@n? ~ a 3. Answer (4) TE=-E BE=E 4. Answer (1) As per Kepler's law of time period Tec RO 5. Answer (4) Vx pag = Vin peg) 10. Pb _(Vin) wl) _1 700 =07 anaier(3) Pe=Pa* pgerh Pox Pat p 0h 3 Pe-Px ah) 3) Answer (4) Water droplets are spherical in free fall condition due to surface tension Answer (3) Fe “YA Af« £(F, Yand Aare same) Ay 2 Big 3 Ae Answer (3) Longitudinal strain is meaningful in soli. Answer (1) Steel is more elastic than rubber and hooke’s law is applicable up to elastic limit. (2)Final Test Series for NEET-2024 " 12, 13. 14, 16. 16. Answer (2) K-273_F-32 700 ~ 180 K-273 = 5(F-32) 9 kK 5 4 = (5 -32)4278 5 Ky ~ 5 (F-92)+273 Ka-Ky=3(-Fi) 5 50-2n 9 n=90 ‘Answer (4) 130-50 | 20-50 | x—50 a 0 x=0°C ‘Answer (4) apa R _ 2«0.072 “12x10 _ 27.2107 4.210% 2x6 10 = 120 Nim? ‘Answer (4) p= 280088 por Answer (2) The working of venturimeter Bernoull’s theorem. ‘Answer (3) R=2KA—) For R= Rrax aR Go H nat 2 is based on 1" 18. 19. 20. 24 22, 23. 24, 25. Test:3 (Code-A)_(Answers & Solutions) Answer (1) From mechanical energy conservation Sy? 36MM gy. BOM _ is y, o 2 2R R Answer (3) pp, 0006 a 4 Fx =D +R (A) =F G+] 6a47 =S(4])N ‘Answer (3) ‘As the height decreases, the rate of flow with hich the water is coming out decreases. Answer (1) ‘As the cork moves up, the force due to buoyancy remains constant. AS its speed increases, the retarding force due to viscosity increases, being proportional to the speed. Thus the acceleration gradually decreases. ‘Answer (1) Velocity of efflux = 2gh = V2x10%5 =10mis Rate of flow = Av = (1 x 104) x 10 = 10-' mis Answer (3) Toe = YI TE = NEFA = 5.0m Answer (1) = ARR) xto0°c = (69-50) , 199 - 25°C ao=F) (90-60) Answer (3) When the temperature of a liquid is increased by ATC the mass will remain unchanged while due to thermal expansion volume will increase and become V. v=Vi+ yar) where y is the coefficient of volume expansion of liquid. p= M-__™ ___p pa ™ PEW ViteyaT) 1 aT pry Fractional change in density =yaT 49 x 10 x 30 =18* 107 Answer (3) ‘The densest layer of water will be at bottom. The density of water is maximum at 4°C. So the temperature of bottom of lake will be 4°C. @)Test-3 (Code-A)_ (Answers & Solutions) 26. Answer (1) 27. 28. 29. 20. 34 R=Ri+Re wt kA kA” 3kA wee Keg 3K 24 Ken 3K Ky = 2 ‘Answer (2) FL L fy ee Answer (2) a By Bernoull’s theorem, dove LR ; pve +P, ‘Answer (3) Th (y-b)= Tee Tok (h-to)= Bb Equation (1) divided by (2) hab Th Ip-lo Ta Tol Talo = Ta To eq. (1) ea. (2) Tol Tilo = bo (T2-T)) = Tah Ta (ToT) “UTAT J Toh Te lo ‘Answer (2) ‘The Young's modulus of the material of a wire is ‘equal to the stress required to produce unit strain Answer (2) GM__GM Po (Rehy 32, 33. 34, 36. 36. 37. Final Test Series for NEET-2024 om (RAP > h=2R ‘Answer (4) _ 16M oR? Par (eay_pry? (7) lar) = T=3y3x84 = 435.96 ~ 436 days Answer (4) Foe ) als) BFL AY 3AY ‘Answer (2) Tt ye a f of F = Tension in the thread 2F sing = 27(AB) (sing = 9) 2F 0 =27(2Ro) F=2RT Answer (1) 2gR , Velocity at infinity is zero. SECTION-B Answer (2) According to Kepler's law of areal velocity wi a 2m Answer (1) ‘At ary point below th surface of earth OM, z ger (4)Final Test Series for NEET-2024 38. Answer (1) Potential energy at the surface of the earth GM R =-gmR Potential energy at a distance R from the surface _GMm RiR Mm 2R mgR 2 of earth = Gainin potent energy = 20% 2 gmk 2 39. Answer (1) Since the escape velocity is independent of direction of projection, therefore escape velocity of body, projected at an angle 45° with the vertical will be same i.e. 11 km/s, 40. ‘Answer (1) = 3x (0.01) = 0.03 41. Answer (2) atrets 02+04+t 4 Q= 400 «0.4 x10 = 1600 J 42, Answer (2) mSiAT = mS2AT m: * S14 = m2 x SX 6 Ss Sz m3 m2 43, 44, 45. 46. 47, Test:3 (Code-A)_(Answers & Solutions) 23 2 Answer (3) Terminal velocity of a spherical body In viscous had Ya gerlonp) Ver newer (2) Height of cotinn _ 2 cos) reg Wn=0 9 = 90° Answer) 1000/9 = R* -f 0 At = 4nP Ag = 1000 * 4nr?= 40nR” Change in enery = (AT 6c 36x x 10~* x 0.075 =27n* 10°) h ‘Answer (2) e arom a 2x40 v= 2x10? x10? v=N2 mis 1.4 mis Answer (4) tan37* = Yo tans3 =10%10? m (6)Test-3 (Code-A)_ (Answers & Solutions) 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53, 5A, Final Test Series for NEET-2024 “Answer (2) The strip will bend having concave surface on side 1 Answer (3) Water will expand on heating as well as on cooling J =64 from 4°C. ‘Answer (3) o 2 __ GM o oe 2 CHEMISTRY SECTION =A 55. Answer (1) ‘Answer (3) 4" Salt of strong acid and weak base [(NHs)»SO«] on iw hydrolysis form acidic solution, HA net ‘Answer (2) | U 8. CH,COoHag) = CH,COO aq) + Haq) Hy NG Initially 0.04 0 o ds 010.01 a. oote yen Number of sigma bonds = 12 _0.010(0.010+0.2) Number of pi bonds = 3 01a) 56. Answer (1) K, =0.20. On increasing temperature, dissociation of water : increases means Ks increases but pH and pH ant Sxto™ both decreases, 02 57. Answer (1) =9x 105 DP % ionization = 0.009% mee Answer (1) 58. Answer (3) 2NH(@)—=N,(9)+3H,(@) (0 HSO, +H > —H,SO, K Bronsted base Conjugate acid Ny(9)+0,() = 2NOK@) i) Ms K 59. Answer (3) 2H,(g) + 0,(g) += 2H,0(9) -..\i) CH,;COONa + HC! -»CH;COOH + NaCl w (y-*2« (i) #3 «Gi, w inital O5mol O2mol 0 ° Applying 2 % () + 2 (i) + 3% (ii), we get 0.3 mol Omol O.2mol 0.2 mol 4NHi(g) + 502(g) ——4NO(q) + 6420 (a) + 502(9) (a) + BH20(9) Now, pf = pk fog A K-13 KG (Acie) = 4.744 0-3 ‘Answer (3) nae y) CaCOs(s) —= Cad(s) + COXg) = 4.74 +109 3 = 4.92 Ang=(1)—(0)=4 60. Answer (1) Kp =KofRT)" =KGRT 120° +P, 9 4P > (6)Final Test Series for NEET-2024 61 62. 63, 64, 665, 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. nm 1 tee Py 4P 5 de! 4 mole P¢=> 12 mole 6° gain or loss 1 1 mole P, 12 <9 mole 6° Equivalent weight ‘Answer (3) In HeS, $ is present in its lowest oxidation state i.e., -2, 80 it cannot be further reduced ‘Answer (2) Balance reaction is Br, +5H,O, > 2810; +4H,O.4-2H" ‘Answer (1) 20 2 0=C=C=C-0 Answer (4) In HCIOs, Clis at its maximum oxidation state i. +7. ‘Answer (2) 2NInO,, +58n?* +16H’ —> 2Min?" +5Sn** +.BH,O ‘Answer (1) MnO; can act as a self-indicator. Answer (2) Reduction potential K < Zn < Cr < Ag. Therefore, Zn can reduce Cr** and Ag’ but not K* ‘Answer (3) NH2COONHk(s) <= 2NHa(g) + CO2(g) 0 2» OP ( Pp (2P) = Ke (P*P(2P) = (2P)AP) 2 Pa By) Answer (2) H,0, +0; +H,0+20, fede soa 1,0, +PbS>PbSO, + HO eset Answer (8) tn OF2, the onygen is assigned an oxidation umber of 2 3, lo on aa Answer (1) 72. 73, 74, 7, 76. 77. 78. 79. 80, at Test-3 (Code-A)_(Answers & Solutions) Lot the solubility of CdS be s moll Cds == cd +S? s 504 =04 Kop = [Ca] [S44 8x 1077= (0.4) s=2% 10% ‘Answer (2) Addition of Ne(g) at equilibrium will shift the reaction in forward direction, ‘Answer (2) +2H0 (Me Sic “Fs (e),S{OH),—$ / ve \ er on A Me Polymerisation Ho Silicone’ ‘Answer (4) amak HCOOH 275.5 —9H,0 CO ‘Answer (1) In HaPOs, it is more difficult to remove a proton from a doubly charged HPOZ anion as ‘compaired to HPO; ‘Answer (1) AICI, +H,O—*fAKH,O),JCl, Complex A is [Al(H:0e]* and B is spa? Answer (1) CO : Neutral In2Os : Basic GazOs : Amphoteric SiOz: Acidic ‘Answer (4) Order of Lewis acid nature: BF: 2 (aq) +$408-(aq) lodine itself gives an intense blue colour with starch and has a very specific reaction with $037 ‘Answer (1) 3Ng{s) +Ne(a)—2>0g, No(s) is combination reaction Answer (3) Due to complex formation solubility of AgCI willbe maximum in 0.1 M.NHs and minimum in 0.5 M Nacl AgCi(s) + 2NHs(ag.) = [Ag(NHs)2}CKaq.) Answer (2) ps = -logks For conjugate acid-base pair Ke * Ko = Kw K, k, — Ke K, ot 92, 93, 94, 95, 96. 97, 10% “0* = 1 «19-10 Answer (2) CCle cannot get hydrolysed due to absence of ‘empty dorbital in outermost shell of carbon atom, ‘Answer (3) Pyrosiicates have Si,0% unit a p 0-Si-0-Si-0 ai Answer (3) Borazine is also known as inorganic benzene H i 8. Zot | ou BRYAN, HN aon 1 4 Both B and N are sp? hybridised Answer (1) Highly poisonous nature of CO arises because of its billy to form a complex with haemoglobin, which is about 300 times more stable than oxygen- haemoglobin complex. Answer (3) B:He contains 3C — 2e bond Sy Ho aH Answer (1) p= O2RV OLAV 6.044 pH = —log(0.2) = 0.7 ‘Answer (2) Element ‘Atomic radius (pm) B 88 Al 143 Ga 135 In 167 (8)Fi | Test Series for NEET-2024 Test:3 (Code-A)_(Answers & Solutions) 98. 99, 101 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. Answer (2) HNOs + HCI will not show common ion effect due to strong acidic nature of HNOs and HCl. ‘Answer (4) 0.25 - (0.76) s1V 100, Answer (1) ‘* Hgp(l)Cl is the reduced form of Ha(ll)Cl. + Aurous chloride and Auric chloride are written as Au(I)CI and Au(lll)Cls respectively, SECTION -A ‘Answer (4) Lysosomes are membrane bound vesicular structure formed by the process of packaging in the golgi apparatus. Answer (2) In Amoeba, the contractile vacuole is important for ‘osmoregulation and excretion. ‘Answer (3) The M phase usually ends with division of cytoplasm i.e., cytokinesis, ‘Answer (2) Gy phase is the interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication. In Gp phase cell remains metabolically active but do not proliferate unless called on to do so. In the amount of nucleic acid (DNA) doubles in S-phase. ‘Answer (3) The important function of Golgi apparatus is to process, package and transport the materials for secretions. It Is closely associated with ER in structural as well as functional aspects. Answer (3) Lysosomes are rich in hydrolytic enzymes that are capable of digesting carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acid. ‘Answer (2) During pachytene, crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids of the homologous chromosomes which is an enzyme mediated process and the enzyme involved is called recombinase. ‘Answer (2) Condensation and coiling of chromatin fibres begin during leptotene. ‘Answer (1) Ribosomes, made up of ribosomal RNAs and proteins, are the cellular components that carryout protein synthesis, 110. a 112, 113. 114. 145. 116. 117. 118. Answer (4) Meiosis increases the genetic variability in the population of organisms from one generation to the next. Answer (3) Each oxysome is differentiated into base, stalk and headpiece. The headpiece contains ATP synthetase which brings about oxidative phosphorylation coupled with release of ATP. Answer (2) In S-phase, the amount of DNA doubles but number of chromosomes remain same. Cell with 20 chromosomes and 32 C DNA in Gs phase will have 20 chromosomes and 64 C DNA after S-phase, Answer (3) B-oxidation of fats occurs in mitochondria. Answer (3) Sister chromatids separate during Anaphase I ‘Answer (1) Mitotic divisions in the meristematic tissues - the apical and the lateral meristem, result in a continuous growth of plants throughout their life. Answer (3) M-phase is the most dramatic period of cell cycle. Interphase corresponds more than 95% duration of cell eycle. Answer (1) Cells differ greatly in size, shape and activities. For example, Mycoplasmas, the smallest cells, are only 0.3 jim in length, while bacteria could be 3 to 5 um. Human red blood cells are about 7.0 wm in diameter. Answer (1) Nuclear division and cytokinesis occur twice during the process of melosis. (@)Test-3 (Code-A)_ (Answers & Solutions) Final Test Series for NEET-2024 119. 120. 121. 122. 123. 124. 126. 126. 4127. 128. 129. ‘Answer (2) ‘Anaphase is the best stage to study shapes of chromosomes. Metacentric chromosome appears V-shaped during anaphase. ‘Answer (4) Terminal ends of chromosomes are called telomeres. Centrioles take part in formation of spindle apparatus. Kinetochores are present around centromere and provide a site for attachment to spindle fibres. Answer (1) Bacterial flagellum is composed of three parts filament, hook and basal body. ‘Answer (4) Ends of chromosomes are called telomeres. They seal the ends of chromosomes. Chromatids are held together at one point called centromere. On the sides of centromere, disc shaped structures are present known as kinetochores. In Acrocentric chromosome, one extremely short and one very long arm is present. Answer (2) Nucleolus Is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis. Answer (3) The isolated lysosomal vesicles have been found to be very rich in almost all types of hydrolytic enzymes optimally active at the acidic pH Answer (4) In telophase chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles and their identity is lost as discrete elements. ‘Answer (2) Pachytene stage, crossing over recombination of genetic material ‘Answer (2) Chiasmata forms in diplotene stage. Cells at the end of prophase, when viewed under the microscope, do not show golgi complexes, ER, nucleous and the nuclear envelope. Answer (2) The prophase | is subdivided into five stages which are arranged in following sequence. Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene, Diplotene, Diakinesis. Answer (3) Call theory was given by Schleiden and Schwann, Golgi apparatus was first observed by Camillo Golgi in 1898. Ribosomes were discovered by George Palade. Rudolf Virchow first explained that cells divided and new cells are formed from pre-existing cells (Omnis cellula-o-cellula). leads to 130. 131 132 133. 134, 136. 136. 137. 138, 139. 140. 141 142 143. ‘Answer (4) Meiosis increases the genetic variability in the population of organisms from one generation to the next. Variation are very important for the process of evolution. Answer (2) The complete disintegration of the nuclear envelope marks the start of second phase of mitosis (i.., metaphase) Answer (1) Pumps are proteins that use energy to transport substances across the cell membrane. Answer (4) In oocytes of some vertebrates, diplotene can last for months or years. Answer (2) Ulothrix, a green alga, is a eukaryotic organism. Answer (1) Anaphase is the best stage of the cell cycle to study shape of the chromosomes. SECTION -B ‘Answer (4) ‘There is no membrane boundary for a centriole, but it is surrounded by pericentriolar satellites, also known as massule (microtubule generator or MTG) Answer (4) Mitochondria are the sites of aerobic respiration ‘They produce cellular energy in the form of ATP, hence they are called ‘Power houses’ of the cell ‘Answer (2) Aleuroplasts store proteins while elaioplasts store oils and fats. ‘Answer (2) In prophase, the DNA strands get untangled to form compact mitotic chromosome. Answer (3) A tetrad has four chromatids but they are of two homologous chromosomes. ‘Answer (3) In plant cell middle lamella is chiefly made up of calcium pectate. Answer (1) In some organisms, karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis as a result of which multinucleate condition arises leading to formation of syncytium. Answer (3) The given figure is of fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane. A- Sugar (10)Fi | Test Series for NEET-2024 Test:3 (Code-A)_(Answers & Solutions) 144. 145. 146. 147. 151 162. 153. B - Peripheral protein C- Phospholipid bitayer D- Integral protein Answer (3) Membrane proteins can be classified as integral and peripheral proteins depending on the ease of extraction. ‘Answer (3) Eukaryotes show intracellular compartmentalisation /.e., membrane bound cell organelles. ‘Answer (2) The interphase lasts more than 95% of the total duration of cell cycle. ‘When duration of cell cycle is 120 minutes then its duration of interphase should be more than 95% of 120 minutes, /e., = more than 114 minutes Answer (2) During mitosis, number of chromosomes in parent and progeny cells remain the same. Hence, it is also called equational division. 148. Answer (2) Since, n= 4 (given) an=8 ‘Therefore, the cell has 4 bivalents on equatorial plate during metaphase-l Bivalent is the complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes. 149. Answer (4) ‘* In S-phase, centriole duplicates in cytoplasm of animal cells ‘© Centrioles are absent in plant cel ‘* DNA replication occurs in S-phase. ‘* In Ge phase of cell cycle, semi-autonomous cell organelles duplicates and tubulin proteins are synthesized. 150, Answer (1) During mitotic anaphase the centromere splits, chromatids separate and move to the opposite poles. SECTION-A Answer (3) Humans have two lungs which are covered by double layered pleura, with pleural fluid between them. The outer pleural membrane is in close contact with the thoracic lining whereas the inner pleural membrane is in contact with the lung surface. Thoracic vertebrae are the structural constituents of the thoracic cage. Answer (4) Exchange of O2 and COz at the sites of exchange of gases is dependent on concentration gradient, solubility of the gases and on the thickness of diffusion membrane, Rate of diffusion of one gas i the rate of diffusion of another gas. Answer (2) Ina healthy adult man, under normal physiological conditions, TV = approx. 500 mL. IRV = 2500 mL to 3000 mL ERV = 1000 mL to 1100 mL RV=1100 mL to 1200 mL TV + ERV + IRVis less than TLC and equal to VC. jependent from 154. Answer (1) Specialised vascularised structures called gills (branchial respiration) are used by fishes (e.g, Pterophyllum), most of the aquatic arthropods (e.g., Prawn) and molluscs (¢.9., Sepia). Earthworms use thelr moist cuticle and insects have a network of tubes (tracheal tubes) for respiration, Answer (4) RBCs contain a very high concentration of the enzyme, carbonic anhydrase. This enzyme facilitates the following reaction in both the directions. 155. oe Stivare CO, +H,0: Zn?" is the co-factor of carbonic anhydrase. Answer (3) In the alveoli, where there is high pO2, low pCO>, lesser H’ concentration and lower temperature, all are the favourable factors for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin, ‘Answer (2) Pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood Whereas pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood, HCO, HCO; +H" 156. 157. (11)Test-3 (Code-A)_ (Answers & Solutions) Final Test Series for NEET-2024 loners 158. Answer (4) 159. 160. 161. 162. 163. Every 100 mL of oxygenated blood can deliver around 5 mL of Os to the tissues under normal physiological conditions in an adult human Therefore, 300 mL of oxygenated blood will deliver around 15 mL of O2to the tissues. Also, every 100 mL of deoxygenated blood deliver, approximately 4 mL of CO: to the alveol: So, 400 mL of deoxygenated blood will deliver around 16 mL of COz to the alveoli Answer (4) During forced expiration, contraction of internal inter-costal muscles occurs leading to the pulling of ribs in downward and inward direction, decreasing the volume of thoracic cavity. ‘As the volume of thoracic cavity decreases, the pressure inside thoracic cavity increases than the atmospheric pressure, leading to expiration Answer (1) The part starting with the external nostrils up to the terminal bronchioles constitute the conducting part of human respiratory system whereas alveoli and their ducts form the exchange part of the respiratory system. The trachea, primary, secondary and tertiary bronchi and initial bronchioles are supported by incomplete cartilaginous rings. Answer (2) Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by administering anti-Rh antibodies to the mother immediately after the delivery of the first child ‘Answer (4) ‘Simple organisms like sponges (e.g., Sycon) and coelenterates (e.g., Hydra and Obelia) circulate water from their surroundings through their body cavities to facilitate the cells to exchange essential substances. Complex organisms (e.g., Pheretima) use special fluids within their bodies for such exchange, Answer (2) About 70 per cent fling of ventricles takes place during joint diastole, Both the atria undergo a simultaneous contraction during atrial systole. This increases the flow of blood into the ventricles by about 30%, 164. 165. 166. 167. 168. 169. 170. im ‘Answer (3) Plasma is a straw coloured, viscous fluid constituting nearly 55 per cent of the blood and formed elements constitute about 45 per cent of the blood, Answer (1) Cloticoagulum is formed by a network of threads called fibrins which are derived from inactive fibrinogens. Answer (4) In fishes, the heart pumps out deoxygenated blood which is oxygenated by the gills and supplied to the body parts from where deoxygenated blood is retumed to the heart (single circulation). Answer (1) The nodal musculature has the ability to generate action potentials without any external stimuli, ie, itis autoexcitable. However, the number of action potentials that could be generated in a mixture vary at different parts of the nodal system. The SAN can generate the maximum number of action potentials ie. 70-75 min-* and is responsible for initiating and ‘maintaining the rhythmic contractile activity of the heart. Answer (3) ‘As the blood passes through the capillaries in tissues, some water along with many water soluble substances move out into the spaces between the cells of tissues leaving the larger proteins and most of the formed elements in the blood vessels, This released out fluid is called lymph. Answer (3) Basophils are the cells responsible for secretion of histamine and serotonin and lymphocytes are Monocytes the granulocytes. ‘Answer (4) Fishes have a 2-chambered heart with an atrium and a ventricle. In fishes, blood get oxygenated by gills and heart pumps out deoxygenated blood. In humans, oxygenated and deoxygenated blood received by the left and right atrium respectively, asses into the ventricles of the same side which pump it out without any mixing up. Answer (4) Silicosis is common occupational respiratory disorder. In asthma, there is difficulty in breathing causing wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles. (12)Fi | Test Series for NEET-2024 Test:3 (Code-A)_(Answers & Solutions) 172. 173. 174. 175. 176. 177. 178. ‘Answer (2) A sigmoid curve is obtained when percentage saturation of haemoglobin with O2 is plotted against the pO This sigmoid curve dissociation curve. Answer (2) The epithelial tissue present in the alveoli of human lungs is simple squamous epithelium. If the cuboidal or columnar cells bear cilia on their {ree surface they are called ciliated epithelium, Their function is to move particles or mucus in a specific direction over the epithelium. They are mainly present in the inner surface of hollow organs like bronchioles. ‘Answer (2) Neural signals through the sympathetic nerves can increase the rate of heart beat, the strength of ventricular contraction and thereby the cardiac output, ‘Also, adrenal medullary hormones _ like epinephrine and norepinephrine can increase the cardiac output, ‘Answer (3) ‘A bicuspid/Mitral valve guards the opening between the left atrium and the left ventricle, Mitral valve will evert out into atrium during ventricular systole in this condition, Answer (2) Blood vessels in between left ventricle and right atrium constitute systemic circulation through which blood flows. Answer (1) is known as oxygen A.bundle of nodal fibres, AV bundle continues from the AVN which passes through the atrio- ventricular septa to emerge on the top of the interventricular septum and immediately divides into a right and left bundle, which transmit action potential to the entire ventricular musculature, through purkinje fibers. ‘Answer (2) Upon holding the breath, the amount of COz in the body increases, which leads to a change in the pH of the blood, This changing pH gets recognised by the chemoreceptors present in blood vessels, activates respiratory rhythm centre in brain, signals the muscles associated with respiratory system and leads to an urge to breath 179. 180. 181 182 183, 184. 185. Answer (4) Tunica intima is the inner layer of blood vessels made up of squamous endothelium. The smallest vessels called capillaries have walls which are cone-celled thick Answer (1) A specialised nodal tissue embedded in the lower commer of the right atrium, close to atrio-ventricular septum, delays the spreading of impulses to heart apex for about 0.1 seconds. This delay allows the aria to empty completely. Answer (3) Heart failure means the state of heart when itis ‘not pumping blood effectively enough to meet the needs of the body. Itis not same as cardiac arrest (when heart stops beating) or a heart attack (when the heart muscle is suddenly damaged by an inadequate blood supply) Answer (3) ‘An injury or trauma stimulates the platelets in blood to release certain factors which activate the mechanism of coagulation. Platelets, also known a thrombooytes are 1.5 lakh - 3.5 lakh per mm? of blood. Answer (4) Factors for clotting of blood are present in the plasma in an inactive form. Plasma without the Clotting factors is called serum. Answer (1) Ina standard ECG, the P-wave represents the electrical excitation (or depolarisation ofthe atria), the QRS complex represents the depolarisation of the ventricles. The T-wave represents the repolarisation of ventricles and end of T-wave marks the end of the ventricular systole. Answer (4) In an open type of blood circulation, the blood is pumped out of the heart and the cells and tissues are directly bathed in it. Hemichordates, arthropods, _non-cephalopod molluscs have an open type of blood circulation whereas most of annelids and chordates have losed type of blood circulation. SECTION -B 186. Answer (3) 187. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata can moderate the cardiac function through autonomic nervous system (ANS). Answer (1) Cardiac output = SV x HR (13)Test-3 (Code-A)_ (Answers & Solutions) Final Test Series for NEET-2024 188. 189. 190. 191. 192. 193. 194. 196. Stroke volume = EDV - ESV 150 mL 100 mL. = 50 mL CO _ 5000 mUiminute sv 50 mL 100 beats per minute Answer (3) In welltrained athletes, stroke volume can also increase significantly allowing them to achieve cardiac output during strenuous exercise upto six- seven times greater than their resting values. ‘Answer (4) Each artery and vein consists of three layers: an inner lining of squamous endothelium, the tunica intima, a middle layer of smooth muscle and elastic fibres, the tunica media, and an external layer of fibrous connective tissue with collagen fibres, the tunica externa Answer (2) Rh antibodies from the mother (Rh-ve) can leak into the blood of the foetus (Rh +ve) and destroy the footal RBCs. Answer (1) ‘A= Squamous epithelium of alveolar wall B — Basement substance © —Red blood cell D Endothelium of blood capillary ‘Answer (2) At high altitude, atmospheric pO level is less and hence, more RBCs are needed to transport the required amount of Oz to the tissues to survive Answer (4) Intrapleural fluid is present between the two pleural layers of lungs. This fluid helps. in maintaining the negative pressure in the pleural cavity as during inhalation the lungs expands and does not collapse because of presence of this fui. Answer (4) Residual volume is the volume of air remaining in the lungs even after a forcible expiration. This averages 1100 mL. to 1200 mL. Answer (3) Blood is the medium of transport for O2 and COz ‘About 97% of O2 is transported by RBCs in the blood. The remaining 3% of O2 is carried in a dissolved state through the plasma. Nearly 20-25% of CO> is transported by RBCs whereas, 7% of it is carried in a dissolved state through plasma. Hi a a 196. 197. 198. 199. 200, Answer (3) A chemosensitive area, situated adjacent to the respiratory thythm centre is highly sensitive to CO: and hydrogen ions. Increase in CO2 and hydrogen ions can activate this chemosensitive area. The respiratory rhythm centre is located in the medulla oblongata of the brain Answer (4) We know, Cardiac output = Heart rate x Stroke volume Given, 7000 mL = Heart rate « 70 mL = Heart rate = 7000 _ 199 70 60 _ 60 Now, duration of cardiac cycle = 00 __ 60, uration of cardiac eylo = SP _= 50 6 seconds Answer (3) Blood] Antigens on |Antibodies| Donor’s Group] RBCs |inPlasma| Group A A ants | AO 8 8 ana [BO apf AB nt [AB A,B, ° ni | antiae fo Answer (2) During atrial systole, both bicuspid/Mitral and tricuspid valves are open but during ventricular contraction, they get close. ‘Also, during ventricular diastole AV valves open. ‘Semilunar valves open when ventricles undergo contraction and are located between right ventricle and pulmonary artery and between left ventricle and aorta respectively. Answer (4) ‘A unique vascular connection exists between the digestive tract and liver called hepatic portal system. The hepatic portal vein carries blood fram intestine to the liver before it is delivered to the systemic circulation. It ensures that the food ingested is processed by the liver first before entering the systemic circulation, This way, ingested toxins are detoxified by hepatocytes. (14)