* NLE * NCLEX * HAAD * PROMETRICS * DHA * MIDWIFERY * LET * RAD TECH * CRIMINOLOGY * DENTISTRY * PHARMACY * MED TECH *RESPI

PRE-BOARDS 1 EXAMINATION
TEST 6: PHARMACOLOGY & ANESTHESIOLOGY
Philippine Dentistry Licensure Examination
NAME: DATE: SCORE: /100
1. All the following are classified as what type of drug? 11. Scurvy is caused by the deficiency of vitamin
Gabapentin (Neurontin) A. Vitamin B c. Vitamin A
Carbamazepine (Tegretol) B. Vitamin C d. Vitamin D
Phenytoion (Dilantin) 12. All of the following drugs are indirect-acting adrenergic
Diazepam (Valium) agonists, except:
Valproic acid (Depakene) A. Tyramine
A. Antidepressant B. Amphetamine
B. Antimanic C. Epinephrine
C. Anti-anxiety D. Methamphetamine
D. anticonvulsant E. Hydroxyamphetamine
2. The optimal dose of a drug administered to a px refers to: 13. All of the following fibers are cholinergic, except:
A. Minimum dose needed for therapeutic relief A. Preganglionic sympathetic fibers
B. Maximum dose needed for therapeutic relief B. Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers
C. Relative dose needed for therapeutic relief C. Postganglionic sympathetic fibers
D. Any of these since it varies from person to person D. Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers
3. PROBENICID is given in combination w/ Amoxicillin in order 14. Which of the following drugs is a bronchodilator?
to: A. Epinephrine
A. Reduce the severity of diarrhea B. Albuterol (Proventil)
B. Prolong the half-life of amoxicillin C. Salmeterol (Serevent)
C. Extend amoxicillin antibacterial spectrum D. Metaproterenol (Alupent)
D. Treat patients under stress E. All of the above
4. The main adverse effect of the anti-TB Ethambutol 15. The major sites of drug elimination
A. Hepatotoxicity A. liver and kidneys C. kidneys and lungs
B. Nephrotoxicity B. lungs and liver D. liver and skin
C. Retrobulbar neuritis 16. The principal therapeutic action of the glucocorticoids is:
D. Distal neuropathy A. Antidiuretic
5. The dental usefulness of H1-receptor blockers is based on B. antihypertensive
their: C. antianabolic
A. Sedative and anti-emetic action D. anti-inflammatory
B. Reduction of diziness and vertigo E. anti-infective
C. Reduction of salivary flow 17. The safest and easiest route for drug administration is:
D. Reduction of post-operative swelling A. Oral
6. In therapeutic doses, Digitalis acts primarily on cardiac B. IV
muscles by increasing the: C. Rectal
A. Rate of impulse conduction D. Inhalation
B. Refractory period of atrial muscles 18. All of the following sites are generally accepted for IM
C. Refractory period of ventricular muscles injections, except:
D. Force of contraction A. The buttocks
7. The primary antihypertensive effect of captopril is due to B. The biceps muscle
the accumulation of: C. The deltoid muscle
A. Serotonin D. The anterior thigh
B. Angiotensin I 19. Your patient is continually taking a small daily dose of
C. Angiotensin II aspirin (82 mg) prescribed by the patient’s physician. The object
D. Bradykinin metabolites of this therapy is most likely what mechanism?
8. What are the classic features of ATROPINE poisoning? A. To mimic the effect of endogenous endorphins
A. Pale skin, sweating, slow heart rate B. To inhibit the production of prostaglandin E1
B. Red, dry skin, fast heart rate C. To inhibit the production of thromboxane A2
C. Pale, dry skin, fast heart rate D. To inhibit the production of arachidonic acid
D. Red, dry skin, slow heart rate E. To inhibit the production of leukotrienes
9. Which of the following drugs should not be administered to 20. Propylthiouracil is a drug used in the treatment of
pxs with Myasthenia Gravis? A. Cancer
A. Atropine B. Hyperthyroidism
B. Curare C. Sodium retention
C. Insulin D. Pheochromocytoma
D. Digitalis E. Allergic manifestations
E. Prostigmine 21. Succinylcholine acts to block neuromuscular transmission by
10. Patients on bishydroxycoumadin should be monitored with
A. Inhibiting cholinesterase
which laboratory test prior to surgery: B. Inhibiting the central nervous system
A. Bleeding time C. Depolarizing the motor endplate of skeletal muscle
B. Prothrombin time D. Inducing the formation of cholinesterase at the
C. Partial thromboplastin time
endplate
D. Clotting time

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 E. Block the release of acetylcholine at the endplate 32. The branch of medical science that deals with the
22. When given together, the ability of two drugs to produce a biochemical and physiologic effects and mechanism of
response greater than either administered alone is termed drugs:
A. synergism. A. Pharmacognosy
B. induction. B. Pharmacodynamics
C. cumulation. C. Pharmacokinetics
D. antagonism D. Posology
E. tachyphylaxis. 33. It is a measure of how much drug is required to elicit a
23. Your patient indicates that he is taking medication for atrial given response
fibrillation. He reports that a blood test has indicated that he has A. potency
B. efficacy
an INR number of 4.0. An emergency dental extraction is now
C. efficiency
required. Which postoperative medication would pose the D. dose
greatest risk for an adverse effect in this patient? 34. The letters “PRN" appearing on a prescription indicate that
A. Acetaminophen a medication is to be administered:
B. Amoxicillin A. twice a day
C. Aspirin B. after meals
D. Codeine C. immediately
E. Ibuprofen D. when needed
24. Which drug blocks H1 histamine receptors but is least likely 35. The state of mind and body induced by a drug and requiring
to cause sedation? the contamination of that drug without which serious
A. Diphenhydramine physical and mental derangement will result:
B. Hydroxyzine A. Tolerance
C. Fexofenadine B. Tachyphylaxis
D. Albuterol C. Addiction
E. Famotidine D. Resistance
25. Fanconi syndrome from outdated tetracyclines affects 36. Which of the following organisms is usually sensitive to
predominantly which organ? clindamycin?
A. Brain A. Candida albicans
B. Heart B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Kidney C. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
D. Pancreas D. Streptococcus viridans
E. Stomach E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
26. The phenomenon in which two drugs produce opposite 37. A prescription for which of the following drugs requires a
effects on a physiologic system but do not act at the same valid DEA number on the prescription?
receptor site is A. Amoxicillin
B. Carbamazepine
A. potentiation.
C. Dexamethasone
B. chemical antagonism.
D. Diphenhydramine
C. competitive antagonism. E. Oxycodone
D. physiologic antagonism. 38. Motor adverse effects from phenothiazine antipsychotic
E. noncompetitive antagonism drugs are due to drug effects in what region of the brain?
27. Which of the following anticoagulants is NOT A. Chemoreceptor trigger zone
therapeutically effective when administered orally? B. Cerebrum
A. Bishydroxycoumarin C. Cerebellum
B. Warfarin sodium D. Nigro-striatal pathway
C. Heparin sodium E. Mesolimbic pathway
39. Which is a nicotinic receptor?
D. Anisindione
28. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents have a tendency to A. Receptor for the neurotransmitter at the skeletal–
neuromuscular junction
produce B. Receptor for the neurotransmitter at the junction
A. xerostomia. between the postganglionic sympathetic nerve and
B. drowsiness. sweat glands
C. constipation. C. Receptor for the neurotransmitter at the junction
D. gastric irritation. between the postganglionic parasympathetic nerve
E. metabolic alkalosis. and the parotid gland
29. Administration of which of the following drugs is most D. Receptor for the neurotransmitter at the junction
between the postganglionic sympathetic nerve and
likely to prolong clotting time?
blood vessels
A. Morphine E. Receptor for the neurotransmitter at the junction
B. Vitamin K between the postganglionic parasympathetic nerve
C. A barbiturate and the heart
D. Acetaminophen 40. A patient is administered haloperidol. Along with the
30. Which of the following is an irreversible side effect resulting haloperidol, the patient also receives benztropine. What is the
from long-term administration of phenothiazine most likely reason for administering the benztropine?
antipsychotics?
A. Sedation A. To reduce the effects of histamine release
B. Xerostomia B. To aid in the therapeutic response to haloperidol
C. Infertility C. To reduce the motor adverse effects of haloperidol
D. To overcome a decrease in salivary flow resulting
D. Parkinsonism
from haloperidol
E. Tardive dyskinesia E. To reduce the rate of kidney excretion of haloperidol
31. The following signs: nausea, pallor, cold perspiration, 41. Which drug poses the greatest risk of a cardiac arrhythmia
widely dilated pupils, eyes rolled up, and brief convulsions when administered at the same time as epinephrine?
are indicative of a patient having a _________ reaction. A. Desflurane
A. Somatogenic B. Halothane
B. Psychogenic C. Isoflurane
C. Either of the above D. Propofol
D. None of the above E. Sevoflurane

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42. Which of the following patterns on the use of drugs refers 53. Local anesthetics theoretically should be less effective in
to a decrease response to a drug? acutely inflamed tissue than in normal tissue than in
A. Dependence normal tissue because in inflamed tissue what happens?
B. Cross dependence A. The pH rises, thus inactivating the anesthetic
C. Tolerance B. The pH rises, thus decreasing available free base
D. Withdrawal C. The pH decreases, thus decreasing available free
43. A decrease in glycogenolysis in the liver would be base
expected from which drug? D. The pH remains the same, the extracellular fluid
A. Albuterol dilutea the anesthetic
B. Epinephrine 54. A dental anesthetic carpule contains 1.8 ml of a 2% solution of
C. Glucagon lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine. How much lidocaine and
D. Insulin epinephrine does the carpule contain?
E. Parathyroid hormone A. 3.6 mg lidocaine and 0.18 mg epinephrine
44. Oropharyngeal candidiasis is an adverse effect most likely B. 3.6 mg lidocaine and 0.18 mg epinephrine
with which drug? C. 36 mg lidocaine and 0.18 mg epinephrine
A. Inhaled salmeterol D. 36 mg lidocaine and 0.018 epinephrine
B. Inhaled ipratropium 55. Local anesthetics depress which is the following fibers first?
C. Inhaled nedocromil A. Large myelinated fibers
D. Inhaled beclomethasone B. Small unmyelinated fibers
E. Inhaled methacholine C. Small myelinated fibers
45. Tight capillary cell junctions resulting in an added barrier
D. Large unmyelinated fibers
to the entry of drugs is most characteristic of which organ 56. Which is the most frequently utilized route of administration
or tissue? for sedation of pediatric patients?
A. Adrenal gland A. Oral
B. Brain B. Inhalation
C. Heart C. IV
D. Liver D. IM
E. Lung 57. All the following are considered to be what type of anesthetic?
46. How many human drug testing phases are carried out before - Either (diethyl either)
- Halothane
a drug is marketed?
- Enflurance
A. One
- Isoflurane
B. Two
- Sevoflurane
C. Three
D. Four - Methoxyflurane
47. The benzodiazepine receptors BZ1 and BZ2 are located on - Desflurane
A. Local
which ion channel?
B. Intravenous
A. Calcium
C. General
B. Chloride
D. Inhalation
C. Magnesium
D. Potassium 58. Which of the following stages of general anesthesia begins
E. Sodium with unconsciousness and ends with loss of eyelid reflex,
48. What does HAART stands for? purposeless movements and hyper-reaction, dilated pupils,
A. Highly Accurate Antiretroviral therapy reflex vomiting, tachycardia, and hypertension?
B. Human Activated Antiretroviral Therapy A. Amnesia
C. Histiocyte Active Antiretroviral Treatment B. Delirium
D. Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy C. Surgical
49. Which drug is often combined with sulfamethoxazole for D. Medullary paralysis
the treatment of respiratory tract and urinary tract 59. Nitrous oxide is used as single agent to produce general
infections? anesthesia.
A. Amoxicillin A. True
B. Ciprofloxacin B. False
C. Clindamycin C. Neither true or false
D. Metronidazole 60. What stage in the depth of general anesthesia is described
E. Trimethoprim as the stage of surgical anesthesia?
50. All of the following statement is true regarding NSAIDs, A. Stage I
except: B. Stage II
A. Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cox-1 and cox-2 C. Stage III
cyclooxygenases D. Stage IV
B. All NSAIDs, except aspirin, are reversible inhibitors of 61. A type of regional anesthesia wherein local anesthetic
cox-1 and cox-2 cyclooxygenases
solution is deposited in close proximity to larger terminal
C. Prostaglandin synthesis is rarely affected
branches and relies in the diffusion of LA:
D. They are used for inflammation, analgesia, and
antipyrexia A. Nerve block
E. Side effects include dyspepsia,GIulcers,and renal B. Field block
failure C. Local Infiltration
51. “Epinephrine reversal” is a predictable result of the use of D. Topical
epinephrine in a patient who has received a (an): 62. True or False
A. Beta-blocker All of the following are desirable effects epinephrine that make
B. Alpha-blocker it the agent of choice of treating an anaphylactic reaction.
C. Adrenergic agonist It has vasopressor activity
D. All of the above It has bronchodilator properties
52. Which local anesthetic has no place in the routine practice Is has a rapid onset of action
of dentistry? A. True B. False
A. Articaine 63. In local anesthesia, for maximum effect, the injected
B. Cocaine anesthetic drugs must come in contact with at least how many
C. Lidocaine mm of the nerve to be blocked:
D. Bupivacaine A. 4-6 mm C. 8-10 mm
E. Prilocaine B. 6-8 mm D. 10- 12 mm

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64. Local anesthesia uses which method of pain control: B. Difficulty in maintaining an adequate oxygen
A. Blocking pain pathways concentration
B. Raising the pain threshold C. Poor analgestic properties
C. Depression of the cerebral cortex D. Expenses of the agent and its explosive hazard
D. Removal of the cause 77. The following are those properties deemed most desirable
65. What is the common complication of infra orbital nerve for a local anesthetic, except _____.
block?
A. Hematoma A. It should not be irritating to the tissue to which it is
B. Edema applied
C. Blindness B. It should cause a permanent alteration of nerve
D. Ecchymosis structure
66. What anesthetic technique is used when the solution is C. Its systemic toxicity should be low
deposited in the pterygomandibular space? D. It must be effective regardless of whether it is
A. Inferior alveolar nerve block injected into the tissue or applied locally to mucous
B. Local infiltration membranes
C. Intraosseous
D. Mandibular nerve block 78. The majority of injectable local anesthetics used today are
67. The following are possible reasons why some local A. Tertiary amines
anesthetic preparations have a longer duration of action than B. Secondary amines
others, EXCEPT ______
C. Primary amines
A. degree of lipid solubility
D. Esters
B. concentration of local anesthetic solution
C. presence of vasoconstrictor 79. _____ has a shorter half-life than other amides because a
D. percent of protein binding portion of its biotransformation occurs in the blood by the
68. The following side effects as vomiting, chills, headache,
enzyme plasma cholinesterase.
restlessness, back pain, sexual dysfunction are seen on __.
A. Lidocaine
A. Prilocaine
B. Mepivacaine B. Bupivacaine
C. Bupivacaine C. Mepivacaine
D. Lidocaine D. Articaine
69. Local anesthetics act directly on the nerve membrane by__. 80. Which of the following local anesthetics is marketed for
A. Increasing potassium flux dentistry in the United States in more than one concentration?
B. Increasing nerve membrane permeability to sodium A. Bupivacaine
C. Increasing membrane excitability B. Mepivacaine
D. Decreasing nerve membrane permeability to sodium C. Lidocaine
70. The following are reference for lingual nerve block, D. Articaine
EXCEPT__. 81. The major factor determining whether aspiration can be
A. Coronoid notch
reliably performed is _____.
B. Retromolar triangle
A. The needle gauge
C. Occlusal plane of mandibular molars
B. The needle length
D. Angle of the mandible
71. What blocking technique to anesthetize maxillary molar on C. The injection performed
one side with the mesio-buccal root of the first molar? D. The patient
A. PSAN, ASAN, middle palatine 82. The _____ is recommended for palatal soft-tissue
B. MSAN, ASAN, posterior palatine management from canine to canine bilaterally in the maxilla.
C. PSAN, MSAN, posterior palatine A. Posterior superior alveolar
D. MSAN, ION, middle palatine B. Inferior alveolar
72. Each of the following is a good reason for using sedation, C. Long buccal
EXCEPT to ____. D. Nasopalatine
A. Decrease the amount of local anesthesia that is 83. What is the direct effect of local anesthetics on blood
required vessels in the area of injection?
B. Alleviate stress in a severely medically compromised
A. Constriction
patient
B. Dilation
C. Allay apprehension, anxiety or fear
D. Accomplish certain procedures to an anxious patient C. Sclerosis
73. In PSAN block, the needle approximates _____. D. Thrombosis
I. Posterior to posterior surface of maxilla 84. All of the following describe lidocaine as packaged in dental
II. Anterior to external pterygoid muscles cartridges except _____.
III. Anterior to pterygoid plexus of veins A. Provided in a 2% solution
IV. Posterior to external pterygoid muscles B. Provided with or without epinephrine
A. I, II, III C. Has a pKa = 8.1
B. I, III, IV D. Has a rapid onset
C. II, III, IV 85. 25-gauge needles are preferred to smaller-diameter ones
D. I, II, IV due to all of the following reasons except _____.
74. What is the maximum safe dose of epinephrine that can be A. Greater accuracy in needle insertion for 25-gauge
administered to patient with history of significant cardiovascular
needles
impairment?
B. Increased rate of needle breakage for 25-gauge
A. 1cc, 1:50,000
B. 1cc, 1:100,000 needles
C. 2cc,1: 50,000 C. Aspiration of blood is easier and more reliable through
D. 2cc, 1:100,000 a larger lumen
75. What is the pH value of mepivacaine HCL 2 % ? D. There is no difference in pain of insertion
A. 4.5 – 6.8 86. A 1.0-ml volume of a 2% solution contains ___.
B. 5.5 – 7 A. 18 mg
C. 2.5 -3.3 B. 20 mg
D. 3.3 - 5.5 C. 36 mg
76. Nitrous oxide alone is not use as a general anesthetic D. 54 mg
because of the _____.
A. Adverse effect on the liver

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87. During local anesthetic administration, the patient should be 97. Which of the following injections, when properly performed,
placed in a _____ position. does not lead to pulpal anesthesia?

A. Trendelenburg A. Inferior alveolar (IA)

B. Supine B. Lingual
C. Reclined C. Posterior superior alveolar (PSA)
D. Semi-supine D. Infraorbital (IO) (true anterior superior alveolar nerve
88. According to Malamed, slow injection is defined as the block)
deposition of 1 ml of local anesthetic solution in not less than _. 98. Which of the following teeth could be removed without pain
after administration of an inferior alveolar and lingual nerve
A. 15 seconds block?
B. 30 seconds A. All anterior teeth on the side of the injection
C. 60 seconds B. Canine and first premolar on the side of the injection
D. 2 minutes C. All teeth in that quadrant on the side of the injection
89. The _____ nerve block is recommended for management of D. Both premolars and first molar on the side of the
several maxillary molar teeth in one quadrant.
injection
A. Posterior superior alveolar (PSA)
99. Injecting a local anesthetic into an area of inflammation
B. Inferior alveolar (IA)
would have which effect?
C. Long buccal (LB)
A. Increase the rate of onset of anesthesia.
D. Nasopalatine (NP)
B. Decrease the rate of metabolism of the anesthetic.
90. In an adult of normal size, penetration to a depth of _____
C. Reduce the net anesthetic effect of the drug.
mm places the needle tip in the immediate vicinity of the D. Reduce the vasodilator effect of the local anesthetic.
foramina, through which the posterior superior alveolar (PSA) E. Reduce the need for a vasoconstrictor with the local
nerves enter the posterior surface of the maxilla. anesthetic.
A. 10 100. The following are all desirable properties of an ideal local
B. 16 anesthetic, except _____.
C. 20 A. It should have potency sufficient to give complete
D. 30 anesthesia even if harmful results occur at
91. The _____ nerve block is useful for dental procedures therapeutic doses
involving the palatal soft tissues distal to the canine. B. It should be relatively free from producing allergic
A. Nasopalatine (NP) reactions
B. Greater palatine (GP) C. It should be stable in solution and readily undergo
C. Long buccal (LB) biotransformation in the body
D. Inferior alveolar (IA) D. It should either be sterile or capable of being
92. Elevation of cardiovascular signs with epinephrine, injected sterilized by heat without deterioration
in a local anesthetic solution in a cardiovascularly compromised
patient, occurs at about what threshold?
A. 40 μg
B. 100 μg
C. 200 μg
D. 1000 μg
93. Local anesthetics act on what type of receptor?
A. An ion channel receptor
B. A nuclear receptor
C. A 7-membrane domain receptor linked to Gs
D. A 7-membrane domain receptor linked to Gq
E. A membrane receptor with tyrosine kinase activity
94. Which drug lacks the amine group that other anesthetics
have and is used only topically?
A. Procaine
B. Mepivacaine
C. Lidocaine
D. Benzocaine
E. Prilocaine
95. A 40-pound child presents to your office for a pulpotomy and
placement of a stainless steel crown on tooth #L. What would
be the approximate maximum recommended dose of 2%
lidocaine?
A. 1 carpule
B. 2 carpules
C. 3 carpules
D. 4 carpules
E. 5 carpules
96. Which of the following local anesthetics is most likely to
cause an allergic reaction?
A. Lidocaine
B. Propoxycaine
C. Prilocaine
D. Mepivicaine
E. Bupivacaine

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