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MM : 720 Practice Test-7(TYM) Time : 200 Min.

Physics

1. Three rods of same cross section but 4. 7

5 moles of hydrogen (γ = ) initially
different length and conductivity are joined 5

in series. The temperature of the two at STP are compressed adiabatically so that
extreme ends are 200°C and 100°C as its temperature becomes 400ºC. The
shown in figure. The rate of heat transfer H increases in the internal energy of the gas
(in watt) for given system is (All quantities (in kilo-joules) is (R = 8.30 J/mol-K)
are in SI unit) (A = 23 × 10–2 m2 ) (1) 21.55
(2) 41.50
(3) 65.55
(4) 80.55

(1) 12 k 5. In a stationary wave on a stretched string

(2) 14 k (1) Strain is maximum at nodes
(3) 16 k (2) Strain Is maximum at antinodes
(4) 18 k (3) Strain is minimum at nodes
(4) Amplitude is zero at every point
2. When 150 g of ice at 0°C is mixed with 300 g
of water at 50°C. The resulting temperature 6. In a resonance tube, first and third
of mixture is (ignore heat loss to resonance are obtained at length 22.5 cm
surrounding) and 116.5 cm respectively. Then end
(1) 4.2°C correction will be
(2) 9.7°C (1) 1 cm
(3) 6.7°C (2) 2 cm
(4) 32.6°C (3) 3 cm
(4) 4 cm
3. A mass of an ideal gas undergoes a
reversible isothermal compression. Its 7. The ratio of maximum to minimum intensity
molecules compared with initial state, will due to superposition of two coherent waves
have same is 4 : 1. The ratio of intensities of component
(A) Root mean square speed waves is
(B) Mean momentum (1) 10 : 3
(C) Mean kinetic energy
(2) 1 : 8
(1) A, B, C are correct
(3) 9 : 1
(2) A and C are correct
(4) 16 : 1
(3) B and C are correct
(4) Only A is correct
Practice Test-7(TYM)

8. The mechanical energy of a particle of mass 14. The time period of oscillation of spring-mass
1 kg is 0.64 J whose equation of motion is system as shown in the figure is
2
d y
given by 25
2
+ 16y = 0 (y :
dt

Displacement is in m, t : time in s). The

amplitude of motion will be
−−
(1) 2 m (1) 3k
2π√
– M
(2) √2 m
−−−
(2) 2K
(3) 1.5 m 2π√
3M

(4) 0.5 m −−−

(3) 3M
2π√
2k

9. 2 moles of a gas having γ =

7
is mixed (4)
−−
M
5 2π√
5 3k
with 1 mole of a gas having γ = . The
3

γ for the mixture will be

(1) 5
15. If a spring of force constant k is cut into two
11 parts, such that one part is thrice in length of
(2) 13 the other part. Then the force constant of
19 each part are
(3) 15
(1) 3k , 4k
11 4

(4) 19
(2) 4k
, 4k
13 3

(3) k
,
4k

4 3
10. Molar specific heat capacity at constant
volume, for a linear triatomic gas is (Neglect (4) 2k
, 3k
3
vibrational mode)
(1) 3 R
2 16. The potential energy of a particle of mass 1
(2) 5 kg executing SHM along the x-axis is given
R
2
by U = 4 + 4x2 . What is the frequency of
(3) 7
R oscillation?
2
(1) √2
(4) 4R 2π
−
−
(2) 1 5
√
11. Mean free path of a gas molecule is 2π 3

(1) Directly proportional to the diameter of (3) 1

the molecule 2π

(4) √2
(2) Inversely proportional to temperature of π
gas
(3) Inversely proportional to number of
17. One mole of an ideal diatomic gas
molecules per unit volume P0

(4) Directly proportional to the pressure of undergoes a process P = ,

2
[1+(V /V0 ) ]
the gas
where P0 and V0 are constants. The
average translational kinetic energy of the
12. Two particles execute SHM of the same gas at V = V0 is
amplitude and frequency along the same
straight line. They pass each other when (1) 5P0 V0

4
going in opposite directions and each time
their displacement is half of their amplitude. (2) 3P0 V0

4
What is phase difference between them?
(1) 60°
(3) 3P0 V0

(2) 90° 2

(3) 120°
(4) 5P0 V0
(4) 180° 2

13. If the kinetic energy of a satellite is +3 MJ, 18. The displacement of particle is given by x =
then the potential energy of the satellite is 10 + 4sinωt + 3cosωt then amplitude of
(1) –3 MJ motion is
(2) +3 MJ (1) 10
(3) +6 MJ (2) 17
(4) –6 MJ (3) 15
(4) 5
Practice Test-7(TYM)

19. A uniform rod of mass m and length l is fixed
at one end released from horizontal position
as shown in the figure. The angular velocity
of the rod when the rod makes an angle 60°
with vertical is
24. Calculate the velocity of flow (v3 ) of the ideal
liquid in the lower branch of the tube shown
in the figure

−−
(1) 4g
√
3l

−−
(2) 2g
√
l
(1) 4 m/s
(3) −−
3g
(2) 6 m/s
√
l (3) 8 m/s
−−
(4) 3g (4) 10 m/s
√
2l

25. Consider the diagram given below, if there is

20. If the gravitational acceleration at the surface no relative motion between the block M and
of earth is g, then increase in potential m, then the minimum co-efficient of friction
energy in lifting an object of mass m from between the blocks will be
earth's surface to a height equal to half of
radius of earth from surface will be:
(1) mgR
2

(2) 2mgR

(3) mgR

(4) mgR

4
(1) μ =
g

21. A lift is moving down with retardation of 5 (2) μ =

a

m/s2 . The apparent weight of the man whose (3) 2a

μ =
mass is 50 kg standing in the lift. g

(1) 250 N (4) 2g

μ =
a
(2) 750 N
(3) 500 N
26. The dimensional formula for bulk modulus of
(4) 1000 N
elasticity is
(1) [M1 L–2 T–2 ]
22. On the Fahrenheit scale, the absolute zero
(2) [M1 L–3 T–2 ]
temperature is at
(1) – 300°F (3) [M1 L2 T–2 ]
(2) – 459.67°F (4) [M1 L–1 T–2 ]
(3) – 101.2°F
(4) 273°F 27. The weight of a person is W at the surface of
earth. At what height from surface of earth
23. A pan is filled with hot liquid which cools the weight reduces by 36%? (R is radius of
from 94°C to 86°C in 2 minutes, the room earth)
temperature was 20°C. Assuming Newton’s (1) R
cooling law is valid, how long will it take to 2

cool from 86°C to 74°C? (2) R

4
(1) 2.5 minute (3) R
(2) 3.5 minute (4) R
(3) 4.5 minute 3

(4) 2 minute
Practice Test-7(TYM)

28. If the momentum of a body varies with time t 31. A particle is moving on a circle of radius A.
as p = (5t2 + t + 1) kgm/s. The average At an instant its speed and tangential
force for the time interval 0 to 2 s is acceleration are B and C respectively. Total
acceleration of the particle at that instant is
(1) 22 N − −− − −−−
(1) 2

(2) 33 N √
A
+C
2
2
B
(3) 11 N
−−−−−−−
(4) 44 N (2) A
4
2
√ +C
2
B

−−−−−−−
29. A body is moving along a straight line, (3) B
4
2
√ +C
starting from rest with constant power. The A
2

diagram which correctly represent

displacement-time (s-t) curve of its motion is (4) B
2

+C
A
(1)

32. A particle is thrown up with speed

−−−
3gR
√
2
from surface of earth. The maximum
height attained by the particle is

(2)

(3) (1) R
(2) 2R
(3) 3R
(4) 4R

33. The velocity (v) – time (t) plot of a moving

object in straight line is as shown in the
(4) figure.

The average speed of the object during t = 0

30. The range of a projectile at an angle of to t = 20 s is
projection 37° from horizontal is R. For the (1) 5 m/s
same speed, if angle of projection is 45°,
from horizontal then range becomes (2) 10 m/s
(1) 25 R (3) 7.5 m/s
24
(4) 4 m/s
(2) R
(3) 24
R
25

(4) R

4
Practice Test-7(TYM)

34. For the structure shown in figure, moment of 38. A car starts from rest and moves on a
inertia about an axis passing through yy' is straight line according to given acceleration-
time graph. The maximum value of its
velocity will be

(1) 2M L
2
(1) 5 m/s
3
(2) 6 m/s
(2) ML
2

3
(3) 8 m/s
(3) 8M L
2
(4) 10 m/s
3

(4) 4M L
2

35. Assertion (A) : Pascal's law is the working

principle of hydraulic brakes.
Reason (R) : Pressure = Thrust × Area.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements

36. Four particles, each of mass ‘m’ are situated

at the vertices of a square ABCD of side ‘a’
as shown in the figure. The moment of
inertia of the system about line BD will be

(1) ma2
(2) ma 2

(3) ma
2

(4) 2ma2

37. A park in the form of a square has an area of

(144 ± 0.4) m2 . The side of park is
(1) (12 ± 0.02) m
(2) (12 ± 0.03) m
(3) (12 ± 0.04) m
(4) (12 ± 0.3) m
Practice Test-7(TYM)

39. Acceleration-time graph of a body is given . 40. In the figure shown if all the surfaces are
The corresponding velocity-time graph of the smooth and strings are inextensible. The
body should be ratio of T1 to the T2 is

(1) 5 : 3
(2) 2 : 3
(3) 5 : 2
(4) 1 : 1

41. The potential energy of a system decreases

if
(1) (1) Conservative forces do positive work
on the system
(2) Conservative forces do negative work
on the system
(3) Conservative forces do no work on the
system
(4) Both (2) and (3)

42. A particle of mass 2 kg located at the

ˆ ˆ
(2) position ( i + j) m has a velocity

ˆ ˆ ˆ
2( i – j + k) m/s. Z-component of its
angular momentum about origin is
(1) Zero
(2) +8
(3) 12
(4) –8

43. →
ˆ ˆ ˆ
(3) If force F = (2 i + 3 j − k) N is acting
on a particle having instantaneous velocity
→
ˆ ˆ
v = (2 i − j ) m/s , then instantaneous
power of this force at that instant will be
(1) 1 W
(2) 7 W
(3) 2 W
(4) 5 W

(4)
44. → →
If two vectors A and B are such that
→ → → →∣
–∣
A ⋅ B = √3 ∣ A × B ∣ , then the value
∣ ∣

∣→ →∣
of ∣A + B ∣ is
∣ ∣

(1) √3
1

2
2 2
[A +B + AB]
2

(2) 2 2
1

[A +B + 2AB] 2

(3) 2 2
–
1

[A +B − √3AB] 2

(4) 2 2
–
1

[A +B + √3AB] 2
Practice Test-7(TYM)

45. The distance travelled by a freely falling 49. In the case of conservative force
body from rest in first 5 seconds of its motion (1) Work done in a closed loop is positive
is equal to the distance travelled in last
(2) Work done in a closed loop is negative
second of its journey. The time of its fall is
(1) 10 s (3) Work done is dependent of the path
(2) 11 s (4) Work done against conservative force
is stored in the form of potential energy
(3) 12 s
(4) 13 s
50. The ratio of tensions T2 to T1 in rope is (If
ropes are massless)
46. Rain is falling vertically downwards. For a
man walking at a speed 6 m/s on ground,
the rain appears to fall at an angle 45° with
vertical, towards the man. The speed of the
rain w.r.t. ground is
(1) 2 m/s
(2) 3 m/s
(3)
– –
(4) 6 m/s (1) √2 : √3
–
(2) 1 : √2

47. Consider the following two statements (3) –

√3 :
–
√2
(a) Dimensionless quantities are surely unit-
less (4) 1 : 2
(b) Unit-less quantities are dimensionless
The correct statement(s) is/are
(1) Only (a)
(2) Only (b)
(3) Both (a) and (b)
(4) Neither (a) nor (b)

48. The increase in the potential energy of the

body with mass m if the body is taken at the
height h which is equal to radius of the earth
(1) mgR
(2) 2mgR
(3) mgR
2

(4) mgR

4
Practice Test-7(TYM)

Chemistry

51. Given below are two statements one is 56. Which compound on hydrolysis gives cross-
labelled as Assertion (A) other is labelled as linked polymer?
Reason (R). (1) (CH3 )3 SiCl
Assertion (A) : Ga has larger atomic radius
than Al. (2) (CH3 )2 SiCl2
Reason (R) : Generally on moving down the (3) CH3 SiCl3
group atomic radius decreases.
(4) (Ph)2 SiCl2
In the light of above statements choose the
correct answer.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and 57. The geometry around boron atom in boric
the reason is the correct explanation of acid is
the assertion (1) Trigonal planar
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but (2) Tetrahedral
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion (3) Pyramidal
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason (4) Linear
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false 58. General formula of two dimensional sheet
statements silicates is
(1) (Si2 O5 )n 2n–
52. Number of 3 centre – 2e– bonds present in (2) (SiO3 )n 2n–
B2 H6 is
(3) (SiO2 )n
(1) 2
(4) SiO4 4–
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 3 59. If 2-oxopropanal and methanal are obtained
by the reductive ozonolysis of compound
(A), then the number of σ-bonds presents in
53. Correct order of first ionisation energies for (A) is
13th group elements is (1) 10
(1) ln < Al < Ga < Tl (2) 11
(2) Al < Ga < ln < Tl (3) 12
(3) Tl < ln < Ga < Al (4) 13
(4) Ga < Al < ln < Tl
60. Least stable carbocation among the
54. A : C, Si and Ge are not affected by water. following is
R : Tin decomposes when reacts with steam (1) ⊕
to form dioxide and dihydrogen gas. CH3

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and (2) ⊕

the reason is the correct explanation of CH3 − CH − CH3

the assertion (3) ⊕

CH3 − C = O
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct (4) ⊕

CH3 – CH2
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false 61. Borax on heating can form
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (1) Na2 B4 O7
statements (2) NaBO2
(3) B2 O3
55. Role of SO2 in the following reactions
(4) All of these
respectively are
(a) Fe2 (SO4 )3 + SO2 + 2H2 O → 2FeSO4 +
2H2 SO4
(b) 2H2 S + SO2 → 2H2 O + 3S
(1) Reducing in (a) and oxidising in (b)
(2) Oxidising in (a) and reducing in (b)
(3) Oxidising in both (a) and (b)
(4) Reducing in both (a) and (b)
Practice Test-7(TYM)

62. How many six membered and five 68. Which among the following has highest
membered rings are present in fullerene? Lewis acidity?
(1) Six membered = 20, Five membered = (1) BF3
10
(2) BCl3
(2) Six membered = 20, Five membered =
12 (3) BBr3

(3) Six membered = 25, Five membered = (4) BI3

10
(4) Six membered = 12, Five membered = 69. Given,
25

63. Hydrolysis of silicon tetrafluoride give(s)

(1) Si(OH)4
(2) H2 SiF6 The correct order of heat released on
(3) H2 SiO3 hydrogenation of the given compounds is
(1) III > II > I
(4) Both (A) and (B)
(2) I > II > III
(3) II > III > I
64. A white solid (A) gives fumes in moist air and
exists as dimer. Its aqueous solution turns (4) I > III > II
blue litmus red. It also gives white
precipitates with AgNO3 solution. Solid (A) 70. Given below are two statements, one is
is labelled as Assertion (A) other is labelled as
(1) Aluminium hydroxide Reason (R).
(2) Aluminium chloride Assertion (A) : Cyclooctatetraene is non-
aromatic compound.
(3) Aluminium sulphate Reason (R) : Cyclooctatetraene has
(4) Aluminium oxide 4n π electrons.

In the light of above statements, choose the

65. Which among the following is the most correct answer.
stable carbanion? (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is
(1) (CH3 ) ¯ ¯
¯
the correct explanation of the (A)
C
3
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but the (R) is
(2) ¯
¯
( CH3 CO) C
¯
not the correct explanation of the (A)
3

(3) ¯
¯¯ (3) (A) is true statement but (R) is false
( CH3 O) C
3
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false statements
(4) ¯¯
¯
CH3 CH2

71. In Carius tube for sulphur estimation, if 0.482

66. In all of its compounds, oxidation state of g of an organic compound gave 0.960 g of
oxygen may vary from Barium sulphate then the percentage of
(1) + 6 to – 6 sulphur in the compound is approximately
(2) + 2 to –2 (Molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol–1 )
(3) + 2 to + 6 (1) 42%
(4) 0 to –2 (2) 27%
(3) 19%
67. Assertion (A): CO is neutral oxide. (4) 38%
Reason (R): Dehydration of formic acid
forms CO as product. 72. When But-1-yne reacts with aqueous H2 SO4
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and in the presence of HgSO4 , the product
the reason is the correct explanation of
formed is
the assertion
(1) Butanal
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct (2) 2-Butanone
explanation of the assertion (3) Propanal
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason (4) Acetone
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements
Practice Test-7(TYM)

73. 78. Most stable carbanion is

(1) Θ

CH3 CH2

(2)
The major product is
(1)

(3) ( CH3 ) C
Θ

3
(2)
(4) CH3 − C ≡ C
Θ

79. Which of the following compounds can

(3) exhibit keto-enol tautomerism?

(i)

(4)

(ii)

74. If ΔrG° for any reaction is –2.303 then, the

value of equilibrium constant K is (iii)
(1) 10RT
(2) 10
2.303/ RT (1) (i) and (iii)
(3) 1/ RT
(2) (ii) and (iii)
10
(3) Only (i)
(4) 10
RT/2.303
(4) Only (iii)

75. If the equilibrium constant of a reaction is 2 × 80. Which among the given molecules can
103 at 25°C then the standard Gibbs free exhibit tautomerism?
energy change for the reaction will be (1)
(1) – 2.5R × 298
(2) – 7.6R × 298
(3) – 7.6R
(4) – 5.1R × 298

(2)
76. Total number of structural isomers obtained
on monochlorination of 2-methylpentane is
(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 3 (3)

77. Which of the following will give blood red

colour with Lassaigne's test for nitrogen
followed by reaction with ferric ions?
(1) (NH2 )2 C = O (4)
(2) C6 H5 SO3 H
(3) (NH4 )2 SO4
(4)
Practice Test-7(TYM)

81. Assertion (A) : Boron cannot form [BF6 ]3– . 87. Find the correct match.
Reason (R) : Maximum covalency of B is 4 Column I Column II
due to the absence of vacant d-orbitals. a. BCl3 (i) sp2
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of b. SiCl4 (ii) sp3 d
the assertion
c. SF4 (iii) sp3 d2
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct d. BrF5 (iv) sp3
explanation of the assertion
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
(2) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
is false
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

82. The salt which will have the highest pH in 88. An organic compound contains carbon,
aqueous solution is hydrogen and oxygen. Its elemental analysis
(1) NaCl gave C = 40% and H = 6.67%. The empirical
formula of the compound would be
(2) Na2 SO4
(1) HCO
(3) NH4 Cl (2) H2 CO
(4) CH3 COONa (3) HC2 O
(4) H2 C2 O
83. Which among the following can behave as a
self indicator?
(1) Starch 89. Most stable carboxylate ion is
(1)
(2) S2 O
2−
3

(3) MnO
−

4
(2)
(4) Cr2 O
2−
7

84. The average oxidation number of Br in (3)

Br3 O8 is
(1) 5.33
(2) 4.33
(3) 1.33 (4)
(4) 6

85. The compound which cannot

disproportionate among the following is
(1) H2 O2 90. Given below are two statements, one is
labelled as Assertion (A) other is labelled as
(2) SO2
Reason (R).
(3) HNO2 Assertion(A) : Boron cannot form [BF6 ]3– .
(4) HClO4 Reason(R) : Maximum covalency of B is 4
due to the absence of vacant d-orbitals.
In the light of above statements, choose the
86. In a balanced equation correct answer.
H2 SO4 + xHI → H2 S + yI2 + zH2 O
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
The values of x, y, z are the reason is the correct explanation of
(1) x = 3, y = 5, z = 2 the assertion
(2) x = 4, y = 8, z = 5 (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
(3) x = 8, y = 4, z = 4 the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(4) x = 5, y = 3, z = 4
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements
Practice Test-7(TYM)

91. In the following reaction 95. Mass of KOH solution required (50% (w/w))
to neutralize 2 litre of 1 M HCl solution is
(1) 112 g
(2) 224 g
'A' is (3) 56 g
(1) (4) 62 g

96. If mass ratio of N2 and CO2 is 4 : 11 then the

ratio of their number of atoms will be
(1) 8 : 33
(2)
(2) 8 : 21
(3) 4 : 11
(4) 5 : 9

(3) 97. If mole fraction of glucose in its aqueous

solution is 0.02 then molality of this solution
is
(1) 1.1 m
(4) (2) 0.02 m
(3) 4.5 m
(4) 2.7 m

98. In the reaction

92. For the balanced redox reaction 3 Br 2 + 6 CO
2−
3
3H2 O → 5 Br
−
+ BrO
−
3
− − + 2+
aMnO + bI + cH → xMn + yI −
2
4 + 6 HCO
3
+ zH2 O
a, b and z respectively are (1) Bromine is oxidised and carbonate is
(1) 5, 4 and 3 reduced
(2) 16, 5 and 8 (2) Bromine is reduced and water is
(3) 2, 10 and 8 oxidised
(4) 2, 10 and 6 (3) Bromine is neither reduced nor
oxidised
(4) Bromine is both reduced and oxidised
93. Select the reaction which is not a
disproportionation reaction?
(1) Cl2 + 2NaOH → NaCl + NaOCl + H2 O
(2) Δ

NH4 NO3 → N2 O + 2H2 O

(3) 6XeF4 + 12H2 O → 4Xe + 2XeO3 +
24HF + 3O2
(4) Br2 + H2 O → HBr + HOBr

94. If uncertainty in momentum is double of

uncertainty in position then uncertainty in
position will be
−−
(1) h
√
π

−−
(2) 1 h
√
2 2π

(3) h

2√2π

−−
(4) h
√
2π
Practice Test-7(TYM)

99. For the following reactions:

Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) (a) and (c) are addition reactions and
(b) is elimination reaction
(2) (a) is addition (b) is elimination and (c)
is substitution reaction
(3) (a) is elimination, (b) and (c) are
substitution reactions
(4) (a) is addition, (b) and (c) are
elimination reactions

100. HgSO
4
/H2 SO4

Ph– C ≡ CH −−−−−−−−→ (P)

H2 O

Major product (P) is

(1) Ph–CH2 –CH2 OH
(2) Ph–CH2 CHO
(3) Ph–CO–CH3
(4) Ph–CH2 –O–CH3
Practice Test-7(TYM)
Botany
101. Read the below given assertion and reason
and select the correct option.
Assertion : Plants exhibit plasticity in the
development.
Reason : Development does not lead to
senescence and death.
In the light of above statements, select the
correct option.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements
102. Pneumatophores
(1) Are modification of stem
(2) Help to get oxygen for respiration
(3) Are found in Rhizopus
(4) Are modification of root for mechanical
support
103. In racemose type of inflorescence
(1) Main axis continues to grow
(2) Flowers are borne in a basipetal order
(3) Main axis terminates in a flower
(4) Growth of main axis is limited
104. Which of the following is/are correct for
protonema of mosses?
(a) Juvenile stage
(b) Reproduce vegetatively
(c) Sexually reproduces by gamete
formation
(1) Only (a) and (b)
(2) Only (b) and (c)
(3) Only (a) and (c)
(4) All (a), (b) and (c)
105. Mango and coconut develop from
(1) Monocarpellary superior ovary
(2) Multicarpellary superior ovary
(3) Monocarpellary inferior ovary
(4) Multicarpellary inferior ovary
106. Which of the given statements is not true for
binomial nomenclature system?
(1) Biological names are generally in Latin
or Latinised irrespective of their origin
(2) Both the words if hand written are
underlined together
(3) Name of the author is written after
specific epithet in an abbreviated form
(4) First word represents the genus, which
starts with a capital letter
107. Auxin
(1) Term was derived from Latin word
‘auxein’
(2) Is generally produced by mature parts
of plant
(3) Was first isolated from human urine
(4) Has been rarely used in agriculture
and horticulture practices
108. Assertion (A) : Biosynthetic phase of
photosynthesis is dependent on the
products of light reaction.
Reason (R) : Dark reaction takes place in
night only.
In the light of above statements, select the
correct option.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements
109. The C3 -plants respond to increased CO2
concentration and saturation is seen only
(1) At about 360 µlL–1
(2) Beyond 450 µlL–1
(3) Below 360 µlL–1
(4) At about 300 µlL–1
110. Read the given statements and select the
correct option.
Statement A: Water stress reduces surface
area of leaves and their metabolic activity as
well.
Statement B: Accessory pigments enable a
wider range of wavelength of incoming light
to be utilised for photosyntesis
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect
Practice Test-7(TYM)

111. Mycoplasma has 117. Read the following assertion (A) and
(1) Nucleus reason (R) and select the correct option
A : Trichomes are branched unicellular
(2) Cell wall
appendages arising from root.
(3) 70S ribosome R : Trichomes facilitates water loss by
(4) ssDNA transpiration.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
112. The thorns in Citrus and Bougainvillea
the assertion
(1) Are the means of vegetative
propagation (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
(2) Check the transpiration in plants explanation of the assertion
(3) Increase the rate of photosynthesis (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
(4) Protect the plants from browsing is false
animals (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements
113. The complex IV of mitochondrial ETS which
has two copper centres is 118. Find the odd one out w.r.t. life cycle patterns
(1) Cytochrome c oxidase complex (1) In haplontic life cycle, gametophyte is
(2) Cytochrome b6 f dominant stage
(3) Succinate dehydrogenase (2) In diplontic life cycle, sporophyte is
(4) NADH dehydrogenase dominant stage
(3) In haplo-diplontic life cycle, both
sporophyte and gametophyte stages
114. Total number of ATP produced through ETS are absent
only from one molecule of PGAL in aerobic
(4) In diplontic life cycle, sporophyte stage
respiration, is
is multicellular
(1) 5
(2) 20
119. The ploidy level of protonema, spore mother
(3) 17 cell and rhizoidal cells respectively in
(4) 10 Funaria are ?
(1) N, 2N, N
115. In oxidative phosphorylation, complex V is (2) N, N, N
(3) 2N, N, 2N
(1) ATP synthase (4) N, 2N, 2N
(2) Succinate dehydrogenase
(3) Cytochrome bc1 120. Wolffia is included in angiosperms because
(4) NADH dehydrogenase (1) Seeds are not protected by seed coat
(2) Seeds are enclosed in fruits
116. Choose the incorrect statement regarding (3) Of the production of two type of spores
Bentham and Hooker's system of (4) Of the presence of autotrophic mode of
classification of angiosperms. nutrition
(1) Based on natural affinities among the
organisms
121. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t.
(2) Only external feature of organisms
fermentation.
were considered
(1) Involves complete breakdown of
(3) Is a natural system of classification glucose
(4) Embryology, phytochemistry and (2) Oxygen is not required
anatomy of plants were also
considered as criteria (3) End products can be lactic acid or
ethanol
(4) There is a net gain of 2 ATP for each
molecule of glucose fermented
Practice Test-7(TYM)
122. Read the following statements and select
the correct option.
Statement A : Light saturation for CO2
fixation occurs at 10% of full sunlight.
Statement B : Tomato is a greenhouse crop
which can be grown in CO2 enriched
atmosphere for higher yield.
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
123. Which of the following pairs of plants, flower
only when they are exposed to a
photoperiod more than a critical period?
(1) Wheat & radish
(2) Henbane and soyabean
(3) Tobacco and sugarbeet
(4) Tomato and soyabean
124. The plant hormone auxin was first isolated
from
(1) Human urine
(2) Cotton fruits and rice plants
(3) Avena coleoptile and the fungus,
Gibberella
(4) Rice seedling
125. Which hormone helps to prevent fruit and
leaf drop at early stages but promotes
abscission of older or mature leaves?
(1) Gibberellins
(2) ABA
(3) Auxin
(4) Ethylene
126. Lax is
(1) Compact strobilus or cone
bryophytes
(2) Sporangium having spores
(3) Loosely and spirally arranged
sporophylls along an axis
(4) Female gametophyte in gymnosperms
127. Respiratory pathway would be better to
consider as an amphibolic pathway because
(1) In this pathway, the intermediates do
not form any link with breakdown of
proteins and fats
(2) Its end products are not any organic
molecules
(3) It involves the synthesis of organic
products from inorganic substrates
(4) It is involved in both anabolism and
catabolism
128. Mark the respiratory substrate that has
lowest RQ value among the following
(1) Fatty acid
(2) Protein
(3) Carbohydrate
(4) Malic acid
129. The discovery of gibberellin is related to
which of the following plant diseases?
(1) White rust of mustard
(2) Bakanae disease of rice seedlings
(3) Mosaic disease of tobacco
(4) Early blight of potato
130. Read the following statements and choose
the correct option
Statement A : Shoot apices of plants
themselves cannot perceive stimulus of
photoperiods.
Statement B : Day neutral plants require
continuous long dark period to flower.
(1) Only statement A is incorrect
(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement B is incorrect
(4) Both the statements are correct
131. Mark the odd one out w.r.t. pteridophytes.
(1) The pteridophytes include horsetails
and ferns
(2) Their main plant body is thalloid
gametophyte
(3) Some of them may flourish well in
sandy soil conditions
(4) Their gametophytes require cool,
damp, shady places to grow
132. First terrestrial plants to posses vascular
tissue may also show/have
in
(1) Seed formation
(2) Diplontic life cycle
(3) Fruit formation
(4) Event precursor to seed habit
133. Mosses are different from most liverworts as
the former
(1) Has gametophyte as predominant
stage of their life cycle
(2) Has unicellular, unbranched rhizoids
(3) Has an elaborate mechanism of spore
dispersal
(4) Are first embryophytes
Practice Test-7(TYM)

134. How many of the given plants produce 139. During aerobic respiration, which of the
seeds and also have archegonia? following conversion shows substrate level
a. Pinus phosphorylation?
b. Funaria (1) Oxalosuccinic acid → α-ketoglutaric
c. Selaginella acid
d. Mustard
(2) Fumaric acid → Malic acid
e. Porphyra
f. Cycas (3) Succinyl CoA → Succinic acid
(1) Two (4) Citric acid → Cis-Aconitic acid
(2) Three
(3) Four 140. Select the odd one out w.r.t. ABA.
(4) Five (1) Dormin
(2) 6 N-Furfurylamino purine
135. Find the mismatched pair. (3) Inhibitor B
(1) Vessels : Not found in most of the (4) Abscission II
gymnosperms
(2) Tracheids : Dead and without 141. The flattened, thick and fleshy
protoplasm photosynthetic stem of Opuntia is called
(3) Xylem fibre : Living and thin walled (1) Bulb
(4) Xylem parenchyma : Stores tannins (2) Phylloclade
(3) Rhizome
136. Cycas, a gymnosperm is (4) Corm
(1) Monoecious and having unbranched
stem
142. Which of the following are involved in the
(2) Dioecious and having unbranched first step of the Krebs' cycle?
stem
(1) OAA, pyruvic acid, water
(3) Dioecious and having branched stem
(2) Acetyl CoA, water, isocitric acid
(4) Monoecious and having branched
stem (3) Malic acid, OAA, citric acid
(4) Acetyl CoA, OAA, water

137. Select the correct statement.

(1) Large, empty and colourless cells
present along the abaxial epidermis of
dicot leaf are called bulliform cells
(2) The parenchymatous cells which lie
between the vascular bundles of dicot
stem are called conjunctive tissues
(3) Light coloured peripheral region of
wood involved in the conduction of
water and minerals is sapwood
(4) Thick walled non-chlorophyll
containing cells of leaf are called
mesophyll
138. Select the correct option to fill in the given
blanks
143. Which of the given enzymes catalyses the
oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate?
(1) Succinate dehydrogenase
(2) α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
(3) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(4) Lactate dehydrogenase
144. Vernalisation is
(1) Low temperature exposure for breaking
seed dormancy
(2) Low temperature exposure for
flowering
(3) Required for perennial plants only
(4) To promote precocious reproductive
development in plants

145. The exponential growth can be expressed

as (consider W1 is the final size and W0 is
the initial size)
(1) A - Chlorophyceae, B - Starch (1) W1 = W0 + rt
(2) B - Laminarin, C - Chlorophyll a and b (2) W0 = W1 + rt
(3) B - Mannitol, C - Chlorophyll a and d (3) W0 = W1 ert
(4) A - Phaeophyceae, B - Starch (4) W = W ert
1 0
Practice Test-7(TYM)

146. Plants with Kranz anatomy lack 149. Read the following statements and select
(1) Double carboxylation steps in the correct option
photosynthesis Statement A : In fermentation, there is a net
gain of only two molecules of ATP from one
(2) Cold sensitive enzyme PEP synthetase
molecule of glucose.
(3) Activity of RuBisCO in mesophyll cells Statement B : Fermentation occurs under
(4) Agranal chloroplasts in bundle sheath anaerobic condition.
cells (1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct
147. Select the incorrect statement for growth of (3) Both the statement A & B are correct
the living organisms. (4) Both the statement A & B are incorrect
(1) It occurs at the expense of energy
(2) It is a fundamental characteristic of
150. The correct sequence of electron carriers in
living beings
electron transport chain of mitochondria is
(3) It is accompanied by only anabolic (1) FMN→ UQ → Cyt b → Cyt C1 → Cyt c
reactions
→ Cyt a-a3
(4) It is an irreversible permanent change
(2) FMN→ Cyt b → UQ → Cyt a-a3 → Cyt c
→ Cyt C1
148. Arrange the following substrates in
ascending order w.r.t their RQ values and (3) FMN → UQ → Cyt b → Cyt c → Cyt C1
choose the correct option. → Cyt a-a3
a. Tripalmitin (4) FMN→ Cyt a-a3 → Cyt c → Cyt C1 →
b. Proteins Cyt b → UQ
c. Malic acid
d. Glucose
(1) a, b, d & c
(2) b, d, a & c
(3) a, b, c & d
(4) d, a, b & c
Practice Test-7(TYM)

Zoology

151. All of the following hormones are secreted 157. Select the mismatch w.r.t. organisms and
by hypothalamus, except their excretory structures.
(1) GnRH (1) Amphioxus – Protonephridia
(2) PRH (2) Pheretima – Nephridia
(3) TRH (3) Periplaneta – Flame cells
(4) ACTH (4) Balanoglossus – Proboscis gland

152. Select the animal from the options 158. Human heart is
given below, whose body is cylindrical and (1) Myogenic because it is composed of
is divided into proboscis, collar and trunk. autoexcitable nodal tissues
(1) Saccoglossus (2) Neurogenic because ANS can regulate
(2) Ascidia heart beat
(3) Petromyzon (3) Myogenic because it is made of
(4) Myxine voluntary, cardiac muscles
(4) Neurogenic because it has an
extensive nerve supply
153. Which of the following is a hypercalcemic
hormone?
(1) Thyroxine 159. Match the column-I with column-II and select
the correct match.
(2) Parathormone
(3) Insulin Column-II
Column-I
(% of the
(4) Glucagon (Average
total
composition of cells
cellular
component)
154. How many hormones given in the box below mass)
are lipid soluble ? a. Lipids (i) 5-7
b. Proteins (ii) 3
FSH, LH, Prolactin, Estrogen,
Progesterone, Aldosterone, Cortisol, ANF c. Nucleic acids (iii) 2

(1) Four d. Carbohydrates (iv) 10-15

(2) Six (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(3) Five (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(4) Three (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
155. Angiotensin-II is responsible for all of the
following except 160. The maximum amount of carbon dioxide is
(1) Vasoconstriction transported by blood in the form of
(2) Increase in blood pressure (1) Bicarbonate ions
(3) Release of mineralocorticoids (2) Dissolved gas
(4) Decreased reabsorption of Na+ from (3) Carboxyhaemoglobin
renal tubules (4) Carbaminohaemoglobin

156. At the end of ventricular diastole 161. In humans, under normal conditions, the
(1) Both semilunar and AV valves are volume of air left in the lungs even after
closed forced expiration would be
(2) Both semilunar and AV valves are open (1) 1.2 L
(3) Semilunar valves are open and AV (2) 2.3 L
valves are closed (3) 3.3 L
(4) Semilunar valves are closed and AV (4) 4.3 L
valves are open.
Practice Test-7(TYM)

162. All living members of the class ‘P’ have 168. Choose the option representing a set of
circular mouth without jaws and are animals in which air bladder is absent.
ectoparasites on some fishes. Select the (1) Pristis, Trygon, Hippocampus, Catla
incorrect feature of class ‘P’.
(2) Scoliodon, Trygon, Carcharodon,
(1) Presence of unpaired fins Pristis
(2) Cartilaginous cranium (3) Carcharodon, Pristis, Hippocampus,
(3) Notochord is replaced by bony Trygon
vertebral column (4) Exocoetus, Hippocampus,
(4) 6-15 pairs of gill slits Pterophyllum, Betta

163. Which one is not a protochordate? 169. The mesoderm is present as scattered
(1) Branchiostoma pouches in between the ectoderm and
endoderm in the body of
(2) Doliolum
(1) Aedes
(3) Ascidia
(2) Aplysia
(4) Saccoglossus
(3) Ancylostoma
(4) Antedon
164. Choose the incorrect feature w.r.t.
hemichordates.
(1) Presence of stomochord 170. How many of the organisms given in the box
below are economically beneficial insects
(2) Worm-like marine animals
for humans?
(3) Presence of proboscis gland
Bombyx, Anopheles, Laccifer, Limulus,
(4) Body is metamerically segmented Wuchereria
(1) Three
165. Read the following characters w.r.t. (2) Four
chondrichthys and select the option with
correct features. (3) Five
a. Ventral mouth (4) Two
b. Placoid scales
c. Always 4 pairs of gills
d. Operculum present 171. How many animals given in the box below
possess water vascular system for
(1) a and b locomotion?
(2) a and c Euspongia, Pila, Dentalium, Asterias,
(3) a, b and c Balanoglossus, Antedon
(4) a, b, c and d (1) 2
(2) 6
166. The incorrect feature about feather-like gills (3) 5
present in the second largest animal phylum
(4) 4
is that
(1) These are present in space between
the hump and the mantle. 172. Poikilotherms possessing cornified skin and
(2) They have respiratory and excretory epidermal scales are all, except
functions. (1) Chelone
(3) They increase the area available for (2) Corvus
gas exchange. (3) Chameleon
(4) They play a role in digestion. (4) Calotes

167. Water canal system in sponges is similar to 173. Common feature of Ascidia, Amphioxus,
water vascular system in echinoderms in all Myxine, Rana, Aptenodytes and Blue whale
of the following functions, except is
(1) Food gathering (1) Presence of cloaca
(2) Respiratory exchange (2) Presence of paired and unpaired
(3) Removal of wastes appendages
(4) Locomotion (3) Presence of lateral line system
(4) Presence of notochord ventral to nerve
cord during their embryonic
development
Practice Test-7(TYM)

174. Similarity in Wuchereria and Culex is 181. All of the following animals are included in
(1) Endoparasitism the division Gnathostomata, except
(2) Anaerobic respiration (1) Hag fish
(3) Metamerism (2) Saw fish
(4) Sexual dimorphism (3) Dog fish
(4) Angel fish
175. Cyclostomes lack
(1) 6 – 15 pairs gill slits for respiration 182. Specialised cells called flame cells are
present in members of the phylum that also
(2) Jawed sucking circular mouth and
possess
stomach
(1) Hooks and suckers in parasitic forms
(3) Closed type of circulatory system
(2) Regeneration capacity in all
(4) Cartilaginous vertebral column
(3) Direct development
(4) Longitudinal and circular muscles for
176. All of the following are exclusively marine, locomotion
except
(1) Doliolum
183. Which of the following features is shared by
(2) Antedon
both Hemidactylus and Psittacula?
(3) Pleurobrachia
(1) Completely four chambered heart
(4) Clarias (2) Pneumatic bones
(3) Oviparous and show direct
177. An important characteristic feature that is development
shared between Balanoglossus and (4) Poikilotherms
Pteropus is
(1) Presence of air sacs
184. In ‘A’, notochord is present only in larval tail,
(2) Sexes are separate
while in ‘B’, it extends from head to tail
(3) Dorsal solid nerve cord region throughout life.
(4) Presence of notochord Select the correct option.
A B
178. Match the following genera in column I with (1) Urochordate Cephalochordate
their respective phylum in column II. (2) Hemichordate Urochordate
Column I Column II
(3) Tunicate Hemichordate
a. Cucumaria (i) Platyhelminthes
(4) Cephalochordate Cyclostomate
b. Meandrina (ii) Mollusca
(1) (1)
c. Chaetopleura (iii) Coelenterata
(2) (2)
d. Taenia (iv) Echinodermata (3) (3)
Select the correct option. (4) (4)
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
185. Read the following statements and choose
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) the correct option.
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) Statement A : In annelids, body surface is
distinctly marked out into metameres.
Statement B : Nereis possesses parapodia
179. Choose the odd one w.r.t. non-poisonous which help only in swimming and neural
reptiles. regulation.
(1) Crocodilus (1) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) Vipera (2) Only statement A is correct
(3) Testudo (3) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(4) Calotes (4) Only statement A is incorrect

180. Advancement of flatworms over cnidarians
include all, except
(1) Triploblasty
(2) Organ level of organisation
(3) Cephalisation
(4) Incomplete digestive tract
186. Which one of the following features is
responsible for the successful terrestrial
survival as well as vast diversity of insects
on land?
(1) Chitinous exoskeleton
(2) Biting and chewing type of mouth parts
(3) Flexible neck
(4) Presence of two pairs of wings
Practice Test-7(TYM)

187. Select the dioecious animals from the box 193. Hormone that does not support or promote
given below. erythropoiesis in man is
Balanoglossus, Sea urchin, Apis, Aedes, (1) Cortisol
N ereis, W uchereria, P heretima (2) Erythropoietin
(3) Cholecystokinin
(1) One
(4) Thyroxine
(2) Two
(3) Five
(4) Six 194. Pars distalis is not a source gland in human
adults for the secretion of
(1) GH
188. Teeth are modified placoid scales and are (2) MSH
backwardly directed in
(3) PRL
(1) Trygon
(4) TSH
(2) Exocoetus
(3) Labeo
(4) Hippocampus 195. Hypersecretion of growth hormone since
childhood causes
(1) Pituitary dwarfism
189. Total number of ovarian tubules present in a (2) Addison's disease
female cockroach is
(3) Gigantism
(1) 16
(4) Acromegaly
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 2 196. What is common between pigeon, camel
and Platypus?
(1) Oviparity
190. The hind gut of cockroach, is differentiated (2) Homeothermy
into
(3) Jaws without teeth
(1) Duodenum, jejunum and ileum
(4) Type of skull
(2) Caecum, colon and rectum
(3) Ileum, colon and rectum
(4) Jejunum, caecum and rectum 197. Select a hormone which controls the diurnal
rhythm of our body.
(1) Melanin
191. The first group of animals, among the (2) Melatonin
following to develop lungs to support their
respiratory requirements, were (3) MSH
(1) Aves (4) Cortisol
(2) Mammals
(3) Reptiles 198. Bile juice is released by gall bladder, under
(4) Amphibians the influence of an intestinal hormone called
(1) Secretin
(2) Cholecystokinin
192. Choose the option with correct statement
w.r.t. Annelida. (3) GIP
a. Neural system consists of paired ganglia (4) Gastrin
connected by dorsal nerves to a latero
ventral nerve cords.
b. They may be aquatic or terrestrial but are 199. Which of the following set of ions/molecules
always free-living are generally secreted in PCT of nephron?
c. They possess longitudinal and circular (1) H+ and Na+
muscle fibres for locomotion. (2) Na+ and HCO3 –
d. Nephridia help in osmoregulation and
excretion but not respiration. (3) H+ and NH3
(1) a and b (4) NH4 + and Na+
(2) c and d
(3) b and c
(4) d only 200. ‘A’ helps in grinding the food particles in
cockroach. ‘A’ possesses an
(1) Outer layer of thick circular muscles
(2) Outer layer of thin cuticle
(3) Inner layer of 8 highly chitinous plates
(4) Innermost layer of thin longitudinal
muscles
Practice Test-7(TYM)