RCC 02 Qp+sol

Mark Group Target NEET-2023-24 (Round-I) Date : 09/12/2023
720 PCB Vijaypath Test Series-Test : 02(38) Time : 03 Hrs. 20 Mins.
Physics - 50 Chemistry - 50 Biology - 100

Question Booklet Version Roll Number Question Booklet Sr. No.
(Write this number
P-11 on your Answer
Sheet)
• Today’s Test Syllabus •

Physics : Motion In A Straight Line + Motion In A Plane
Chemistry : Structure of Atom
Biology : The Living World + Cell : The Unit of Life
• Next Test Syllabus • Date : 12/12/2023
Physics : Kinetic Theory of Gases + Thermodynamics + Heat Transfer
Chemistry : Chemical Bonding
Biology : PLant Kingdom + Breathing and Exchange of Gases
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PHYSICS 3. Two cars A and B, start from x = 0 and x = –4,

Section : A respectively, along a straight line, and their
1. A point traversed 3/4th of circle of radius R in position is given by xA = t2 – 3t and xB = t – 4.
time t. The magnitude of average velocity of At what time they cross each other?
particle in this time interval is [ NCERT Page-42] [ NCERT Page-52]
R 3R 1) 3 s 2) 4 s
1) 2)
t 2t
3) 2 s 4) 1 s
R 2 R
3) 4) 4. Assertion : The displacement of a body may be
t 2t
zero when distance travelled by it is not zero.
2. An object is moving in
Reason : The displacement is the longest distance
a straight line,
between initial & final positions. [ NCERT Page-40]
according to the curve
given in the graph, 1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
x(m) = t 2. Find the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
average velocity for
the interval t = 1 s to 2) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason
t = 3 s. [ NCERT Page-42] is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
1) 9 m/s 2) 4 m/s 3) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
3) 4.5 m/s 4) 1.5 m/s 4) If assertion is false, but reason is true.
PCB TEST : 02(38) 1 Date : 09/12/2023

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
5. If a particle is moving with uniform velocity, 9. A particle moves a distance x in time t according
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then [ NCERT Page-43] to equation x = (t + 5)–1. The accelerationof the
I. Average speed = |Average velocity| particle is proportional to [ NCERT Page-45]
1) (velocity)2/3 2) (velocity)3/2
II. Instantaneous speed = |Instantaneous
3) (distance)2 4) (distance)–2
velocity|
10. A constant acceleration acts for 20 s on a
III. Instantaneous speed = Average speed particle, starting from rest. If the particle
1) Only I is correct covers distance d1 in the first 10 s and distance
2) Only II is correct d2 in the next 10 s, then [ NCERT Page-50]
3) Only I and III are correct d1
1) d2  2) d2  d1
4) All are correct 2
6. Velocity-time graph for a particle is shown in 3) d2  3d1 4) d2  2d1
figure. Starting from t = 0, at what instant t,
average acceleration is zero between 0 to t? 11. A particle moves along x-axis in such a way
that its x-coordinate varies with time according
to the equation x = 8 – 4t + 6t2 . The distance
covered by particle between t = 0 to t = 2/3 sec is
8
[ NCERT Page-45] 1) Zero 2) m
3
4
3) 8 m 4) m
1) 1 s 2) 3.5 s 3
12. At x = 0, velocity of the particle is 2 m/s. Find
3) 6.3 s 4) 7.3 s
the velocity of the particle when acceleration
7. If velocity v = 6t2
+ 2t + 3 m/s, then find the becomes zero. [ NCERT Page-46]
average velocity from t = 0 to t = 1 s.
[ NCERT Page-42]
1) 11 m/s 2) 8 m/s
3) 6 m/s 4) 7 m/s
8. A train starts to move from rest at t = 0.
Its acceleration is a = t + t 2, here  and
 are constants. The velocity of the train at
t = 1 s is [ NCERT Page-45]
 
1)  +  2)  1) 2)
2 3 24.8 m/s 28.2 m/s
3) 0 4)  3) 32 m/s 4) 18.4 m/s
Space For Rough Work
PCB TEST : 02(38) 2 Date : 09/12/2023

13. Displacement-time graph of 16. Two trains each travelling with a speed of
an object moving along 37.5 km/h are approaching each other on the
x-axis is given. Select the same straight track. A bird that can fly at
correct statement regarding 60 km/h flies off from one train when they
it. are 90 km apart and heads directly for the
(I) In OA region, both v and a are positive. other train. On reaching the other train it flies
(II) In AB region, both v and a are zero. back to the first and so on. Total distance
(III) In region BCD, both v and a are negative. covered by the bird is [ NCERT Page-51]
(IV) In region DE, v is negative and acceleration 1) 90 km 2) 54 km

is positive. [ NCERT Page-44, 45] 3) 36 km 4) 72 km
1) (I) and (III) 2) (I) and (IV) 17. From a tower of height H, a particle is thrown
3) (III) and (IV) 4) (I) and (II) vertically upwards with speed u. The time
taken by the particle to hit the ground is
14. Assertion : Magnitude of average velocity is
n times the time taken to reach the highest
equal to average speed if velocity is uniform.
point of its path. The relation between H, u
Reason : If velocity is uniform, then there is no
and n is [ NCERT Page-48]
change in the direction of motion.
[ NCERT Page-42] 1) 2gH  n2 u2 2) gH  (n  2)2 u2
1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. 3) 2 gH  nu2 (n  2) 4) gH  (n  2)u2
2) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason 18. A ball is dropped from a bridge, 125 m above a
is not the correct explanation of the assertion. river. Two second later, another ball is thrown
3) If assertion is true, but reason is false. straight down. What must be the initial velocity
4) If assertion is false, but reason is true. of the second ball so that both hit the water
surface simultaneously? [ NCERT Page-48]
15. Initially, bus A is 112.5 m ahead of bus B. Both
start moving at time t = 0 1) 26.66 m/s 2) 66.26 m/s
3) 43.5 m/s 4) 5 m/s
in the same direction
along a straight line. The 19. A train of 150 m in length is going towards
velocity-time graph of the north direction at a speed of 10 ms –1. A
parrot flies at a speed of 5 ms–1 towards the
the two cars is shown in
south direction parallel to the railway track.
the figure. The time when the bus B will catch The time taken by the parrot to cross the train
the bus A, will be [ NCERT Page-44] is equal to [ NCERT Page-51]
1) 45 s 2) 22.5 s 1) 12 s 2) 8 s
3) 32 s 4) 18 s 3) 15 s 4) 10 s
PCB TEST : 02(38) 3 Date : 09/12/2023

20. Match the Columns. [ NCERT Page-46] 22. A ball is dropped from a building of height
45 m. Simultaneously another ball is thrown
Column-I Column-II up with a speed 40 m/s. The relative speed of
the balls as a function of time can be shown as
Acceleration is [ NCERT Page-52]
a. decreasing with p.
time
1) 2)
Non-uniform
b. q.
motion
3) 4)
Uniform 23. Rain is falling vertically downward with a

c. r.
retardation speed of 9 m/s. After sometime, wind starts
blowing horizontally with speed 3 3 m/s from
south to north. In order to protect himself from
rain, a man standing on the ground should hold
his umbrella at an angle [ NCERT Page-69]
d. Velocity constant s.
1)  = 30° with vertical towards south
2)  = 30° with vertical towards north
4)  = 60° with vertial towards north
1) a-p, b-q, c-r, d-s 2) a-r, b-p, c-q, d-s
24. A river is flowing with a
3) a-s, b-r, c-p, d-q 4) a-q, b-s, c-p, d-r speed of 1 km/hr. A
 swimmer wants to go to
21. Initial velocity of a projectile is u  (4iˆ  3 jˆ) m/s
point C standing from A.
and it is moving with uniform acceleration of
 He swims with a speed
a  (0.4 iˆ  0.3 jˆ ) m/s 2 . The magnitude of its of 5 km/hr, at anlge  w.r.t. the river. If AB =
velocity after 10 s is [ NCERT Page-47] BC = 400 m. Then [ NCERT Page-86]
1) 3 m/s 2) 4 m/s 1) the value of  is 53°
2) time taken by the man is 4 min
3) 5 m/s 4) 10 m/s
4) the value of  is 45°
PCB TEST : 02(38) 4 Date : 09/12/2023

25. The paths of three projectiles are shown in 28. Assertion : A river is flowing from east to west at
the figure. Which projectile spends the most a speed of 5 m/min. A man on the south bank of
time in air? [ NCERT Page-76] river, capable of swimming 10 m/min in still water,
wants to swim across the river in shortest time.
He should swim due north. [ NCERT Page-86]
Reason : For the shortest time, the man needs to

swim perpendicular to the bank.
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
2) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason
1) Projectile A
is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
2) Projectile B
3) Projectile C 3) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
4) All three projectiles spend the same amount 4) If assertion is false, but reason is true.
of time in the air
29. A body of mass m is projected at an angle of 45°
26. A ball rolls horizontally off a stair case with
with the horizontal. If air resistance is
initial velocity u &
negligible, then total change in momentum
just manages to
when it strikes the ground is [ NCERT Page-78]
hit the 10th step is
shown. If length 1) 2mv 2) 2 mv
of each step is
20 cm and height 3) mv 4) mv / 2
is 10 cm, the initial velocity of the ball is
(g = 10 m/s2) [ NCERT Page-79]
30. The speed of a projectile at its maximum height
is half of its initial speed. The angle of
1) 2 5 m/s 2) 3 2 m/s projection is [ NCERT Page-78]
3) 2 3 m/s 4) 5 2 m/s 1) 15° 2) 30°
27. A body is thrown horizontally with a velocity
3) 45° 4) 60°
2gh from the top of a tower of height h. It
31. A missile is fired from maximum range with
strikes the ground of the tower at a distance x
an initial velocity of 20 m/s. If g = 10 m/s2, the
from the tower. The value of x is
range of the missile is [ NCERT Page-78]
[ NCERT Page-78]
1) 40 m 2) 50 m
1) h 2) h / 2
3) 2h 4) 3h / 4 3) 60 m 4) 20 m
PCB TEST : 02(38) 5 Date : 09/12/2023

32. The horizontal range and the maximum height Section : B
of a projectile are equal. The angle of 36. If R and h represent the horizontal range and
projection of the projectile is [ NCERT Page-78] maximum height, respectively, of an oblique
1)  = tan–1(2) 2)  = 45° projection; whose starting point (i.e. point of
3)  = tan–1(1/4) 4)  = tan–1(4) projection) and the end point of projection lie
33. The velocity of a projectile R2
in the same horizonal level. Then,  2h
at the initial point A is 8h
represents [ NCERT Page-78]
(2iˆ  3 ˆj ) m/s . Its velocity 1) the maximum horizontal range
(in m/s) at point B is 2) the maximum vertical range
3) time of flight
[ NCERT Page-78]
4) velocity of projectile at the highest point
1) 2iˆ  3 ˆj 2) 2iˆ  3 ˆj 37. A projectile is fired at an angle of 45° with the
horizonal. Elevation angle of the projectile at
3) 2iˆ  3 ˆj 4) 2iˆ  3 ˆj its highest point, as seen from the point of
projection, is [ NCERT Page-78]
34. A ball is projected from the ground with 1) 45° 2) 60°
velocity v such that its range is maximum.
1  3
[ NCERT Page-78] 3) tan 1   4) tan 1  
2  2 
 
38. Assertion : When the velocity of projection of a
body is made n times, its time of flight becomes
n times.
Reason : Time of flight does not depend on
velocity of projection. [ NCERT Page-78]
3) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i 2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv 4) If assertion is false, but reason is true.
39. Raindrops are falling vertically with a
3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv 4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
velocity 10 m/s. To a cyclist moving on a
35. The velocity of a particle is given by straight road, the rain drops appear to be
v  180  16 x m/s . Its acceleration will be coming with a velocity of 20 m/s. The velocity
[ NCERT Page-48] of cyclist is [ NCERT Page-76]
1) –8 m/s 2
2) 5 m/s2 1) 10 m/s 2) 10 3 m/s
3) –9 m/s 2 4) 10 m/s 2 3) 20 m/s 4) 20 3 m/s
PCB TEST : 02(38) 6 Date : 09/12/2023

40. A particle has initial velocity (3iˆ  4 jˆ ) and 46. Which of the following graph does not
represent retardation? [v : velocity, t : time,
has acceleration (0.4iˆ  0.3 jˆ) . Its speed after x : position] [ NCERT Page-46]
10 s is [ NCERT Page-47]
1) 10 units 2) 7 units
3) 7 2 units 4) 8.5 units 1) 2)
41. A bird flying with a speed of 10 m/s along a
vector (3iˆ  4 jˆ) . If initial position of bird is
(12 m, 10 m, 5 m), then find the x-coordinate
(in m) after the 2 s. [ NCERT Page-47] 3) 4) None of these
1) 1 2) 0
3) 2 4) None of these 47. A particle starting from rest, moves with
42. Two Rajdhani trains, each 50 m long, are uniform acceleration and covers x m in the
travelling in opposite directions with a first 5 s. Distance covered by the same particle
velocity of 10 m/s and 15 m/s. The time of in the next 5 s is [ NCERT Page-50]
crossing is [ NCERT Page-51] 1) x m 2) 2x m
1) 2 s 2) 4 s 3) 3x m 4) 4x m
48. The motion of a particle along a straight line
3) 2 3 s 4) 4 3 s
i s described by equation x = 8 + 12t – t3, where x
43. A boy standing at the top of a 20 m high tower is in metres and t in seconds. The retardation of
drops a stone. Assuming g = 10 m/s 2 , the the particle when its velocity becomes zero is
velocity with which it hits the ground is [ NCERT Page-44, 45]
[ NCERT Page-48] 1) 6 m/s2 2) 12 m/s2
1) 10.0 m/s 2) 20.0 m/s 3) 24 m/s 2 4) Zero
3) 40.0 m/s 4) 5.0 m/s 49. The position of a particle at time t (in seconds)
44. A body is falling from height h. It takes t is given by x = (t3 – 6t2 + 3t + 4) m. The speed of
seconds to reach the ground. Calculate the the particle when its acceleration becomes
time taken by it to cover the first h/16 height. zero is [ NCERT Page-45]
[ NCERT Page-50] 1) 12 m/s 2) 9 m/s
1) t / 2 2) t / 2 3) 6 m/s 4) 3 m/s
50. A particle is at position x = 5 m at t = 0 s. If he
3) t / 4 4) t / 8 reaches x = 25 m at t = 5 s, then the average
45. Water drops come out at regular interval from speed of the particle in those 5 seconds
the water tank at the roof. When the first drop [ NCERT Page-42]
hits ground, third drop comes out of the tank. 1) 4 m/s
The height of the second drop from the ground 2) 5 m/s
is [Height of tank is H0]. [ NCERT Page-49] 3) 6 m/s
4 H0 3H 0 H0 4) Cannot be answered without the knowledge
1) H 2) 3) 4)
3 0 4 4 9 of the path
PCB TEST : 02(38) 7 Date : 09/12/2023

56. In Bohr series of lines of hydrogen spectrum,
CHEMISTRY
the third line from the red end corresponds to
SECTION : A
which one of the following inter-orbit jumps
51. The first use of quantum theory to explain the of the electron for Bohr orbits in an atom of
structure of atom was made by hydrogen [ NCERT Page No. 48]
[ NCERT Page No. 46] 1) 5  2 2) 4  1
1) Heisenberg 2) Bohr 3) 2  5 4) 3  2
3) Planck 4) Einstein 57. Which of the following combination of
52. Among the following, the energy of 2s orbital statements is true regarding the interpretation
lowest in : [ NCERT Page No. 46] of the atomic orbitals?
1) K 2) H a) An electron in an orbital of high angular
3) Li 4) Na momentum stays away from the nucleus
53. The radius of the second Bohr orbit, in terms than an electron in the orbital of lower
of the Bohr radius, a0, in Li2+ is : angular momentum
[ NCERT Page No. 47] b) For a given value of the principal quantum
number, the size of the orbital is inversely
2 a0 4 a0 proportional to the azimuthal quantum
1) 2)
3 9 number
4 a0 2 a0 c) According to wave mechanics, the ground
3) 4)
3 9 h
state angular momentum is equal to
54. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is 2
–13.6 eV. The energy of second excited state of d) The plot of  vs r for various azimuthal
He+ ion in eV is : quantum numbers, shows peak shifting
[ NCERT Page No. 47] towards higher r value
1) –54.4 2) –3.4 [ NCERT Page No. 46]
3) –6.04 4) –27.2 1) (a), (d) 2) (a), (b)
55. Which of the following statements is false? 3) (a), (c) 4) (b), (c)
[ NCERT Page No. 49] 58. If the wavelength of the electromagnetic
1) Splitting of spectral lines in electrical field is radiation is increased to thrice the digital
called Stark effect. value, then what will be the percent change
2) Frequency of emitted radiation from a black in the value of frequency of the
body goes from a lower wavelength to higher electromagnetic radiation.
wavelength as the temperature increass [ NCERT Page No. 37]
3) Photon has momentum as well as wavelength 1) Increases by 33% 2) Decreases by 33%
4) Rydberg constant has unit of energy 3) Increases by 66% 4) Decreases by 66%
PCB TEST : 02(38) 8 Date : 09/12/2023

59. Assertion : Black body is an ideal body that 62. Assertion : The position of an electron can be
emits and absorbs radiations of all frequencies. determined exactly with the help of an electron
Reason : The frequency of radiation emitted by microscope.
a body goes from a lower frequency to higher Reason : The product of uncertainty in the
frequency with an increase in temperature. measurement of its momentum and the
uncertainty in the measurement of the position
[ NCERT Page No. 40]
cannot be less than a finite limit.
1) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct; Reason
is a correct explanation for assertion.
2) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct; Reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
is not a correct explanation for assertion
2) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct, Reason
3) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect is not a correct explanation for assertion
4) Assertion is incorrect, Reason is correct. 3) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect
4) Assertion is incorrect, Reason is correct.
60. The isoelectronic set of ions is
63. The number of orbitals associated with
1) N3–, O2–, F– and Na+
1
2) N3–, Li+, Mg2+ and O2– quantum numbers n = 5, ms   is :
2
3) F–, Li+, Na+ and Mg2+ [ NCERT Page No. 55]
4) Li+, Na+, O2– and F– 1) 11 2) 25
61. The Li2+ ion is moving in the third stationary 3) 50 4) 15
state, and its linear momentum is 7.3 × 10 –34 64. In a multi-electron atom, which of the
kgms–1. Angular momentum is following orbitals described by the three
quantum members will have the same energy
in the absence of magnetic and electric fields?
1) 1.158×10–45kg m2s–1
A) n = 1, l = 0, m = 0 B) n = 2, l = 0, m = 0
–48 2 –1
2) 11.58×10 kg m s C) n = 2, l = 1, m = 1 D) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1
3) 11.58×10 –47 kgm2 s –1 E) n = 3, l = 2, m = 0
4) 12×10–45 kg m2 s –1 [ NCERT Page No. 55]
1) (D) and (E) 2) (C) and (D)
3) (B) and (C) 4) (A) and (B)
PCB TEST : 02(38) 9 Date : 09/12/2023

65. Which of the fellowing statement concerning 70. Which of the following is not permissible
probability density ( 2 ) and radial arrangment of electrons in an atom ?
distribution function (4r22) for an s-orbital [ NCERT Page No. 55]
of H-like species is correct? 1) n = 5, l = 3, m = 0, s = +1/2
2) n = 3, l = 2, m = 3, s = 1/2
1)  2 is minimum at nucleus but 4r 2  2 is
3) n = 3, l = 2, m = 2, s = 1/2
maximum at nucleus
2)  2 is maximum at nucleus but 4r2  2 is 4) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = 1/2
minimum at nucleus 71. What is the difference between two species if
3) Both 2 and 4r22 are maximum at nucleus. one has atomic mass = 14 and atomic number
4) Both 2 and 4r22 are minimum at nucleus. = 7 whereas the other has atomic mass = 14
66. If the de-Broglie wavelength of a particle of and atomic number = 6?
mass m is 100 times its velocity, then its value [ NCERT Page No. 35]
in terms of its mass (m) and Planck's constant
1) Neurtorns 2) Protons
(h) is [ NCERT Page No. 50]
3) Electrons 4) All of these
1 m h 72. Un ce rt ain ty i n p osit io n o f an el ectr on
1) 2) 10
10 h m (mass = 9.1 × 10–28g) moving with a velocity of
3 × 104 cm/s accurate upto 0.001 % will be (use
1 h 1 m
3) 4) h/4 in uncertainty expression where
10 m 10 h h=6.626×10–27 erg-second). [ NCERT Page No. 51]
67. The frequency of radiation emitted when the
1) 1.93 cm 2) 3.84 cm
electron falls from n = 4 to n = 1 in a H-atom
will be : (Given ionization energy of 3) 5.76 cm 4) 7.68 cm
H = 2.18 × 10–18 J atom–1 and h = 6.625 × 10–34 Js) 73. Match the atoms/ions with the characteristics
[ NCERT Page No. 48] of the electron they contain.
1) 3.08 × 1015 s–1 2) 2.00 × 1015 s–1 [ NCERT Page No. 47]
15 –1
3) 1.54 × 10 s 4) 1.03 × 1015 s–1
Column I Column II
68. What can be the representation of the orbital
A H p Radius of 4th orbital = 0.53 × 4 Å
having 3 angular nodes and n = 5. +
[ NCERT Page No. 59] B He q Energy of 2nd orbital = 13.6 eV
2+
1) 5d 2) 5f C Be r Radius of 2nd orbital = 0.53 × 4 Å
3) 5p 4) 5s D Li3+ s Velocity of electron in the 3rd
8
69. For which element, the valence electron will orbit = 2.18 × 10 Å
be present in the hightest energy orbital t Energy of 4th orbit = 13.6 eV
[ NCERT Page No. 61] 1) A-r, B-q, C-p,t, D-s 2) A-r, B-q, C-p, D-t
1) 3Li 2) 1 6 S
3) A-r, B-p, C-t, D-s 4) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s
3) 20 Ca 4) 21 Sc
PCB TEST : 02(38) 10 Date : 09/12/2023

74. Match the series of hydrogen spectrum with 78. Statement I : Hydrogen has one electron in its
their characteristics orbit but it produces several spectral lines
Column I Column II Statement II : There are many excited energy
A Lyman series p Visible region levels available. [ NCERT Page No. 46]
B Balmer series q Infrared region 1) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True;
C Paschen series r Ultraviolet region Statement 2 is a correct explanation for
D Bracket series s n 2 = 4 to n2 = 3 Statement 1.
t n 2 = 5 to n2 = 1 2) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True;
1) A-p, B-s,t, C-q, D-r 2) A-q, B-s, C-p,t, D-r Statement 2 is not a correct explanation of
3) A-r, t, B-p, C-q,s, D-q 4) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s Statement 1.
75. Match the orbitals the number of nodes/ 3) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False
quantum numbers present in them. 4) Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is True
[ NCERT Page No. 59] 79. The ionization energy of a hydrogen atom in
terms of Rydberg constant (RH) is given by the
Column I Column II
expression. [ NCERT Page No. 48]
A 2p orbital p Number of spherical nodes = 0
1) RHhc 2) RHc
B 3d orbital q Number of nodal plane = 0
C 2s orbital r Orbital angular momentum 3) 2RHhc 4) RHhcNA
number = 0 80. The fourth line of the Balmer series
D 4f orbital s Azimuthal quantum number corresponds to electron transition between
=0 energy levels [ NCERT Page No. 48]
1) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-r, s 2) A-q, B-s, C-p,t, D-r 1) 6 and 2 2) 5 and 2
3) A-r,t, B-p, C-s, D-q 4) A-p, B-p, C-q,r,s, D-p 3) 4 and 1 4) 5 and 1
76. In which of the following options do both 81. Which of the following arrangement of two
constituents of the pair have the same electrons in two degenerated orbitals is not
magnetic moment? [ NCERT Page No. 63] possible at all? [ NCERT Page No. 62]
1) Zn2+ and Cu2+ 2) Co2+ and Ni2+
1)   2)
3) Mn4+ and Co2+ 4) Mg2+ and Sc+
77. According to Bohr ’s theory, the angular 3) 4) All of these
momentum of an electron in 5th orbit is 82. The number of radial nodes in 3p and 4s
[ NCERT Page No. 46] orbitals, respectively, are
1) 2.5 h/ 2) 1.0 h/ [ NCERT Page No. 59]
3) 10 h/ 4) mvr = nh 1) 1, 3 2) 3, 1
3) 2, 2 4) 3, 1
PCB TEST : 02(38) 11 Date : 09/12/2023

83. For which of the species, Bohr’s theory is not 89. Identify the correct statement.
applicable ? [ NCERT Page No. 49] [ NCERT Page No. 55]
3+ 2+
1) Be 2) Li 1) Quantum number (n, l, m, s) are obtained
2+
3) He 4) H arbitrarily
84. The triad of nuclei that is isotonic is 2) All the quantum numbers (n, l, m, s) for any
14
pair of electrons in an atom can be identical
1) C, 157 N, 179 F, 2) 12
C, 147 N, 199 F,
6 6 under special circumstance
3) 14
C, 147 N, 179 F, 4) 14
C, 147 N, 199 F, 3) All the quantum numbers (n, l, m, s) may
6 6
not be required to describe an electron of an
85. The outermost electronic configuration of the atom completely
most electronegative element is
4) All the quantum numbers (n, l, m, s) are
[ NCERT Page No. 62] required to describe an electron of an atom
1) ns 2 np 3 2) ns2 np4 completely
3) ns2 np5 4) ns2 np6 90. The representation of the ground state
SECTION : B electronic configuration of He by box-diagram
86. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell as is wrong because it violates
of an atom is determined by the following : [ NCERT Page No. 63]
[ NCERT Page No. 61] 1) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
2
1) 2n 2) 4l + 2 2) Bohr ’s quantization theory of angular
3) 2l + 1 4) 4l – 2 momenta
87. The orbital diagram in which Aufbau 3) Pauli’s exclusion principle
principle is violated is 4) Hund’s rule
[ NCERT Page No. 61] 91. The figure that is not a direct manifestation of
the quantum nature of atoms is :
1) 2)
3) 4)
88. How many electrons can fit in the orbital for 1) 2)
which n = 3 and l = 1 ?
1) 2 2) 6 3) 10 4) 14
3) 4)
PCB TEST : 02(38) 12 Date : 09/12/2023

92. Which of the following statements are not 94. The shortest wavelength of H atom in the
correct about electromagnetic radiation ? Lyman series is  1. The logest wavelength in
i) Electromagnetic waves require medium to the Balmer series is He+ is:
travel. [ NCERT Page No. 46]
ii) Different electromagnetic radiations travel
36 1 51
at same speed in vaccum. 1) 2)
5 9
iii) The oscillating electric and magnetic fields
produced by oscillating charged particles 91 27 1
are perpendicular to each other, but not 3) 4)
5 5
to the direction of propagation.
95. Two fast moving particles X and Y are
iv) The oscillating electric field and magnetic
associated with de Broglie wavelengths 1 nm
field are perpendicular to each other, and
and 4 nm respectively. If mass of X is nine times
also to the direction of propagation.
the mass of Y, the ratio of kinetic energies of X
[ NCERT Page No. 37] and Y would be
1) (i), (ii) and (iii) 2) (ii) and (iii) [ NCERT Page No. 50]
3) (i) and (iii) 4) (i) and (iv)
1) 3 : 1
93. Given below are two statements.
2) 9 : 1
Statement I : According to Bohr’s model of an
3) 5 : 12
atom, qualitatively the magnitude of velocity of
electron increases with decrease in positive 4) 16 : 9
charges on the nucleus as there is no strong hold 96. For emission line of atomic hydrogen from
on the electron by the nucleus.
ni = 8 to nf = n, the plot of wave number (v )
Statement II : According to Bohr’s model of an
atom, qualitatively the magnitude of velocity of  1 
against  2  will be (The Rydberg constant,
electron increases with decreases in principal n 
quantum number RH is in wave number unit)
In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the options
given below : 1) Linear with intercept—RH
[ NCERT Page No. 47] 2) Non linear
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false 3) Linear with slope RH
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true 4) Linear with slope—RH
3) Statements I is false but Statement II is true
4) Statements I is true but Statement II is false
PCB TEST : 02(38) 13 Date : 09/12/2023

97. A hydrogen atom in the ground state is excited 100. Match the angle between the axes of the
by monochromatic radiation of wavelength  orbitals with their value.
Å. The resulting spectrum consists of [ NCERT Page No. 58]
maximum 15 different lines. What is the
wavelength ? (RH = 109737 cm –1 ) Column I Column II
A The angle between the z- p 135°
component of orbital angular
1) 937.3 Å 2) 1025Å momentum of electron of px
3) 1236Å 4) None of these atomic orbital and z-axis
(assume m = +1)
98. The Heisenberg uncertainity principle will be
B The angle between the z- q 45°
most significant for which of the following
object ? [ NCERT Page No. 51]
momentum of electron of pz of
1) Object A ofmass 9.11 × 10–30 kg atomic orbital and z-axis
2) Object B of mass 9.11 × 10–28 g C The angle between the z- r Less than 45°
component of orbital angular or more than
3) Object C of mass 9.11 × 10–24 mg
momentum of electron 135°
4) Object D of mass 9.11 × 10–28 kg momentum of electron of py
99. Which hydrogen-like species will have same atomic orbit and z-axis is
radius as that of Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom? D The angle between the z- s 90°
[ NCERT Page No. 41] component of orbital angular
momentum 3dxof y electron of
2 2
2+
1) n = 2, Li 2) n = 2, Be3+
orbital and z-axis
3) n = 2, He+ 4) n = 3, Li2+
1) A-p, B-s, C-q, D-r 2) A-q, B-s, C-p, D-r
3) A-s, B-p, C-t, D-r 4) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s
PCB TEST : 02(38) 14 Date : 09/12/2023

Section-C : Biology 108. The membrane proteins are classified as
integral or peripheral. The basis of this
RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
Section-A classification is [ NCERT Pg. 131]
101. The size of chloroplast ribosome is- 1) Quasi-fluid nature
[NCERT Pg. 129, 136] 2) Biochemical investigation
1) 15 um to 20 um 2) 15 nm by 20 nm 3) Ease of extraction
3) 15 m by 20 m 4) 15 mm by 20 mm 4) Requirement of energy for transport of
102. _______ studied different types of animal cells material
and reported that a cell has a thin outer layer. 109. Bacteria differ from mycoplasma in having
[NCERT Pg. 126]
[ NCERT Pg. 128]
1) Matthias Schleiden
1) Cell wall 2) Cytoplasm
2) Theodore Schwann
3) Cell membrane 4) 70S ribosomes
3) Robert Brown
110. Choose the incorrect statements for A, B, C
4) Anton von Leeuwenhoek and D in the given diagram.
103. Gas vacuole is present in [ NCERT Pg. 129] [ NCERT Pg. 133, 138 & PYQ]
a) Blue green algae
b) Purple photosynthetic bacteria
c) Green photosynthetic bacteria
1) a only 2) b only
3) c only 4) All a, b and c
104. Small bristle-like fibres sprouting out of the
bacterial cells are helpful in [ NCERT Pg. 129]
1) Cell wall synthesis
2) Cell motility
3) Antibiotic resistance
4) Attachment to the host surface
105. Fluid nature of membrane is important for
[ NCERT Pg. 132]
1) Cell division and growth
1) A is the major site of the synthesis of protein.
2) Secretion and endocytosis
2) B is the 80 S ribosome
3) Formation of intercellular function
3) C helps in protein folding
4) All of these
4) D is Formed by fusion of two membranes
106. Celluloes, galactans, mannans, and calcium
111. Membrane-bound space present in plant cell
carbonate are present in the cell wall of
and filled with water, sap and excretory
[ NCERT Pg. 132] substances is known as [ NCERT Pg. 134]
1) Algae 2) Fungi 1) Lysosomes 2) ER
3) Bacteria 4) Higher plant 3) Vacuole 4) Cytosol
107. Primary cell wall is [ NCERT Pg. 132] 112. Packaging of macromolecules which has to
1) Thick layered transported out from the cell occurs in
2) Noticed in young cells [ NCERT Pg. 134]
3) Lignified and subersized usually 1) Golgi body 2) RER
4) Made up of calcium and magnesium pectate 3) SER 4) Vacuole
PCB TEST : 02(38) 15 Date : 09/12/2023

113. What is the common feature among 119. Select the correct option stating True (T) and
leucoplast, chloroplast, and chromoplast? False (F) w.r.t. ribosomes. [ NCERT Pg. 136, PYQ]
[ NCERT Pg. 135] A. They are granular structures first observed
1) Type of pigments under electron microscope as dense
2) Storage materials particles.
3) Presence of thylakoid and grana B. They are composed of rRNA and proteins.
4) Presence of double membrane C. Sedimentation coefficient, is directly a
measure of density and size.
114. Both mitochondria and chloroplast resemble
to bacteria in [ NCERT Pg. 129, 135, 136] D. Ca++ is required for binding the two subunits
of ribosomes at the time of protein synthesis.
a. Having owns ds circular DNA
A B C D
b. Presence of porins on outer membrane
1) T T T F
c. Presence of 70S ribosomes
2) T T F F
d. Ability to self-duplication
3) T F F T
1) a and c only 2) a, b and d only
4) F F T T
3) a, b and c only 4) a, b, c and d
115. For ribosomes, sedimentation coefficient is 120. Semi-autonomous nature of chloroplast is due
indirectly a measure of [ NCERT Pg. 136]
to presence of [ NCERT PYQ]
1) Number of ribosomes per cell 1) Enzymes of photosynthesis

2) Density and size of ribosomes 2) 70 S ribosomes
3) Length of rRNA 3) Double stranded circular DNA molecules
4) Number of the subunit of ribosomes 4) Both (2) and (3)
116. Centriole, cilium, and flagellum resemble one 121. In Chlamydomonas, the number of
another as [ NCERT Pg. 137, 138] chloroplasts per cell is [ NCERT Pg. 136]
1) All possess (9 + 0) organization 1) 10 2) 1

2) All possess (9 + 2) organization 3) 5 4) 8
3) All of them are made up of microtubules 122. The plasma membrane consists mainly of :
4) All can duplicate themselves 1) proteins embedded in a carbohydrate bilayer
117. Which of the following is correct regarding 2) phospholipids embedded in a protein bilayer
the structure of the sections of cilia and 3) proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer
flagella? [ NCERT Pg. 137, Fig. 8.10] 4) proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose
Peripheral Radial Central molecules
microtubules spoke bridge 123. Prokaryotic cell like PPLO are __a__ and
1) 18 doublet 9 2 multiply __b__ than eukaryotic cells.
2) 18 singlet 18 2 [ Pg. 127, Para 2]
3) 9 singlet 9 1 1) Larger, rapidly 2) Smaller, rapidly
4) 9 doublet 9 1 3) Smaller, slowly 4) Larger, slowly.
118. Select the incorrectly matched pair. 124. An elaborated network of proteinaceous
[NCERT Pg. 126, 127, 129] filamentous structure present is cytoplasm
help in ______ [ Pg. 136, Last 2 lines]
1) Mycoplasma – The smallest cell
1) Intracellular digestion
2) Cell cytoplasm – Main arena of cellular activities
2) ATP synthesis
3) Inclusion bodies – Glycogen granules
3) Cell shape maintenance
4) Centriole – Non-membrane bound cell
organelle in all plant and animal cells 4) Lipid synthesis
PCB TEST : 02(38) 16 Date : 09/12/2023

125. Identify T/F in given statements below. 130. What is angle between two centrioles present
[ Pg. 132] in centrosome? [ Pg. 137, Last 2 lines]
a. Cell wall is rigid - living structure present 1) 30° 2) 45°
in animal cells. 3) 60° 4) 90°
b. Cell wall gives shape to cell and protect it 131. Scientist G N Ramachandran was associated
from mechanical damage as well as with [ Pg. 124, Unit Introduction]
infection. 1) Triple helical structure of Collagen
c. Cell wall in bacteria and fungi is made of 2) Founder of Madras school of Confirmational
peptidoglycan and chitin respectively. analysis of biopolymers.
d. Middle lamella is made of calcium pectate 3) Ramachandran plot
which glues adjacent cells together. 4) All of these
1) All are true except - a 132. Blood groups are identified based on presence
2) All are false except - a of various surface glycoproteins on RBC, that
are referred as antigens. The cell organelle
3) Only d is true
that involved in formation of such
4) Only b and c are true glycoprotein is [ Pg. 134, Para 2]
126. How many of the following are non- 1) Ribosome
membranous and double membrane bound
2) Endoplasmic reticulum
organelles respectively?
3) Golgi bodies
Ribosome, Nucleus, Nucleolus, Centrosome,
4) Mitochondria
Lysosome, Peroxisome, Amyloplast, Vacuole
1) 3, 2 2) 2, 3 133. Which of the following components provides
3) 3, 4 4) 4, 1 sticky character to the bacterial cell?
127. Observe the following solutes [NEET-2017]
Solute - A = Negatively charged large sized 1) Cell wall 2) Nuclear membrane
molecule 3) Plasma membrane 4) Glycocalyx
Solute - B = Positively charged large sized 134. Which of the following is correct pathway of
molecule vesicle which contains secretory protein?
Solute - C = Neutral solute [ Pg. 134, Para 2]
Which of the above solute can easily cross 1) Nucleus -Trans Golgi - Plasma membrane
lipid bilayer along the concentration, without 2) ER - Cis-Golgi - Nucleus
any carrier protein? [ Pg. 132, Para 3] 3) Cis -Golgi -ER- Trans-Golgi
1) A 2) B 4) ER Cis-Golgi -Trans-Golgi
3) C 4) All of these 135. Which of the following combination of
128. Find out the odd match. statement is most suitable for mesosome
[ Pg. 127 Fig. 8.1] [ Pg. 128, 129]
1) RBC- Round & biconcave a. It is extension of plasma membrane into
2) Mesophyll cells- Round & oval cytoplasm
b. Help in respiration, & DNA distribution.
3) Tracheid- Elongated
c. It decrease the surface area of plasma
4) WBC- Branched & long
membrane
129. The stain used to visualise motochondria is
d. It form nuclear membrane around genetic
[ Exemplar] material
1) Fast green 2) Safranin 1) a, b and c 2) b and c
3) Acetocarmine 4) Janus green 3) a and b 4) Only a
PCB TEST : 02(38) 17 Date : 09/12/2023

Section-B 140. Read the following features of a cell organelle.
136. Cell organelle which exhibit cartwheel like [ NCERT Pg. 134, 135]
structure in transverse section - a. Organelle having width about 0.2 – 1.0 m
[NCERT Pg. 137, 138] and length of 1.0 – 4.1 m.
a) is helpful in cell division of almost all plant b. Requires specific vital stain to be visualize
cells under microscope.
b) is not covered by any membrane c. Sausage or cylindrical shaped.
c) is having 9 + 0 arrangement of microtubules Identify the cell organelle on the basis of
d) forms basal body of Flagella. above given features.
1) a & c - incorrect 2) b & c - correct 1) Chloroplast 2) Nucleus
3) Only a is incorrect 4) Only b is incorrect 3) Mitochondria 4) Golgi apparatus
137. Read the following statements and select 141. Read the following statements and choose the
which of the following are not the postulates CORRECT [ Pg. 125]
of cell theory. [ NCERT Pg. 126] A. Unicellular organisms are not capable of
a) Cells differ greatly in size, shape and independent existence because they cannot
activities. perform all the essential functions of life.
b) All living organisms are composed of cells B. Unicellular organisms are capable of
and products of cells. independent existence but cannot perform
c) The cytoplasm is the main arena of all the essential functions of life.
metabolic activities. C. Unicellular organisms are capable
d) All cells arise from pre-existing cells. independents existence, and they can
perform all the essential functions of life
1) (a) and (d) 2) (b) and (d)
1) A and B correct
3) (a) and (c) 4) (c) and (d)
2) Only B correct
138. Match column I with column II. [ NCERT Based]
3) Only C correct
Column-I Column-II
4) A, B and C all correct
a) Centrioles i) Palade particles
142. Match the column. [ Pg. 139]
b) Lysosomes ii) Steriod synthesis
c) Ribosomes iii) Formation of spindle Column-I Column-II
d) Smooth iv) Hydrolytic activity a Metacentric i Centromere little away
from middle
endoplasmic
b Acrocentric ii Centromere in middle
reticulum
c Sub-Metacentric iii Centromere close to end
1) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii 2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii d Telocentric iv Centromere at terminal
3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii 4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i 1) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-ii 2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
139. Read the following statements. 3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv 4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
[NCERT Pg. 128, 129] 143. Assertion : Na /K pump transport Na+ and K+
+ +
i. It is the extension of plasma membrane into by active transport.

the cytoplasm. Reason : Na+/K+ pump don't need any energy
ii. These extensions are in the form of vesicles, for transportation of ions. [ Pg. 132]
tubules and labellae. 1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
iii. It helps in cell wall formation, DNA Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
replication and secretion process.
2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
The above features are attributed to bacterial. Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
1) Genophore 2) Mesosome 3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
3) Pili 4) Fimbriae 4) If both the Assertion and Reason are false.
PCB TEST : 02(38) 18 Date : 09/12/2023
144. The spherical structure present in 148. Assertion (A) : Every chromosome essentially
nucleoplasm [ NCERT Pg. 138] has a kineto chore on the si des of which
A. Has contents continuous with rest of centromeres are present.
nucleoplasm Reason (R) : Based on the position of centromere
B. Is a non-membrane-bound structure or primary constriction chromosomes can be
classified into five types. [ NCERT Pg. 139]
C. Is a site of active messenger RNA synthesis
D. Are smaller and more numerous in cells 1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
actively carrying out protein synthesis Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Correct statement(s) is/are 2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but the
Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
1) Only A and D 2) A, B and C
3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
3) Only A and B 4) A, B, C and D
4) If both the Assertion and Reason are false.
145. Match column I with column II.
149. Identify the correct set of statements out of
[ NCERT Pg. 124, 125, 126]
followings : [ NCERT Pg. 139]
Column-I Column-II a) Maximum arm ratio (q/p) exhibited by
a) 1838 i) Matthias Schleiden acrocentric chromosomes.
b) 1839 ii) Theodore Schw ann b) Human cells (2n) has two genomes and each
c) 1954 iii) Rudolf Virchow genome consists fourty six chromosomes.
d) 1855 iv) G. N. Ramachandran
c) Nucleolar organizer region i.e. 2°
1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii 2) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii constriction are not present on each human
3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii 4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii chromosome.
146. Read the following statements carefully and d) Secondary constriction is present at the
find CORRECT combination for plasma place of centromere.
membrane. [ Pg. 132] e) Each centromere possess two protein discs
a. It is selectively permeable. called kinetochores.
b. Fluidity of lipids present in plasma choose the correct answer from the given
membrane is disadvantage to cell. options below:
c. Fluid mosaic model was proposed by 1) b, c, d & e 2) a, b, c & e
Singer and Nicolson. 3) a, c & e 4) a, b & c
d. Active transport across plasma membrane 150. Assertion (A) : Middle lamellae is like cementing
is energy dependent. material between two adjacent plant cells.
e. Quasifluid nature of lipid disables lateral Reason (R) : Plasmodesmata traverse cell wall
movement of protein in bilayer and middle lamellae.
1) a, b, c 1) Assertion and Reason both are true and the
2) a, d, e Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
3) a, c, d 2) Assertion and Reason both are true but Reason
4) All statements are correct is not correct explanation of Assertion.
147. Statement-I : Chlo roplast is do uble 3) Assertion is true but Reason is wrong.
membraneous strcuture. 4) Assertion and Reason both are wrong.
Statement-II : Inner membrane of chloroplast
is more permeable. [ NCERT Pg. 136]
Section-D : Biology
1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct. Section-A
2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is 151. Which of the following is not a taxon but
incorrect. category?
3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct. 1) Division 2) Dicotyledons
4) Both Statement-I and II both are incorrect. 3) Angiosperms 4) Polypetalae
PCB TEST : 02(38) 19 Date : 09/12/2023
152. Identify the correct sequence of taxonomic 158. Refer the botanical name of wheat "Triticum
categories for mangifera indica. aestivum" and identify the statement which
[ Excercise Q. 7] correctly describes it. [ Pg. 7]
1) Species  genus  family  order  class 1) The second word belongs to genus and starts
 phylum  kingdom with a small letter.
2) Species  family  order  genus  class 2) Both the words "Triticum aestivum" denote the
 phylum  kingdom specific epithet.
3) Species  genus  family  phylum  3) The first word Triticum denotes the genus
order  class  kingdom which Starts with a capital letter.
4) Species  genus  family  order  class 4) The first word Triticum denotes the specific
 division  kingdom epithet while the second word denotes the genus.
153. Which of the following is a characteristic of 159. Choose the correct order arrangement
living organism. [ Pg. 3, Para 2nd] [ Pg. 9]
1) Growth and reproduction 1) cohort  class  family  genus
2) Metabolism, consciousness, cellular 2) class  cohort  family  genus
organisation
3) species  cohort  family  genus
3) Both 1 and 2
4) order (cohort)  phylum  species 
4) Only Growth family
154. Statement I : Biological names are generally in 160. Which of the following shows the correct
latins and written in italics
example of taxonomic category - Genus?
Statement II : They are latinised irrespective of
1) Potato, tomato and brinjal belong to Solanum.
their origin. [ Pg. 7, 5th Line]
2) Monkey, gorilla and gibbon are placed in
1) Statement I is correct II is incorrect
Mammalia.
2) Statement I is incorrect II is correct
3) Solanum, Petunia, and Datura are placed in
3) Both statements are correct Solanacea.
4) Both statements are incorrect 4) Mangifera indica, Solanum tuberosum, and
155. Given below is the scientific name of Mango. Panthera leo.
Identify the correctly written name.
161. 'Taxa'differs from'taxon'due to being:
[ Pg. 15, Exercise]
[ Pg. 8]
1) Mangifera Indica 2) Mangifera indica
1) a higher taxonomic category than taxon.
3) Mangifera indica 4) mangifera indica
2) lower taxonomic category than taxon.
156. Systematics refers to the: [ Pg. 8]
3) the plural of taxon.
1) identification and classification of plants and
animals. 4) the singular of taxon.
2) nomenclature and identification of plants and 162. Which of the following taxonomic category of
animals. housefly is incorrectly matched? [ Pg. 11]
3) diversity of kinds of organisms and their 1) Genus - Musca

relationship. 2) Family - Muscidae
4) different kinds of organisms and their 3) Order - Primata
classification. 4) Class - Insecta
157. Dog and cat are seperated into two familes ___ 163. Which one. of the following belongs to the
& ___ respectively. [ Pg. 9, Last line] family Muscidae? [ Pg. 11]
1) Felis & canis 2) Felidae & canidae 1) Housefly 2) Firefly
3) Canis & felis 4) Canidae & felidae
3) Grasshopper 4) Cockroach
PCB TEST : 02(38) 20 Date : 09/12/2023
164. In majority of higher animals and plants, 169. The famous botanical garden 'Kew' is located
_______ and _______ are mutually exclusive in [ Pg. 12]
events: [ Pg. 4] 1) England 2) Lucknow
1) growth; nutrition 3) Berlin 4) Australia
2) nutrition; consciousness 170. The famous botanical gardens are at _____,
3) growth; reproduction Indian Botanical Garden at ___ & National
4) reproduction; consciousness Botanical Research Institute at ____
[ Pg. 12, 2nd Para, Last line]
165. Two plants can be conclusively said to belong
to the same species if they: 1) Lucknow, Kew, Howrah
1) have same number of chromosomes. 2) Howrah, Kew, Lucknow
2) can reproduce freely with each other and form 3) Kew, Howrah, Lucknow
seeds. 4) Kew, Lucknow, Howrah
3) have more than 90 per cent similar genes. 171. Insects are preserved in insect boxes after
4) look similar and possess identical secondary [ Pg. 12, Last Para, 6th line]
metabolites. 1) Pinning  killing  collecting
166. Binomial nomenclature means: [ Pg. 7] 2) Collecting  killing  pinning
1) one name given by two scientists. 3) Collecting  pinning  killing
2) one scientific name consisting of a generic and 4) Killing  Collecting  pinning
specific epithet. 172. Which of the following taxonomic aid provides
3) two names, one latinized, other of a person. information for the identification of names of
species found in an area? [ Pg. 13]
4) two names of same plant.
1) Monograph 2) Manual
167. Which of the following is not universal rule
3) Flora 4) Periodical
of nomenclature. [ Pg. 7, 2nd para]
173. Which one of the following taxonomical aid
1) The first word in biological name represents
is used for identification of plants and animals
genus while second component denotes
based on similarities and dissimilarities?
specific epithet
[ Pg. 13]
2) Both the words in biological name when
1) Flora 2) Keys
printed are seperately underlined.
3) Monographs 4) Catalogues
3) The first word denoting genus starts with
capital letter while specific epithet start with 174. Which of the following option is correct?
small letter [ Pg. 4]
4) Both (1) & (3) 1) Only living organisms grow
168. Which of the following statements is 2) Plants grow only up to a certain age
incorrect? [ Pg. 9] 3) The growth in living organisms is from inside
1) The scientific name for humans is Homo 4) All of the above
sapiens. 175. Each statement in the key is called _______.
2) Organisms placed in the same genus are least [ Pg. 13]
closely related. 1) lead 2) catalogues
3) Moving from species to kingdom more 3) manuals 4) monographs
different species are included in each higher
176. Which of the following organisms does not
category.
reproduce? [ Pg. 4]
4) Species that are in the same genus share very
1) Mule 2) Worker bee
specific characteristics.
3) Infertile human 4) All of these
PCB TEST : 02(38) 21 Date : 09/12/2023

177. How many of following statements are 183. Consider following diagram and fill the
incorrect. [ Pg. 4, 2nd para] following blank spaces/boxes. [ Pg. 10]
i. Reproduction is a characteristic of living
organisms. [ Pg. 4, 2nd para, 1st line]
ii. True regeneration is observed in planaria.
iii. When it comes to unicellular organisms 1) A-Strain, B-Order, C-Sub kingdom
reproduction is antonymous to growth. 2) A-species, B-order, C-kingdom
iv. No non-living object is capable of reproducing 3) A-subspecies, B-Tribe, C-Domain
or replicating by itself.
4) A-species, B-Cohort, C-Subdivision
v. Metabolism is characteristic of living
184. In plants, growth occurs____, whereas in
organisms.
animals it occurs_____. [ Pg. 4]
1) 1 2) 2
1) only up to a certain age, continuously
3) 3 4) 4
2) continuously, continuously
178. Families are characterised on the basis of 3) only up to a certain age, only up to a certain
[ Pg. 9, 4th para, 3rd line] age
1) Vegetative features of plant species 4) continuously, only up to a certain age
2) Reproductive features of plant species 185. Which of the following statement is correct for
3) Both 1 & 2 Metabolism? [ Pg. 5]
4) Only vegetative features of plant species 1) It is the sum of all Chemical reactions taking
179. Which of the following is not a characteristic place inside a living system.
of life? [ Pg. 4, 5] 2) All plants, animals, fungi and microbes exhibit
metabolism.
1) Reproduction
3) Isolated metabolic reactions in-vitro are not
2) Complex chemical organization
living but are living reactions.
3) Adaptation to environmental changes
4) All of the above
4) Differentiation from cells to tissues
Section-B
180. Who among the following is known as The
186. Find out incorrect statement.
Darwin of the 20th century? [ Pg. 2]
[ Pg.4, 2nd Para, 12th line]
1) Thomas Hunt Morgan
1) Growth and reproduction are mutually
2) Ernst Mayr
inclusive for unicellular organisms
3) George Mendel
2) Key is the taxonomical aid used for
4) Lamarck classification of plants and animals based on
181. Statement I : Photoperiadism affects reproductin both similarities and dissimilarities
in continuous breeders, both plants and animals. 3) The total number of species on the earth range
Statement II : All living organisms are aware of between 1.7 - 1.8 million
their surroundings. [ Pg. 5, 2nd Para] 4) Reproduction is non defining properties of
1) Statement I is correct II is incorrect living
2) Statement I is incorrect II is correct 187. i. Science of life forms & living processes.
3) Both statements are correct ii. Story at life on earth.
4) Both statements are incorrect iii. Story of evolution of living organisms on
earth.
182. Find odd one out with respect to taxonomic
category. [ Pg. 11, Table 1.1] Which of the above statements depicts biology.
[ Pg. 1, Unit introduction, Pg. 5, Last para]
1) Chordata 2) Arthropoda
1) i only 2) ii & iii only
3) Angiospermae 4) Diptera
3) i & iii only 4) i, ii & iii
PCB TEST : 02(38) 22 Date : 09/12/2023

188. Match the following. [ Pg. 14, 1st Para] 191. Match the following. [ Based]
Column-I Column-II
Column I Column II
a Hominidae i Mangifera indica
a Flora i Actual account of habitat &
b Diptera ii Musca domestica
distribution of plant a given
c Anacardiaceae iii Trticum aestivum
area d Poaceae iv Primata
b Manuals ii Information on any one
1) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii 2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
taxon
3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i 4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
c Monograph iii Information for identification
of names of species found in 192. Match the following and choose the correct
combination from the options given.
an area
d Catalogues iv List of names of all species [ Pg. 11]
found in an area Column-I Column-II
(Common Name) (Taxonomic Category
1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
Family)
2) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
a Man i Poaceae
3) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii b Housefly ii Muscidae
4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv c Mango iii Anacardiaceae
189. Assertion : Reprdouction is not the defining d Wheat iv Hominidae
feature of living organisms. 1) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
Reason : Many living organisms do not 2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
reproduce. [ Pg. 4, 2nd para, 15th line] 3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason 4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
is correct explanation of Assertion. 193. Statement I : Reproduction cannot be considered
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason as defining property of living organisms.
is not the correct explanation of Assertion. Statement II : There are many living organisms
3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. which do not reproduce. e.g. mules, workers bees
etc. [ Pg. 4]
4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
1) Both statement I and II are incorrect
190. How many of the following statements belong
2) Statement I is correct but statement II is
to herbarium. [ Pg. 12, 1st Para]
incorrect
i) It is store house of animal specimens that are 3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
dried, pressed and preserved on sheet. correct
ii) Herbarium sheets are arranged according to 4) Both statement I and II are correct
universally adapted system of classification.
194. Assertion: Taxon and category are different
iii) These specimens along with their description things.
becomes repository for future use. Reason : Category shows hierarchical
iv) Herbaria serve as quick referral system in classification. [ Pg. 18]
taxonomic studies. 1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
v) Herbarium shet contain information about correct explanation of (A)
date and place of collection, family name, 2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
collector’s name etc. 3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
1) 3 2) 4 4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
3) 5 4) 2 correct explanation of (A)
PCB TEST : 02(38) 23 Date : 09/12/2023
195. How many of following statements do not hold 198. Find out correct statements.
RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
true for keys. [ Pg. 13, Last para] i. Linnaeus used systema naturae as title of
i. Key is based on similarties & his publication. [ Pg. 8, 3rd para]
dissimilarities. ii. Systematics takes into accont evolutionary
ii. Keys are based on contrasting characters relationship between organisms.
generally in pair called couplet. [ Pg. 8]
iii. It represents choise made between two iii. All taxonomic category together constitute
opposite options. taxonomic hierarchy.
iv. Each statement in the key is called as lead. iv. Each category represents a rank commonly
v. A single key is required for every taxonomic termed as taxon. [ Pg. 8]
category. v. Each genus have only one specific epithet
vi.Keys are generally analytical in nature. representing various organisms.
1) 1 2) 2 [ Pg. 9, 12th line]
3) 3 4) 4 1) All except II 2) All except V
196. Statement I : Higher the category, lower is the 3) All except III 4) All are correct
difficulty of determining the relationship to other 199. Which of the below form basis of modern
taxa at same level. taxonomic studies. [ Pg. 7, 8]
Statement II : Classes comprising animals like fish, i) External and internal structure of
amphibians, reptiles etc. constitute the next higher organism.
category called division. [ Pg. 10, 3rd Para]
ii) Structure of cell
1) Statement I is correct II is incorrect
iii) Development process
iv) Ecological information
3) Both statements are correct
1) i, ii, iv 2) i, iii, iv
4) Both statements are incorrect
3) ii, iii 4) i, ii, iii, iv
197. i. Increase in mass & increase in size are twin
200. Assertion : Growth cannot be taken as defining
characters of growth. [ Pg. 3, Last line]
property of living organism.
ii. In plants growth occurs continuously
Reason : Non living objects also grow if we
throught life span. [ Pg. 4, 1st line]
consider increase in number as criterion for
iii. In animals growth in seen only upto growth. [ Pg. 4, Line 12, 9]
certain age. [ Pg. 4, 3rd line]
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
iv. A dead organism do not grow. is correct explanation of Assertion.
[ Pg. 4, 1st Para, Last line]
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but
Find out incorrect statement. Reason is not the correct explanation of
1) ii 2) iii Assertion.
3) iv 4) i 3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
PCB TEST : 02(38) 24 Date : 09/12/2023

Mark Group Target NEET-2023-24 (Round-I) Date : 09/12/2023
720 PCB Vijaypath Test Series-Test : 02(38) Time : 03 Hrs. 20 Mins.
Physics - 50 Chemistry - 50 Biology - 100

Question Booklet Version Roll Number Question Booklet Sr. No.
(Write this number
P-11 on your Answer
Sheet)
• Today’s Test Syllabus •

Physics : Motion In A Straight Line + Motion In A Plane
Chemistry : Structure of Atom
Biology : The Living World + Cell : The Unit of Life
• Next Test Syllabus • Date : 12/12/2023
Physics : Kinetic Theory of Gases + Thermodynamics + Heat Transfer
Chemistry : Chemical Bonding
Biology : PLant Kingdom + Breathing and Exchange of Gases
RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC
PHYSICS Sol. (2):

Section : A
1. A point traversed 3/4th of the circle of radius
R in time t. The magnitude of the average 3. Two cars A and B, start from x = 0 and x = –4,
velocity of the particle in this time interval is respectively, along a straight line, and their
position is given by
[ NCERT Page-42]
R xA = t2 – 3t
R 3R R 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
t 2t t 2t xB = t – 4
Sol. (3): At what time they cross each other?
2. An object is moving in [ NCERT Page-52]

a straight line,
1) 3 s 2) 4 s
according to the curve
given in the graph, 3) 2 s 4) 1 s
x(m) = t 2. Find the
average velocity for Sol. (3):
the interval t = 1 s to
t = 3 s. [ NCERT Page-42]
1) 9 m/s 2) 4 m/s
3) 4.5 m/s 4) 1.5 m/s
PCB TEST : 02(38) 1 Date : 09/12/2023

4. Assertion : The displacement of a body may be 8. A train starts to move from rest at t = 0.
RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
zero when distance travelled by it is not zero. Its acceleration is a = t + t 2, here  and
 are constants. The velocity of the train at
Reason : The displacement is the longest distance
t = 1 s is [ NCERT Page-45]
between initial & final positions. [ NCERT Page-40]
1) If both assertion and reason are true and the  
1)  +  2) 
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. 2 3
2) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason 3) 0 4) 
Sol. (2):
4) If assertion is false, but reason is true.
Sol. (3): Conceptual 9. A particle moves a distance x in time t according
to equation x = (t + 5)–1. The accelerationof the
5. If a particle is moving with uniform velocity,
particle is proportional to [ NCERT Page-45]
then [NCERT Page-43]
1) (velocity)2/3 2) (velocity)3/2
I. Average speed = |Average velocity|
3) (distance)2 4) (distance)–2
II. Instantaneous speed = |Instantaneous
velocity| Sol. (2):
III. Instantaneous speed = Average speed
1) Only I is correct
2) Only II is correct
3) Only I and III are correct
10. A constant acceleration acts for 20 s on a
4) All are correct
particle, starting from rest. If the particle
Sol. (4): Conceptual covers di stance d1 in the first 10 s and distance
6. Velocity-time graph for a particle is shown in d2 in the next 10 s, then [ NCERT Page-50]
figure. Starting from t = 0, at what instant t,
average acceleration is zero between 0 to t? d1
1) d2  2) d2  d1
2
3) d2  3d1 4) d2  2d1
[ NCERT Page-45] Sol. (3):
1) 1 s 2) 3.5 s
3) 6.3 s 4) 7.3 s 11. A particle moves along x-axis in such a way
Sol. (3): Conceptual that its x-coordinate varies with time according
to the equation x = 8 – 4t + 6t2. The distance
7. If velocity v = 6t2 + 2t + 3 m/s, then find the
2
average velocity from t = 0 to t = 1 s. covered by particle between t = 0 to t = sec is
3
[ NCERT Page-42]
8
1) 11 m/s 2) 8 m/s 1) Zero 2) m
3
3) 6 m/s 4) 7 m/s
4
3) 8 m 4) m
Sol. (3): 3
PCB TEST : 02(38) 2 Date : 09/12/2023

Sol. (4): 13. Displacement-time graph of an object moving
along x-axis is given. Select the correct
statement regarding it.
(I) In OA region, both v and a are positive.

(II) In AB region, both v and a are zero.
(III) In region BCD, both v and a are negative.
(IV) In region DE, v is negative and acceleration
is positive. [ NCERT Page-44, 45]
12. At x = 0, velocity of the particle is 2 m/s. Find 1) (I) and (III) 2) (I) and (IV)
the velocity of the particle when acceleration 3) (III) and (IV) 4) (I) and (II)
becomes zero. [ NCERT Page-46]
Sol. (2):
14. Assertion : Magnitude of average velocity is

equal to average speed if velocity is uniform.
Reason : If velocity is uniform, then there is no
change in the direction of motion.
[ NCERT Page-42]
1) 24.8 m/s 2) 28.2 m/s is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
3) 32 m/s 4) 18.4 m/s
Sol. (1):
Sol. (1): Conceptual
15. Initially, bus A is 112.5 m ahead of bus B. Both
start moving at time t = 0 in the same direction
along a straight line. The velocity-time graph
of the two cars is shown in the figure.
The time when the bus B will catch the bus
A, will be [ NCERT Page-44]
1) 45 s 2) 22.5 s
3) 32 s 4) 18 s
PCB TEST : 02(38) 3 Date : 09/12/2023

Sol. (1): Sol. (1):
19. A train of 150 m in length is going towards
the north direction at a speed of 10 ms–1. A
parrot flies at a speed of 5 ms–1 towards the
south direction parallel to the railway track.
The time taken by the parrot to cross the train
is equal to [ NCERT Page-51]
1) 12 s 2) 8 s
3) 15 s 4) 10 s
Sol. (4):
16. Two trains each travelling with a speed of
37.5 km/h are approaching each other on the
same straight track. A bird that can fly at
60 km/h flies off from one train when they
are 90 km apart and heads directly for the
other train. On reaching the other train it flies
back to the first and so on. Total distance 20. Match the Columns. [ NCERT Page-46]
covered by the bird is [ NCERT Page-51] Column-I Column-II
1) 90 km 2) 54 km
3) 36 km 4) 72 km Acceleration is
Sol. (4): a. decreasing with p.
time
17. From a tower of height H, a particle is thrown

vertically upwards with speed u. The time Non-uniform
b. q.
taken by the particle to hit the ground is motion
n times the time taken to reach the highest
point of its path. The relation between H, u
and n is [ NCERT Page-48]
Uniform
1) 2gH  n2 u2 2) gH  (n  2)2 u2 c. r.
retardation
3) 2 gH  nu2 (n  2) 4) gH  (n  2)u2
18. A ball is dropped from a bridge, 125 m above a
river. Two second later, another ball is thrown d. Velocity constant s.
straight down. What must be the initial velocity
of the second ball so that both hit the water
surface simultaneously? [ NCERT Page-48] 1) a-p, b-q, c-r, d-s 2) a-r, b-p, c-q, d-s
1) 26.66 m/s 2) 66.26 m/s 3) a-s, b-r, c-p, d-q 4) a-q, b-s, c-p, d-r
3) 43.5 m/s 4) 5 m/s Sol. (2): Conceptual
PCB TEST : 02(38) 4 Date : 09/12/2023

 23. Rain is falling vertically downward with a
21. Initial velocity of a projectile is u  (4iˆ  3 jˆ) m/s
speed of 9 m/s. After sometime, wind starts
and it is moving with uniform acceleration of
 blowing horizontally with speed 3 3 m/s from
a  (0.4 iˆ  0.3 jˆ ) m/s 2 . The magnitude of its
south to north. In order to protect himself from
velocity after 10 s is [ NCERT Page-47] rain, a man standing on the ground should hold
1) 3 m/s 2) 4 m/s his umbrella at an angle [ NCERT Page-69]
3) 5 m/s 4) 10 m/s 1)  = 30° with vertical towards south
Sol. (4): 2)  = 30° with vertical towards north
4)  = 60° with vertial towards north
Sol. (1):
22. A ball is dropped from a building of height

45 m. Simultaneously another ball is thrown
up with a speed 40 m/s. The relative speed of
the balls as a function of time can be shown as
[ NCERT Page-52]
24. A river is flowing with a speed of 1 km/hr. A

1) 2) swimmer wants to go to point C standing from
A. He swims with a speed of 5 km/hr, at anlge
 w.r.t. the river. If AB = BC = 400 m. Then
[ NCERT Page-86]
3) 4)

Sol. (4): 2) time taken by the man is 4 min
Sol. (1):
PCB TEST : 02(38) 5 Date : 09/12/2023

25. The paths of three projectiles are shown in 27. A body is thrown horizontally with a velocity
the figure. Which projectile spends the most
2gh from the top of a tower of height h. It
time in air? [ NCERT Page-76]
strikes the ground of the tower at a distance x
from the tower. The value of x is
[ NCERT Page-78]
1) h 2) h / 2
3) 2h 4) 3h / 4
Sol. (3):
1) Projectile A
2) Projectile B
3) Projectile C
4) All three projectiles spend the same amount
of time in the air
Sol. (4):
28. Assertion : A river is flowing from east to west at
a speed of 5 m/min. A man on the south bank of
river, capable of swimming 10 m/min in still water,
wants to swim across the river in shortest time.
He should swim due north. [ NCERT Page-86]
26. A ball rolls horizontally off a stair case with Reason : For the shortest time, the man needs to
initial velocity u & swim perpendicular to the bank.
just manages to 1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
hit the 10th step is reason is the correct explanation of the
shown. If length assertion.
of each step is 2) If both assertion and reason are true, but
20 cm and height reason is not the correct explanation of the
is 10 cm, the initial velocity of the ball is assertion.
(g = 10 m/s2) [ NCERT Page-79] 3) If assertion is true, but reason is false.
1) 2 5 m/s 2) 3 2 m/s 4) If assertion is false, but reason is true.
3) 2 3 m/s 4) 5 2 m/s
29. A body of mass m is projected at an angle of 45°
Sol. (2):
with the horizontal. If air resistance is
negligible, then total change in momentum
when it strikes the ground is [ NCERT Page-78]
1) 2mv 2) 2 mv
3) mv 4) mv / 2
Sol. (2):
30. The speed of a projectile at its maximum height

is half of its initial speed. The angle of
projection is [ NCERT Page-78]
1) 15° 2) 30°
3) 45° 4) 60°
Sol. (4):
PCB TEST : 02(38) 6 Date : 09/12/2023

31. A missile is fired from maximum range with 35. The velocity of a particle is given by
an initial velocity of 20 m/s. If g = 10 m/s2, the
v  180  16 x m/s . Its acceleration will be
range of the missile is [ NCERT Page-78]
[ NCERT Page-48]
1) 40 m 2) 50 m
3) 60 m 4) 20 m 1) –8 m/s 2 2) 5 m/s2
3) –9 m/s 2 4) 10 m/s 2
Sol. (1): Sol. (1):
32. The horizontal range and the maximum height
of a projectile are equal. The angle of
projection of the projectile is [ NCERT Page-78]
1)  = tan–1(2) 2)  = 45°
3)  = tan–1(1/4) 4)  = tan–1(4)
Sol. (4):
Section : B
36. If R and h represent the horizontal range and
33. The velocity of a projectile maximum height, respectively, of an oblique
at the initial point A is projection; whose starting point (i.e. point of
projection) and the end point of projection lie
(2iˆ  3 jˆ ) m/s . Its velocity
R2
(in m/s) at point B is in the same horizonal level. Then,  2h
8h
[ NCERT Page-78]
represents [ NCERT Page-78]
1) 2iˆ  3 ˆj 2) 2iˆ  3 ˆj 1) the maximum horizontal range
2) the maximum vertical range
3) 2iˆ  3 ˆj 4) 2iˆ  3 ˆj
3) time of flight
Sol. (4):
4) velocity of projectile at the highest point
34. A ball is projected from the ground with

velocity v such that its range is maximum.
[ NCERT Page-78] Sol. (1):
37. A projectile is fired at an angle of 45° with the

horizonal. Elevation angle of the projectile at
its highest point, as seen from the point of
projection, is [ NCERT Page-78]
1) 45° 2) 60°
1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i 2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv 4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii 1 1
 3
3) tan 1   4) tan 
Sol. (3): Conceptual 2  2 
 
PCB TEST : 02(38) 7 Date : 09/12/2023

Sol. (3): 41. A bird flying with a speed of 10 m/s along a
vector (3iˆ  4 jˆ) . If initial position of bird is
(12 m, 10 m, 5 m), then find the x-coordinate
(in m) after the 2 s. [ NCERT Page-47]
1) 1 2) 0
3) 2 4) None of these
Sol. (2):
38. Assertion : When the velocity of projection of a

body is made n times, its time of flight becomes
n times.
Reason : Time of flight does not depend on 42. Two Rajdhani trains, each 50 m long, are
velocity of projection. [ NCERT Page-78] travelling in opposite directions with a
velocity of 10 m/s and 15 m/s. The time of
crossing is [ NCERT Page-51]
1) 2 s 2) 4 s
is not the correct explanation of the assertion. 3) 2 3 s 4) 4 3 s
3) If assertion is true, but reason is false. Sol. (2):
43. A boy standing at the top of a 20 m high tower
Sol. (3): Conceptual drops a stone. Assuming g = 10 m/s 2 , the
39. Raindrops are falling vertically with a velocity with which it hits the ground is
velocity 10 m/s. To a cyclist moving on a [ NCERT Page-48]
straight road, the rain drops appear to be
1) 10.0 m/s 2) 20.0 m/s
coming with a velocity of 20 m/s. The velocity
of cyclist is [ NCERT Page-76] 3) 40.0 m/s 4) 5.0 m/s
Sol. (2):
1) 10 m/s 2) 10 3 m/s
3) 20 m/s 4) 20 3 m/s 44. A body is falling from height h. It takes t

seconds to reach the ground. Calculate the
Sol. (2):
time taken by it to cover the first h/16 height.
[ NCERT Page-50]
1) t / 2 2) t / 2
3) t / 4 4) t / 8
40. A particle has initial velocity (3iˆ  4 ˆj ) and
45. Water drops come out at regular interval from
has acceleration (0.4iˆ  0.3 jˆ) . Its speed after the water tank at the roof. When the first drop
hits ground, third drop comes out of the tank.
10 s is [ NCERT Page-47] The height of the second drop from the ground
1) 10 units 2) 7 units is [Height of tank is H0]. [ NCERT Page-49]
3) 7 2 units 4) 8.5 units 4 H0
1) H 2)
3 0 4
Sol. (3):
3H 0 H0
3) 4)
4 9
PCB TEST : 02(38) 8 Date : 09/12/2023

Sol. (3): 48. The motion of a particle along a straight line
i s described by equation x = 8 + 12t – t3, where x
is in metres and t in seconds. The retardation of
the particle when its velocity becomes zero is
[ NCERT Page-44, 45]
1) 6 m/s2 2) 12 m/s2
3) 24 m/s2 4) Zero
Sol. (2):
49. The position of a particle at time t (in seconds)

is given by x = (t3 – 6t2 + 3t + 4) m. The speed of
the particle when its acceleration becomes
zero is [ NCERT Page-45]
46. Which of the following graph does not 1) 12 m/s 2) 9 m/s
represent retardation? [v : velocity, t : time,
x : position] [ NCERT Page-46] 3) 6 m/s 4) 3 m/s
Sol. (2):
1) 2)
3) 4) None of these
Sol. (2): Conceptual 50. A particle is at position x = 5 m at t = 0 s. If he

47. A particle starting from rest, moves with reaches x = 25 m at t = 5 s, then the average
uniform acceleration and covers x m in the speed of the particle in those 5 seconds
first 5 s. Distance covered by the same particle [ NCERT Page-42]
in the next 5 s is [ NCERT Page-50]
1) 4 m/s
1) x m 2) 2x m
3) 3x m 4) 4x m 2) 5 m/s
3) 6 m/s
Sol. (3):
4) Cannot be answered without the knowledge
of the path
Sol. (4):
PCB TEST : 02(38) 9 Date : 09/12/2023

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
CHEMISTRY 55. Which of the following statements is false?
SECTION : A [ NCERT Page No. 49]
51. The first use of quantum theory to explain the 1) Splitting of spectral lines in electrical field is
structure of atom was made by called Stark effect.
[ NCERT Page No. 46] 2) Frequency of emitted radiation from a black
1) Heisenberg 2) Bohr body goes from a lower wavelength to higher
wavelength as the temperature increass
3) Planck 4) Einstein
3) Photon has momentum as well as wavelength
Sol. (2)
4) Rydberg constant has unit of energy
52. Among the following, the energy of 2s orbital
lowest in : [ NCERT Page No. 46] Sol. (2) When temperature is increased, black body
emits high energy radiation from higher
1) K 2) H
wavelength to lower wavelength.
3) Li 4) Na
56. In Bohr series of lines of hydrogen spectrum,
Sol. (1) As the value of Z (atomic number) incrases,
the third line from the red end corresponds to
energy of orbital decreases (becomes more –ve
which one of the following inter-orbit jumps
value) of the electron for Bohr orbits in an atom of
 Order of energy of 2s orbital is H > Li > Na > K. hydrogen [ NCERT Page No. 48]
53. The radius of the second Bohr orbit, in terms 1) 5  2 2) 4  1
of the Bohr radius, a0, in Li2+ is :
3) 2  5 4) 3  2
Sol. (1) The lines falling in the visible region comprise
2 a0 4 a0 Balmer series. Hence the third line from red
1) 2)
3 9 would be n1 = 2, n2 = 5 i.e. 5  2
4 a0 2 a0 57. Which of the following combination of
3) 4)
3 9 statements is true regarding the interpretation
a0 n 2 of the atomic orbitals?
Sol. (3) r = a) An electron in an orbital of high angular
Z
momentum stays away from the nucleus
a0 (2)2 4a0
For Li2+, r =  than an electron in the orbital of lower
3 3 angular momentum
54. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is
b) For a given value of the principal quantum
–13.6 eV. The energy of second excited state of
number, the size of the orbital is inversely
He+ ion in eV is :
proportional to the azimuthal quantum
[ NCERT Page No. 47] number
1) –54.4 2) –3.4 c) According to wave mechanics, the ground
3) –6.04 4) –27.2
h
Sol. (3) state angular momentum is equal to
2
d) The plot of  vs r for various azimuthal
quantum numbers, shows peak shifting
towards higher r value
RCC** RCC** RCC**

1) (a), (d) 2) (a), (b)
3) (a), (c) 4) (b), (c)
PCB TEST - 02 (38) 10 Date : 09/12/2023

60. The isoelectronic set of ions is
Sol. (1) a)
1) N3–, O2–, F– and Na+
2) N3–, Li+, Mg2+ and O2–
b) 3) F–, Li+, Na+ and Mg2+
4) Li+, Na+, O2– and F–
c)
Sol. (1) Atomic numbers of N, O, F and Na are 7, 8, 9
d) and 11 respectively. Therefore, total number of
electrons in each of N3–, O2–, F–, and Na+ are 10
and hence they are isoelectronic.
61. The Li2+ ion is moving in the third stationary
state, and its linear momentum is 7.3 × 10 –34
kgms–1. Angular momentum is
58. If the wavelength of the electromagnetic –45 2 –1
1) 1.158 × 10 kg m s
radiation is increased to thrice the digital
value, then what will be the percent change 2) 11.58 × 10–48 kg m2s–1
in the value of frequency of the 3) 11.58 × 10–47 kg m2s–1
electromagnetic radiation. 4) 12 × 10–45 kg m2s–1
[ NCERT Page No. 37] Sol. (2)
1) Increases by 33% 2) Decreases by 33%
3) Increases by 66% 4) Decreases by 66%
Sol. (4)
59. Assertion : Black body is an ideal body that

emits and absorbs radiations of all frequencies. 62. Assertion : The position of an electron can be
determined exactly with the help of an electron
Reason : The frequency of radiation emitted by
microscope.
a body goes from a lower frequency to higher
frequency with an increase in temperature. Reason : The product of uncertainty in the
measurement of its momentum and the
uncertainty in the measurement of the position
1) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct; Reason cannot be less than a finite limit.
is not a correct explanation for assertion
RCC** RCC** RCC**
3) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect

2) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct, Reason
4) Assertion is incorrect, Reason is correct. is not a correct explanation for assertion
Sol. (2) Energy increases with increase in temperature 3) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect
and so the frequency
4) Assertion is incorrect, Reason is correct.
PCB TEST - 02 (38) 11 Date : 09/12/2023

Sol. (4) The assertion is false but the reason is true. spherically symmetrical so the probability of
Exact position and exact momentum of an finding electron at any given point depends only
electron can never be determined according to on its distance from the nucleus. The probability
Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle. Even not density is greatest at r = 0 (at nucleus) and
with the help of electron microscope because decreases with increasing distance. In contrast,
when electron beam of electron microscope the surface area of each spherical shell is equal to
strikes the target electron of atom, the impact 4r 2 , which increases very rapidly with
causes the change in velocity and position of increasing r. The radial probability distribution
electron. function 4r22 is equal to zero at nucleus (r =
63. The number of orbitals associated with 0).
66. If the de-Broglie wavelength of a particle of
1 mass m is 100 times its velocity, then its value
quantum numbers n = 5, ms   is :
2 in terms of its mass (m) and Planck's constant
[ NCERT Page No. 55] (h) is [ NCERT Page No. 50]
1) 11 2) 25
1 m h
3) 50 4) 15 1) 2) 10
10 h m
Sol. (2) The possible number of orbitals in a shell in
term of ‘n’ is n2 1 h 1 m
3) 4)
n = 5 ; n2 = 25
10 m 10 h
64. In a multi-electron atom, which of the Sol. (2)
following orbitals described by the three
quantum members will have the same energy
in the absence of magnetic and electric fields?
A) n = 1, l = 0, m = 0 B) n = 2, l = 0, m = 0
C) n = 2, l = 1, m = 1 D) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1
67. The frequency of radiation emitted when the
E) n = 3, l = 2, m = 0
electron falls from n = 4 to n = 1 in a H-atom
[ NCERT Page No. 55] will be : (Given ionization energy of
1) (D) and (E) 2) (C) and (D) H = 2.18 × 10–18 J atom–1 and h = 6.625 × 10–34 Js)
3) (B) and (C) 4) (A) and (B) [ NCERT Page No. 48]
Sol. (1) The energy of an orbital is given by (n + l). 15 –1
1) 3.08 × 10 s 2) 2.00 × 1015 s–1
In (D) and (E), (n + l) value is (3 + 2) = 5, hence
they will have same energy, since here n values 3) 1.54 × 1015 s–1 4) 1.03 × 1015 s–1
are also same.
(h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js) Sol. (1)
65. Which of the fellowing statement concerning
probability density ( 2 ) and radial
distribution function (4r22) for an s-orbital
of H-like species is correct?
1)  2 is minimum at nucleus but 4r 2  2 is
maximum at nucleus
2)  2 is maximum at nucleus but 4r2  2 is
RCC** RCC** RCC**
minimum at nucleus
3) Both 2 and 4r22 are maximum at nucleus.
4) Both 2 and 4r22 are minimum at nucleus.
Sol. (2) 2 gives the probability of finding an electron
in a given volume of space. The 1s orbital is
PCB TEST - 02 (38) 12 Date : 09/12/2023

68. What can be the representation of the orbital Sol. (1)
having 3 angular nodes and n = 5.
1) 5d 2) 5f
3) 5p 4) 5s
Sol. (2) According to given information n = 5 and
l = 3.
69. For which element, the valence electron will
be present in the hightest energy orbital
1) 3Li 2) 1 6 S
3) 20 Ca 4) 21 Sc
Sol. (4) 3d electron is in the highest energy orbital
70. Which of the following is not permissible
73. Match the atoms/ions with the characteristics
arrangment of electrons in an atom ?
of the electron they contain.
1) n = 5, l = 3, m = 0, s = +1/2
2) n = 3, l = 2, m = 3, s = 1/2 Column I Column II
3) n = 3, l = 2, m = 2, s = 1/2 A H p Radius of 4th orbital = 0.53 × 4 Å
+
4) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = 1/2 B He q Energy of 2nd orbital = 13.6 eV
2+
Sol. (2) m = –l to +l, through zero thus for l = 2, C Be r Radius of 2nd orbital = 0.53 × 4 Å
values of m will be –2, –1, 0, +1, +2. D Li3+ s Velocity of electron in the 3rd
Therefore for l = 2, m cannot have the value –3. orbit = 2.18 × 10 Å
8
71. What is the difference between two species if t Energy of 4th orbit = 13.6 eV
one has atomic mass = 14 and atomic number
1) A-r, B-q, C-p,t, D-s 2) A-r, B-q, C-p, D-t
= 7 whereas the other has atomic mass = 14
and atomic number = 6? 3) A-r, B-p, C-t, D-s 4) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s
[ NCERT Page No. 35] Sol. (1)
1) Neurtorns 2) Protons
3) Electrons 4) All of these
Sol. (4) Atomic number is equal to number of
protons or number of electrons. Thus, if two
species have different atomic number they must 74. Match the series of hydrogen spectrum with
contain different number of protons and their characteristics
electrons. Number of neutrons = atomic mass –
atomic number. Therefore, due to difference of Column I Column II
atomic numbers two species also have different A Lyman series p Visible region
number of neutrons. B Balmer series q Infrared region
72. Un ce rt ain ty i n p osit io n o f an el ectr on C Paschen series r Ultraviolet region
(mass = 9.1 × 10–28g) moving with a velocity of D Bracket series s n 2 = 4 to n2 = 3
3 × 104 cm/s accurate upto 0.001 % will be (use t n 2 = 5 to n2 = 1
h / 4 in uncertainty expression where h =
RCC** RCC** RCC**
1) A-p, B-s,t, C-q, D-r 2) A-q, B-s, C-p,t, D-r

6.626 × 10–27 erg-second).
3) A-r, t, B-p, C-q,s, D-q 4) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s
Sol. (3)
1) 1.93 cm 2) 3.84 cm
3) 5.76 cm 4) 7.68 cm
PCB TEST - 02 (38) 13 Date : 09/12/2023

75. Match the orbitals the number of nodes/ 78. Statement I : Hydrogen has one electron in its
quantum numbers present in them. orbit but it produces several spectral lines
[ NCERT Page No. 59] Statement II : There are many excited energy
levels available.
Column I Column II
A 2p orbital p Number of spherical nodes = 0
B 3d orbital q Number of nodal plane = 0 1) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True;
C 2s orbital r Orbital angular momentum Statement 2 is a correct explanation for
number = 0 Statement 1.
D 4f orbital s Azimuthal quantum number 2) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is True;
=0 Statement 2 is not a correct explanation of
1) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-r, s 2) A-q, B-s, C-p,t, D-r Statement 1.
3) A-r,t, B-p, C-s, D-q 4) A-p, B-p, C-q,r,s, D-p 3) Statement 1 is True, Statement 2 is False
4) Statement 1 is False, Statement 2 is True
Sol. (4) Sol. (1)
79. The ionization energy of a hydrogen atom in
terms of Rydberg constant (RH) is given by the
expression.
1) RHhc 2) RHc
3) 2RHhc 4) RHhcNA
76. In which of the following options do both Sol. (1)
constituents of the pair have the same
80. The fourth line of the Balmer series
magnetic moment? [ NCERT Page No. 63] corresponds to electron transition between
1) Zn2+ and Cu2+ 2) Co2+ and Ni2+ energy levels [ NCERT Page No. 48]
3) Mn4+ and Co2+ 4) Mg2+ and Sc+ 1) 6 and 2 2) 5 and 2
Sol. (3) 3) 4 and 1 4) 5 and 1
Sol. (1)
77. According to Bohr ’s theory, the angular

momentum of an electron in 5th orbit is
1) 2.5 h/ 2) 1.0 h/
3) 10 h/ 4) mvr = nh
Sol. (1) The angular momentum of an electron in nth
orbit is given by 81. Which of the following arrangement of two
electrons in two degenerated orbitals is not
nh
RCC** RCC** RCC**
mvr = possible at all? [ NCERT Page No. 62]

2
Since n = 5, we get 1)   2)
5h 2.5h
mvr =  3) 4) All of these
2 
Sol. (2)
PCB TEST - 02 (38) 14 Date : 09/12/2023

87. The orbital diagram in which Aufbau
82. The number of radial nodes in 3p and 4s
principle is violated is
orbitals, respectively, are
1) 1, 3 2) 3, 1 1) 2)
3) 2, 2 4) 3, 1
Sol. (1) 3) 4)
Sol. Sol. (3) According to Aufbau principle, in the
ground state of the atoms, the orbitals are filled
in order of their increasing energies.
83. For which of the species, Bohr’s theory is not 88. How many electrons can fit in the orbital for
applicable ? [ NCERT Page No. 49] which n = 3 and l = 1 ?
1) Be3+ 2) Li 2+ [ NCERT Page No. 55]
3) He 2+ 4) H 1) 2 2) 6 3) 10 4) 14
Sol. (3) Sol. (1) For n = 3 and l = 1, the subshell is 3p and a
particular 3p orbital can accommodate only 2
electrons
89. Identify the correct statement.
84. The triad of nuclei that is isotonic is 1) Quantum number (n, l, m, s) are obtained
1) 14
C, 157 N, 179 F, 2) 12
C, 147 N, 199 F, arbitrarily
6 6
2) All the quantum numbers (n, l, m, s) for any
14 14 17 14 14 19
3) 6
C, N, F,
7 9
4) 6
C, N, F,
7 9 pair of electrons in an atom can be identical
under special circumstance
Sol. (1)
3) All the quantum numbers (n, l, m, s) may
not be required to describe an electron of an
atom completely
85. The outermost electronic configuration of the 4) All the quantum numbers (n, l, m, s) are
most electronegative element is required to describe an electron of an atom
[ NCERT Page No. 62] completely
1) ns np 2 3
2) ns2 np4 Sol. (4)
3) ns2 np5 4) ns2 np6 90. The representation of the ground state
Sol. (3) electronic configuration of He by box-diagram
SECTION : B as is wrong because it violates
86. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell [ NCERT Page No. 63]
of an atom is determined by the following : 1) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
[ NCERT Page No. 61] 2) Bohr ’s quantization theory of angular
1) 2n 2 2) 4l + 2 momenta
RCC** RCC** RCC**
3) 2l + 1 4) 4l – 2 3) Pauli’s exclusion principle

Sol. (2) 4) Hund’s rule
Sol. (3) Pauli’s exclusion principle states that an orbital
can have maximum two electrons and these must
have opposite spins.
PCB TEST - 02 (38) 15 Date : 09/12/2023

91. The figure that is not a direct manifestation of 93. Given below are two statements.
the quantum nature of atoms is : Statement I : According to Bohr’s model of an
[ NCERT Page No. 40] atom, qualitatively the magnitude of velocity of
electron increases with decrease in positive
charges on the nucleus as there is no strong hold
on the electron by the nucleus.
1) Statement II : According to Bohr’s model of an
atom, qualitatively the magnitude of velocity of
electron increases with decreases in principal
quantum number
2) 1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
3) Statements I is false but Statement II is true
4) Statements I is true but Statement II is false
3) Sol. (3) According to Bohr’s model
z

n
z = Atomic no. (corresponds to +ve charge)
n = Principle quantum no.
4) This relation suggest that when the z increases,
the velocity will also increase, so statement I is
wrong and as ‘n’ decreases, velocity will also
increase. So statement II is corect.
Sol. (4) (1), (2) and (3) are according to quantum
94. The shortest wavelength of H atom in the
theory but (4) is statement of kinetic theory of
Lyman series is  1. The logest wavelength in
gases.
the Balmer series is He+ is:
92. Which of the following statements are not
correct about electromagnetic radiation ?
36 1 51
i) Electromagnetic waves require medium to 1) 2)
travel. 5 9
91 27 1
ii) Different electromagnetic radiations travel 3) 4)
at same speed in vaccum. 5 5
Sol. (3)
iii) The oscillating electric and magnetic fields
produced by oscillating charged particles
are perpendicular to each other, but not
to the direction of propagation.
iv) The oscillating electric field and magnetic
field are perpendicular to each other, and
also to the direction of propagation.
RCC** RCC** RCC**

1) (i), (ii) and (iii) 2) (ii) and (iii)
3) (i) and (iii) 4) (i) and (iv)
Sol. (3) The oscillating fields are perpendicular to the
direction of propagation
PCB TEST - 02 (38) 16 Date : 09/12/2023

95. Two fast moving particles X and Y are 97. A hydrogen atom in the ground state is excited
associated with de Broglie wavelengths 1 nm by monochromatic radiation of wavelength 
and 4 nm respectively. If mass of X is nine times Å. The resulting spectrum consists of
the mass of Y, the ratio of kinetic energies of X maximum 15 different lines. What is the
and Y would be wavelength ? (RH = 109737 cm–1 )
[ NCERT Page No. 50] [ NCERT Page No. 48]
1) 3 : 1 2) 9 : 1 1) 937.3 Å 2) 1025Å
3) 5 : 12 4) 16 : 9 3) 1236Å 4) None of these
Sol. (4) Sol. (1)
98. The Heisenberg uncertainity principle will be

most significant for which of the following
object ? [ NCERT Page No. 51]
1) Object A ofmass 9.11 × 10–30 kg
96. For emission line of atomic hydrogen from
2) Object B of mass 9.11 × 10–28 g
n i = 8 to nf = n, the plot of wave number (v ) 3) Object C of mass 9.11 × 10–24 mg
 1  4) Object D of mass 9.11 × 10–28 kg
against  2  will be (The Rydberg constant, Sol. (2) x. value will be large for object of smallest
n 
mass and is therefore, the most significant for
RH is in wave number unit) calculating uncertainity. Object B has smallest
[ NCERT Page No. 48] mass i.e., g.11 × 10–28 g = g.11 × 10–31 Kg. So it
will be most significant.
1) Linear with intercept—RH
99. Which hydrogen-like species will have same
2) Non linear radius as that of Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom?
3) Linear with slope RH [ NCERT Page No. 41]
4) Linear with slope—RH 1) n = 2, Li 2+
2) n = 2, Be3+
Sol. (4) 3) n = 2, He+ 4) n = 3, Li2+
Sol. (2)
RCC** RCC** RCC**
PCB TEST - 02 (38) 17 Date : 09/12/2023

100. Match the angle between the axes of the
orbitals with their value.
Column I Column II
A The angle between the z- p 135°
momentum of electron of px
atomic orbital and z-axis
(assume m = +1)
B The angle between the z- q 45°
momentum of electron of pz of
atomic orbital and z-axis
C The angle between the z- r Less than 45°
component of orbital angular or more than
momentum of electron 135°
momentum of electron of py
atomic orbit and z-axis is
D The angle between the z- s 90°
momentum 3dxof y electron of
2 2
orbital and z-axis
1) A-p, B-s, C-q, D-r 2) A-q, B-s, C-p, D-r

3) A-s, B-p, C-t, D-r 4) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s
Sol. (2)
RCC** RCC** RCC**
PCB TEST - 02 (38) 18 Date : 09/12/2023

Section-C : Biology 107. Primary cell wall is [ NCERT Pg. 132]
1) Thick layered
Section-A
2) Noticed in young cells
101. The size of chloroplast ribosome is-
3) Lignified and subersized usually
[NCERT Pg. 129, 136]
4) Made up of calcium and magnesium pectate
1) 15 um to 20 um 2) 15 nm by 20 nm
Ans. (2)
3) 15 m by 20 m 4) 15 mm by 20 mm
108. The membrane proteins are classified as integral
Ans. (2)
or peripheral. The basis of this classification is
102. _______ studied different types of animal cells
[ NCERT Pg. 131]
and reported that a cell has a thin outer layer.
1) Quasi-fluid nature
[NCERT Pg. 126]
2) Biochemical investigation
1) Matthias Schleiden
3) Ease of extraction
2) Theodore Schwann
4) Requirement of energy for transport of
3) Robert Brown
material
4) Anton von Leeuwenhoek
Ans. (3)
Ans. (2)
109. Bacteria differ from mycoplasma in having
103. Gas vacuole is present in [ NCERT Pg. 129]
[ NCERT Pg. 128]
a) Blue green algae
1) Cell wall 2) Cytoplasm
b) Purple photosynthetic bacteria
3) Cell membrane 4) 70S ribosomes
c) Green photosynthetic bacteria
Ans. (1)
1) a only 2) b only
110. Choose the incorrect statements for A, B, C and
3) c only 4) All a, b and c D in the given diagram.
Ans. (4) [ NCERT Pg. 133, 138 & PYQ]
104. Small bristle-like fibres sprouting out of the
bacterial cells are helpful in [ NCERT Pg. 129]
1) Cell wall synthesis
2) Cell motility
3) Antibiotic resistance
4) Attachment to the host surface
Ans. (4)
105. Fluid nature of membrane is important for
[ NCERT Pg. 132]
1) Cell division and growth
2) Secretion and endocytosis
3) Formation of intercellular function
4) All of these
Ans. (4)
106. Celluloes, galactans, mannans, and calcium
carbonate are present in the cell wall of 1) A is the major site of the synthesis of protein.
[ NCERT Pg. 132] 2) B is the 80 S ribosome
1) Algae 2) Fungi 3) C helps in protein folding
3) Bacteria 4) Higher plant 4) D is Formed by fusion of two membranes
Ans. (1) Ans. (1)
PCB TEST : 02(38) 19 Date : 09/12/2023

111. Membrane-bound space present in plant cell 117. Which of the following is correct regarding the
and filled with water, sap and excretory structure of the sections of cilia and flagella?
substances is known as [ NCERT Pg. 134] [NCERT Pg. 137, Fig. 8.10]
1) Lysosomes 2) ER Peripheral Radial Central
3) Vacuole 4) Cytosol microtubules spoke bridge
Ans. (3) 1) 18 doublet 9 2
112. Packaging of macromolecules which has to 2) 18 singlet 18 2
transported out from the cell occurs in 3) 9 singlet 9 1
[ NCERT Pg. 134] 4) 9 doublet 9 1
1) Golgi body 2) RER Ans. (4)
3) SER 4) Vacuole 118. Select the incorrectly matched pair.
Ans. (1) [NCERT Pg. 126, 127, 129]
113. What is the common feature among leucoplast, 1) Mycoplasma – The smallest cell
chloroplast, and chromoplast? [ NCERT Pg. 135] 2) Cell cytoplasm – Main arena of cellular
1) Type of pigments activities
2) Storage materials 3) Inclusion bodies – Glycogen granules
3) Presence of thylakoid and grana 4) Centriole – Non-membrane bound cell
4) Presence of double membrane organelle in all plant and animal cells
Ans. (4) Ans. (4)
114. Both mitochondria and chloroplast resemble to 119. Select the correct option stating True (T) and
bacteria in [ NCERT Pg. 129, 135, 136] False (F) w.r.t. ribosomes. [ NCERT Pg. 136, PYQ]
a. Having owns ds circular DNA A. They are granular structures first observed
b. Presence of porins on outer membrane under electron microscope as dense particles.
c. Presence of 70S ribosomes B. They are composed of rRNA and proteins.
d. Ability to self-duplication C. Sedimentation coefficient, is directly a
measure of density and size.
1) a and c only 2) a, b and d only
3) a, b and c only 4) a, b, c and d D. Ca++ is required for binding the two subunits
of ribosomes at the time of protein synthesis.
Ans. (4)
A B C D
115. For ribosomes, sedimentation coefficient is
indirectly a measure of [ NCERT Pg. 136] 1) T T T F
1) Number of ribosomes per cell 2) T T F F
2) Density and size of ribosomes 3) T F F T
3) Length of rRNA 4) F F T T
4) Number of the subunit of ribosomes Ans. (2)
Ans. (2) 120. Semi-autonomous nature of chloroplast is due
116. Centriole, cilium, and flagellum resemble one to presence of [ NCERT PYQ]
another as [ NCERT Pg. 137, 138] 1) Enzymes of photosynthesis
1) All possess (9 + 0) organization 2) 70 S ribosomes
2) All possess (9 + 2) organization 3) Double stranded circular DNA molecules
3) All of them are made up of microtubules 4) Both (2) and (3)
4) All can duplicate themselves Ans. (4)
Ans. (3)
PCB TEST : 02(38) 20 Date : 09/12/2023

121. In Chlamydomonas, the number of chloroplasts 126. How many of the following are non-
per cell is [ NCERT Pg. 136] membranous and double membrane bound
1) 10 2) 1 organelles respectively?
3) 5 4) 8 Ribosome, Nucleus, Nucleolus, Centrosome,
Ans. (2) Lysosome, Peroxisome, Amyloplast, Vacuole
1) 3, 2 2) 2, 3
122. The plasma membrane consists mainly of :
3) 3, 4 4) 4, 1
1) proteins embedded in a carbohydrate bilayer
Ans. (1)
2) phospholipids embedded in a protein bilayer
127. Observe the following solutes
3) proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer
Solute - A = Negatively charged large sized
4) proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose
molecule
molecules
Solute - B = Positively charged large sized
Ans. (3) molecule
123. Prokaryotic cell like PPLO are __a__ and Solute - C = Neutral solute
multiply __b__ than eukaryotic cells.
Which of the above solute can easily cross lipid
[ Pg. 127, Para 2] bilayer along the concentration, without any
1) Larger, rapidly carrier protein? [ Pg. 132, Para 3]
2) Smaller, rapidly 1) A 2) B
3) Smaller, slowly 3) C 4) All of these
4) Larger, slowly. Ans. (3)
Ans. (2) 128. Find out the odd match.
124. An elaborated network of proteinaceous [ Pg. 127 Fig. 8.1]
filamentous structure present is cytoplasm help 1) RBC- Round & biconcave
in ______ [ Pg. 136, Last 2 lines] 2) Mesophyll cells- Round & oval
1) Intracellular digestion 3) Tracheid- Elongated
2) ATP synthesis 4) WBC- Branched & long
3) Cell shape maintenance Ans. (4)
4) Lipid synthesis 129. The stain used to visualise motochondria is
Ans. (3) [ Exemplar]
125. Identify T/F in given statements below. 1) Fast green 2) Safranin
[ Pg. 132] 3) Acetocarmine 4) Janus green
a. Cell wall is rigid - living structure present in Ans. (4)
animal cells. 130. What is angle between two centrioles present
b. Cell wall gives shape to cell and protect it in centrosome? [ Pg. 137, Last 2 lines]
from mechanical damage as well as infection. 1) 30° 2) 45°
c. Cell wall in bacteria and fungi is made of 3) 60° 4) 90°
peptidoglycan and chitin respectively. Ans. (4)
d. Middle lamella is made of calcium pectate 131. Scientist G N Ramachandran was associated
which glues adjacent cells together. with [ Pg. 124, Unit Introduction]
1) All are true except - a 1) Triple helical structure of Collagen
2) All are false except - a 2) Founder of Madras school of Confirmational
3) Only d is true analysis of biopolymers.
4) Only b and c are true 3) Ramachandran plot
Ans. (1) 4) All of these
Ans. (4)
PCB TEST : 02(38) 21 Date : 09/12/2023
132. Blood groups are identified based on presence Section-B
of various surface glycoproteins on RBC, that 136. Cell organelle which exhibit cartwheel like
are referred as antigens. The cell organelle that structure in transverse section -
involved in formation of such glycoprotein is
[NCERT Pg. 137, 138]
[ Pg. 134, Para 2] a) is helpful in cell division of almost all plant
1) Ribosome cells
2) Endoplasmic reticulum b) is not covered by any membrane
3) Golgi bodies c) is having 9 + 0 arrangement of microtubules
4) Mitochondria d) forms basal body of Flagella.
1) a & c - incorrect
Ans. (3)
2) b & c - correct
3) Only a is incorrect
133. Which of the following components provides
4) Only b is incorrect
sticky character to the bacterial cell?
Ans. (3)
[NEET-2017]
137. Read the following statements and select which
1) Cell wall 2) Nuclear membrane of the following are not the postulates of cell
3) Plasma membrane 4) Glycocalyx theory. [ NCERT Pg. 126]
Ans. (4) a) Cells differ greatly in size, shape and
activities.
134. Which of the following is correct pathway of
vesicle which contains secretory protein? b) All living organisms are composed of cells
and products of cells.
[ Pg. 134, Para 2]
c) The cytoplasm is the main arena of metabolic
1) Nucleus -Trans Golgi - Plasma membrane activities.
2) ER - Cis-Golgi - Nucleus d) All cells arise from pre-existing cells.
3) Cis -Golgi -ER- Trans-Golgi 1) (a) and (d)
4) ER Cis-Golgi -Trans-Golgi 2) (b) and (d)
Ans. (4) 3) (a) and (c)
4) (c) and (d)
135. Which of the following combination of
statement is most suitable for mesosome Ans. (3)
[ Pg. 128, 129] 138. Match column I with column II. [ NCERT Based]
a. It is extension of plasma membrane into Column-I Column-II

cytoplasm a) Centrioles i) Palade particles
b. Help in respiration, & DNA distribution. b) Lysosomes ii) Steriod synthesis
c) Ribosomes iii) Formation of spindle
c. It decrease the surface area of plasma
d) Smooth iv) Hydrolytic activity
membrane
endoplasmic
d. It form nuclear membrane around genetic
reticulum
material
1) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
1) a, b and c
2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
2) b and c
3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
3) a and b 4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
4) Only a Ans. (2)
Ans. (3)
PCB TEST : 02(38) 22 Date : 09/12/2023

139. Read the following statements. 142. Match the column. [ Pg. 139]
[NCERT Pg. 128, 129] Column-I Column-II
i. It is the extension of plasma membrane into a Metacentric i Centromere little away
the cytoplasm. from middle
ii. These extensions are in the form of vesicles, b Acrocentric ii Centromere in middle
tubules and labellae. c Sub-Metacentric iii Centromere close to end
iii. It helps in cell wall formation, DNA d Telocentric iv Centromere at terminal
replication and secretion process. 1) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-ii 2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
The above features are attributed to bacterial. 3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv 4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
1) Genophore Ans. (2)
2) Mesosome 143. Assertion : Na+/K+ pump transport Na+ and K+
3) Pili by active transport.
4) Fimbriae Reason : Na+/K+ pump don't need any energy for
Ans. (2) transportation of ions. [ Pg. 132]
140. Read the following features of a cell organelle. 1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
[ NCERT Pg. 134, 135]
a. Organelle having width about 0.2 – 1.0 m
Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
and length of 1.0 – 4.1 m.
3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
b. Requires specific vital stain to be visualize
under microscope. 4) If both the Assertion and Reason are false.
c. Sausage or cylindrical shaped. Ans. (3)
Identify the cell organelle on the basis of above 144. The spherical structure present in nucleoplasm
given features. [ NCERT Pg. 138]
1) Chloroplast A. Has contents continuous with rest of
2) Nucleus nucleoplasm
3) Mitochondria B. Is a non-membrane-bound structure
4) Golgi apparatus C. Is a site of active messenger RNA synthesis
Ans. (3) D. Are smaller and more numerous in cells
actively carrying out protein synthesis
141. Read the following statements and choose the
CORRECT [ Pg. 125] Correct statement(s) is/are
A. Unicellular organisms are not capable of 1) Only A and D 2) A, B and C
independent existence because they cannot 3) Only A and B 4) A, B, C and D
perform all the essential functions of life. Ans. (3)
B. Unicellular organisms are capable of 145. Match column I with column II.
independent existence but cannot perform all
[ NCERT Pg. 124, 125, 126]
the essential functions of life.
C. Unicellular organisms are capable Column-I Column-II
independents existence, and they can a) 1838 i) Matthias Schleiden
perform all the essential functions of life b) 1839 ii) Theodore Schw ann
1) A and B correct c) 1954 iii) Rudolf Virchow
d) 1855 iv) G. N. Ramachandran
2) Only B correct
3) Only C correct 1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii 2) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
4) A, B and C all correct 3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii 4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
Ans. (3) Ans. (2)
PCB TEST : 02(38) 23 Date : 09/12/2023

146. Read the following statements carefully and 149. Identify the correct set of statements out of
find CORRECT combination for plasma followings : [ NCERT Pg. 139]
membrane. [ Pg. 132] a) Maximum arm ratio (q/p) exhibited by
a. It is selectively permeable. acrocentric chromosomes.
b) Human cells (2n) has two genomes and each
b. Fluidity of lipids present in plasma
genome consists fourty six chromosomes.
membrane is disadvantage to cell.
c) Nucleolar organizer region i.e. 2° constriction
c. Fluid mosaic model was proposed by Singer are not present on each human chromosome.
and Nicolson.
d) Secondary constriction is present at the place
d. Active transport across plasma membrane is of centromere.
energy dependent. e) Each centromere possess two protein discs
e. Quasifluid nature of lipid disables lateral called kinetochores.
movement of protein in bilayer choose the correct answer from the given options
below:
1) a, b, c
2) a, d, e 1) b, c, d & e 2) a, b, c & e
3) a, c & e 4) a, b & c
3) a, c, d
Ans. (3)
4) All statements are correct 150. Assertion (A) : Middle lamellae is like cementing
Ans. (3) material between two adjacent plant cells.
147. Statement-I : Chlo roplast is do uble Reason (R) : Plasmodesmata traverse cell wall
membraneous strcuture. and middle lamellae.
1) Assertion and Reason both are true and the
Statement-II : Inner membrane of chloroplast is
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
more permeable. [ NCERT Pg. 136]
2) Assertion and Reason both are true but Reason
1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct. is not correct explanation of Assertion.
2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect. 3) Assertion is true but Reason is wrong.
3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct. 4) Assertion and Reason both are wrong.
Ans. (2)
4) Both Statement-I and II both are incorrect.
Ans. (2)
Section-D : Biology
Section-A
148. Assertion (A) : Every chromosome essentially has
151. Which of the following is not a taxon but category?
a kinetochore on the sides of which centromeres
are present. 1) Division 2) Dicotyledons
3) Angiosperms 4) Polypetalae
Reason (R) : Based on the position of centromere
or primary constriction chromosomes can be Ans. (1)
classified into five types. [ NCERT Pg. 139] 152. Identify the correct sequence of taxonomic
categories for mangifera indica.
1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
[ Excercise Q. 7]
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion. 1) Species  genus  family  order  class
 phylum  kingdom
2) Species  family  order  genus  class
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
 phylum  kingdom
Assertion.
3) Species  genus  family  phylum 
3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false. order  class  kingdom
4) If both the Assertion and Reason are false. 4) Species  genus  family  order  class
Ans. (4)  division  kingdom
Ans. (4)
PCB TEST : 02(38) 24 Date : 09/12/2023

153. Which of the following is a characteristic of 158. Refer the botanical name of wheat "Triticum
living organism. [ Pg. 3, Para 2nd] aestivum" and identify the statement which
1) Growth and reproduction correctly describes it. [ Pg. 7]
2) Metabolism, consciousness, cellular 1) The second word belongs to genus and starts
organisation with a small letter.
3) Both 1 and 2 2) Both the words "Triticum aestivum" denote the
specific epithet.
4) Only Growth
3) The first word Triticum denotes the genus
Ans. (3) which Starts with a capital letter.
154. Statement I : Biological names are generally in 4) The first word Triticum denotes the specific
latins and written in italics epithet while the second word denotes the
Statement II : They are latinised irrespective of genus.
their origin. [ Pg. 7, 5th Line] Ans. (3)
1) Statement I is correct II is incorrect 159. Choose the correct order arrangement
2) Statement I is incorrect II is correct [ Pg. 9]
3) Both statements are correct 1) cohort  class  family  genus
4) Both statements are incorrect 2) class  cohort  family  genus
Ans. (3) 3) species  cohort  family  genus
155. Given below is the scientific name of Mango. 4) order (cohort)  phylum  species  family
Identify the correctly written name. Ans. (2)
[ Pg. 15, Exercise] 160. Which of the following shows the correct
1) Mangifera Indica example of taxonomic category - Genus?
2) Mangifera indica 1) Potato, tomato and brinjal belong to Solanum.
3) Mangifera indica 2) Monkey, gorilla and gibbon are placed in
Mammalia.
4) mangifera indica
3) Solanum, Petunia, and Datura are placed in
Ans. (2)
Solanacea.
156. Systematics refers to the: [ Pg. 8] 4) Mangifera indica, Solanum tuberosum, and
1) identification and classification of plants and Panthera leo.
animals. Ans. (1)
2) nomenclature and identification of plants and 161. 'Taxa'differs from'taxon'due to being:
animals.
[ Pg. 8]
3) diversity of kinds of organisms and their 1) a higher taxonomic category than taxon.
relationship.
2) lower taxonomic category than taxon.
4) different kinds of organisms and their
3) the plural of taxon.
classification.
4) the singular of taxon.
Ans. (3)
Ans. (3)
157. Dog and cat are seperated into two familes ___
162. Which of the following taxonomic category of
& ___ respectively. [ Pg. 9, Last line]
housefly is incorrectly matched? [ Pg. 11]
1) Felis & canis
1) Genus - Musca
2) Felidae & canidae 2) Family - Muscidae
3) Canis & felis 3) Order - Primata
4) Canidae & felidae 4) Class - Insecta
Ans. (4) Ans. (3)
PCB TEST : 02(38) 25 Date : 09/12/2023

163. Which one. of the following belongs to the 168. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
family Muscidae? [ Pg. 11] [ Pg. 9]
1) Housefly 2) Firefly 1) The scientific name for humans is Homo
3) Grasshopper 4) Cockroach sapiens.
Ans. (1) 2) Organisms placed in the same genus are least
164. In majority of higher animals and plants, closely related.
_______ and _______ are mutually exclusive 3) Moving from species to kingdom more
events: [ Pg. 4] different species are included in each higher
1) growth; nutrition category.
2) nutrition; consciousness 4) Species that are in the same genus share very
specific characteristics.
3) growth; reproduction
Ans. (2)
4) reproduction; consciousness
169. The famous botanical garden 'Kew' is located in
Ans. (3)
[ Pg. 12]
165. Two plants can be conclusively said to belong
1) England 2) Lucknow
to the same species if they:
3) Berlin 4) Australia
1) have same number of chromosomes.
Ans. (1)
2) can reproduce freely with each other and form
seeds. 170. The famous botanical gardens are at _____,
Indian Botanical Garden at ___ & National
3) have more than 90 per cent similar genes.
Botanical Research Institute at ____
4) look similar and possess identical secondary
[ Pg. 12, 2nd Para, Last line]
metabolites.
1) Lucknow, Kew, Howrah
Ans. (2)
2) Howrah, Kew, Lucknow
166. Binomial nomenclature means: [ Pg. 7]
3) Kew, Howrah, Lucknow
1) one name given by two scientists. 4) Kew, Lucknow, Howrah
2) one scientific name consisting of a generic and
Ans. (3)
specific epithet.
171. Insects are preserved in insect boxes after
3) two names, one latinized, other of a person.
[ Pg. 12, Last Para, 6th line]
4) two names of same plant.
1) Pinning  killing  collecting
Ans. (2)
2) Collecting  killing  pinning
167. Which of the following is not universal rule of 3) Collecting  pinning  killing
nomenclature. [ Pg. 7, 2nd para]
4) Killing  Collecting  pinning
1) The first word in biological name represents
Ans. (2)
genus while second component denotes
specific epithet 172. Which of the following taxonomic aid provides
information for the identification of names of
2) Both the words in biological name when
species found in an area? [ Pg. 13]
printed are seperately underlined.
1) Monograph
3) The first word denoting genus starts with
capital letter while specific epithet start with 2) Manual
small letter 3) Flora
4) Both (1) & (3) 4) Periodical
Ans. (2) Ans. (2)
PCB TEST : 02(38) 26 Date : 09/12/2023

173. Which one of the following taxonomical aid is 178. Families are characterised on the basis of
used for identification of plants and animals [ Pg. 9, 4th para, 3rd line]
based on similarities and dissimilarities? 1) Vegetative features of plant species
[ Pg. 13] 2) Reproductive features of plant species
1) Flora 2) Keys 3) Both 1 & 2
3) Monographs 4) Catalogues 4) Only vegetative features of plant species
Ans. (2) Ans. (3)
174. Which of the following option is correct? 179. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
life? [ Pg. 4, 5]
[ Pg. 4]
1) Reproduction
1) Only living organisms grow
2) Complex chemical organization
2) Plants grow only up to a certain age
3) Adaptation to environmental changes
3) The growth in living organisms is from inside 4) Differentiation from cells to tissues
4) All of the above Ans. (4)
Ans. (3) 180. Who among the following is known as The
175. Each statement in the key is called _______. Darwin of the 20th century? [ Pg. 2]
[ Pg. 13] 1) Thomas Hunt Morgan
1) lead 2) Ernst Mayr
3) George Mendel
2) catalogues
4) Lamarck
3) manuals
Ans. (2)
4) monographs
181. Statement I : Photoperiadism affects reproductin
Ans. (1) in continuous breeders, both plants and animals.
176. Which of the following organisms does not Statement II : All living organisms are aware of
reproduce? [ Pg. 4] their surroundings. [ Pg. 5, 2nd Para]
1) Mule 1) Statement I is correct II is incorrect
2) Worker bee 2) Statement I is incorrect II is correct
3) Infertile human 3) Both statements are correct
4) All of these 4) Both statements are incorrect
Ans. (4) Ans. (2)
182. Find odd one out with respect to taxonomic
177. How many of following statements are incorrect.
category. [ Pg. 11, Table 1.1]
[ Pg. 4, 2nd para]
1) Chordata 2) Arthropoda
i. Reproduction is a characteristic of living 3) Angiospermae 4) Diptera
organisms. [ Pg. 4, 2nd para, 1st line]
Ans. (4)
ii. True regeneration is observed in planaria.
183. Consider following diagram and fill the
iii. When it comes to unicellular organisms following blank spaces/boxes. [ Pg. 10]
reproduction is antonymous to growth.
iv. No non-living object is capable of reproducing
or replicating by itself.
v. Metabolism is characteristic of living
1) A-Strain, B-Order, C-Sub kingdom
organisms.
2) A-species, B-order, C-kingdom
1) 1 2) 2
3) A-subspecies, B-Tribe, C-Domain
3) 3 4) 4
4) A-species, B-Cohort, C-Subdivision
Ans. (1) Ans. (2)
PCB TEST : 02(38) 27 Date : 09/12/2023

184. In plants, growth occurs____, whereas in 188. Match the following. [ Pg. 14, 1st Para]
animals it occurs_____. [ Pg. 4]
Column I Column II
1) only up to a certain age, continuously
a Flora i Actual account of habitat &
2) continuously, continuously
distribution of plant a given
3) only up to a certain age, only up to a certain area
age b Manuals ii Information on any one
4) continuously, only up to a certain age taxon
Ans. (4) c Monograph iii Information for identification
185. Which of the following statement is correct for of names of species found in
Metabolism? [ Pg. 5] an area
1) It is the sum of all Chemical reactions taking d Catalogues iv List of names of all species
place inside a living system. found in an area
2) All plants, animals, fungi and microbes exhibit 1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv 2) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
metabolism.
3) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii 4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
3) Isolated metabolic reactions in-vitro are not
Ans. (1)
living but are living reactions.
189. Assertion : Reprdouction is not the defining
4) All of the above feature of living organisms.
Ans. (4) Reason : Many living organisms do not
Section-B reproduce. [ Pg. 4, 2nd para, 15th line]
186. Find out incorrect statement. 1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
[ Pg.4, 2nd Para, 12th line] is correct explanation of Assertion.
1) Growth and reproduction are mutually 2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason
inclusive for unicellular organisms is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
2) Key is the taxonomical aid used for
classification of plants and animals based on 4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
both similarities and dissimilarities Ans. (1)
3) The total number of species on the earth range 190. How many of the following statements belong
between 1.7 - 1.8 million to herbarium. [ Pg. 12, 1st Para]
4) Reproduction is non defining properties of i) It is store house of animal specimens that are
living dried, pressed and preserved on sheet.
Ans. (3) ii) Herbarium sheets are arranged according to
187. i. Science of life forms & living processes. universally adapted system of classification.
iii) These specimens along with their description
ii. Story at life on earth.
becomes repository for future use.
iii. Story of evolution of living organisms on
iv) Herbaria serve as quick referral system in
earth.
taxonomic studies.
Which of the above statements depicts biology.
v) Herbarium shet contain information about date
[ Pg. 1, Unit introduction, Pg. 5, Last para]
and place of collection, family name, collector’s
1) i only name etc.
2) ii & iii only 1) 3 2) 4
3) i & iii only 3) 5 4) 2
4) i, ii & iii Ans. (2)
Ans. (4)
PCB TEST : 02(38) 28 Date : 09/12/2023
191. Match the following. [ Based] 195. How many of following statements do not hold
true for keys. [ Pg. 13, Last para]
Column-I Column-II
a Hominidae i Mangifera indica i. Key is based on similarties & dissimilarities.
b Diptera ii Musca domestica ii. Keys are based on contrasting characters
c Anacardiaceae iii Trticum aestivum generally in pair called couplet.
d Poaceae iv Primata iii.It represents choise made between two
1) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii 2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv opposite options.
3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i 4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii iv. Each statement in the key is called as lead.
Ans. (1) v. A single key is required for every taxonomic
192. Match the following and choose the correct category.
combination from the options given. vi. Keys are generally analytical in nature.
[ Pg. 11]
1) 1
Column-I Column-II 2) 2
(Common Name) (Taxonomic Category 3) 3
Family)
4) 4
a Man i Poaceae
Ans. (1)
b Housefly ii Muscidae
c Mango iii Anacardiaceae 196. Statement I : Higher the category, lower is the
d Wheat iv Hominidae
difficulty of determining the relationship to other
taxa at same level.
1) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i 2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
Statement II : Classes comprising animals like fish,
3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv 4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv amphibians, reptiles etc. constitute the next higher
Ans. (1) category called division. [ Pg. 10, 3rd Para]
193. Statement I : Reproduction cannot be considered 1) Statement I is correct II is incorrect
as defining property of living organisms.
Statement II : There are many living organisms
which do not reproduce. e.g. mules, workers bees 3) Both statements are correct
etc. [ Pg. 4] 4) Both statements are incorrect
1) Both statement I and II are incorrect Ans. (4)
2) Statement I is correct but statement II is 197. i. Increase in mass & increase in size are twin
incorrect characters of growth. [ Pg. 3, Last line]
3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
ii. In plants growth occurs continuously
correct
throught life span. [ Pg. 4, 1st line]
4) Both statement I and II are correct
iii. In animals growth in seen only upto certain
Ans. (4) age. [ Pg. 4, 3rd line]
194. Assertion: Taxon and category are different
iv. A dead organism do not grow.
things.
[ Pg. 4, 1st Para, Last line]
Reason : Category shows hierarchical
classification. [ Pg. 18] Find out incorrect statement.
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the 1) ii
correct explanation of (A) 2) iii
2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct 3) iv
3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
4) i
4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A) Ans. (4)
Ans. (4)
PCB TEST : 02(38) 29 Date : 09/12/2023

198. Find out correct statements. 200. Assertion : Growth cannot be taken as defining
i. Linnaeus used systema naturae as title of his property of living organism.
publication. [ Pg. 8, 3rd para] Reason : Non living objects also grow if we
ii. Systematics takes into accont evolutionary consider increase in number as criterion for
relationship between organisms. growth. [ Pg. 4, Line 12, 9]
[ Pg. 8] 1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
iii.All taxonomic category together constitute is correct explanation of Assertion.
taxonomic hierarchy. 2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason
iv. Each category represents a rank commonly is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
termed as taxon. [ Pg. 8] 3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
v. Each genus have only one specific epithet 4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
representing various organisms. Ans. (3)
[ Pg. 9, 12th line]
1) All except II 2) All except V
3) All except III 4) All are correct
Ans. (2)
199. Which of the below form basis of modern
taxonomic studies. [ Pg. 7, 8]
i) External and internal structure of organism.
ii) Structure of cell
iii) Development process
iv) Ecological information
1) i, ii, iv 2) i, iii, iv
3) ii, iii 4) i, ii, iii, iv
Ans. (4)
PCB TEST : 02(38) 30 Date : 09/12/2023

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Mark Group Target NEET-2023-24 (Round-I) Date : 09/12/2023

720 PCB Vijaypath Test Series-Test : 02(38) Time : 03 Hrs. 20 Mins.

Physics - 50 Chemistry - 50 Biology - 100

• Today’s Test Syllabus •

PHYSICS 3. Two cars A and B, start from x = 0 and x = –4,

PCB TEST : 02(38) 1 Date : 09/12/2023

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 02(38) 2 Date : 09/12/2023

(IV) In region DE, v is negative and acceleration 1) 90 km 2) 54 km

Space For Rough Work

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Uniform 23. Rain is falling vertically downward with a

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Reason : For the shortest time, the man needs to

Space For Rough Work

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1) Number of ribosomes per cell 1) Enzymes of photosynthesis

1) All possess (9 + 0) organization 1) 10 2) 1

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i. It is the extension of plasma membrane into by active transport.

3) diversity of kinds of organisms and their 1) Genus - Musca

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Physics - 50 Chemistry - 50 Biology - 100

• Today’s Test Syllabus •

PHYSICS Sol. (2):

Sol. (3): At what time they cross each other?

2. An object is moving in [ NCERT Page-52]

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[ NCERT Page-45] Sol. (3):

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(I) In OA region, both v and a are positive.

14. Assertion : Magnitude of average velocity is

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17. From a tower of height H, a particle is thrown

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22. A ball is dropped from a building of height