OIC - EW: COMPETENCE 6 Operate Electrical, 9 How is the frequency output of an operating 16 If the voltage and the current
the voltage and the current developed in an
Electronic and Control Systems
1 Ammeters and voltmeters used in sinusoidal AC
power systems indicate which of the following
values of the waveforms measured?
A. Peak value
B. Root-mean-square value
C. Average value
D. Maximum value
2 An accidental path of low resistance which by
passes the intended resistance and passes an
abnormal amount of current is known as what?
A. polarized ground
B. short circuit ground
C. reference point
D. open circuit
3 Besides voltage and frequency, what other factor
must be the same when alternators are operating
in parallel?
A. kilowatt load division
B. amperage load division
C. reactive load division
D. phases in synchronism
4 By what means is the division of the reactive kVAR
load between paralleled AC generators
automatically controlled?
A. prime mover governors
B. voltage regulators
C. phase balance relay
D. proportioner
5 By what mechanism does a reverse-power relay
prevent AC generator motorization?
A. automatically redirecting the load
B. automatically speeding up the prime
mover
C. tripping the panel board main switch
D. tripping the generator circuit breaker
6 Compared to the original wire, what will be the
resistance of a replacement wire having twice the
length and one-half the cross-sectional area of the
original?
A. four times that of the original wire
B. twice that of the original wire
C. the same as that of the original wire
D. one-half that of the original wire
7 Diesel generators #1 and #2 are operating in parallel
at near full load capacity. Diesel generator #1 suddenly
trips out mechanically due to low lube oil pressure.
The reverse power relay functions properly and trips
generator #1 electrically off the board. Which of the
following actions should you carry out FIRST?
A. Start the emergency generator
B. Ascertain cause of the low lube oil
pressure.
C. Strip the board of all non vital circuits.
D. Secure alarms, reset reverse power relay,
and restart #1 engine.
8 How are AC and DC generators are similar?
A. They both internally generate
alternating current voltages.
B. They both rectify the voltage before
delivery
C. They both operate at 60 cycles.
D. They both supply three- phase power.
alternator controlled?
A. relative speed of the rotating magnets
B. number of turns of wire in the armature
coil
C. strength of the magnets used
D. output voltage
10 How is the speed of the propeller shaft directly
coupled to an AC synchronous drive motor changed
when powered by either a dedicated or integrated
constant frequency alternator in an AC diesel-
electric drive system?
A. Varying the generator speed
B. Varying the number of motor poles
C. Varying the field strength of the
generator
D. Varying the output frequency of the
power converter
11 How will a molded-case circuit breaker with a
thermal trip unit react immediately after it has
tripped, as a result of an overloaded motor circuit?
A. The breaker cannot be reset to the ON
position until the thermal element cools
down.
B. The breaker handle will lock in the OFF
position.
C. The breaker handle will lock in the
TRIPPED position.
D. The thermal element must be replaced
after an overload trip has occurred
before it can be restored into service.
12 Humming or buzzing of electric contacts is a
symptom of what condition?
A. low voltage on the operating coil
B. power failure to the operating coil
C. a control circuit ground
D. a control circuit overload
13 If all three ground-detection lamps continue to
burn at equal intensity after the test button is
depressed and released, which of the listed
conditions is indicated?
A. No grounds exist
B. All three phases are grounded
C. The test switch is faulty T
D. the current transformers are shorted out
14 If the centrifugal switch or relay used for cutting
out the starting winding of a split-phase induction
motor fails to open once the motor is in operation,
what will be the result?
A. the motor will over speed
B. the starting winding will burn out
C. the motor will immediately stall under
load
D. the motor torque will be above normal
at rated speed
15 If the field current of a paralleled AC generator
is increased above normal, what will be the net
result to the VAR’s and power factor?
A. VAR’s will decrease and the power factor
will be more leading
B. VAR’s will increase and the power factor
will be more leading
C. VAR’s will decrease and the power factor
will be more lagging
D. VAR’s will increase and the power factor
will be more lagging
AC circuit reach their peak values at the same time
(with a phase angle difference of zero), what is the
power factor considered to be?
A. lagging
B. leading
C. unity (1.0)
17 In a diesel electric plant, raising the generator’s
field excitation current will have what effect on the
DC propulsion motor speed?
A. increase in speed
B. decrease in speed
C. affect generator speed only
D. affect main motor speed if done in
conjunction with higher generator
engine speeds
18 In a logic circuit, what statement is true
concerning how the NOR and NAND logic gates
function?
A. Both the NOR and NAND logic gates
must be used together in a logic circuit
and cannot be used individually.
B. Given the same inputs, the NOR and
NAND logic gates are the opposite of
each other in terms of outputs.
C. Given the same inputs, the NOR logic
gate has the opposite output from the
OR logic gate and similarly the NAND
logic gate has the opposite output from
the AND logic gate.
D. The NOR and NAND logic gates can be
used interchangeably.
19 In a shunt-wound DC generator, with what
generator component are the shunt field windings
connected in parallel with?
A. the interpoles
B. the armature circuit
C. the compensating windings
D. the series field winding
20 In an alternating current circuit, what factor of a
circuit will cause the inductive reactance to vary?
A. resistance ofthe circuit
B. frequency of the circuit
C. voltage of the circuit
D. current of the circuit
21 In an inductive-resistive circuit, what is the unit
of measure for power associated with just the
inductive aspects of the load?
A. kilovolt amps (kVA)
B. kilovolt amps reactive (kVAR)
C. kilovolts (kV)
D. kilowatts (kW)
22 A capacitor is to be tested with a digital
multimeter set up to measure ohms. If the meter is
connected to a shorted capacitor, how would the
meter display respond?
A. immediately display a value of OL which
remains at OL
B. immediately display a very low
resistance value which remains low
C. immediately display a value of OL with
the value then continuously dropping to
a low value
D. immediately display a very low
resistance with the value then
continuously rising to a value of OL
23 A current-carrying conductor making electrical
contact with a wiring conduit will be indicated by a
change on the switchboard from the norm.
Assuming that the distribution system is an
ungrounded system, what will change?
A. higher switch board wattmeter reading
than normal
B. totally dark switch board ground
detecting light
C. lower switch board wattmeter reading
than normal
D. higher volt meter reading than normal
24 A single-phase capacitor-start induction motor
starts, comes up to about 75% rated speed, slows
down to a lower speed, and accelerates again.
Where is the problem most likely to be?
A. starting winding
B. running winding
C. starting capacitor
D. running centrifugal switch
25 A thermal-magnetic circuit breaker for a 300 KW
alternator is rated at 500 amperes at full
continuous load. Which of the following conditions
will trip the breaker?
A. Sustained current draw of 450 amperes
for 2 hours.
B. Sustained current draw of 500 amperes
for 10 minutes.
C. Momentary current draw of 1000
amperes for 3 seconds.
D. Instantaneous current draw of 5,000
amperes.
26 According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J(Electrical
Engineering), the type of control circuit logic
associated with auxiliaries vital to the operation of
propulsion equipment, where automatic restart
after a voltage failure would not create a hazard, is
termed what?
A. low voltage protection
B. high amperage protection
C. low voltage release
D. high amperage release
27 An AC generator produces 60 Hz at1800 RPM. If
the generator speed is increased to 1830 RPM,
what will happen to the frequency in Hz?
A. decrease to 59 Hz
B. remain at 60 Hz
C. increase to 61 Hz
D. increase to 63 Hz
28 An electro-magnetic relay is most commonly
used for what purpose?
A. provide inductive power to a circuit
B. remotely open and close contacts by
action of a coil
C. provide transformer secondary winding
over current protection
D. provide capacitance to a circuit
29 An insulation resistance test is performed on a
particular piece of electric equipment. In addition
to the resistance reading and date of test, what
information listed below should be entered in the
electrical log?
A. The maximum al allowable operating
temperature of the machine.
B. The temperature of the machine at the
time the resistance reading was taken.
C. The normal temperature rise of the
machine.
D. The complete name plate data from the
resistance test instrument used to obtain
the reading.
30 At high discharge rates, why are nickel-cadmium
storage batteries superior to lead-acid batteries?
A. they require fewer cells for the same
voltage and less mounting space
B. they are able to produce higher voltages
and do not have to be charged as often
C. they can be charged and discharged
many times without much damage
D. they have no individual cells to replace at
the end of useful life
31 By what means does a molded-case circuit
breaker provides protection against short circuits?
A. use of a magnetic trip unit
B. use of a shading coil
C. use of an arc quencher
D. use of a bimetallic strip
32 By what means is the rotation of a three-phase
induction motor reversed?
A. interchanging any two of the three line
leads to the stator
B. disconnecting one of the three line leads
to the stator
C. switching the shunt field coil leads
D. permanently disconnecting any twoof
the three line leads to the stator
33 Compared to conventional alternators,
brushless alternators are designed to operate
without the use of what?
A. slip rings and commutators
B. exciters
C. voltage regulators
D. rectifiers
34 Consider a series circuit employing two resistors.
What is true about the resistance value of the
second resistor compared to the first when the
voltage drop across the first resistor is one half the
source voltage?
A. the second resistor has a resistance
value equal to that of the first
B. the second resistor has a resistance
value that is half ofthe first
C. the second resistor has a resistance
value double that of the first
D. the second resistor has a resistance
value relative to that of the first which
cannot be determined
35 D.C. propulsion motor brush pressure depends on
the brush grade used. In practice with what device is
the proper brush pressure established?
A. multi meter
B. manometer
C. spring scale
D. compound gauge
36 During discharge of a lead-acid storage battery,
which of the following actions occurs?
A. The acid becomes stronger.
B. Both plates change chemically to
ammonium chloride.
C. The acid becomes weaker
D. Hydrogen gas is liberated.
37 For what purpose are thermal strip heaters
provided in DC main propulsion motors?
A. prevent moisture buildup in windings
when motor is idle
B. maintain a relatively constant
temperature in the motor enclosure
C. prevent the rotor from warping while in
operation
D. provide an additional means of starting
resistance
38 How are the number of cycles per second
developed by the alternator aboard your vessel
determined?
A. the speed of the engine driving the
alternator
B. the resistance applied to the field rheostat
C. the synchronous speed of induction
D. the adjustments made to the voltage
regulator
39 How is the power factor of an AC generator
operating singularly determined?
A. the connected load
B. prime mover speed
C. the ground current
D. the generator’s rated voltage
40 How many possible states does a binary logic
circuit have?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
41 How would a DC ammeter designed to directly
measure current be connected?
A. in series with a circuit
B. in parallel with a circuit
C. with internal shunts only
D. without regard to polarity
42 If a DC motor runs faster than designed, with all
other conditions being normal, what could be the
possible cause?
A. open shunt field coil
B. open armature coil
C. reversed commutating pole
D. overload
43 If a magnetic controller relay fails to drop out
when the coil voltage is removed from the relay,
what is the probable cause?
A. excessive spring tension
B. over voltage
C. excessive current
D. welded contacts
44 If an unloaded DC compound motor’s shunt field
were weakened by excessive rheostat resistance or
by an open circuit, how would the motor respond?
A. over speed due to reduced CEMF
B. stop because of low flux
C. continue to run at base speed
D. slow down and overheat
45 If many turns of an alternating current coil for a
contactor become short circuited, what will happen
to the coil?
A. it will have a higher resistance value
B. it will probably burnout immediately
C. it will operate on reduced current
D. it will experience a temperature will drop
46 If the excitation of an alternator operating in
parallel is decreased below normal and the other
above normal, what will be the result on the
alternator with the excitation decreased below
normal?
A. power factor will change in the lagging
direction
B. power factor will change in the leading
direction
C. ampere load will be greatly increased
D. kilowatt load will be greatly decreased
47 Impressed current cathodic hull protection
systems are commonly used on modern vessels.
What are these systems designed to replace or
reduce?
A. electroplating of the hull
B. repeated painting of the hull
C. sacrificial zinc anodes
D. vacuum tube degaussing systems
48 In a logic circuit, how does a NOT gate function?
A. it does not alter the input logic condition
B. it serves to amplify a given signal level
C. it serves to attenuate a given signal level
D. it reverses the input logic condition
49 In a three-phase, wye-wye connected
transformer, what is the relationship between line
current and phase current?
A. the line current is equal to the phase
current
B. the line current is three times the phase
current
C. the line current is equal to the sum of
any two phase currents
D. the line current is equal to the difference
of any two phase currents
50 In the flow of one cycle of single phase alternating
current past any given point in a circuit, how many
times will the current peak to a maximum?
A. one time
B. two times
C. three times
D. four times
51 A capacitive AC circuit has fixed capacitors
connected in series. If the line voltage remains
constant, what factor can allow the capacitive
reactance of the circuit to be varied?
A. line frequency
B. resistance of the capacitors
C. order of the capacitors
D. polarity of the capacitors
52 A circuit that has a conductor in electrical
contact with the hull of a ship is called what?
A. grounded circuit
B. short circuit
C. series circuit
D. closed circuit
53 A generator has been exposed to water and
needs to be checked before it can be operated
safely. After performing the necessary procedures
for drying the generator, what test needs to be
performed before safe operation can resume?
A. check for shorted coils with a growler
B. take moisture readings with a
hydrometer
C. test insulation values with a megger
D. ground the commutator, or slip rings and
run it at half load for 12 hours
54 A main switchboard for an AC electrical
distribution system is different from a main
switchboard for a DC distribution system in that it
will be provided with which of the following
meters?
A. Frequency meter
B. Ammeter
C. Voltmeter
D. Kilowatt meter
55 A single-phase split-phase induction motor will
only start if you spin the rotor rapidly with the line
switch closed. After starting, its speed fluctuates
between very slow and half speed. What motor
component most likely is faulty?
A. starting winding
B. centrifugal mechanism
C. centrifugal switch
D. running winding
56 An electrical connection between the wiring of
an electric motor and its metal frame is known as
what?
A. eddy current
B. ground
C. impedance
D. flux leakage
57 A voltage amplifier has a calculated voltage gain
of 10. Which statement correctly states the gain?
A. If the input changes 1 volt, the output
changes 10 volts.
B. If the input changes 5 volts, the output
changes1/2 volt.
C. If the input changes 5 volts, the output
changes 15 volts.
D. If the input changes 10 volts, the output
changes25 volts.
58 AC circuits can possess characteristics of
resistance, inductance, and capacitance. In terms
of units of measure, how is the capacitive reactance
of the circuit expressed?
A. ohms
B. mhos
C. henrys
D. farads
59 According to the 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical
Engineering) requires which ofthe listed features to
open the power circuit to a motor due to low
voltage and re-close automatically when the
voltage is restored to normal?
A. Low voltage protection
B. 6 volt non-renewable link fuse
C. 12 volt renewable link fuse
D. Low voltage release
60 An AC generator operating in parallel loses its
excitation without tripping the circuit breaker.
What will be the result?
A. It will not affect the faulty generator due
to the compensation of the other
generators.
B. It will cause the slip rings to melt.
C. It will increase the output amperage
between the armature and the bus.
D. It will cause high currents to be induced
in the field and stator windings.
61 An accidental ground in a motor can be defined
as an electrical connection between the wiring of
the motor and what other aspect of the motor
installation?
A. supply fuses
B. circuit breaker
C. metal framework
D. contactor
62 An accidental path oflow resistance by passing
the intended path and allowing passage of an
abnormally high amount of current is known as
what?
A. open circuit
B. short circuit
C. polarized ground
D. ground reference point
63 An increase in which of the listed conditions will
increase the speed of a synchronous electric
motor?
A. Frequency
B. Voltage
C. Armature current
D. Inductance
64 As load is added to an AC generator provided
with constant field excitation, the prime mover
slows down. What immediate effect will this have
on frequency and voltage?
A. lowering frequency and lowering
generated voltage
B. increasing frequency and increasing
generated voltage
C. increasing frequency and lowering
generated voltage
D. lowering frequency and increasing
generated voltage
65 Besides voltage regulation, what is a function of
the voltage regulators used with AC generators?
A. To cut out generators when they are no
longer required.
B. To cut in additional generators
automatically as required.
C. To divide the kW load equally between
generators operating in parallel.
D. To divide the kVAR load equally between
generators operating in parallel.
66 By what means is a constant output voltage from
an AC generator maintained?
A. prime mover governor
B. exciter generator
C. voltage regulator
D. reverse power relay
67 By what means is the frequency of an alternator
adjusted from the main switchboard?
A. frequency meter
B. voltage regulator
C. governor control
D. sychroscope switch
68 By what means is the voltage of an operating AC
turbo generator raised or lowered?
A. exciter generator governor controls
B. synchronizing switch
C. phase sequence switch
D. generator field exciter
69 Capacitance is the property of an electric circuit
opposing a change in what value of a circuit?
A. current in the circuit
B. voltage in the circuit
C. inductance in the circuit
D. resistance in the circuit
70 Capacitors can be used in electric distribution
systems to improve power factor. This is
accomplished by seesawing energy between the
capacitor and what device or devices?
A. generator
B. inductive loads
C. resistive loads
D. capacitive loads
71 Compared to the fuse being replaced, what
should be the characteristic of the replacement
fuse for a fuse that blows often?
A. the recommended current and voltage
rating
B. higher current and voltage rating than
the fuse being replaced
C. higher current and lower voltage rating
than the fuse being replaced
D. lower current and higher voltage rating
than the fuse being replaced
72 Consider a series circuit employing two resistors.
What is true about the resistance value of the second
resistor compared to the first when the voltage drop
across the first resistor is one halfthe source voltage?
A. the second resistor has a resistance value
equal to that of the first
B. the second resistor has a resistance value
that is half of the first
C. the second resistor has a resistance value
double that of the first
D. the second resistor has a resistance value
relative to that of the first which cannot be
determined
73 Consider a three-phase squirrel cage induction
motor rated at 450 VAC and60 Hz. What would
happen to the motor if the line frequency dropped
from the normally supplied 60 Hz to 55 Hz and the
voltage remained normal at 450 VAC.
A. run at a slower speed
B. operate at a lower current
C. vibrate excessively
D. trip off the line
74 DC generator circuits are protected against
malfunctions due to prime mover power loss by the
use of what device (or devices)?
A. main bus disconnect links
B. a separate battery backup
C. reverse current relays
D. reverse power relays
75 Due to the operating characteristics of the
system, time lag fuses (or dual- element fuses) are
necessary for use in what types of circuits?
A. main lighting circuits
B. motor starting circuit
C. emergency lighting circuits
D. general alarm circuits
76 Electrical wire in general, when used aboard
vessels must meet minimum requirements. Which
of the following statements is/are correct?
A. Each wire must be14 AWG or larger,
regardless of locations and use.
B. Wire must be of the stranded copper
type.
C. Wire must be of the solid copper type.
D. Wire need not be in an enclosure nor
component insulated.
77 How are AC and DC generators are similar?
A. They both internally generate
alternating current voltages.
B. They both rectify the current before
delivery.
C. They are both constructed at the same
physical size for the same kilowatt rating.
D. They both internally produce three-
phase power.
78 How are fuses rated?
A. voltage and amperage only
B. amperage only
C. interrupting capacity only
D. voltage, amperage, and interrupting
capacity
79 How are the field windings of a DC shunt
generator connected?
A. in series with the series windings
B. in parallel with the field rheostat
C. in series with the armature windings
D. in parallel with the armature windings
80 How are the line losses in a distribution circuit
kept to a minimum?
A. adding rubber insulation conductors to
the circuit
B. using higher current and lower voltage
C. increasing the number of thermal relays
in the circuit
D. using higher voltage and lower current
81 How is the full-load (rated) torque of an
induction motor defined?
a. minimum torque developed by the
motor accelerating from rest to the
speed at which breakdown torque
occurs
b. torque developed by the motor
operating at rated horsepower, speed,
and frequency
c. maximum torque developed by an
overloaded motor with rated voltage
and frequency with appreciable drop in
speed
d. torque developed by the motor at the
instant voltage is applied to the motor at
startup
82 How is the output voltage of a 440 volt, 60 hertz,
AC generator controlled?
a. varying the prime mover speed
b. varying the strength of the excitation
field
c. varying the load on the alternator
d. varying the number of poles
e.
83 How is the rated temperature rise of an electric
motor defined?
a. average temperature at any given
latitude
b. normal temperature rise above the
standard ambient temperature at rated
load
c. average temperature rise due to
resistance at 10% overload
d. permissible difference in the ambient
temperature of the motor due to existing
weather conditions
84 How many cells are within a twelve volt lead acid
battery?
a. one cell
b. three cells
c. six cells
d. twelve cells
85 How should the shunt of a DC ammeter be
connected?
A. in series with the load and in parallel
with the meter movement
B. in parallel with the load and in series
with the meter movement in parallel
with the load and
C. in parallel with the meter movement in
series with the load and
D. in series with the meter movement
86 How will the value of the output frequency
change if the load is removed from a turbo
generator having a governor speed droop setting of
3%?
A. It will remain unchanged
B. It will decrease by approximately 3%.
C. It will become variable.
D. It will increase.
87 How would you increase the frequency of an
operating AC generator?
A. increase the field excitation
B. decrease the field excitation
C. increase the number of magnetic poles
D. increase the speed of the prime mover
88 Hysteresis is one cause of electrical power loss
associated with electricity generation equipment.
What phenomenon results in hysteresis?
A. arcing at the brushes
B. pulsating terminal current
C. heat generated by magnetic polarity
reversals
D. excessive field current
89 If a magnetic controller contact fails to pick up
when the operating coil is energized, what could be
one possible cause?
A. low spring pressure
B. low applied voltage to the coil
C. residual magnetism of the contact faces
D. dirty contact faces
90 If a short circuit in the armature of a DC motor
occurs what would be the result?
A. run fast
B. hum when energized
C. spark at the brushes
D. fail to start
91 If an electric motor fails to start, what should
you check FIRST?
A. phase sequence
B. motor winding
C. resistances fuses or circuit breaker as
applicable
D. line frequency
92 If field excitation is suddenly lost to an alternator
operating in parallel with another alternator, what
will happen to the alternator that has experienced
a loss of field excitation?
A. It will supply excessive current to the
bus.
B. It will operate at the same load, but with
reduced voltage.
C. It will lose its load and tend to over
speed.
D. It will become overloaded and slow
down.
93 If the contacts of a motor starter or controller
fail to drop out when the ’stop’ button is depressed,
what could be the cause?
A. stop contacts are carrying insufficient
current
B. stop contacts have become welded
together
C. starter shading coil is broken
D. starter shading coil is loose
94 If the field excitation is increased to one of two
alternators operating in parallel and decreased on
the other, what will be the result on the alternator
with the field excitation increased?
A. the power factor will change in the
lagging direction
B. the power factor will change in the
leading direction
C. the kilowatt load will be greatly
increased
D. the ampere load will be greatly
decreased
95 If you hear a loud buzzing noise coming from a 102 In addition to testing the calibration of a circuit
magnetic motor controller, what should you do? breaker, what additional maintenance should be
A. assume that the motor is operating at a routinely performed?
full load A. changing out of magnetic elements
B. assume that the controller is operating yearly as appropriate
normally B. changing out of bimetallic elements
C. notify the electrician or watch engineer yearly as appropriate
of the problem C. performing an external visual inspection
D. feel the outside of the casing with your D. complete disassembly to perform an
hand to see if it is hot internal inspection
96 In a basic AC induction motor, by what means 103 In an impressed current cathodic protection
are rotor currents induced in the rotor? system, concerning the anodes associated with the
A. a bridge rectifier hull, what statement is true?
B. an armature and brushes A. The anodes are connected to the hull
C. magnetically by the rotating stator field and waste away with time.
D. external variable resistors B. The anodes are insulated from the hull
and do not waste away with time.
97 In a dual element time-delay cartridge-type C. The anodes are connected to the hull
fuse, what type of protection is provided for motor and do not waste away with time.
applications? D. The anodes are insulated from the hull
A. short-circuit protection using a fusible and waste away with time.
link only
B. sustained overload protection using a 104 In general, why are nickel-cadmium storage
spring loaded soldered joint only batteries superior to lead-acid batteries?
C. short-circuit protection using a spring A. they put out higher voltages and require
loaded soldered joint AND sustained no maintenance
overload protection using a fusible link B. they can remain idle and keep a full
D. short-circuit protection using a fusible charge for a long time
link AND sustained overload protection C. they need fewer cells in series and use
using a spring loaded soldered joint less mounting space
D. they are less costly to replace
98 In a rectified DC diesel electric plant, raising the
AC generator’s field excitation current will have
what effect on the DC propulsion motor?
A. increase in speed
B. decrease in speed
C. operate with a lower power factor
D. operate with a higher power factor
99 In a series circuit what is the total applied
voltage equal to?
A. the sum of the individual voltage drops
B. the total resistance divided by the total
current
C. the sum of the individual currents
multiplied by the number of resistors
D. the total current divided by the total
resistance
100 In a short-shunt cumulatively compound
wound DC motor, how is the shunt field connected?
A. in parallel with the armature
B. in parallel with the armature and series
field
C. in series with the armature
D. in series with the armature and series
field
101 In a single element cartridge-type fuse, what
type of protection is provided for lighting and
general power applications?
A. sustained overload protection using a
fusible link
B. sustained overload protection using a
spring loaded soldered joint
C. short-circuit protection using a fusible
link
D. short-circuit protection using a spring
loaded soldered joint
OIC - EW: COMPETENCE 7 Maintenance and Repair
of Electronic and Electrical Equipment
1 An electro-magnetic relay is most commonly used
for what purpose?
A. provide inductive power to a circuit
B. remotely open and close contacts by
action of a coil
C. provide transformer secondary winding
over current protection
D. provide capacitance to a circuit
2 As load is added to an AC generator provided with
constant field excitation, the prime mover slows
down. What immediate effect will this have on
frequency and voltage?
A. lowering frequency and lowering
generated voltage
B. lowering frequency and lowering
generated voltage
C. increasing frequency and lowering
generated voltage
D. lowering frequency and increasing
generated voltage
3 By what means is the division of the reactive kVAR
load between paralleled AC generators
automatically controlled?
A. prime mover governors
B. voltage regulators
C. phase balance relay
D. proportioner
4 Compared to the fuse being replaced, what
should be the characteristic ofthe replacement fuse
for a fuse that blows often?
A. the recommended current and voltage
rating
B. higher current and voltage rating than
the fuse being replaced
C. higher current and lower voltage rating
than the fuse being replaced
D. lower current and higher voltage rating
than the fuse being replaced
5 Consider a three-phase squirrel cage induction
motor rated at 450 VAC and60 Hz. What would
happen to the motor if the line frequency dropped
from the normally supplied 60 Hz to 55 Hz and the
voltage remained normal at 450 VAC.
A. run at a slower speed
B. operate at a lower current
C. vibrate excessively
D. trip of fthe line
6 For what purpose are thermal strip heaters provided
in DC main propulsion motors?
A. prevent moisture buildup in windings when
motor is idle
B. maintain a relatively constant temperature
in the motor enclosure
C. prevent the rotor from warping while in
operation
D. provide an additional means of starting
resistance
7 How is the frequency output of an operating
alternator controlled?
A. relative speed of the rotating magnets
B. number of turns of wire in the armature
coil
C. strength of the magnets used
D. output voltage
8 How is the speed of the propeller shaft directly
coupled to an AC synchronous drive motor changed
when powered by either a dedicated or integrated
constant frequency alternator in an AC diesel-
electric drive system?
A. Varying the generator speed
B. Varying the number of motor poles
C. Varying the field strength of the
generator
D. Varying the output frequency of the
power converter
9 How would a DC ammeter designed to directly
measure current be connected?
A. in series with a circuit
B. in parallel with a circuit
C. with internal shunts only
D. without regard to polarity
10 If a magnetic controller contact fails to pick up
when the operating coil is energized, what could be
one possible cause?
A. low spring pressure
B. low applied voltage to the coil
C. residual magnetism of the contact faces
D. dirty contact faces
11 If many turns of an alternating current coil for a
contactor become short circuited, what will happen
to the coil?
A. it will have a higher resistance value
B. it will probably burnout immediately
C. it will operate on reduced current
D. it will experience a temperature will drop
12 If you hear a loud buzzing noise coming from a
magnetic motor controller, what should you do?
A. assume that the motor is operating at a
full load
B. assume that the controller is operating
normally
C. notify the electrician or watch engineer
of the problem
D. feel the outside of the casing with your
hand to see if it is hot
13 In a logic circuit, how does a NOT gate function?
A. it does not alter the input logic condition
B. it serves to amplify a given signal level
C. it serves to attenuate a given signal level
D. it reverses the input logic condition
14 In a shunt-wound DC generator, with what
generator component are the shunt field windings
connected in parallel with?
A. the interpoles
B. the armature circuit
C. the compensating windings
D. the series field winding
15 In an inductive-resistive circuit, what is the unit
of measure for power associated with just the
inductive aspects of the load?
A. kilovolt amps (kVA)
B. kilovolt amps reactive (kVAR)
C. kilovolts (kV)
D. kilowatts (kW)
16 A single-phase capacitor-start induction motor
starts, comes up to about 75% rated speed, slows
down to a lower speed, and accelerates again.
Where is the problem most likely to be?
A. starting winding
B. running winding
C. starting capacitor
D. running centrifugal switch
17 A voltage amplifier has a calculated voltage gain
of 10. Which statement correctly states the gain?
A. If the input changes 1 volt, the output
changes 10 volts.
B. If the input changes 5 volts, the output
changes1/2 volt.
C. If the input changes 5 volts, the output
changes 15 volts.
D. If the input changes 10 volts, the output
changes25 volts.
18 According to 46 CFR, Subchapter J(Electrical
Engineering), the type of control circuit logic
associated with auxiliaries vital to the operation of
propulsion equipment, where automatic restart
after a voltage failure would not create a hazard, is
termed what?
A. low voltage protection
B. high amperage protection
C. low voltage release
D. high amperage release
19 An AC generator produces 60 Hz at1800 RPM. If
the generator speed is increased to 1830 RPM,
what will happen to the frequency in Hz?
A. decrease to 59 Hz
B. remain at 60 Hz
C. increase to 61 Hz
D. increase to 63 Hz
20 An accidental path oflow resistance by passing
the intended path and allowing passage of an
abnormally high amount of current is known as
what?
A. open circuit
B. short circuit
C. polarized ground
D. ground reference point
21 Besides voltage and frequency, what other
factor must be the same when alternators are
operating in parallel?
A. kilowatt load division
B. amperage load division
C. reactive load division
D. phases in synchronism
22 By what means is the voltage of an operating AC
turbo generator raised or lowered?
A. exciter generator governor controls
B. synchronizing switch
C. phase sequence switch
D. generator field exciter
23 Capacitors can be used in electric distribution
systems to improve power factor. This is
accomplished by seesawing energy between the
capacitor and what device or devices?
A. generator
B. inductive loads
C. resistive loads
D. capacitive loads
24 Consider a series circuit employing two resistors.
What is true about the resistance value of the second
resistor compared to the first when the voltage drop
across the first resistor is one half the source voltage?
A. the second resistor has a resistance value
equal to that of the first
B. the second resistor has a resistance value
that is half of the first
C. the second resistor has a resistance value
double that of the first
D. the second resistor has a resistance value
relative to that of the first which cannot be
determined
25 DC generator circuits are protected against
malfunctions due to prime mover power loss by the
use of what device (or devices)?
A. main bus disconnect links
B. a separate battery backup
C. reverse current relays
D. reverse power relays
26 Due to the operating characteristics of the
system, time lag fuses (or dual-element fuses) are
necessary for use in what types of circuits?
A. main lighting circuits
B. motor starting circuit
C. emergency lighting circuits
D. general alarm circuits
27 Electrical wire in general, when used aboard
vessels must meet minimum requirements. Which
of the following statements is/are correct?
A. Each wire must be14 AWG or larger,
regardless of locations and use.
B. Wire must be of the stranded copper
type.
C. Wire must be of the solid copper type.
D. Wire need not be in an enclosure nor
component insulated.
28 How are AC and DC generators are similar?
A. They both internally generate
alternating current voltages.
B. They both rectify the voltage before
delivery
C. They both operate eat 60 cycles.
D. They both supply three- phase power.
29 How are the line losses in a distribution circuit
kept to a minimum?
A. adding rubber insulation conductors to
the circuit
B. using higher current and lower voltage
C. increasing the number of thermal relays
in the circuit
D. using higher voltage and lower current
30 How is the full-load (rated) torque of an induction
motor defined?
A. minimum torque developed by the motor
accelerating from rest to the speed at
which breakdown torque occurs
B. torque developed by the motor operating
at rated horsepower, speed, and frequency
C. maximum torque developed by an
overloaded motor with rated voltage and
frequency with appreciable drop in speed
D. torque developed by the motor at the
instant voltage is applied to the motor at
startup
31 How is the rated temperature rise of an electric
motor defined?
A. average temperature at any given
latitude
B. normal temperature rise above the
standard ambient temperature at rated
load
C. average temperature rise due to
resistance at 10% overload
D. permissible difference in the ambient
temperature of the motor due to existing
weather conditions
32 How many possible states does a binary logic
circuit have?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
33 How will the value of the output frequency
change if the load is removed from a turbo
generator having a governor speed droop setting of
3%?
A. It will remain unchanged
B. It will decrease by approximately 3%.
C. It will become variable.
D. It will increase.
34 Humming or buzzing of electric contacts is a
symptom of what condition?
A. low voltage on the operating coil
B. power failure to the operating coil
C. a control circuit ground
D. a control circuit overload
35 If a short circuit in the armature of a DC motor
occurs what would be the result?
A. run fast
B. hum when energized
C. spark at the brushes
D. fail to start
36 If an electric motor fails to start, what should
you check FIRST?
A. phase sequence
B. motor winding resistances
C. fuses or circuit breaker as applicable
D. line frequency
37 If field excitation is suddenly lost to an alternator
operating in parallel with another alternator, what
will happen to the alternator that has experienced
a loss of field excitation?
A. It will supply excessive current to the
bus.
B. It will operate at the same load, but with
reduced voltage.
C. It will lose its load and tend to over
speed.
D. It will become overloaded and slow
down.
38 If the contacts of a motor starter or controller
fail to drop out when the ’stop’ button is depressed,
what could be the cause?
A. stop contacts are carrying insufficient
current
B. stop contacts have become welded
together
C. starter shading coil is broken
D. starter shading coil is loose
39 If the field excitation is increased to one of two
alternators operating in parallel and decreased on
the other, what will be the result on the alternator
with the field excitation increased?
A. the power factor will change in the
lagging direction
B. the power factor will change in the
leading direction
C. the kilowatt load will be greatly
increased
D. the ampere load will be greatly
decreased
40 In a basic AC induction motor, by what means
are rotor currents induced in the rotor?
A. a bridge rectifier
B. an armature and brushes
C. magnetically by the rotating stator field
D. external variable resistors
41 In a dual element time-delay cartridge-type
fuse, what type of protection is provided for motor
applications?
A. short-circuit protection using a fusible
link only
B. sustained overload protection using a
spring loaded soldered joint only
C. short-circuit protection using a spring
loaded soldered joint AND sustained
overload protection using a fusible link
D. short-circuit protection using a fusible
link AND sustained overload protection
using a spring loaded soldered joint
42 In a short-shunt cumulatively compound wound
DC motor, how is the shuntfield connected?
A. in parallel with the armature
B. in parallel with the armature and series
field
C. in series with the armature
D. in series with the armature and series
field
43 In a three-phase, wye-wye connected
transformer, what is the relationship between line
current and phase current?
A. the line current is equal to the phase
current
B. the line current is three times the phase
current
C. the line current is equal to the sum of
any two phase currents
D. the line current is equal to the difference
of any two phase currents
44 In an impressed current cathodic protection
system, concerning the anodes associated with the
hull, what statement is true?
The anodes are connected to the hull and waste
away with time.
A. The anodes are insulated from the hull
and do not waste away with time.
B. The anodes are connected to the hull
and do not waste away with time.
C. The anodes are insulated from the hull
and waste away with time.
45 In the flow of one cycle of single phase 52 By what means is the rotation of a three-phase 59 An insulation resistance test is performed on a
alternating current past any given point in a circuit, induction motor reversed? particular piece of electric equipment. In addition
how many times will the current peak to a A. interchanging any two of the three line to the resistance reading and date oftest, what
maximum? leads to the stator information listed below should be entered in the
A. one time B. disconnecting one of the three line leads electrical log?
B. two times to the stator A. The maximum al allowable operating
C. three times C. switching the shunt field coil leads temperature of the machine.
D. four times D. permanently disconnecting any two of B. The temperature of the machine at the
the three line leads to the stator time the resistance reading was taken.
46 A main switchboard for an AC electrical C. The normal temperature rise of the
distribution system is different from a main 53 How many cells are within a twelve volt lead acid machine.
switchboard for a DC distribution system in that it battery? D. The complete name plate data from the
will be provided with which of the following A. one cell resistance test instrument used to obtain
meters? B. three cells the reading.
A. Frequency meter C. six cells
B. Ammeter D. twelve cells 60 At high discharge rates, why are nickel-cadmium
C. Voltmeter storage batteries superior to lead-acid batteries?
D. Kilowatt meter 54 According to the 46 CFR, Subchapter J (Electrical A. they require fewer cells for the same
Engineering) requires which ofthe listed features to voltage and less mounting space
47 A single-phase split-phase induction motor will open the power circuit to a motor due to low B. they are able to produce higher voltages
only start if you spin the rotor rapidly with the line voltage and re-close automatically when the and do not have to be charged as often
switch closed. After starting, its speed fluctuates voltage is restored to normal? C. they can be charged and discharged
between very slow and halfspeed. What motor A. Low voltage protection many times without much damage
component most likely is faulty? B. 6 volt non-renewable link fuse D. they have no individual cells to replace at
A. starting winding C. 12 volt renewable link fuse the end of useful life
B. centrifugal mechanism D. Low voltage release
C. centrifugal switch 61 Besides voltage regulation, what is a function of
D. running winding 55 An AC generator operating in parallel loses its the voltage regulators used with AC generators?
excitation without tripping the circuit breaker. A. To cut out generators when they are no
48 A thermal-magnetic circuit breaker for a 300 KW What will be the result? longer required.
alternator is rated at 500 amperes at full A. It will not affect the faulty generator due B. To cut in additional generators
continuous load. Which of the following conditions to the compensation of the other automatically as required.
will trip the breaker? generators. C. To divide the kW load equally between
A. Sustained current draw of 450 amperes B. It will cause the slip rings to melt. It will generators operating in parallel.
for 2 hours. increase the output amperage between D. To divide the kVAR load equally between
B. Sustained current draw of 500 amperes the armature and the bus. generators operating in parallel.
for 10 minutes. C. It will cause high currents to be induced
C. Momentary current draw of 1000 in the field and stator windings. 62 By what means does a molded-case circuit
amperes for 3 seconds. breaker provides protection against short circuits?
D. Instantaneous current draw of 5,000 56 An accidental ground in a motor can be defined A. use of a magnetic trip unit
amperes. as an electrical connection between the wiring of B. use of a shading coil
the motor and what other aspect of the motor C. use of an arc quencher
49 AC circuits can possess characteristics of installation? D. use of a bimetallic strip
resistance, inductance, and capacitance. In terms A. supply fuses
of units of measure, how is the capacitive reactance B. circuit breaker 63 By what means is a constant output voltage from
of the circuit expressed? C. metal framework an AC generator maintained?
A. ohms D. contactor A. prime mover governor
B. mhos B. exciter generator
C. henrys 57 An accidental path oflow resistance which by C. voltage regulator
D. farads passes the intended resistance and passes an D. reverse power relay
abnormal amount of current is known as what?
50 Ammeters and voltmeters used in sinusoidal AC A. polarized ground 64 By what means is the frequency of an alternator
power systems indicate which ofthe following B. short circuit adjusted from the main switchboard?
values ofthe waveforms measured? C. ground reference point A. frequency meter
A. Peak value D. open circuit B. voltage regulator
B. Root-mean-square value C. governor control
C. Average value 58 An increase in which of the listed conditions will D. sychroscope switch
D. Maximum value increase the speed of a synchronous electric
motor? 65 By what mechanism does a reverse-power relay
51 An electrical connection between the wiring of A. Frequency prevent AC generator motorization?
an electric motor and its metal frame is known as B. Voltage A. automatically redirecting the load
what? C. Armature current B. automatically speeding up the prime
A. eddy current D. Inductance mover
B. ground C. tripping the panel board main switch
C. impedance D. tripping the generator circuit breaker
D. flux leakage
66 Capacitance is the property of an electric circuit
opposing a change in what value of a circuit?
A. current in the circuit
B. voltage in the circuit
C. inductance in the circuit
D. resistance in the circuit
67 Compared to conventional alternators,
brushless alternators are designed to operate
without the use of what?
A. slip rings and commutators
B. exciters
C. voltage regulators
D. rectifiers
68 Compared to the original wire, what will be the
resistance of a replacement wire having twice the
length and one-halfthe cross-sectional area of the
original?
A. four times that of the original wire
B. twice that of the original wire
C. the same as that of the original wire
D. one-half that of the original wire
69 Consider a series circuit employing two resistors.
What is true about the resistance value of the
second resistor compared to the first when the
voltage drop across the first resistor is one halfthe
source voltage?
A. the second resistor has a resistance
value equal to that of the first
B. the second resistor has a resistance
value that is half of the first
C. the second resistor has a resistance
value double that of the first
D. the second resistor has a resistance
value relative to that of the first which
cannot be determined
70 D.C. propulsion motor brush pressure depends
on the brush grade used. In practice with what
device is the proper brush pressure established?
A. multi meter
B. manometer
C. spring scale
D. compound gauge
71 Diesel generators #1 and #2 are operating in
parallel at near full load capacity. Diesel generator
#1 suddenly trips out mechanically due to low lube
oil pressure. The reverse power relay functions
properly and trips generator #1 electrically off the
board. Which of the following actions should you
carry out FIRST?
A. Start the emergency generator
B. Ascertain cause of the low lube oil
pressure.
C. Strip the board of all non vital circuits.
D. Secure alarms, reset reverse power relay,
and restart #1 engine.
72 During discharge of a lead-acid storage battery,
which of the following actions occurs?
A. The acid becomes stronger.
B. Both plates change chemically to
ammonium chloride.
C. The acid becomes weaker
D. Hydrogen gas is liberated.
73 How are AC and DC generators are similar?
A. They both internally generate
alternating current voltages.
B. They both rectify the current before
delivery.
C. They are both constructed at the same
physical size for the same kilowatt rating.
D. They both internally produce three-
phase power.
74 How are fuses rated?
A. voltage and amperage only
B. amperage only
C. interrupting capacity only
D. voltage, amperage, and interrupting
capacity
75 How are the field windings of a DC shunt
generator connected?
A. in series with the series windings
B. in parallel with the field rheostat
C. in series with the armature windings
D. in parallel with the armature windings
76 How are the number of cycles per second
developed by the alternator aboard your vessel
determined?
A. the speed of the engine driving the
alternator
B. the resistance applied to the field
rheostat
C. the synchronous speed of induction
D. the adjustments made to the voltage
regulator
77 How is the output voltage of a 440 volt, 60 hertz,
AC generator controlled?
varying the prime mover speed
varying the strength ofthe excitation field
varying the load on the alternator
varying the number of poles
78 How is the power factor of an AC generator
operating singularly determined?
A. the connected load
B. prime mover speed
C. the ground current
D. the generator’s rated voltage
79 How should the shunt of a DC ammeter be
connected?
A. in series with the load and in parallel
with the meter movement
B. in parallel with the load and in series
with the meter movement
C. in parallel with the load and in parallel
with the meter movement
D. in series with the load and in series with
the meter movement
80 How will a molded-case circuit breaker with a
thermal trip unit react immediately after it has
tripped, as a result of an overloaded motor circuit?
A. The breaker cannot be reset to the ON
position until the thermal element cools
down.
B. The breaker handle will lock in the OFF
position.
C. The breaker handle will lock in the
TRIPPED position.
D. The thermal element must be replaced
after an overload trip has occurred
before it can be restored into service.
81 How would you increase the frequency of an
operating AC generator?
A. increase the field excitation
B. decrease the field excitation
C. increase the number of magnetic poles
D. increase the speed of the prime mover
82 Hysteresis is one cause of electrical power loss
associated with electricity generation equipment.
What phenomenon results in hysteresis?
A. arcing at the brushes
B. pulsating terminal current
C. heat generated by magnetic polarity
reversals
D. excessive field current
83 If a DC motor runs faster than designed, with all
other conditions being normal, what could be the
possible cause?
A. open shunt field coil
B. open armature coil
C. reversed commutating pole
D. overload.
84 If a magnetic controller relay fails to drop out
when the coil voltage is removed from the relay,
what is the probable cause?
A. excessive spring
B. tension over voltage
C. excessive current
D. welded contacts
85 If all three ground-detection lamps continue to
burn at equal intensity after the test button is
depressed and released, which of the listed
conditions is indicated?
A. No grounds exist
B. All three phases are grounded
C. The test switch is faulty
D. The current transformers are shorted
out
86 If an unloaded DC compound motor’s shunt field
were weakened by excessive rheostat resistance or
by an open circuit, how would the motor respond?
A. over speed due to reduced CEMF
B. stop because of low flux
C. continue to run at base speed
D. slow down and overheat
87 If the centrifugal switch or relay used for cutting
out the starting winding of a split-phase induction
motor fails to open once the motor is in operation,
what will be the result?
A. the motor will over speed
B. the starting winding will burn out
C. the motor will immediately stall under
load
D. the motor torque will be above normal
at rated speed
88 If the excitation of an alternator operating in
parallel is decreased below normal and the other
above normal, what will be the result on the
alternator with the excitation decreased below
normal?
A. power factor will change in the lagging
direction
B. power factor will change in the leading
direction
C. ampere load will be greatly increased
D. kilowatt load will be greatly decreased
89 If the field current of a paralleled AC generator
is increased above normal, what will be the net
result to the VAR’s and power factor?
A. VAR’s will decrease and the power factor
will be more leading
B. VAR’s will increase and the power factor
will be more leading
C. VAR’s will decrease and the power factor
will be more lagging
D. VAR’s will increase and the power factor
will be more lagging
90 If the voltage and the current developed in an
AC circuit reach their peak values at the same time
(with a phase angle difference of zero), what is the
power factor considered to be?
A. lagging
B. leading
C. unity (1.0)
D. infinity
91 Impressed current cathodic hull protection
systems are commonly used on modern vessels.
What are these systems designed to replace or
reduce?
A. electroplating of the hull
B. repeated painting of the hull
C. sacrificial zinc anodes
D. vacuum tube degaussing systems
92 In a diesel electric plant, raising the generator’s
field excitation current will have what effect on the
DC propulsion motor speed?
A. increase in speed
B. decrease in speed
C. affect generator speed only
D. affect main motor speed if done in
conjunction with higher generator
engine speeds
93 In a logic circuit, what statement is true
concerning how the NOR and NAND logic gates
function?
A. Both the NOR and NAND logic gates
must be used together in a logic circuit
and cannot be used individually.
B. Given the same inputs, the NOR and
NAND logic gates are the opposite of
each other in terms of outputs.
C. Given the same inputs, the NOR logic
gate has the opposite output from the
OR logic gate and similarly the NAND
logic gate has the opposite output from
the AND logic gate.
D. The NOR and NAND logic gates can be
used interchangeably.
94 In a rectified DC diesel electric plant, raising the
AC generator’s field excitation current will have
what effect on the DC propulsion motor?
A. increase in speed
B. decrease in speed
C. operate with a lower power factor
D. operate with a higher power factor
95 In a series circuit what is the total applied
voltage equal to?
A. the sum of the individual voltage drops
B. the total resistance divided by the total
current
C. the sum of the individual currents
multiplied by the number of resistors
D. the total current divided by the total
resistance
96 In a single element cartridge-type fuse, what
type of protection is provided for lighting and
general power applications?
A. sustained overload protection using a
fusible link
B. sustained overload protection using a
spring loaded soldered joint
C. short-circuit protection using a fusible
link
D. short-circuit protection using a spring
loaded soldered joint
97 In addition to testing the calibration of a circuit
breaker, what additional maintenance should be
routinely performed?
A. changing out of magnetic elements
yearly as appropriate
B. changing out of bimetallic elements
yearly as appropriate
C. performing an external visual inspection
D. complete disassembly to perform an
internal inspection
98 In an alternating current circuit, what factor of a
circuit will cause the inductive reactance to vary?
A. resistance of the circuit
B. frequency of the circuit
C. voltage of the circuit
D. current of the circuit
99 In general, why are nickel-cadmium storage
batteries superior to lead-acid batteries?
A. they put out higher voltages and require
no maintenance
B. they can remain idle and keep a full
charge for a long time
C. they need fewer cells in series and use
less mounting space
D. they are less costly to replace
OIC - EW: COMPETENCE 8 Appropriate Use of Hand
Tools, Machine Tools and Measuring Instruments
for Fabrication and Repair on Board
1 An increase in the pressure drop between the
inlet and outlet of the feed water heater waterside,
not due to a waterside obstruction, would indicate:
A. insufficient water velocity through the
heater
B. water flow rate higher than feed water
heater design limits
C. fouling of the heater steam side
D. an accumulation of noncondensable
gases in the steam circuit
2 Ferrous metals are metals containing:
A. a large percentage of copper
B. a large percentage of aluminum
C. a large percentage of iron
D. no iron
3 If your ship burns 3 tons of fuel per hour at 19
knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 15
knots?
A. 1.5 tons
B. 1.9 tons
C. 2.4 tons
D. 5.3 tons
4 If your ship burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at 15
knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 21
knots?
A. 20.3 tons
B. 22.0 tons
C. 26.1 tons
D. 29.4 tons
9 What is the theoretical lift of a pump handling 18 A roller bearing should normally be filled to what
fresh water at atmospheric pressure? fraction of its space cavity?
A. 10.35 m A. Less than 1/4
B. 101.35 m B. 1/3 to 1/2
C. 14.7 m C. 1/2 to 3/4
D. 1.02 m D. More than 3/4
10 When knurling a piece of work on a lathe, it is 19 A wear resulting from the grinding action of
important to: abrasive contaminants on the oil:
A. operate the lathe at the slowest speed A. Corrosive
B. use plenty of oil B. Adhesive
C. mount the knurling tool securely in the C. Cohesive
tool post D. Abrasive
D. all of the above
20 An 8" diameter wheel is driving a 20" diameter
11 When using a hand held hacksaw the correct wheel via a pair of belts The power input is supplied
maximum rate of speed for cutting should be: by a 5 HP motor rotating the driving wheel at 300
A. 10 to 20 strokes per minute RPM. If the efficiency of the supplied by a 5 HP
B. 80 to 100 strokes per minute motor rotating the driving wheel at 300 RPM. If the
C. 40 to 50 strokes per minute efficiency of the transmission is 80%, what RPM
D. 70 to 80 strokes per minute and torque is delivered to the driven wheel.
A. 120 RPM at 4 HP
12 Which drill size would you use to machine and B. 160 RPM at 4 HP
tap a 3/4 -10 National Coarse internal thread? C. 220 RPM at 4.5 HP
A. 27/64 inches D. 220 RPM at 4.8 HP
B. 31/64 inches
C. 21/32 inches 21 Be in accordance with the engine load and the
D. 25/32 inches same quantity of fuel must be delivered to each
cylinder for each power stroke at that load. Which
13 Which of the following problems is the main of the following statements describes this
source of fuel pump and injection system requirement?
malfunctions? A. Accurate metering
A. Improper lubrication B. An orifice
B. Air in the fuel system C. excessive pressure in the seawater feed
C. Coated fuel lines heater
D. Excessive vibration D. A worn or damaged stern tube seal

5 In terms of linear measurement, approximately 14 Which of the listed tools should be used to 22 Boiler tube failures can result from:
how many “inches” equal one “meter”? remove a tapered roller bearing from a shaft? A. corrosion
A. 29.4 A. An arbor press B. Overheating
B. 39.4 B. A steel drift pin and hammer C. mechanical stress
C. 49.4 C. An acetylene torch and hammer D. all of the above
D. 59.4 D. A tapered „comea- long‟
23 For mild steel and general work, the correct
6 The blade for a power hacksaw should be 15 Which practices should be followed at all times angle of a drill point is degrees.
installed with the teeth: when using an electric bench grinding machine? A. 118
A. pointing either toward or away from the A. Wear goggles or face shield. B. 119
motor end of the machine B. Replace grinding wheels that are C. 120
B. pointing away from the motor end of the chipped or unbalanced. D. 121
machine C. Keep the support rest clearance properly
C. pointing toward the motor if using a 4 or adjusted to the wheel. 24 If a centrifugal pump vibrates and is noisy when
6 tooth blade and D. All of the above operating, the cause could be:
D. pointing either toward or away from the A. reversed pump coupling
motor end of the machine 16 A ballast pump, with a capacity of 200 gpm, B. worn gland sealing shaft
takes suction on a tank containing 300 long tons of C. worn wearing rings
7 The seat of a butterfly valve will most likely be sea water ballast. How much ballast F3 – 2 will D. a bent shaft
constructed of: remain in the tank after pumping for one hour?
A. Monel A. 45.83 long tons 25 If a stateroom has a 6" by 12" opening through
B. Satellite B. 91.66 long tons which air travels at 100 feet per minute, what is the
C. A resident material C. 183.32 long tons volume of air being supplied to the stateroom?
D. Admiralty metal D. 254.17 long tons A. 36 cu ft/min
B. 50 cu ft/min
8 Tubing is sized by: 17 A reading of 0.250 on a micrometer with a 1 to C. 72 cu ft/min
A. nominal outside diameter 2 inch range is equal to: D. 100 cu ft/min
B. allowed working pressure A. 1/4 inch
C. nominal inside diameter B. 1/2 inch 26 If the thimble of a micrometer were turned
D. cross-section area C. 1 1/4 inches through one complete revolution, the micrometer
D. 2 1/4 inches would open or close by a linear distance of:
A. 001 inch
B. 010 inch
C. 025 inch
D. 100 inch
27 If your ship burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at 15 36 When working around deck machinery it is a 45 A piece of tapered round stock 36 inches long, 4
knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 18 good safety practice to avoid standing in a „bright‟ inches in diameter at the large end and 2 1/2 inches
knots? of a rope because: in diameter at the small end. What tailstock set
A. 13.8 tons A. a sudden yank on the line may trap your over was used to machine the taper?
B. 11.5 tons B. it doesn‟t allow for proper faking of the A. 0.375 inch
C. 10.7 tons line B. 0.750 inch
D. 9.5 tons C. the coil may become tangled and C. 1.500 inch
difficult to manage D. 2.500 inch
28 If your vessel burns 4 tons offuel per hour at 21 D. your work shoes may cause damage to
knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 16 the rope 46 A reading of 0.625 inch on a micrometer with a
knots? 2 to 3 inch range would be equal to:
A. 3.0 tons 37 Which of the files listed can be used for A. 2 5/8 inches
B. 5.3 tons sharpening a tool? B. 2 7/16 inches
C. 2.3 tons A. A triple cut file. C. 3 1/8 inches
D. 1.8 tons B. A single cut file. D. 3 9/16 inches
C. Any bastard cut file.
29 If your vessel burns 8 tons offuel per hour at 15 D. Only a double bastard cut file. 47 A ship travels is 5472 miles in 26 days 12 hours
knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 19 and 24 minutes. Find the average speed for the
knots? 38 Which of the following problems is the main engine voyage.
A. 12.8 tons source of fuel pump and injection system A. 8.74 knots
B. 16.3 tons malfunctions? B. 8.60 knots
C. 10.6 tons A. Improper lubrication C. 8.63 knots
D. 10.1 tons B. Air in the fuel system D. 8.68 knots
C. Coated fuel lines
30 Lube oil contamination will increase due to D. Excessive vibration 48 A wrench that completely surrounds a nut, or
normal wear of engine components as a result of: bolt head is a/an:
A. abrasive particles 39 Which of the listed metals can usually be drilled A. adjustable wrench
B. metallic oxides without lubrication? B. open end wrench
C. corrosive acids A. Tungsten C. tappet wrench
D. any or all of the above B. Steel D. box wrench
C. Monel
31 The chemical analysis of an oil sample taken D. Brass 49 Air leaks through the inner or outer casing of a
form the main propulsion machinery indicates a boiler could result in:
report of an increase neutralization number, you 40 Which pipe listed has the largest outside A. high superheater outlet temperature
should be aware that: diameter? B. low superheater outlet temperature
A. acidity has increase A. A 3/4" pipe with a standard wall C. higher fuel consumption for normal
B. viscosity has increased thickness. steaming conditions
C. demulsibility has improved B. A 3/4" pipe with an extra strong wall D. all of the above
D. foaming is certain to occur thickness.
C. A 3/4" pipe with a double extra strong 50 An eight cylinder,four stroke/cycle, single acting
32 The open end wrench size for a 3/4 inch American wall thickness. diesel engine has a 650 mm bore and a 1400 mm
National Standard hex head machine bolt is: D. All have the same outside diameter. stroke. What will be the developed indicated metric
A. 3/4 inch horsepower if the average mean effective pressure
B. 7/8 inch 41 A “thirty pound” steel plate would be: is 30 kg/cm2 at a speed of 100 RPM?
C. 1 1/4 inches A. 3/8" thick A. 1689 kW
D. 1 1/2 inches B. 1/2" thick B. 9,111 kW
C. 3/4" thick C. 12,388 kW
33 The purpose of an oil mist detector in a main
D. 1" thick D. 24,776 kW
propulsion diesel engine is to warn of:
A. A possibility of an overheated bearing
42 A diesel engine exposed to widely varying 51 Bluish smoke in the exhaust of an operating
B. 50 hours in a 7 day period
C. excessive pressure in the seawater feed ambient temperatures should use a lubricating oil diesel engine can be caused by:
heater with: A. an overheated engine
D. a dirty strainer in the saltwater feed pump A. a high viscosity index B. a scored cylinder liner
suction line B. a low viscosity index C. water leaking into a cylinder
C. extreme pressure additives D. low combustion temperature
34 The welding symbol reference line using the D. no additives
inverted “V”, indicates: 52 Diesel engine piston seizure can be caused by.
A. a “V” groove weld is to be made 43 A diesel engine is warmed up and white vapor is A. poor cooling of cylinder walls
B. the arrow side of the weld is to be surface noted in the exhaust, this could indicate: B. improper cooling of the piston
finished A. excessive cylinder lubrication C. insufficient piston lubrication
C. the opposite side of the weld is to be B. a lugging engine D. all of the above
surface C. a leaking cylinder liner
D. a “V” groove weld is to be made D. overloading of one cylinder 53 For cutting thin tubing or sheet metal, the
proper hacksaw blade should have:
35 To prevent vibration damage to the fuel supply line
44 A micrometer screw has a pitch of: A. the teeth pointing towards the handle
of a diesel engine, you may use:
A. 40 threads per inch B. the blade and teeth of „all-hard‟ quality
A. a short length of heavy duty clear plastic
B. 50 threads per inch C. 14 teeth per inch
tubing
B. a length of approved flexible nonmetallic C. 75 threads per inch D. 32 teeth per inch
hose D. 100 threads per inch
C. welded flange connections for all joints
D. aluminum piping with expansion loops
54 How many BTUs must be added to one pound of 63 Safety valve gags should only be installed hand 73 Which of the following listed pressures is the
water at 32°F to raise the temperature to 212°F? tight in order to prevent: maximum acetylene gas pressure that can be safely
A. 16 BTU‟s A. compression of the valve spring used in gas welding?
B. 144 BTU‟s B. bending of the valve stem A. 10 psi
C. 180 BTU‟s C. mage to the gag B. 15 psi
D. 970 BTU‟s D. over pressurizing the valve body C. 25 psi
D. 35 psi
55 If the main propulsion diesel governor works 64 Tapping threads into a blind hole should be
irregularly with a jerking motion, a possible cause finished by using a: 74 Which of the following problems may occur if
can be: A. short tap the clearance between a piston and cylinder liner is
A. A sticking fuel control linkage B. taper tap insufficient?
B. 95 degrees Celsius C. plug tap A. Excessive wear
C. excessive pressure in the seawater feed D. bottoming tap B. Scuffing of the liner
heater C. Piston seizure
D. A constant quantity regulating valve 65 The characteristic of a good quality lubricating D. All of the above
oil for use in any machinery should be:
56 If your ship burns 5 tons of fuel per hour at 23 A. acid free 75 Which of the listed devices could be used as a
knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 18 B. capable of emulsifying ring groove cleaning tool during preparation for the
knots? C. rapid oxidizer installation of new rings if a piston ring cleaning
A. 1.9 tons D. additive free tool was not available?
B. 2.4 tons A. Steel brush
C. 3.1 tons 66 The number of screw threads per inch for a B. Fine emery cloth or steel wool
D. 3.3 tons Standard National Coarse 1/2 inch bolt is: C. A section of the removed compression
A. 13 ring
57 If your ship burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at 15 B. 16 D. A case hardened scraper
knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 19 C. 18
knots? D. 20 76 Which of the listed numeric values represents
A. 10.1 tons the smallest size drill?
B. 12.8 tons 67 The open-end wrench size for a standard 3/4 A. #0
C. 16.3 tons inch American National hex head bolt is: B. #1
D. 19.1 tons A. 10/24 inch C. #60
B. 3/4 inch D. #80
58 If your ship burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at 15 C. 1 1/4 inches
knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 20 D. 1 1/2 inches 77 Which of the wrenches listed is least likely to slip
knots? off a bolt head or nut?
A. 19.0 tons 68 The steam coils in a high pressure evaporator A. Open end wrench
B. 21.7 tons used for saltwater service should be descaled with: B. Box end wrench
C. 22.4 tons A. a wire brush C. Crescent wrench
D. 27.0 tons B. a needle gun D. Spanner wrench
C. a chipping hammer
59 If your ship burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at 15 D. soap and water
knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 22
knots? 69 To obtain a 1/2 inch per foot taper on an 18 inch
A. 11.7 tons work piece, the tailstock of the lathe must be set
B. 14.2 tons over:
C. 17.2 tons A. 3/8 inch
D. 25.2 tons B. 1/2 inch
C. 3/4 inch
60 If your vessel burns 6 tons offuel per hour at 22 D. 7/8 inch
knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 17
knots? 70 When welding or burning with an oxygen-
A. 4.6 tons acetylene working pressure must not:
B. 3.9 tons A. 1 kg/cm2
C. 2.8 tons B. 0.25 kg/cm2
D. 1.7 tons C. 0.50 kg/cm2
D. 2 kg/cm2
61 Leakage over the ends of the blade tips, as a
result of the pressure differential between each 71 Which material can be drilled at the highest
row of blades in a reaction turbine, can be reduced speed?
with a blade design known as. A. Aluminum
A. thin tipping B. Medium cast iron
B. end-tightening C. Copper
C. seal stripping D. High carbon steel
D. Any of the above
72 Which of the files listed will have coarsely
62 Persistent knocking in one cylinder of an eight spaced teeth?
cylinder diesel engine would MOST likely be caused A. Second cut
by. B. Dead smooth cut
A. using fuel oil with low cetane number C. Bastard cut
B. a badly worn piston pin D. Smooth cut
C. a loose flywheel key
D. a loose bed plate bolt
OIC - EW: COMPETENCE 9 Maintenance and Repair 10 Why is it necessary to have a relief valve protect 19 If your ship burns 5 tons of fuel per hour at 23
of Shipboard Machinery and Equipment the deaerating feed tank from internal pressure? knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 18
A. Because the tank receives auxiliary knots?
1 Excessive lube oil consumption can result from exhaust. A. 1.9 tons
worn or broken: B. Because the tank receives high pressure B. 2.4 tons
A. piston rings drains. C. 3.1 tons
B. valve guides C. Because the tank receives large amounts D. 3.3 tons
C. valve seals of water.
D. all of the above D. Because the tank drains to the main 20 If your ship burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at 15
condenser. knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 20
2 If the main propulsion diesel governor works knots?
irregularly with a jerking motion, a possible cause 11 A diesel engine exposed to widely varying A. 19.0 tons
can be: ambient temperatures should use a lubricating oil B. 21.7 tons
A. A sticking fuel control linkage with: C. 22.4 tons
B. 95 degrees Celsius A. a high viscosity index D. 27.0 tons
C. excessive pressure in the seawater feed B. a low viscosity index
heater C. extreme pressure additives 21 If your vessel burns 8 tons offuel per hour at 15
D. A constant quantity regulating valve D. no additives knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 19
knots?
3 If your vessel burns 4 tons offuel per hour at 21 12 A roller bearing should normally be filled to what A. 12.8 tons
knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 16 fraction of its space cavity? B. 16.3 tons
knots? A. Less than 1/4 C. 10.6 tons
A. 3.0 tons B. 1/3 to 1/2 D. 10.1 tons
B. 5.3 tons C. 1/2 to 3/4
C. 2.3 tons D. More than 3/4 22 Lube oil contamination will increase due to
D. 1.8 tons normal wear of engine components as a result of:
13 A wrench that completely surrounds a nut, or A. abrasive particles
4 It is the amount of heat released by a substance bolt head is a/an: B. metallic oxides
during complete combustion of unit of mass of that A. adjustable wrench C. corrosive acids
said substance: B. open end wrench D. any or all of the above
A. enthalpy value C. tappet wrench
B. thermal value D. box wrench 23 The purpose of an oil mist detector in a main
C. calorific value propulsion diesel engine is to warn of:
D. entropy value 14 Air leaks through the inner or outer casing of a A. A possibility of an overheated bearing
boiler could result in: B. 50 hours in a 7 day period
5 It is the tendency of a material to suddenly break A. high superheater outlet temperature C. excessive pressure in the seawater feed
with little or no prior deformation: B. low superheater outlet temperature heater
A. Brittleness C. higher fuel consumption for normal D. a dirty strainer in the saltwater feed
B. Strength steaming conditions pump suction line
C. Toughness D. all of the above
D. Malleability 24 What is the theoretical lift of a pump handling
15 Babbitt is a metal alloy commonly used for fresh water at atmospheric pressure?
6 Persistent knocking in one cylinder of an eight lining: A. 10.35 m
cylinder diesel engine would MOST likely be caused A. bearings B. 101.35 m
by. B. cylinder liners C. 14.7 m
A. using fuel oil with low cetane number C. bearing journals D. 1.02 m
B. a badly worn piston pin D. saltwater piping
C. a loose flywheel key 25 Which of the following listed pressures is the
D. a loose bed plate bolt 16 Before doing any work on a hydraulic system maximum acetylene gas pressure that can be safely
equipped with accumulators, you should: used in gas welding?
7 Tapping threads into a blind hole should be A. bleed off all stored energy from the A. 10 psi
finished by using a: accumulators B. 15 psi
A. short tap B. drain the accumulators and purge with C. 25 psi
B. taper tap oxygen D. 35 psi
C. plug tap C. completely charge the accumulators to
D. bottoming tap prevent system energy loss 26 A ballast pump, with a capacity of 200 gpm,
D. pump the hydraulic fluid into the takes suction on a tank containing 300 long tons of
8 When inspecting piston rings through the ports of accumulators to prevent fluid loss sea water ballast. How much ballast will remain in
a two- stroke/cycle diesel engine, what indicates the tank after pumping for one hour?
black areas on the sealing surfaces. 17 Boiler tube failures can result from: A. 45.83 long tons
A. Blow-by A. corrosion B. 91.66 long tons
B. improper piston cooling B. overheating C. 183.32 long tons
C. The intake valve opening is advanced C. mechanical stress D. 254.17 long tons
and the exhaust valve closing is retarded. D. all of the above
D. insufficient lubrication 27 A diesel engine is warmed up and white vapor is
18 If a centrifugal pump vibrates and is noisy when noted in the exhaust, this could indicate:
9 Which of the following problems is the main source operating, the cause could be: A. excessive cylinder lubrication
of fuel pump and injection system malfunctions? A. reversed pump coupling B. a lugging engine
A. Improper lubrication B. worn gland sealing shaft C. a leaking cylinder liner
B. Air in the fuel system C. worn wearing rings D. overloading of one cylinder
C. Coated fuel lines D. a bent shaft
D. Excessive vibration
28 A refrigeration system compressor crankcase is 37 If your ship burns 3 tons of fuel per hour at 19 46 Prior to relieving the watch you should first
sweating or unusually cold. This is an indication of: knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 15 check the fire room status by verifying the boiler
A. air in the system knots? water level and:
B. a shortage of oil in the crankcase A. 1.5 tons A. prepare to blow tubes
C. a shortage of refrigerant in the system B. 1.9 tons B. economizer inlet temperature
D. an accumulation of liquid refrigerant in C. 2.4 tons C. boiler steam pressure
the crankcase. D. 5.3 tons D. port and starboard settling tanks

29 A work piece has been mounted between 38 If your ship burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at 15 47 Safety valve gags should only be installed hand
centers and a test cut machined at each end to knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 18 tight in order to prevent:
check alignment of the lathe centers. If the test cut knots? A. compression of the valve spring
on the tailstock end is deeper than the test cut on A. 13.8 tons B. bending of the valve stem
the headstock end, the tailstock must be moved: B. 11.5 tons C. mage to the gag
A. away from you to correct alignment C. 10.7 tons D. over pressurizing the valve body
B. toward you to correct alignment D. 9.5 tons
C. closer to the headstock to reduce the 48 The best type of chisel to use for cutting a
amount of offset 39 If your ship burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at 15 keyway is the:
D. away from the headstock to decrease knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 19 A. round nose chisel
the misalignment knots? B. flat cold chisel
A. 10.1 tons C. diamond point
30 Advances in metallurgy and improved methods B. 12.8 tons D. chisel cape chisel
of boiler tube fabrication has led to lighter tubes C. 16.3 tons
with wall thicknesses in the vicinity of 0.1 inches. A D. 19.1 tons 49 To obtain a 1/2 inch per foot taper on an 18 inch
characteristic of these thin walled tubes is: work piece, the tailstock of the lathe must be set
A. low tube metal temperatures 40 If your ship burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at 15 over:
B. decreased probability of tube failure knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 21 A. 3/8 inch
during normal operating conditions knots? B. 1/2 inch
C. better heat transfer characteristics A. 20.3 tons C. 3/4 inch
D. All of the options B. 22.0 tons D. 7/8 inch
C. 26.1 tons
31 An advantage of aluminum pistons, when D. 29.4 tons 50 What could be the possible cause why a diesel
compared to cast iron piston is: generator engine freely turns over but fails to ignite
A. greater high temperature strength 41 If your ship burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at 15 properly?
B. better heat conductivity knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 22 A. Air in the fuel line
C. greater weight per cubic inch knots? B. Cold lube oil
D. increased resistance to wear A. 11.7 tons C. Water in the starting air system
B. 14.2 tons D. Late fuel injection
32 Bluish smoke in the exhaust of an operating C. 17.2 tons
diesel engine can be caused by: D. 25.2 tons 51 Which of the files listed will have coarsely
A. an overheated engine spaced teeth?
B. a scored cylinder liner 42 If your vessel burns 6 tons offuel per hour at 22 A. Second cut
C. water leaking into a cylinder knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 17 B. Dead smooth cut
D. low combustion temperature knots? C. Bastard cut
A. 4.6 tons D. Smooth cut
33 Diesel engine piston seizure can be caused by. B. 3.9 tons
A. poor cooling of cylinder walls C. 2.8 tons 52 Which of the listed metals can usually be drilled
B. improper cooling of the piston D. 1.7 tons without lubrication?
C. insufficient piston lubrication A. Tungsten
D. all of the above 43 In the case of a variable speed centrifugal pump: B. Steel
A. capacity varies directly as the speed C. Monel
34 Fuel oil day tanks for diesel engines must be B. capacity varies as the diameter D. Brass
checked and cleaned at regular intervals in order to C. head varies as the square of the
remove. diameter 53 Which of the wrenches listed is least likely to slip
A. sludge D. power varies as the cube of the diameter off a bolt head or nut?
B. water A. Open end wrench
C. micro-organism growth 44 It is the physical or chemical property of the fuel B. Box end wrench
D. all of the above or diesel oil which contain the amount of heat C. Crescent wrench
released by the combustion of a mass offuel? D. Spanner wrench
35 How many BTUs must be added to one pound of A. Specific gravity
water at 32°F to raise the temperature to 212°F? B. Pour point 54 Hydraulic pumps most commonly used in
A. 16 BTU’s C. Calorific value steering systems are of the:
B. 144 BTU’s D. Flash point A. volute type
C. 180 BTU’s B. axial piston type
D. 970 BTU’s 45 Leakage over the ends of the blade tips, as a C. lobe type
result of the pressure differential between each D. screw type
36 If a stateroom has a 6" by 12" opening through row of blades in a reaction turbine, can be reduced
which air travels at 100 feet per minute, what is the with a blade design known as.
volume of air being supplied to the stateroom? A. thin tipping
A. 36 cu ft/min B. end-tightening
B. 50 cu ft/min C. seal stripping
C. 72 cu ft/min D. Any of the above
D. 100 cu ft/min
OIC - EW: COMPETENCE 10 Ensure Compliance
with Pollution-Prevention Requirements
1 Annex II of Marpol 73/78 applies to regulations
for the .
A. prevention of pollution by harmful
substance
B. control of pollution by noxious liquid
substances
C. prevention of pollution by oil
D. prevention of pollution by sewage
2 Any spoiled or unspoiled victual substances, such
as fruits, vegetables, dairy products, poultry
products and all other materials contaminated as
waste is called .
A. spoilage
B. garbage
C. food waste
D. food emulsification
3 Each completed page of the Oil Record Book must
be signed by the .
A. Engineer on watch
B. Chief Engineer
C. Chief mate
D. Master
4 In ship construction, which of the listed
strengthening members act to support the decks?
A. Pillars
B. Girders
C. Bulkheads
D. All of the above
5 Mandatory on the shipboard oil pollution
emergency plan is .
A. Reporting requirements
B. Removal equipment list
C. Plan exercises
D. Safety of Life at Sea Certificate
6 The discharge of waste in any form from toilets,
urinals and scuppers is called .
A. wastage
B. sewage
C. garbage
D. emission
7 The most frequent accidents of tanker pollution
occurring during tanker operations is
A. Due to collisions
B. routine discharge of oil
C. Loading and discharging
D. grounding
8 The Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR)
requires that no person may transfer oil to or from
a vessel unless:
A. all necessary components of the transfer
system are lined up before the transfer
begins
B. all unnecessary parts ofthe transfer
system are open and drained
C. the transfer system is connected to a
flexible overflow fuel hose
D. the transfer system is connected to an
automatic back pressure shutoff nozzle
9 The term for all types of food and waste 17 A ship designed to carry either oil or solid
generated in living spaces on board ship is . cargoes in bulk is known as .
A. domestic waste A. general cargo vessel
B. material waste B. combination carrier
C. living waste C. special vessel
D. noxious waste D. oil tanker
10 Under what conditions would the oily-water 18 A tank which has been sealed for a long time can
separator system fail to effectively process a be dangerous for human entry because .
mixture of oily-water? A. Steel surfaces consumes oxygen by
A. When the oilywater mixture is an rusting
emulsion the effectiveness of the B. Sealed tank usually form a vacuum
separator is greatly reduced C. Moisture displaces oxygen
B. Without detergents the effectiveness of D. Tank coatings gives off toxic fumes
the separator is greatly reduced
C. When there are small air leaks, in the 19 All types of food wastes generated in the living
discharge piping, the effectiveness of the spaces on board the ship are known as :
separator will greatly reduced A. domestic waste
D. When the oilywater separator is in the B. matter waste
process mode it will effectively handle C. living waste
emulsion D. noxious waste
11 What are the possible consequences of 20 An ocean going ship of 400 gross tons and above
shipboard operations that is a risk to environment? must be fitted with a standard discharge shore
A. Explosion connection. What is the size of the bolt circle
B. Marine pollution diameter of the shore connection required to
C. Fire transfer only ballast to a shore side reception
D. Sinking facility?
A. 125 mm
12 What is the probable cause ifthere is an B. 183 mm
indication of low vacuum while the oily-water C. 215 mm
separator is operating in processing mode? D. It depends on outside pipe diameter
A. The bilge suction is completely flooded
B. The coalescer is severely fouled 21 Annex IV Regulations for the Prevention of
C. The flow control value Pollution by Sewage from Ships entry into force on
D. The bilge suction is completely flooded what date?
A. 27 September 2003
13 What would the crew do in case of an oil fire on B. 2 October 1983
deck ? C. 31 December 1988
A. Get water on deck D. 19 May 2005
B. Open steam or CO2 smothering system
to cargo holds 22 Comminuted or ground garbage which will be
C. Close off all ventilation, blowers, doors, discharged into the sea must be able to pass
etc. through a screen with a mesh size no larger than:
D. All of these choices A. 25 millimeters
B. 50 millimeters
14 When there is sufficient reason that the relieving C. 75 millimeters
officer is NOT capable of watch keeping duties, the D. 100 millimeters
outgoing in charge ofthe engineering watch should
. 23 During discharging of oil cargo, your vessel
A. Notify the chief engineer officer started to surge badly along the dock, what would
B. Stop the main engine immediately you do?
C. At the poop deck and waitfor the call of A. Slack off the mooring lines
the able seaman B. Place warning signs in vicinity
D. In a ship compartment that has an alarm C. Stop discharging operation, attend
mooring lines
15 Which of the following refers to a mixture with D. Abandon ship
any oil content?
A. Oily bilge 24 If you discovered oil around your vessel, you are
B. Oily waste obliged to .
C. Oily mixture A. notify the bridge
D. Oily water B. notify the coast guard
C. shut down the transfer operation
16 Which of the following substances, if introduced immediately
into the sea, is liable to create hazards to human D. close all oil valve
health and marine life?
A. Dunnage
B. Oil products
C. Noxious liquid
D. Oil noxious
25 In the regulations implementing MARPOL, a
vessel is obligated to have an International Oil
Pollution Prevention (IOOP) certificate when the
ship .
A. Is drilling on the Outer Continental Shelf
B. Moves to new drilling location in U.S.
waters
C. Engages in a voyage to a port of another
country which is a party of MARPOL
D. Check for serious burns on the body
26 Oil Pollution Regulations (33 CFR) require any
transfer or discharge of oil or oily mixtures to be
recorded in the_______.
A. bridge log
B. master's log
C. Engine room log
D. oil record book
27 Scuppers on deck during bunkering should be
plugged .
A. Only if fixed containment drains are
open
B. Whenever the vessel is being fueled
C. Extinguisher will need to be recharged
D. Powder conducts electricity back to the
fire fighter
28 The grounding of Exxon Valdez off Alaska Coast
lead to the creation of .
A. OPA 90
B. Marpol
C. IOPP
D. ISM
29 The Oil Record Book must be kept on board ship
for at least _____.
A. 6 months and then submitted to the
nearest Marine Safety Office
B. after An annual inspection
C. not less than 3 years and readily
available for inspection
D. five years
30 The Pollution Prevention Regulation state that a
ship’s oil bilge may be pumped out in port only if it
is .
A. permitted by port authorities
B. discharged to a slop barge or shore tank
C. inspected by local pollution inspector
D. approved by master or chief engineer
31 The Pollution Prevention Regulations (33 CFR)
requires an emergency means of stopping the flow
of oil during oil transfer operations. The emergency
means must be operable from the .
A. bridge
B. engine room
C. emergency operating station of the
personin- charge
D. usual operating station of the personin-
charge
32 The sections of an Oil Record Book preceding the
log pages contain a .
A. damage control plan for isolating
fireman values
B. list of machinery space operation items
C. complete classification of hazardous
materials
D. detailed listing of all organizations to call
in the event of an accidental oil spill
33 To do in the event of a small bunker oil spill on
deck while fueling is .
A. Wash down the area immediately with a
fire hose
B. Cover the area with saw dust
C. Leave the UMS selector switch to UMS
mode
D. The operating water tank is full of water
34 Water drains from toilet is commonly known as?
A. Gray water
B. Bilge water
C. Black water
D. Toilet water
35 What kind of vessel is allowed to carry oil or
product oil, or both simultaneously?
A. Mineral oil carrier
B. Crude oil/product carrier
C. Ore carrier
D. General product carrier
36 What will cause the throughout of oily-water
separator to decreased when operating in the
processing mode?
A. A decreased in the processing ability
may be cause by a worn pump internals
B. The throughput of the separator varies
while in the processing mode as
determined by the quantity of oil in the
emulsion
C. The flow control valve is open
excessively wide and permitting an
excessive amount of bilge water to enter
the separator, resulting in an overload
D. The throughout of the separator may be
reduced ifthe inlet valve remains open
during processing mode
37 When making entries in the Oil Record Book, all
quantities should be .
A. record as cubic meters with a conversion to
barrels
B. consistently recorded through the Oil
Record Book in one specified unit (gallons,
barrels, cubic meters)
C. verified by the Chief Engineer
D. record directly from the oil discharge
monitor
38 Which is the best way to ensure adequate oxygen
is present for safe entry into a seldom used cargo tank?
A. Test tank atmosphere using a combustible
gas indicator
B. Check for rust inside the tank
C. Open the air vent prior to entry
D. Ventilate the tank with fresh air and test
with an oxygen indicator
39 Which of the following can be considered as a
cargo- associated waste and maintenance waste cargo
residues?
A. Domestic waste
B. Operational waste
C. Emitted waste
D. Waste oil
40 Which of the following is used as fuel in
connection with the machinery propulsion?
A. Fuel oil
B. Coal
C. Crude oil
D. Bunker oil
41 Which of the following types of ships log books
where entries of the loading and unloading
operation of noxious liquid substances should be
recorded?
A. The log Book
B. A cargo record book
C. The ship’s manual
D. The oil record book
42 Which of the following vessels is NOT exempt
from mandatory requirements on ballast water
management for control of non- indigenous species
in waters of the United States?
A. United States Navy frigate.
B. A vessel engaged in the foreign export of
Alaskan North Slop Crude Oil.
C. A passenger vessel equipped with a
USCG approved system designed to kill
aquatic organisms in ballast water.
D. A crude oil tanker engaged in the
coastwise trade.
43 Why is it important for double bottom fuel oil
tanks not to be topped off when loading fuel at cold
temperatures?
A. Increased viscosity of the product needs
higher loading pressure, which increases
the chances of a spill.
B. Air pockets may cause the fuel to bubble
out of the ullage hole.
C. A temperature rise of the fuel will cause
an overflow from the tank vent.
D. Fueling valve may become stuck closed
and cause the fuel oil to spill before the
valve can be opened.
44 A Crude Oil Wash (COW) system is considered
as:
A. a water operated Butterworth system
B. a mechanism which filters and purifies
crude oil
C. a Butterworth system using crude oil
instead of water as the cleaning medium
D. a cleanup for pump room bilges
45 A solid material which contains synthetic
polymers is called .
A. glass
B. asbestos
C. plastic
D. hose plastic
46 After chemically cleaning a fuel oil tank aboard
ship in port, you should dispose of waste oil to the
.
A. sewer connection
B. oil and water separator
C. slop barge or holding tank
D. reclaiming the oil tank
47 An event involving the actual or probable
discharge into the sea of a harmful substance, or
effluents containing such substance is termed as .
A. accident
B. discharging
C. incident
D. pollution
48 Annex III Regulations for the Prevention of
Pollution by Harmful Substances carried by Sea in
Package Form entry into force on what date?
A. 1 July 1992
B. 6 April 1987
C. 27 September 2003
D. 2 October 1983
49 Annex VI Regulations for the Prevention of Air
Pollution from Ships entry into force on what date?
A. 19 May 2005
B. 6 April 1987
C. 27 September 2003
D. 1 July 1992
50 Before you become in charge of oil transferring
operation on board a self propelled tank vessel, you
must .
A. Would be 30 years old
B. Hold a valid officer’s license for tanker
vessels
C. letter from the company indicating that
he is qualified
D. Be a certificated tanker man
51 If the flow control valve indicates an unusually
high vacuum while the oily-water separator is in
operation, what is the most probable cause?
A. It indicates a restriction in the inlet
piping
B. It is the result of the flow control valve
being excessively throttled
C. The result of the coalesce beds being
installed in reverse order
D. This type of oilywater separator always
operates with an unusually high vacuum
52 In cleaning up an oil spill, the use of straw and
reclaimed paper fibers would be an example of
what kind of oil removal?
A. Chemical agent removal
B. Mechanical removal
C. Absorbent removal
D. None of the above
53 It is NOT a mandatory requirement of the
shipboard oil pollution emergency plan.
A. Diagrams
B. Steps to control a discharge
C. National and local coordination
D. Reporting requirement
54 The term “discharge” as it applies to the
pollution regulations, means:
A. spilling
B. leaking
C. pumping
D. All of the above
55 What is the possible problem if a gurgling noise
is heard at the cargo tank when discharging cargo?
A. Pump is sucking air
B. Tank foot valve is partially clogged
C. Tank liquid is too viscous
D. Pump discharge pressure is excessive
56 When operating an oily-water separator, why is
it necessary to avoid detergents mixing with the
bilge water?
A. The detergent may cause the oil and
water to become an emulsion which this
unitis not capable of separating
B. The detergent will foam causing the
main bilge pump to become air bound
C. The detergent will agitate within the
separator and cause it to explode
D. The detergent will damage the special
protective coating in the inside ofthe
unit
57 A ship constructed or adopted primarily to carry
oil in bulk, its cargo spaces includes combination
carriers of .
A. bulk carrier
B. automobile carrier
C. oil tanker
D. general cargo vessel
58 A ship is required to carry an Oil Record Book to
log entries in the book regarding the .
A. sounding levels of all fuel tanks on a daily
basis
B. grade and specific gravity of all fuel oil
carried
C. discharge of ballast or cleaning water
from fuel
D. tanks
59 A tank for the collection and storage of sewage
is .
A. settling tank
B. holding tank
C. sludge tank
D. general service tank
60 According to Pollution Prevention Regulations
(33 CFR), no person may connect or disconnect an
oil transfer hose or engage in any other critical oil
transfer operation on a tank vessel unless .
A. that person holds a tankerman
endorsement
B. that person holds a valid port security
card
C. designated personin- charge supervises
D. that procedure that person holds a
license as master, mate
61 All victual, domestic and operation waste such
as fresh fish and parts thereof is known as .
A. pollutant
B. sewage
C. garbage
D. left over
62 Annex I Regulations for the Prevention of
Pollution by Oil entry to force on what date?
A. 6 April 1987
B. 2 October 1983
C. 1 July 1992
D. 27 September 2003
63 Annex II Regulations for the Control of Pollution
by Noxious Liquid Substances in Bulk entry to force
on what date?
A. 2 October 1983
B. 6 April 1987
C. 31 December 1988
D. 19 May 2005
64 Annex V Regulations for the Prevention of
Pollution by Garbage from Ships entry into force on
what date?
A. 31 December 1988
B. 27 September 2003
C. 2 October 1983
D. 1 July 1992
65 Any tank adjacent to the side shell plating of a
vessel is known as .
A. access tank
B. base tank
C. wing tank
D. crude tank
66 December 1988 Annex V Presentation of
Pollution by garbage from ship was entered into
force.
A. 31
B. 30
C. 13
D. 3
67 During loading the cargo hose joint or coupling
starts to leak badly what would you do ?
A. Reduce pumping pressure and wrap leak
securely
B. Shut down transfers and make repairs
C. Soak spills with sawdust and reduce
pumping pressure
D. Wash deck immediately and close tank
tops
68 If a cup of oil is spilled during fueling & causes a
sheen upon the water it .
A. must be reported to the fire department
B. must be reported to the coast guard
C. must be reported to the harbor master
D. need not be reported since the spill was
less than 250 barrels
69 In cleaning up an oil spill, the use of chemical
agents would_____.
A. Absorb the oil for easy removal
B. Remove the oil from water
C. Disperse or dissolve the oil in the water
D. Not affect the oil
70 In the Oil Record Book a comprehensive list of
operational items are grouped into operational
section codified by a/an
A. abbreviation
B. Letter
C. number
D. all of these choices
71 International Oil Pollution Prevention (IOPP)
Certificates are required for oil tanker at or above:
A. 100 gross registered tons
B. 150 gross registered tons
C. 300 gross registered tons
D. 400 gross registered tons
71 Oil Pollution Prevention Regulations states that a
ship’s oil bilge slops may be pumped in port only if .
A. Discharge is led to a slop barge or shore
tank
B. Local port authority gives permission
C. Engineer on watch has signed the
declaration of inspection
D. Local port authority has completed the
required pollution inspection
72 Passenger vessels shall maintain an Oil Record
Book, if the vessel is .
A. 100 gross tons
B. 200 gross tons
C. 300 gross tons
D. 400 gross tons and above
73 Records of garbage disposal are required to be
maintained .
A. until each quadrennial coast guard
inspection
B. until the end of each voyage
C. for a minimum of one year
D. for a minimum of 2 years
74 The drainage from laundry, bathroom and
washbasin drains but does not include drainage
from toilets, urinals, hospital and animal spaces is
called .
A. blue water
B. dishwater
C. greywater
D. cutwater
75 The most common type of containment device
for spilled oil on the water is the use of
A. booms
B. straw
C. skimmers
D. chemical dispersants
76 The most critical time for preventing an
accidental oil spill during bunkering is when the .
A. Tanks are being topped-off
B. Fuel begin to enter tank
C. Hoses are being disconnected
D. Hoses are being blown
77 The noxious substance which should remain on
board until it can be disposed in a reception facility
ashore is called _ .
A. sludge
B. pollutant
C. residue
D. emulsion
78 The oily-water separator has just been internally
cleaned and an inspection was carried out and the
unit found to be lined up although the compound
gauge indicates an unusually high vacuum, what is
your next step?
A. Close off control valve
B. Check the bilge water inlet strainer
C. Reseat the relief valve
D. Retighten all the cap screws on the lid
79 The pollution prevention regulation state that
liquid waste collected in drip pans, buckets, or
tanks should be disposed by .
A. discharging ashore into the sewer
system
B. sealing in disposable plastic barrels
aboard ship
C. transferring to the local port authority
incinerator
D. discharging into slop barge or shore tank
80 The practice to be done when a vessel is in port
and necessary to pump bilges is to pump only .
A. If the discharge is led to a shore tank or
barge
B. During the hours of darkness
C. As much as necessary
D. None of the above
81 The tank or space used to accumulate sewage
onboard .
A. holding tank
B. collecting tank
C. bilge tank
D. slop tank
82 The term "oil" as defined in the Pollution
Prevention Regulation means .
A. Petroleum in any form
B. Animal or vegetable based oil
C. Noxious liquid substances designated
under Annex II of Marpol 73/78
D. All of the above
83 The validity of Nuclear Passenger Ship Safety
certificates and nuclear cargo ship safety
certificates shall not be more than .
A. 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 36 months
D. 24 months
84 Tiny droplets of fuel particles attract to one
another to form a large diameter is .
A. Sedimentation
B. Coalescence
C. Fluctuation
D. Floatation
85 Under MARPOL 73/78 Annex 1 of oil pollution
prevention oily mixtures from the cargo tank
should only be conducted when .
A. oil discharge monitoring and control
system is operational
B. it will be discharged to the engine room
fuel tank
C. transfer pump has automatic cut-out
D. oil discharge separator motor is
operational
86 Waste oilfrom engine lube oil pumps should be
collected in the .
A. oil recovery tank
B. slop tank
C. engine room bilges
D. oily bilge tank
87 What does VRP mean?
A. Vessel response Procurement
B. VesselResponse Plan
C. Vessel Report Plan
D. Vessel Report Procurement
88 What is the condition ofthe oily-bilge separator,
if the compound gauge indicates a slight vacuum
while the unit is in discharge mode?
A. Fouled and needs cleaning
B. Operating correctly, but requires the
gauge to be replaced
C. Operating correctly without the need for
any modification
D. Not operating correctly and also needs
the gage to be replaced
89 What kind of garbage collected from living
quarters & accommodation?
A. Living
B. Domestic
C. Noxious
D. Crude
90 What makes the Oil Pollution Act of 1990(OPA
1990) different from other International recognized
Law?
A. Possibility of limited liability
B. Federal responsibility for response
C. Possibility of unlimited liability
D. federal (National) responsibility for
cleaning up.
91 What term is used to a vessel allowed to carry
crude oil but is prohibited from carrying product
oil?
A. Crude oil tanker
B. Natural gas carrier
C. Product gas carrier
D. Ore carrier
92 When a fuel oil tank is being topped off during
bunkering operations, the tank valve should be
closed:
A. slowly to prevent surge stresses
B. to prevent gas from escaping through
the pressure-vacuum relief valves
C. after the shore pumps are stopped
D. rapidly to prevent overflow
93 When making entries in the Oil Record Book, the
date, operational code, and item number shall be
inserted in the appropriate columns. Furthermore,
the required particulars shall be .
A. record only for accidental oil discharge
B. recorded only for operations involving
discharge of oily wastes
C. recorded chronologically in the blank
space
D. signed by the oiler who enters them in
the oil record book
94 When oily water ballast has been pumped
overboard an entry must be made in the .
A. deck log book
B. engine log oil
C. record book
D. bridge logbook
95 Which is not included in the special areas?
A. Arabian Sea
B. North Sea
C. Mediterranean
D. Sea Baltic Sea
96 Which of the circumstances listed is an
exception to the garbage discharge requirements in
Annex V to MARPOL 73/78?
A. The garbage to be discharged will sink.
B. Garbage accumulate ion onboard has
exceeded storage space.
C. A person falls overboard, and a plastic
ice chest is thrown for flotation.
D. The destination port or terminal cannot
receive garbage.
97 Which of the following ballast in a tank which
was used to load crude oil in the past and if it were
discharge from a ship would not produce visible oil
on the furnace with water or adjoining shoreline?
A. Oily water
B. Segregated
C. Clean
D. Raw water

98 Which of the following is a liquid hydrocarbon

mixture occurring naturally in the earth?
A. Crude oil
B. Mineral oil
C. Natural oil
D. Linseed oil

99 Which of the following officers shall sign entries

in the oil record book?
A. Master and chief engineer
B. 1st Assistant Engineer and Chief Mate
C. Chief Engineer, Master and officer who
conducted the transfer operations
D. Engineer On watch and Deck Officer on
watch

100 Which of the following tank is considered as

permanent and only clean sea water is admitted for
trimming of ship?
A. Clean ballast hold
B. Segregated ballast tank
C. Tracer tank
D. Return tank

101 Which of the following vessel is designed to

carry either oil or solid cargoes in bulk?
A. Reserved
B. OBO
C. Shipping
D. Training

102 Which types of vessel does OPA-90 apply?

All types of vessel
A. Vessel carrying more than 10,000
galloon of oil, irrespective of whether
cargo or bunker
B. Tanker vessel whether carrying oil or
other dangerous cargo
C. All types of tanker vessel

103 Who should inspect before use, to ensure that

a welding and flame cutting equipment is in a
serviceable condition?
A. Master
B. Chief engineer
C. Fitter
D. Competent person

104 You should immediately leave a newly entered

tank when you .
A. Smell an unusual odor
B. Eyes and throat get irritated
C. Experienced bodily sensation
D. All of these choices