COMPETENCE 1 – OIC-EW 7. The boiler main feed pump aboard ship can 12.
n feed pump aboard ship can 12. Which of the following ring designs is
1. A fuel oil tank pneumercator will give an
inaccurate reading if the:
A. Pneumercator is recharged with the
air supply open.
B. Pneumercator balance chamber
bleed orifice is blocked by the oil
being measured.
C. pressure in the system is allowed to
equalize.
D. operating cock is placed in the „vent‟
position when the system is not in
use.
2. A ship travels 234.02 nautical miles in 24
hours at an average propeller speed of 60 RPM.
If the propeller pitch is 20.07 feet, what is the
propeller slip during this passage?
A. 17.95%
B. 20.46%
C. 22.10%
D. 26.20%
3. As the amount of moisture in the air
increases, what will happen to the difference
between the dry bulb and wet bulb
temperatures?
a. increase
b. decrease
c. remain unchanged
d. be greatest at dew point
4. During unsafe firing conditions in a large
automatic auxiliary boiler, various control
actuators are interlocked with the burner
circuit to prevent start up, in addition to safety
shutdown. These controls are referred to as:
A. limit controls
B. flame safeguard controls
C. combustion controls
D. programming controls
5. In an operating diesel engine, which of the
following conditions is an indication of a
leaking air starting valve?
A. Noise coming from that air starting
valve.
B. Continuous operation ofthe starting
air compressor.
C. Zero air pressure in the air starting
system.
D. Overheated starting air pipe to the
cylinder head.
6. One cubic foot of salt water would equal
approximately how many pounds?
A. 24
B. 44
C. 64
D. 84
operate with high temperature water without
becoming vapor bound because the:
A. pump operates at a high discharge
pressure
B. constant-pressure governor controls
the discharge pressure
C. area above the impeller eye is vented
to the main condenser
D. minimum required net positive
suction pressure is provided by the
DC heater
8. The dew point is reached when the wet bulb
temperature relates to the dry bulb
temperature in what manner?
A. equal to the dry bulb temperature
B. twice the dry bulb temperature
C. 100°F less than the dry bulb
temperature
D. 50°F above the dry bulb temperature
9. The possibility of a flareback in a boiler will
be reduced if you:
A. rotate the soot blower elements one
complete revolution prior to lighting
off
B. maintain the fuel oil to the burner at
the flash point
C. supply a minimum of excess air
D. purge the furnace with fresh air prior
to lighting off
10. The watch engineer finds the cargo
refrigeration compressor has blown the shaft
seal, with the noticeable presence of oil
leaking. In this situation, what should be done?
A. shut down the compressor at once
and then close the suction and
discharge valves
B. pump the system down and then
isolate the leak by closing the suction
and discharge valves
C. close the suction valve, pump the
compressor down, then shut down
the compressor
D. tighten the shaft seal packing to
reduce leakage, slow the
compressor, and operate the
expansion valves by hand until
repairs can be made
11. When an additional load is applied to a
diesel engine which is using an inadequately
inflated air bladder clutch unit, you can expect:
A. pneumatic seizure
B. overheating because of slipping
shoes
C. chipped reduction gear teeth
D. excessive wear on the thrust
bearings
commonly used on new piston rings to
facilitate runin or seating?
A. Machining a special ring face groove
filled with antifriction metal.
B. Increasing ring tension as high as
possible.
C. Machining the ring from extra soft
nonferrous alloys.
D. Provide a minimum gap clearance
under cold conditions to prevent ring
expansion.
13. A closed freshwater cooling system is
commonly used with marine diesel engines
because the:
A. need for water treatment is
eliminated
B. cooling water temperature
differential is greater
C. cooling water pumps are directly
reversible
D. jacket water temperature is more
easily controlled
14. A diesel engine cooling water system with a
pH factor of 3.0 indicates a condition of:
A. slight acidity
B. slight alkalinity
C. excessive alkalinity
D. excessive acidity
15. A diesel engine cylinder has a swept volume
of 130.5 cubic inches and a clearance volume
of 9.0 cubic inches at top dead center. What is
the compression ratio ofthe engine cylinder?
A. 12.5 : 1
B. 13.5 : 1
C. 14.5 : 1
D. 15.5 : 1
16. A diesel engine indicator diagram measures
12.5 cm in length and has an area of 22 cm2.
What is the cylinder mean effective pressure if
the spring used has a scale of 1.25 mm equals
1 kg/cm2?
A. 14.08 kg/cm2
B. 22.0 kg/cm2
C. 34.5 kg/cm2
D. 35.75 kg/cm2
17. A hole should be made in the sagged tube
occurring in a water- tube boiler, prior to
plugging the tube to prevent a.
A. pressure buildup in the tube
B. quick burnout of the tube
C. complete sagging failure of the tube
D. crack failure of the tube
18. A seven cylinder, 2-stroke/cycle, single
acting diesel engine has a 750 mm bore and a
2000 mm stroke. What indicated power will be
developed if the average mean effective
pressure is 14.8 kg/cm2 at a speed of 96 RPM?
A. 1,959 Kw
B. 3,906 Kw
C. 14,363 Kw
D. 28,726 Kw
19. An automated diesel engine should
normally shut down due to.
A. low lube oil temperature
B. high ambient air temperature
C. low lube oil pressure
D. high exhausts system back pressure
20. Failure to remove calcium and magnesium
from feed water before it reaches the boiler
can result in tube:
A. scaling
B. pitting
C. erosion
21. The general name given to propane,
butane, and mixtures of the two is:
A. LPG
B. LNG
C. NGL
D. LEG
22. If the auxiliary diesel engine will not shut
down, the trouble could be.
A. high lube oil pressure
B. high firing pressure
C. lube oil leakage into the blower
D. high fuel oil pressure
23. If your ship burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at
15 knots, how many tons per hour will it burn
at 20 knots?
A. 19.0 tons
B. 21.7 tons
C. 22.4 tons
D. 27.0 tons
24. Incomplete combustion in a running diesel
engine can cause piston rings to become stuck
as a result of.
A. residual carbon deposits
B. Lube oil viscosity breakdown
C. uneven heat expansion of the rings
D. uneven heat expansion of the piston
25. Leaking suction valves in a refrigeration
compressor are indicated by which of the
following?
A. higher than normal suction pressure
B. lower than normal suction pressure
C. lower than normal evaporator
temperature
D. noticeable increase in compressor
noise
26. Proper atomization of fuel in diesel engine
combustion chambers will.
A. affect the injection pressure
B. improve combustion
C. reduce compression pressure
D. decrease power output
27. The area where a cam follower would most
likely leave the lobe surface of a two-stroke
cycle engine camshaft would be at the:
A. first point of acceleration during the
exhaust valve opening
B. first point of the intake valve closing
C. first point of deceleration during
exhaust valve opening
D. last point of the intake valve closing
28. The conical steel or composition cone
installed on a propeller, known as a fairwater
cone, provides which of the following benefits?
A. Reduce turbulence
B. Help with lubrication
C. Protect against electrolytic corrosion
D. All of the above
29. The moisture sensitive element of a
humidistat can be made of what substance?
A. hair
B. copper
C. plastic
D. steel
30. The safety valve installed on a coil- type
auxiliary boiler is located on the.
A. thermostat tube
B. topmost coil
C. water tank
D. flash chamber
31. The vapor pressure of a gas is the pressure
necessary to keep it in a(n):
A. soluble state
B. solid state
C. insufficient refrigerant charge
D. ice formation internal to the
expansion valve
32. Turbulence is created in the cylinders of a
diesel engine to:
A. obtain injection lag
B. help mix fuel and air
C. decrease combustion pressure
D. utilize higher injection pressures
33. What is the equivalent tonnage of a
refrigeration system rated at 48,000 BTU per
hour?
A. 2.5
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
34. Which of the events listed does NOT occur
during the instant the piston just reaches top
dead center?
A. Intake
B. Ignition
C. Power
D. Combustion
35. A bendix drive starting motor disengages
the drive gear from the flywheel by:
A. spring force
B. rotating of the starting cam
C. having the flywheel impart a torque
to the starter pinion
D. applying accumulator pressure
36. A compound Bourdon tube type pressure
gage is capable of measuring:
A. temperature and pressure
B. wet bulb and dry bulb temperatures
C. humidity and temperature
D. pressure and vacuum
37. A piston is said to be at top dead center
when it is:
A. opening the exhaust ports
B. placed on top of the engine along its
centerline
C. farthest from the cylinder head
D. nearest to the cylinder head
38. A diesel engine cylinder has a swept volume
of 104 cubic inches and a clearance volume of
8 cubic inches at top dead center. What is the
compression ratio of the engine cylinder?
A. 14.0 : 1
B. 14.5 : 1
C. 15.0 : 1
D. 15.5 : 1
39. A diesel engine cylinder has a swept volume
of 125 cubic inches and a clearance volume of
10 cubic inches at top dead center. What is the
compression ratio of the engine cylinder?
A. 12.5 : 1
B. 13.5 : 1
C. 14.5 : 1
D. 15.5 : 1
40. A diesel engine cylinder has a swept volume
of 135 cubic inches and a clearance volume of
10 cubic inches at top dead center. What is the
compression ratio of the engine cylinder?
A. 12.5 : 1
B. 13.5 : 1
C. 14.5 : 1
D. 15.5 : 1
41. A diesel engine indicator diagram has an
area of 22 cm2 and a length of 12.5 cm. If the
scale of the indicator spring is 1 mm = 1
kg/cm2, what is the cylinder mean effective
pressure?
A. 17.6 kg/cm2
B. 27.5 kg/cm2
C. 34.5 kg/cm2
D. 36.0 kg/cm2
42. A fuel tank on your vessel is 20 feet high, 20
feet long and 20 feet wide. If it is filled 100%
with fuel having an API gravity of 35.7 at a
temperature of 60°F, how many long tons of
fuel are in the tank?
A. 177.76
B. 188.25
C. 196.47
D. 210.84
43. A pressure reading of 00.0 psig is
theoretically equal to:
A. 30.0 inches of vacuum
B. 300 millimeters of water
C. 14.7 psia
D. psia
44. A seven cylinder, two-stroke/cycle, single
acting diesel engine with a cylinder indicated
horsepower calculated as 1350 kW and brake
horsepower measured at 7466 kW has a
mechanical efficiency of.
A. 18%
B. 55%
C. 79%
D. 83%
45. A unit of measure used to express the
chloride content of boiler water is?
A. PPM
B. Micro-Farads
C. pH
D. Micro-Ohms
46. A vessel departed from point “A” at 1206
with a counter reading of 616729 and arrived
at point “B” with a counter reading of 731929
at 1148 the following day. This vessel is
equipped with a 20 foot 8 inch diameter
propeller, with a pitch of 20 feet. The observed
distance of 404.16 miles was covered at an
observed speed of 16.85 knots. What should
be the apparent slip for this trip?
A. 1.04%
B. 1.29%
C. -6.65%
D. -11.04%
47. An efficient seal between the cylinder block
and cylinder heads on many diesel engines is
obtained with:
A. graphite packing
B. sealing compound
C. lubricating oil
D. gaskets
48. Before using a boiler compressed air soot
blower system, you should:
A. reduce the boiler pressure
B. lower the water level
C. decrease the forced draft fan speed
D. drain the soot blower pneumatic
operating lines
49. Boiler refractories previously baked out and 57. In terms of metric pressure conversion, an
fired are most sensitive to: absolute pressure of 1 “bar” would be
A. rapid cooling approximately equal to what value “psia”?
B. sustained high furnace temperature A. 3.5
C. rapid heating B. 7.5
D. radiant heat of the burner C. 10.5
D. 14.5
50. Circulation of boiler water to the water wall
tubes is maintained by the: 58. Insufficient piston cooling for a large, low
A. water screen tubes speed, main propulsion diesel engine burning
B. risers heavy fuels, can result in:
C. downcomers A. high temperature corrosion and
D. generating tubes burning of piston crown metal
B. dangerous thermal expansion of the
51. Exhaust gases in a two-stroke/cycle diesel piston skirt
engine are discharged through. C. excessive crosshead temperatures
A. the air valves D. change in fuel cetane number
B. a roots-type blower
C. exhaust ports or valves 59. Power is defined as the:
D. the after cooler and directed to the A. rate of doing work
stack B. amount of force needed to overcome
friction
52. High salinity distillate being discharged C. amount of work accomplished
from a flash-type distilling plant may be the D. distance through which an object is
result of: moved
A. maintaining the proper distilling
plant heat balance 60. Temperature measurement is an indication
B. carrying the brine level below normal of the:
C. leaks in the demister baffles level of heat intensity
D. venting of the saltwater heater drain A. total heat of a substance
pump B. rate of heat transfer from one
substance to another
53. If an engine operates at 900 RPM at no C. total heat contained in any closed
load, and at 870 RPM at full load, the speed energy system
droop is:
A. 3.10% 61. The best conductor of heat in a marine
B. 3.40% boiler is:
C. 3.70% A. steel
D. 4.00% B. water
C. steam
54. If your ship burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at D. brick
15 knots, how many tons per hour will it burn
at 19 knots? 62. The blower type crankcase ventilation
A. 10.1 tons A. removes combustible gases from the
B. 12.8 tons crankcase
C. 16.3 tons B. prevents the formation of
D. 19.1 tons combustible gases in the crankcase
C. cools lubricating oil
55. In a cross-compound main propulsion Unit, D. improves cold weather starting
the astern turbine is usually installed at the:
A. low pressure end of the low pressure 63. The bore of a diesel engine cylinder
turbine describes the:
B. high pressure end of the low A. swept volume of the cylinder
pressure turbine B. inside diameter of the cylinder
C. low pressure end of the high C. piston displacement in the cylinder
pressure turbine D. length of the piston stroke
D. high pressure end of the high
pressure turbine 64. The chemical substance initially responsible
for heat loss in the combustion process is:
56. In terms of linear measurement, A. Sulfur
approximately how many “inches” equal one B. carbon
“meter”? C. hydrogen
A. 29.4 D. nitrogen
B. 39.4
C. 49.4
D. 59.4
65. The lower water seal on a diesel engine wet 72. Which of the following fuel oil
cylinder liner must allow for liner axial characteristics establishes the danger point
movement. This seal is most commonly a: when transferring, pumping, and firing
A. neoprene O-ring s procedures are concerned?
B. oft copper gasket A. Fire point
C. precision ground flange joint B. Flash point
D. flexible metallic seal ring C. Specific gravity
D. Viscosity
66. The ratio of the brake horsepower to the
indicated horsepower of a diesel engine is its: 73. With an increase in temperature the
A. thermal efficiency volume of flammable and combustible liquids:
B. mechanical efficiency A. expands
C. brake thermal efficiency B. contracts
D. volumetric efficiency C. remains constant
D. remains constant if pressure remains
67. The total air capacity for non- reversible constant
main engines is to be sufficient for:
A. six consecutive starts
B. eight consecutive starts
C. ten consecutive starts
D. twelve consecutive starts

68. Thin bronze rings are inserted in the face of

some chromium plated piston rings to:
A. promote piston ring seating in the
cylinder
B. prevent rapid wear on the ring face
C. provide better lubrication of the
piston ring
D. produce an even glaze on the
cylinder

69. What is the speed of the crankshaft in a four

stroke/cycle engine when the camshaft is
turning at 750 rpm?
A. 375 RPM
B. 500 RPM
C. 750 RPM
D. 1500 RPM

70. Using a diesel engine indicator P-V diagram,

the cylinder mean effective pressure is
calculated to be 21.3 kg/cm2. What is the scale
of the spring used on the indicator ifthe
diagram area is 18.46 cm2 with a length of 13
cm?
A. 9.0 kg/cm
B. 10.0 kg/cm
C. 12.5 kg/cm
D. 15.0 kg/cm

71. When the load is increased on a

turbocharged diesel engine, the amount of
increased air supplied by the turbocharger will:
A. lag behind the increased fuel
supplied to the engine
B. enter the engine along with the
increase in fuel
C. enter the engine before the
increased fuel supply
D. leave the turbocharger as a negative
pulse
COMPETENCE 2- Use English in Oral and Written 9. According the report, ship hit the wharf during 18. Using IMO SMCP in shore-to-ship and ship-to-
Form berthing． shore communication, how do you response in
A. for the affirmative if the VTIS gives the following
1. The word EIGHT is spelled conform the B. on message: "ADVICE. Do not overtake the vessel
international phonetic alphabet______: C. to North of you."
A. Echo, Israel, Golf, Hotel, Tango D. of A. Respond: "Affirmative, message
B. Echo, India, Golf, Hotel, Tango Echo, understood, proceeding as instructed,
C. Istria, Gulf, Hotel, Tango 10. In case of accident ______ the risk of sinking, out."
D. Don't know all effective measures shall be taken to steer clear B. Respond: "I do not overtake the vessel
of the fairway to avoid the traffic． North of me."
2. The year 1945 is spelled to conform with the A. involved/to impede C. Respond: "I will not overtake my vessel
international phonetic alphabet________: B. involving/impeding North of you."
A. Wun-Niner-Fower-Fife C. involving/to impede D. Respond: "I will not overtake the vessel
B. Wan-Nayn-Poor-Payb D. involved/impeding North of me."
C. One-Nine-Four- Five
D. Won-None-Flower- Fiver 11. In the IMO SMCP, the prefix "SECURITY" is 19. An accident came_________my mind when I
used . saw the broken case．
3. Using the IMO STANDARD MARINE A. to announce distress A. with
COMMUNICATION PHRASES (SMCP), how do you B. to announce urgency B. In
pronounced “4” when communicating through C. to announce safety C. On
Radio Telephony? D. to announce emergency D. to
A. Four
B. For 1.2 Please get everything ready prior 20. Has any person ______ on board during the
C. Fower voyage otherwise than as a result of accident?
______shifting．
D. Powere A. die
A. at
B. For B. died
4. Using IMO SMCP in shore-to-ship and ship-to- C. dying
C. to
shore communication, how do you correct a D. dyed
D. on
wrong message.
A. Example: "My present speed is 14 knots - 21. If you do not wear goggles and helmet, your
13. The patches where rust have been removed
Correction, my present speed is 12 knots,
should be wiped clean before paint is _________. chances of being __________ will be greater．
knots."
A. supplied A. hurt
B. Example: "My present speed is 14 knots -
mistake. Correction, my present speed is B. replied B. beaten
12, one-two, knots." C. Complied C. damaged
C. Example: "My present speed is 14 knots - D. applied D. stricken
mistake. my present speed is onetwo
knots, knots." 14. The word NAVTEX is spelled conform the 22 The accident ____________ caused damage to
D. Example: "My present speed is 14 knots - international phonetic alphabet ________: ship's hull．
Correction, my present speed is 12 knots, A. November, Alfa, Victor, Tango, Echo, X- A. will
knots." ray B. Has
B. November, Able, Valencia, Tripoli, Echo, C. have
5. The ship can leave the port _______ the joint Xantippe D. is
inspection． C. November, Anna, Victor, Tango, E.
A. after Eduard, X-ray 23. A message giving warning of a hurricane
B. before D. Don't know should have which prefix when sent by
C. at radiotelephone?
D. from 15. The word SHIP is spelled conform the A. Pan-Pan (3 times)
international phonetic alphabet________: B. Securite Securite Securite
6. Never make comment, estimate or guess in your A. Sierra, Hotel, Item, Paris C. TTT TTT TTT
Official Logbook, but______only． B. Sugar, Hotel, Italia, Peter D. No special prefix
A. the details C. Sierra, Hotel, India, Papa
B. the descriptions D. Don't know 24. After being rescued from the vessel accident,
C. the specifications the people agreed that they had much to____ .
D. the facts
16. When oil is discharged overboard, an entry is A. thank
required in the_______. B. be thankful
7. How can the error be corrected when writing in
A. deck rough log C. be thanked
the official logbook?
B. Oil Record Book D. be thankful for
A. Blot out the error completely and rewrite
C. engine rough log
the entry correctly
D. Official Logbook 25. An accidental grounding is called___.
B. Cross out the error with a single line and
rewrite the entry correctly A. stranding
C. Remove this page of the log book and 17. The word EIGHT is spelled conform the B. breaching
rewrite all entries on a clean page international phonetic alphabet: C. grounding
D. Carefully and neatly erase the entry and A. Echo, Israel, Golf, Hotel, Tango D. squatting
rewrite it correctly B. Echo, India, Golf, Hotel, Tango
C. Echo, Istria, Gulf, Hotel, Tango 26. As soon as the ship is berthed, you should
8. Any person maintaining a listening watch on a D. Any of the above lower the gangway and stretch a net_____.
bridge-to-bridge radiotelephone must be able to. A. over
A. repair the unit B. Besides
B. send Morse Code C. Near
C. speak a language the vessel's crew will D. Underneath
understand
D. speak English
27. By the term “Stand by” the operator of a 37. The word LOBITH is spelled conform the 44. Using IMO SMCP in shore-to-ship and ship-to-
coast-station means that one should____: international phonetic alphabet________: shore communication, how do you response
A. Wait until the coaststation calls again A. Lima, Oscar, Bravo, India, Tango, Hotel when the information requested is not
B. Switch back to the calling channel B. Lima, Oscar, Bernhard, Italia, Tripoli, immediately available.
C. Give the position of the ship Havana A. Say: "Stand by" - followed by a two tone
D. Don't know C. Liverpool, Oslo, Bernhard, India, Taro, signal until the information will be
Hotel available
28. He must have had an accident, or he _______ D. Don't know B. Say: "Stand by" - followed by the time
then． interval within which the information
A. should be here 38. The word SATCOM is spelled conform the will be available
B. would have been here international phonetic alphabet : C. Say: "Stand by" - followed by a long
C. had to be here A. Sierra, Anna, Tango, Cornelis, Oslo, pause and one long tone until the
D. would be here Mike information will be available
B. Sierra, Alfa, Tango, Charlie, Oscar, Mike D. Say: "Stand by" - followed by a waiting
29. How should the letter "D" be pronounced C. Sierra, Able, Tripoli, Charlie, Oscar, signal until the information will be
when spoken on the radiotelephone? Mike available
A. DUKE D. Don't know
B. DA VID 45. Using IMO SMCP in shore-to-ship and ship-to-
C. DOG 39. The word VOLUME is spelled conform the shore communication, how do you response in
D. DELL TAH international phonetic alphabet: the affirmative when an INSTRUCTION (e.g. by a
A. Victor, Oslo, Lima, Uncle, Mike, Echo VTS-Station, Naval vessel or other fully authorized
30. In the IMO SMCP, the prefix "MAYDAY" is used B. Valencia, Oslo, Love, Uncle, Mike, personnel ) or an ADVICE is given.
______ . Eduard A. Affirmative, instructions are loud and
A. to announce distress C. Victor, Oscar, Lima, Uniform, Mike, clear, revert to you as soon as possible
B. to announce urgency Echo if complied with
C. to announce safety D. Don't know B. Copy, over, instructions are loud and
D. to announce emergency clear, revert at the soonest when
40. What language shall the issuing country use in complied with
31. In the IMO SMCP, the prefix "PAN PAN" is medical certificates? C. "I will/can ... " - followed by the
used____. A. English instruction or advice in full
A. to announce distress B. Official language of the issuing country D. "Roger on that, affirmative, followed by
B. to announce urgency C. Spanish the instruction or advice in full
C. to announce safety D. French
D. to announce emergency 46. Using IMO SMCP in shore-to-ship and ship-to-
41. The word QUICK is spelled conform the shore communication, how do you avoid
32. Let_____the realfact of the accident． international phonetic alphabet: miscommunication or misunderstanding when it
A. I to tell you A. Queen, Upsala, India, Charlie, Kilo comes to “Ambiguous words”? Which is/are
B. me tell you B. Quebec, Uniform, India, Charlie, Kilo correct? I. May I enter the fairway II. You have
C. I tell you C. Quebec, Uniform, Italia, Casablanca, permission to enter the fairway III. I will enter the
D. me to tell you Kilo fairway IV. You should anchor in anchorage “B” V.
33. Please charge the expenses ________ the D. Any of the above You could be running into danger
ship's account． A. All of the above
A. At 42. The word RADIO is spelled conform the B. II, III, IV
B. into international phonetic alphabet: C. II & III
C. for A. Romeo, Alfa, Delta, India, October D. I, II, III, & IV
D. by B. Radio, Alfa, Delta, India, Oscar
34. The___showed that said ship complied with C. Romeo, Alpha, Delta, India, Oscar
the requirements of the Convention. D. Any of the above 47. Using IMO SMCP definition of terminologies, a
A. Sightseeing “Close-coupled towing” is…..
B. seeing 43. Using IMO SMCP definition of terminologies, a A. A method of towing vessels through
C. looking “Bob-cat” is….. the tropical seas by means of powerful
D. inspection A. A mini-caterpillar with pull-blade used tugs with a special stern notch suited to
for the careful distribution of loose receive and hold the bow of the vessel
35. The Mariner's Handbook ____ general goods in cargo holds of bulk carriers to be towed
information affecting navigation and is B. A mini-caterpillar with push-blade used B. A method of towing vessels through
complementary to the Sailing Directions． for the careful distribution of timber in polar ice by means of icebreaking tugs
A. giving cargo holds of bulk carriers with a special stern notch suited to
B. gives C. A mini-caterpillar with push-blade used receive and hold the bow of the vessel
C. Give for the careful distribution of loose to be towed
D. given goods in cargo holds of bulk carriers C. A method of towing vessels used in the
D. A mini-caterpillar with push-blade used Canadian waters by means of
36. The word CHANNEL is spelled conform the for the careful distribution of loose icebreaking tugs with a special battery
international phonetic alphabet : goods in engine rooms of bulk carriers ram suited to receive and hold the bow
A. Cornelis, Hotel, Alfa, November, of the vessel to be towed
November, Edison, Lodewijk D. A method of towing vessels through
B. Charlie, Hotel, Able, November, polar ice by means of fork reinforced
November, Echo, Liverpool tugs with a special stern notch suited to
C. Charlie, Hotel, Alfa, November, receive and hold the bow ofthe vessel
November, Echo, Lima to be towed
D. Don't know
COMPETENCE 3 8. A VHF transmission range is mainly restricted 16. The legal type VHF-antenna has a length of:
by: A. 7 meters
1. All ships with periodically unattended A. the curvature of the surface of the B. 3.5 meters
machinery plants shall, in addition to the earth C. 1 meter
general alarm required by Coast Guard B. reflection by the ionosphere D. 10 meters
Regulations (46 CFR), be provided with a/an : C. the length of the aerial
A. engineer's assistance- needed alarm D. atmospheric condition 17. The button or switch “dimmer” of a
B. accommodation space mariphone serves:
communication system 9. Automatic amplifier regulation is used to: A. to suppress the noise
C. personnel alarm A. reduce noise if there is no signal B. to regulate the light
D. All of the above B. reduce distortion of the strong C. to regulate the transmitting power
incoming signal D. All of the above
2. By DUAL WATCH in maritime VHF- C. reduce distortion of weak incoming
communication is understood: signals 18. The carrier frequency is also given as ___.
A. automatic reduction of transmitting D. increase incoming signal A. suppressed frequency
power B. carrier frequency
B. the possibility to keep radio- contact 10. By non-reduced transmitting power in VHF C. assigned frequency
with two or more stations is meant in a power between: D. frequency identity
simultaneously A. 1 – 6 watt
C. to keep a listening watch on two B. 5 – 10 watt 19. The holder of ship low power
channels more or less C. 6 – 25 watt radiotelephone operator's permit is authorized
simultaneously D. 25 – 50 watt to operate equipment or station using:
D. None of the above A. F4 emissions
11. Calls, announcement and conversations B. A1 emissions
3. Channel 70 for digital selective calling for from one station to another on board should C. A3 of F2 emissions
Distress, Safety and Calling frequency operate be as brief as possible and consistent with____. D. A3 or F3 emissions
at: A. Intelligibility
A. 158.526 MHz B. clarity 20. The maritime radio system consisting of a
B. 157.526 MHz C. understandability series of coast stations transmitting coastal
C. 156.526 MHz D. loudness warnings is called:
D. 159.526 MHz A. NAVTEX
12. For the connection between VHF and B. NAVAREA
4. In maritime radio-communication by “low antenna must be used: C. SAFESEA
power” given by a nautical phone is meant a A. a three vein cable with D. HYDROLANT/H YDROPAC
transmitting power of: earthconnection
A. 0.5 – 1.0 watt B. a coax cable of proper impedance 21. The MF-band is in the frequency
B. 1.0 – 1.5 watt C. a copper wire of sufficient diameter range_____:
C. O.5 watt maximum to minimize loses A. 30 - 300 kHz
D. 2.0 - 2.5 watt D. an arbitrary coax cable B. 300 - 3000 kHz
C. 3 - 30 MHz
5. International NAVTEX service means the 13. How should the letter "D" be pronounced D. 3 - 30 THz
coordinated broadcast and automatic when spoken on the radiotelephone?
reception on___of maritime safety information A. DUKE 22. The portable walkie talkies required to be
by means of narrow-band direct-printing B. DA VID carried by GMDSS regulations should have
telegraphy using the English language. C. DONKEY which channels as a minimum?
A. 518 KHz D. DELL TAH A. Channels 6, 13 & 16
B. 2182 KHz B. Channel 16 only
C. 518 MHz 14. In making VHF communication or test C. Channels 13 & 16
D. 500 MHz transmission you must: D. Channels 6 & 16
A. first tap on the mike several times,
6. On board an accident happened. Urgent but not more than ten times 23. The presence of a VHF-installation is
radio- medical advice is needed. We choose the B. identify yourself with your call sign primarily intended to:
category . and /or ships name A. take part in harbour traffic
A. Routine C. with DSC use, first broadcast the B. enhance the safety of lives at sea
B. safety carrier wave for at least three C. take part in public traffic
C. urgency seconds D. take part in all traffic
D. security D. All of the above
24. The responsibility for the transmitting
7. One wishes to have a telephone 15. In shore-ship use, what is useful range of equipment lies with the:
conversation with a person whose name is VHF? A. ship owner
known. This is what is called . A. About 30-70 miles "Line of sight" B. master
A. a personal call B. About 40-70 miles "Line of sight" C. user of the installation
B. a collect call C. About 30-70 miles "Line of sight" D. charterer
C. a direct call D. About 50-70 miles "Line of sight"
D. a private call
25. The sound-level of the speaker on e.g. an
MF/HF radiotelephony installation is adjusted
with .
A. AF-Gain
B. RF-Gain
C. can not be adjusted
D. AM-Gain
26. The squelch on the control panel of a VHF-
sat serves to:
A. adjust the threshold level for
admitting signals and refusing noise
B. adjust the sound level ofthe signal
received
C. to suppress noise
D. to suppress background noise in the
wheelhouse when transmitting
27. The type-indication ofthe radio set is
mentioned in :
A. the survey of equipment
B. the equipment appendix
C. the safety certificate
D. radio license
28. The VHF radiotelephone
calling/safety/distress frequency is:
A. 156.6 MHz (channel 12)
B. 156.7 MHz (channel 14)
C. 156.65 MHz (channel 13)
D. 156.8 MHz (channel 16)
29. The VHF radiotelephone frequency for
Channel 14 is:
A. 156.8 MHz
B. 156.7 MHz
C. 156.75 MHz
D. 156.80 MHz
30. The VHF radiotelephone frequency for
Channel 16 is:
A. 156.0 MHz
B. 156.75 MHz
C. 156.8 MHz
D. 156.85 MHz
31. The wave length is___ .
A. proportional to the frequency
B. inversely proportional to the
frequency
C. independent of the frequency
D. direction of frequency
32. The wavelength of a radio-signal reflected
against the F-layer may be :
A. 15 cm
B. 1.5 m
C. 15 m
D. 1.5 cm
33. To make a “call-request” one
should________:
A. select the telex in off-line position
B. select the telex in online position
C. select the ID of the NCS
D. select the telex in stand-by position
34. When onboard channel 16 is used for a
shore radio-connection, you always work:
A. semi-duplex
B. duplex
C. simplex
D. triplex
35. What do you call the communication within
the ship's emergency organization or
communication within the shore emergency
response team?
A. Internal communication
B. Give the vessel a wide berth as she is
carrying dangerous goods
C. Shore to ship communication
D. Shipboard communication
36. What is the main purpose of a radio
transmitting installation onboard :
A. to enhance the safety of lives at sea
B. safe navigation and internal
communication
C. public traffic
D. all traffic
37. What is the minimum number of portable
two way VHF walkie talkies for use in survival
craft, that should be carried onboard vessels
which comply with GMDSS regulations?
A. 3 sets
B. 2 sets
C. 4 sets
D. 5 sets
38. What is the secondary purpose of a radio
installation onboard?
A. To take part in public traffic
B. To enhance the safety of lives at sea
C. To communicate in distress cases
D. To stand by for navigational warning
39. Which of the following types/sizes of
vessels in international trade do not have to be
fitted with a radiotelephone station?
A. Cargo ships below 300 tons gross
B. Passenger ships of less than 100 tons
gross
C. Passenger ships carrying less than 36
passengers
D. Cargo ships of 300 - 1600 tons gross
40. Which one of the listed requirements
regarding radiotelephone auto alarm do not
correspond to present regulations? Automatic
receiving equipment shall .
A. in presence of atmospheric or
interfering signals automatically
adjust itself
B. as far as practicable give warning of
faults preventing the apparatus from
performing normal functions
C. be capable of withstanding vibration,
humidity and temperature changes
D. be capable of withstanding variations
in power supply voltages, and shall
continue to operate under such
conditions
41. Which wave length applies to a frequency
of 2000 kHz?
A. 150 meters
B. 15 meters
C. 1500 meters
D. 200 meter
42. With a distress alert via an Inmarsat-A
terminal it is recommended to use the telex-
mode because:
A. All vessels in the Ocean Region
concerned can read it
B. Wait three minutes and if no
acknowledgement is heard from a
coast station you should relay
C. The telephone is slower and more
prone to interference
D. Any of the above
43. With the DCS format specified geographical
area call besides a reference position the
number ofthe full degree difference in
longitude and latitude must be fed in:
A. Westerly and northerly direction
B. An updated copy of the “Wet op de
telecomuniactiev oorzieningen”
C. Easterly and northerly direction
D. Southerly and easterly direction 44
With the squelch mode on the VHF:
range is increased another channel is
chosen undesirable noise is
suppressed range is fixed
45. Within territorial waters the use of
transmitters is prohibited. In general this does
not apply for:
A. Inmarsat-C equipment
B. Relay the message immediately on
2182 kHz
C. HF-equipment
D. All of the above
46. You are making ship-to-shore telephone
calls on VHF. You should use the:
A. VHF-FM service
B. External
C. Coastal harbor service
D. High seas service
47. You received a distress alert on HF Radio.
What should you do?
A. Wait three minutes and if no
acknowledgement is heard from a
coast station you should relay the
alert
B. The telephone can cause
misunderstanding through language
problems or wrong interpretations
C. No response is necessary providing
the vessel is more than 24 hours
away
D. Acknowledge receipt
48. A polarization of a radio wave is determined
by a:
A. height of the aerial
B. length of the aerial
C. position of the aerial
D. width of the aerial
49. A radio-wave travels in the air at a speed of:
A. 300.000 meters per second
B. 300.000 kilometers per second
C. 300.000 per kilometers per hour
D. 300.000 meters per second
50. A VHF transmission range is mainly
determined by:
A. the moment of propagation
B. the right position of the
squelchadjustment
C. the height of the aerial
D. length of the aerial
51. A wire aerial for an MF/HF –transmitter
must be suspended between isolators:
A. to prevent contact with earth
B. to prevent burns when touching the
aerial
C. to make the way for aerial currents as
long as possible
D. the battery is low
52. According to the “Regulation and
Restrictions” of the mariphone license, the
mariphone:
A. may be taken off the ship
temporarily, only if suitable
measures are taken for the
prevention of the use of the
mariphone.
B. may only be present at the place, as
indicated in the license
C. apart from its position as indicated
also be used in other places provided
its call sign is at least transmitted
once at the start and at the end of
each transmission
D. None of the above
53. Acoustic feedback can arise:
A. because the loudspeaker works as a
microphone
B. because outside noise is amplified by
the loudspeaker in the microphone
C. because the volume adjustment of
the speaker is too high
D. because the battery is strong
54. Before a mariphone is installed on board:
A. a letter of registration must be
applied for
B. contribution must be paid
C. a license must be issued
D. the ship must pass the port state
control inspection
55. By frequency is meant: 63 In radio-telex distress traffic preference is
A. number of vibrations given to:
B. time lapse of vibrations. A. Direct telex
C. number of vibrations per unit of time B. ARQ
D. Any of the above C. ISS
D. IRS
56. By the degree of selectivity of a receiver is
meant: 64 In subjecting a metal to an axial pull, its can
A. ability to make weak stations audible be found.
B. ability to distinguish weak stations A. strength
from adjacent stronger stations B. main haul
C. ability to make strong station audible C. breaking strength
D. ability to distinguish strong stations D. elasticity
from weak stations
65 Long distance communication in the HF-
57. By wave length is understood: bands depends on:
A. the distance travelled by a radio A. ionization layers
vibration in a period B. ground wave
B. the propagation speed of a radio C. satellites
vibration in free space D. dimmer setting
C. the propagation direction of a radio
vibration 66 Modulation is :
D. the propagation of wave signal A. detecting frequencies
B. blending LF & HF signals
58 Due to the volume of traffic on the radio, C. to enhance the side bands in relation
you are unable to communicate with the vessel to the carrier wave
in distress. What action should you take? D. controlling the wave signal
A. Key the microphone three times in
quick succession 67 Moored in a harbour, transmitting with a
B. Broadcast "Seelonce" immediately mariphone is .
C. Broadcast "Seelonce Distress" A. allowed in consultation with the
D. Broadcast "Charlie Quebec Mayday" harbourmaster
B. not allowed
59. For the VHF-antenna connection is used: C. always allowed
A. an arbitrary coax cable D. sometimes allowed
B. a 50-ohm resistance coax cable
C. a properly insulated copper wire of 68 What does MUF stand for?
sufficient diameter A. highest possible frequency that will
D. a coax cable of proper impedance be reflected by the ionosphere
B. highest possible frequency that can
60. In daytime, as a result of sunlight, the be made with an HFtransmitter on
number of layers of ionization will: board
A. increase C. most effective frequency , to make a
B. decrease connection with an HF- transmitter
C. not change D. mega/ultra high frequency
D. vanish
69 Of the AM-signal .
61 In maritime communication two A. amplitude and frequency of the
international treaties are primarily involved. carrier wave are constant
They are: B. amplitude is variable and frequency
A. Solas and its rules of carrier wave is constant
B. Solas and the international treaty of C. both amplitude and frequency of the
far messaging carrier wave are variable
C. The IMO at London and the ITU at D. amplitude modulation
Geneva
D. Both international and local rules 70 On which frequency are navigational and
meteorological messages normally sent on the
62 In radiotelephone communications, the NAVTEX system?
prefix PAN indicates: A. 518KHZ
A. the message following the prefix will B. 2182KHz
be about the safety of navigation C. 214KHz
B. the message following is a D. 216KHz
meteorological warning
C. a ship is threatened by grave and
imminent danger and requests
assistance
D. a calling station has an urgent
message about the safety of a person
71 Polarization of a radio wave means _____: 79 The HF-band is in the frequency range : 88 The transmitting power of the mariphone is
A. the direction of the electricalfield A. 3 - 30 kHz adjusted by setting :
B. the beam-angle of a transmitting B. 3 - 30 MHz A. dual watch
aerial C. 3 - 30 GHz B. squelch
C. the propagation speed of the signal D. 3 - 30 THz C. high/low power
D. transmission of radio wave D. volume
80 The ID of an Inmarsat M station on board
72 Radio waves used in satellite starts with: 89 The transmitting range of an HF transmitter
communication are not affected by ionosphere A. 1 is mainly determined by :
because . B. 3 A. the transmitting power
A. the frequency of the radio waves is to C. 5 B. the height of the transmitting
high D. 7 antenna
B. a disc aerial is used C. the time of day in relation to
C. TDM-signals are used 81 The maximum range of a VHF radio-set from propagation
D. the frequency of the radio waves is to ship to ship at sea is : D. atmospheric condition
very high A. 2 Nautical Miles
B. 20 Nautical Miles 90 The VHF radiotelephone frequency for
C. 200 Nautical Miles Channel 13 is:
73 Squelch mode serves to suppress: D. 100 Nautical Miles A. 156.65 MHz
A. background noise in receiving a weak B. 156.70 MHz
FM-signal 82 The obligation to identify oneself when C. 156.75 MHz
B. noise in absence of an FM-signal using VHF is : D. 156.80 MHz
C. noise in speechbreaks in an SSBsignal A. only when sailing in a block area
D. noise in transmission B. only when navigating by radar 91 The VHF radiotelephone frequency for
C. always Channel 15 is:
74 Pledge of secrecy applies : D. only when navigating in a heavily A. 156.0 MHz
A. for everybody congested areas B. 156.7 MHz
B. only for those who want to send C. 156.75 MHz
and/or receive a message 83 The prescribed test of an approved portable D. 156.8 MHz
C. only to certificate holders VHF radio set (portophone) must be done once
D. for Management Level officers only a. 92 The VHF-band is in the frequency range :
A. week A. 30 - 300 kHz
75 Radio signals in the HF channels propagate B. Month B. 30 - 300 MHz
mainly: C. Year C. 30 - 300 GHz
A. through hops between the ionized D. day D. 3 - 30 THz
layers and the earth
B. between the earth and satellites 84 The propagation of radio-signals in the VHF- 93 The volume button of a mariphone controls
C. along the curvature of the earth in band is: _____:
D. the ionosphere A. almost rectilinear A. the volume
B. dependent on the power emitted B. the transmitting power
76 Regulations require that any tankship and the temperature of the C. the squelch
making a voyage of over a 48 hour duration' atmosphere D. the clarity of transmission
must have certain tests conducted not more C. dependent on the hour of
than 12 hours prior to leaving port. Meeting transmission (day or night) 94 The wave length of a radio signal in the ether
this requirement includes the testing of the: D. dependent on the weather condition is mainly determined by .
A. means of communication between A. Frequency
the bridge and engine room 85 The recommended connection between B. weather conditions
B. fire pump relief valve antenna and VHF is: C. propagation speed
C. watertight door to the shaft alley A. coax cable D. wave speed
D. emergency lighting system B. three vein cable
C. band cable 95 To choose the HF-band, the time difference
77 The “squelch” adjustment on the front D. cable connection between 2 stations is .
panel of a mariphone serves to : A. Irrelevant
A. adjust the noise threshold of the 86 The rule for having a radio transmitter B. is hardly relevant
mariphone receiver license is internationally laid down in : C. is important
B. limit the noise of the mariphone A. Radio Regulations D. negligible
transmitter B. SOLAS
C. adjust the transmitting power of the C. Search and rescue treaty of Hamburg 96 Via a coast-station radio medical advice is
mariphone D. Association of Radio Users asked using NBDP. What command has to be
D. None of the above given after ga+?
87 The squelch on a mariphone serves : A. pan +
78 The call sign of a vessel is meant to: A. to suppress noise B. 38 +
A. be able to identify oneself B. to suppress background noise in the C. 42 +
B. provide the certificate holder with wheelhouse when transmitting D. 52 +
unique identification C. to increase or decrease the
C. gain a quicker transit at bridges and transmission range
locks D. to adjust volume
D. gain recognition
97 What is the calling and distress frequency on
a single side band (SSB) marine
radiotelephone?
A. 1492 kHz
B. 1892 kHz
C. 2082 kHz
D. 2182 kHz
98 What is the minimum number of portable
two way VHF walkie talkies for use in survival
craft, that should be carried onboard vessels
which comply with GMDSS regulations?
A. 3 sets
B. 2 sets
C. 1 set
D. There is no requirement to carry
them.
99 What is the recommended connection
between antenna and VHF?
A. band cable connection
B. three vein cable connection
C. coax cable connection
D. single vein cable connection
100 What is understood by assigned
frequency?
A. frequency of the carrier wave
B. the upper side band (USB)
C. the frequency actually used by
transmitter and receiver
D. Between high and low frequency
101 What is/are the content of table #1 of
radiotelephony procedures?
A. Nature of distress in code from the
International code of signals
B. Phonetic alphabets and figure
spelling
C. Position in code from the
International code of signals
D. All of the above
102 What is/are the content of table #2 of
radiotelephony procedures?
A. Nature of distress in code from the
International code of signals
B. Phonetic alphabets and figure
spelling
C. Position in code from the
International code of signals
D. All of the above
103 What is/are the content of table #3 of
radiotelephony procedures?
A. Nature of distress in code from the
International code of signals
B. Phonetic alphabets and figure
spelling
C. Position in code from the
International code of signals
D. All of the above
104 What should you include in the body of a
radio message seeking advice for a medical
emergency at sea?
A. the name and owner of the ship, its
position and destination
B. The patient's name and next of kin
C. The patient's age, sex, nature of the
emergency, pulse and length of
illness, treatment given and
diagnosis
D. All of the above
105 What statement is correct with frequency
modulation?
A. Between high and low frequency
B. the frequency is constant
C. frequency modulation is often
applied in the maritime VHF-range
(band)
D. the amplitude fluctuating an LF-
rhythm
106 When a licensed mariphone is replaced :
A. the old mariphone must be checked
out and the new one must be
checked in
B. nothing should be done, for a license
was already issued the
C. seller must check in the set at the
authority concerned
D. None of the above
107 When modulating the amplitude :
A. the amplitude is modulated
B. the carrier wave is modulated
C. the LF-vibration is modulated
D. the frequency is modulated
108 Which equipment must be tested NOT
more than 12 hours prior to getting underway
from a U.S. port when the voyage is to be of 48
hours or greater duration?
A. Steering gear
B. Emergency generator
C. All internal vessel control
communications systems
D. All of the above
109 Which one of the following requirements
regarding radio telephone stations do not
correspond to present regulations?
A. While at sea the installation shall be
maintained in a satisfactory
condition
B. The radiotelephone station shall be
located in the upper part of the ship,
sheltered to the greatest extent from
noise impairing reception of
messages/signals
C. There shall be an efficient
communication between the radio
station and the bridge
D. An instruction card giving a clear
summary of the distress procedure
shall be displayed at the operators
position
110 Which one of the listed entries in the radio
log for radiotelephone station do not
correspond to present regulations? Entries in
the radio log shall include .
A. the condition and results of tests of
the main radiotelegraph installation
B. the time when a listening watch
begins
C. the time at which a listening watch is
discontinued, and the reason
D. details of maintenance of batteries,
including a record of charging
111 Which one of the listed requirements
regarding portable radio apparatus for survival
crafts do not correspond to present
regulations?
A. Transmitter and receiver to be tested
with intervals of not more than one
month
B. The apparatus shall be capable of
being dropped into the water
without damage
C. The apparatus shall be readily
portable and watertight
D. New equipment shall be as
lightweight and compact as
practicable
112 Which one of the listed requirements
regarding radiotelegraph installations do not
correspond to present regulations?
A. The installation shall include
equipment for radiotelephone
communication on distress
frequencies in addition to working
frequencies
B. The main installation shall include a
main receiver, a main transmitter,
radiotelephone distress frequency
watch receiver and main source of
energy
C. The reserve installation shall include
a reserve transmitter, a reserve
receiver and a reserve source of
energy
D. A main and a reserve antenna shall
be installed
113 Which one of the listed requirements
regarding radiotelegraph stations do not
correspond to present regulations? A
radiotelegraph station shall be provided with .
A. direct access to the navigating bridge
B. spare parts, tools and testing
equipment
C. either an electric inspection lamp or
a flashlight
D. a reliable clock with a dial not less
than 12,5 cm diameter, and marked
to indicate silence
114 Which one of the listed requirements 121 With the VHF on board there has to be:
regarding two-way radiotelephone apparatus A. A license
for survival crafts do not correspond to present B. Another channel is chosen
regulations? C. A document showing that the radio
A. The apparatus shall be capable of equipment has been firm or person
being operated on VHF channel 16 D. None of the above
B. While at sea, the equipment shall be
maintained in satisfactory condition 122 Within territorial waters the use of
C. The apparatus shall be operated transmitters is prohibited. In general this does
from a battery of adequate capacity not apply for :
to ensure A. VHF-equipment
D. The apparatus shall be capable of B. MF-equipment
being operated on VHF channel 16 C. HF-equipment
D. All of the above
115 Which one of the listed requirements
regarding VHF radiotelephone installations do 123 You are approaching another vessel and
not correspond to present regulations? see her signal flag “F” hoisted. What should you
A. Cargo ships of less than 500 tons do?
gross shall have the batteries A. Attempt to call the vessel on VHF
locatedin the upper partof the ship radiotelephone because she is
B. Controls for the channels required disabled
for navigational safety shall be B. Delivers a message as atelegram
immediately available on the C. Stop your vessel instantly
navigatingbridge, D. Continue on your vessel course since
C. Facilities shouldbe available to thevessels is signaling for pilot
permit radio communication from
the wings of the bridge 124 You are underway and hear a vessel
D. As far as practicable, the antenna continuously sounding her fog whistle. This
shall have unobstructed view in all indicates the Other vessel:
directions A. Is in distress
B. Emergency broadcast services
116 Which radio frequency/channels are C. Desires a pilot
reserved for emergency communications? D. Is aground
A. 2182 kHz/VHF channel 16
B. A message of an urgent natureabout 125 You hear on radiotelephone the word
the safetyof a ship will follow “SECURITE” spoken three times. This indicated
C. 2182 kHz/VHF channel 6 that
D. 2188 kHz/VHF channel 8 A. A message about the safety of
navigation will follow
117 Which VHF channel should be used for B. A VHS-antenna
internship navigation safety communications? C. The sender is in distress and requests
A. Ch. 13 immediate assistance
B. Change course to keep clear of the D. You should secure your
vessel because she is maneuvering radiotelephone
with difficulty
C. Ch. 12 126 You want to send a DSC distress alert via
D. Ch. 06 the HF-band. You prefer the:
A. 8 MHz band
118 Which wave length applies to a frequency B. 12 MHz band
of 150 MHz? C. 16 MHz band
A. 20 cm D. 18 MHz band
B. 50 cm
C. 200 cm
D. 500 cm

119 Wire antenna of 12 meters long is probably

.
A. A MF/HF-antenna
B. A MF-antenna
C. An Inmarsa-tantenna
D. An HF-antenna

120 With the squelch mode on the VHF:

A. Undesirable noises is suppressed
B. Ch. 16
C. Range is increased
D. Range is constant
 OIC - EW: COMPETENCE 4
Operate Main and Auxiliary Machinery and
Associated Control Systems
1 When a refrigeration compressor has developed
a high head pressure as a result of a refrigerant
overcharge, what should be done to compensate
for or to correct this situation?
A. increase the amount of cooling water
to the condenser
B. decrease the amount of cooling water
to the condenser
C. raise the high pressure cut-out opening
pressure
D. remove some refrigerant from the
system
2 Which of the valves listed is normally closed
when charging the refrigeration system through
the high side?
A. Dehydrator inlet valve
B. Liquid line king valve
C. Suction line valve
D. Thermal expansion valve
3 Thermostatic expansion valves can be adjusted
for which of the following?
A. suction pressure only
B. head pressure only
C. evaporator superheat only
D. suction pressure and box temperature
4 Refrigerant enters the condenser in what
condition?
A. high pressure liquid
B. low pressure vapor
C. high pressure vapor
D. low pressure liquid
5 If a liquid drying agent is used in a refrigeration
system already equipped with a solid drying
agent, the liquid drying agent will cause what type
of reaction?
A. it will release the moisture already
trapped in the solid drying agent
B. it will react violently with the solid
drying agent
C. it will cause toxic gases to form in the
refrigerated space
D. it will solidify the refrigerant oil in the
compressor crankcase
6 In a two stage flash type evaporator, the brine
overboard pump is vented directly to the:
A. saltwater heater shell
B. first stage distilling condenser
C. second stage flash chamber
D. air ejector condenser
7 Which of the following statements is correct
concerning heat transfer?
A. Heat is given off from a high
temperature region known as a heat
sink.
B. Heat transfer surfaces are being
layered with scale.
C. Impure distillate is being produced.
D. Shell vapor pressure is constantly
decreasing.
8 During the operation of a five box refrigeration
system, using a fixed capacity compressor, two
additional boxes came on line with the two boxes
already in the active cooling process. At the
beginning of the cooling period for the two additional
boxes, the operating conditions of the system would
require the quantity (flow rate) of refrigerant to the
compressor suction to do what?
A. remain the same, with a decrease in
suction pressure
B. increase, while maintaining the previous
suction pressure
C. remain the same with an increase in
suction pressure
D. increase, with an increase in suction
pressure
9 A refrigerant used in a mechanical refrigeration
system should have which of the following
characteristics?
A. High boiling point
B. High freezing point
C. Low specific heat
D. Low boiling point
10 If a condenser coil of an air-cooled container
refrigeration system becomes dirty and requires
cleaning, what would be an acceptable method of
cleaning?
A. ‘Binks’ gun with weak acid solvent
B. high pressure water wash
C. copper wire rotary brush
D. All of the above
11 One of the primary steps in assisting someone
who has been overcome by ammonia vapors is to do
what?
A. loosen all clothing
B. provide the victim with smelling salts
C. rinse the affected area with water
D. give the patient plenty of fresh air
12 The heat removed from the refrigerant in the
condenser of a refrigeration plant is known as what?
A. latent heat of expansion
B. sensible heat of condensation
C. heat of compress
D. all of the above
13 A one ton air conditioning system has which of the
listed operating characteristics?
A. It forces 2,000 lbs. of refrigerant through
the evaporator coil per day.
B. It forces 2,000 lbs. of air per hour across
the evaporator coils
C. It has the cooling capacity equivalent to
melting 2,000 lbs. of ice per day.
D. It has the cooling capacity equivalent to
melting 2,000 lbs. of ice per hour.
14 An unloader is installed on an air compressor to:
A. bypass the high pressure stage to the low
pressure stage on 100% of the air
compressors in service
B. prevent excessive interstage pressure
buildup
C. control compressor discharge pressure
D. remove all but the frictional load during
starting
15 Cylindrical, replaceable silica gel core dehydrators
installed in halocarbon refrigerant systems are
typically arranged in what way?
A. so that the liquid enters at the top and
leaves at the bottom when located
vertically in the liquid line
B. so that the liquid enters at the bottom
and leaves at the top when located
vertically in the liquid line
C. horizontally if a liquid drying agent is also
used
D. horizontally if the drying agent is calcium
oxide
16 Excessive moisture being collected in the purge
unit of a low pressure refrigeration system could
indicate which probable condition?
A. leaking condenser or chiller tubes
B. low efficiency purge unit
C. dryer core needs replacement
D. improper charging of refrigerant
17 In a large refrigeration system having more than
one evaporator, a king solenoid valve should be
installed in what location?
A. just after the receiver
B. before the condenser
C. between the condenser and receiver
D. before the back pressure regulating valve
18 Increasing the moisture content of conditioned air
is known as what?
A. moisturizing
B. dehumidification
C. dampening
D. humidification.
19 The advantages of flash type evaporators, as
compared to submerged tube type evaporators,
include:
A. less internal corrosion because of lower
brine density
B. higher temperature evaporation for lower
salinity of the distillate produced
C. less hard scale formation in a flash
evaporator
D. less feed water required for a flash
evaporator
20 The rupture disc used on low pressure refrigerant
storage containers is set for what pressure?
A. 1 psig
B. 5 psig
C. 10 psig
D. 15 psig
21 What is the color coding for a storage container
of R-134a refrigerant?
A. green
B. grey
C. purple
D. light blue
22 Which of the fluids listed is normally used to
condense the primary refrigerant in an indirect
shipboard central air conditioning system?
A. Engine jacket water
B. Seawater or Fresh water
C. Sodium Nitrate br
D. Calcium Sulfate brine
23 Which refrigeration system will absolutely
require the use of an oil separator located in the
discharge line due to a lack of refrigerant oil
miscibility?
A. R-401A
B. R-717 (ammonia)
C. R-134a
D. R-22
OIC - EW: COMPETENCE 5 Operate Fuel, Lubrication, 9 After coolers are used with air compressors to: 18 If you attempt to tighten a leaking hydraulic fitting
Ballast and Pumping System and Other A. reduce the temperature of compressed with pressure on the system, you will:
AssociatedControl System air A. be successful every time
B. decrease the density of compressed air B. find that the pressure will prevent the
1 Which component will receive the greatest load in C. dampen pressure pulses in the discharge components from being tightened
a two-stroke/cycle diesel engine? air C. cause the system to vibrate
A. Lower half of the connecting rod bearing D. ensure complete expansion of the D. dislodge any scale in the tubing, and it will
at the crankshaft end of the rod. compressed air damage the system
B. Upper half of the main bearing.
C. Lower portion of the piston pin bushing in 10 Cargo hose carried on tank vessels shall be able to 19 In a boiler equipped with a convection type
the connecting rod. withstand a pressure of at least: superheater, the superheater tubes are located:
D. All bearing halves share an equal load. A. 75 psi A. in a position screened from the furnace
B. 100 psi flame
2 Which of the listed substances can be satisfactorily C. 120 psi B. in the direct path of radiant heat flow
removed from dieselfuel by centrifuging? D. 150 psi C. in a separately fired convection furnace
A. Sludge D. on the fireside of the screen tubes
B. Gasoline 11 One function of diesel engine lubricating oil is to:
C. Fuel oil A. induce carbon formation on cylinder walls 20 On board supply vessels, a centrifuge is normally
D. Lube oil B. improve fuel penetration in the used to purify.
combustion space A. cooling water
3 Heating the fuel oil to an excessively high a C. form a friction reducing film between B. fuel oil
temperature in a fuel oil heater will cause: mating surfaces C. sea water
A. a loss of fuel oil suction D. lubricate the fuel injectors D. diesel intake air
B. over firing the boiler
C. leakage at the burners 12 The amount of oil atomized by a straight 21 Overheating of the hydraulic fluid in an electro-
D. fouling of the heater mechanical fuel oil burner depends on the sprayer hydraulic anchor windlass, may indicate pump
plate size and the: cavitation caused by:
4 Lube oil is preheated before centrifuging in order A. oil returnpressure A. overload of the pump motor
to: B. fuel oil pressure B. low oil level in the reservoir
A. boil off water C. forced draft pressure C. low fluid viscosity existing only around
B. prevent corrosion D. furnace air pressure the shaft seal
C. reduce friction of the rotating D. high oil level in the sump
components of the centrifuge 13 Which of the following is an indication that diesel
D. improve purification oil contamination is present in the main engine lube 22 The lube oil coolers installed in a gravity
oil system? lubricating oil system are located between the:
5 The purpose of wearing rings as found in large A. Lube oil viscosity hasdecreased A. lube oil pumps and gravity tanks
centrifugal pumps is to: B. Octane number is increased B. gravity tanks and main units
A. prevent an internal explosion in thepump C. Cetane number has decreased. C. gravity tanks and lube oil sump
when it is overheated D. Increase in lube oil pump discharge D. lube oil sumps and lube oil pumps
B. enable a visual inspection of the pump pressure.
whileit is running 23 The tendency for lubricating oil to thin out at high
C. ensure the proper alignment of the pump 14 If your ship burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at 15 temperatures and thicken at low temperatures will
coupling to the driver knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 18 be characterized by a:
D. permit internal components that are knots? A. low viscosity index
subjected to high erosion conditions, to A. 13.8 tons B. high viscosity index
be replaceable thereby extending the B. 11.5 tons C. high neutralization number
service life of the pump C. 10.7 tons D. low demulsibility quality
D. 9.5 tons
6 If your vessel burns 8 tons of fuel per hour at 15 24 When the hydraulic control lever for a deck winch
knots, how many tons per hour will it burn at 18 15 A centrifugal pump produces flow with a resulting is placed in the neutral or off position, the spring set
knots? discharge head by energy conversion. It is typical for brake on the fluid motor drive shaft is:
A. 13.82 tons the energy conversion to follow the order of: A. engaged by spring action and only
B. 15.61 tons A. mechanical energy to kinetic energy to released by hydraulic pressure
C. 16.00 tons potential energy B. released by spring action and
D. 16.37 tons B. mechanical energy to potential energy to hydraulically locks the winch when the
kinetic energy drum ceases rotating
7 A centrifugal ballast pump has a capacity of 200 C. engaged by spring action plus hydraulic
gpm. If suction is taken on a ballast tank containing 16 A liquid is being transferred by a centrifugal pump. pressure
200 long tons of seawater, how much water will be As the liquid passes through the volute, its velocity D. opened hydraulically and held open by
remain in the tank after discharging for one hour? decreases and: spring action whenever the electrical
A. 45.83 long tons A. its pressure increases supply is secured
B. 101.63 long tons B. its pressure decreases
C. 154.16 long tons C. the potential energy decreases 25 Which of the following conditions can cause
D. 199.87 long tons D. the kinetic energy increases excessive lube oil consumption in a diesel engine?
8 A hydraulic fluid flow control circuit, controlling A. Low lube oil temperature
linear actuator speed during extension, with the 17 An axial piston pump differs from a radial piston B. Dirty lube oil strainer
pump operating at system pressure, is known as a: pump as the pistons of an axial piston pump are C. Low lube oil pressure
A. metered-in circuit positioned: D. High lube oil temperature
B. metered-out circuit A. radially from the shaft
C. bleed-off circuit B. parallel to each other and to the shaft 26 Which of the following statements is correct
D. bleed-in circuit C. parallel to each other but at a right angle concerning the ‘flash point’ of a liquid?
to the shaft A. It is lower than the ignition temperature.
D. at an angle to each other andto the shaft B. It is the temperature at which a substance