1.

This process involves the passage of substances from the blood in the particular capillaries to the
tubular filtrate which aims to eliminated waste substances not filtered by the glomerulus and regulate
the acid base balance of the body.
A. Glomerular filtration
B. Tubular reabsorption
C. Tubular secretion
D. Renal blood flow
2. Which of the following parameters comprises the physical examination of urine?
I. Color
II. pH
III. Clarity
IV. Specific gravity
A. I only
B. I and II
C. I, II and III
D. I, III and IV
3. Which of the following pigments impart the orange-brown color to an unpreserved urine?
A. Urochrome
B. Urobilinogen
C. Urobilin
D. Uroerythrin
E. Bilirubin
4. What urine sample is expected to patient suffering from Diabetes Mellitus?
A. Pale yellow urine with low specific gravity
B. Pale yellow urine with high specific gravity
C. A yellow urine that turns brown upon standing
D. A yellow green urine sample
5. What substance is responsible for the black coloration of urine samples of patients with alkaptonuria?
A. Melanin
B. Porphyrins
C. Homogentisic acid
D. Hemoglobin
E. Pyridium
6. An anti-TB drug that causes the excretion of red urine.
A. Methyldopa
B. Vitamin B complex
C. Rifampin
D. Phenindione
E. Metronidazole
7. What should be the reading if a 5% NaCl is used to calibrate a refractometer?
A. 1. 020 +/- 0.001
B. 1. 022 +/- 0.001
C. 1. 032 +/- 0.001
D. 1. 034 +/- 0.001
8. What condition causes a cloudy red appearance in a urine specimen?
A. Hematuria
B. Hemoglobinuria
C. Myoglobinuria
D. Methemoglobinuria
9. What ketone body is detected in the reagent strip method for ketones?
A. Acetone
B. Acetoacetic acid
C. Beta-hydroxybutyrate
D. None of the above
10. A cold precipitation test that reacts equally with all forms of protein.
A. Benedict’s test
B. Ictotest
C. SSA
D. Hoesch Test
11. What is the expected pH reaction of urine right after meal?
A. Acid
1
Page

B. Alkaline
C. Either
 D. Meal has no effect on urine pH
12. Which of the following urine parameters is not affected by ascorbic acid?
A. Glucose
B. Urobilinogen
C. Nitrite
D. Leukocyte esterase
13. What is the 11th pad in the reagent strip?
A. Leukocyte esterase
B. Glucose
C. Vitamin C
D. Nitrite
14. What type of fire extinguisher is used to extinguish flammable organic chemicals?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
15. What guideline first stated that “all body fluids and moist body substances shall be considered as
potentially infectious”.?
A. Body Substance Isolation
B. Universal Precaution
C. OSHA
D. Standard Precaution
16. A maternity patient arrives in the doctor’s clinic and complains a painful urination. The physician
suspected a lower urinary tract infection and requests a routine urinalysis and urine culture. What type
of urine specimen should be collected from the patient?
A. Random urine specimen
B. Catheterized urine specimen
C. First morning urine
D. Midstream clean catch
17. Which of the following is the correct chain of infection?
A. Infectious agent > Reservoir > Entry portal > Mode of transmission > Exit portal > Susceptible
host
B. Susceptible host > Infectious agent > Reservoir > Entry portal > Mode of transmission > Exit
portal
C. Infectious agent > Reservoir > Exit portal > Mode of transmission > Entry portal > Susceptible
host
D. Susceptible host > Infectious agent > Reservoir > Exit portal > Mode of transmission > Entry
portal
18. The chain of infection requires the continuous link between what?
I. Source
II. Microorganism
III. Mode of Transmission
IV. Susceptible host
A. I, II, IV
B. I, III, IV
C. II, III, IV
D. All of the above
19. Which is part of Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)?
I. Gloves
II. Fluid absorbent gowns
III. Eye and face shield
IV. Open-toe shoes
A. I, II, III
B. I and III
C. II and IV
D. I, III, IV
20. What is the best way to break the chain of infection?
A. Using 70% isopropyl alcohol always
B. Handwashing
C. Proper use of PPEs
D. Both A and B
2
Page

21. Which of the following preservatives is used for cytology studies?

A. Formalin
 B. Toluene
C. Sacommano
D. Phenol
22. The laboratory received a urine sample with a fruity odor. What parameter/s in the dipstick will have a
positive result?
A. Ketones
B. Nitrite
C. Blood
D. Fruity-odor urine does not exist
23. Which of the following urine specimens is most useful when screening for glucosuria?
A. First morning urine
B. 2-hr post prandial
C. 24-hr urine
D. Midstream clean catch
24. A pink precipitate that is found in refrigerated urine and redissolves on heating indicates the presence
of what?
A. Amorphous urate
B. Amorphous phosphate
C. Contaminant
D. Blood
25. The reagent strip test that requires the longest reaction time is for the detection of what WBC enzyme?
A. Leukocyte hydrolase
B. Leukocyte esterase
C. Leukocyte transferase
D. Leukocyte epimerase
26. To preserve the integrity of the reagent strips, it is necessary that they are
A. Humidified adequately
B. Stored in the refrigerator
C. Properly dessicated
D. All of the above
27. In which of the following cases will the reagent strip for ketones be positive?
A. Hepatitis
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Carbohydrate restricted diet
D. Diabetes insipidus
28. A urine sample was shaken and produced a yellow foam. What possible substance is present in
urine?
A. Bilirubin
B. Protein
C. Urobilin
D. Urochrome
29. Which of the following statements below about urine pH is true?
A. High protein diet makes urine pH high
B. pH tends to decrease as urine is stored
C. Contamination should be suspected if the urine pH is less than 4.5
D. Bacteriuria is most often associated with a low urine pH
30. Which of the following urine specimen is considered normal?
A. A freshly voided urine that is brown and clear
B. A freshly voided urine that is yellow and cloudy
C. A clear yellow urine that changes in color upon standing
D. A clear yellow urine that becomes cloudy after refrigeration
31. Kidney function tests used to measure glomerular filtration rate can effectively employ all of the
following substances except
A. Creatinine
B. Inulin
C. Urea
D. None of the above
32. A urine specimen arrived in the laboratory at 8:15 am. Due to a busy workload of the lab, you forgot to
process the urine specimen. Until what time is sample still viable for testing?
A. 9:15 am
B. 9:30 am
3

C. 10:15 am
Page

D. 10:30 am
33. A constant urine specific gravity of 1.010 is defined as_________.
 A. Hyposthenuria
B. Hypersthenuria
C. Isosthenuria
D. Normosthenuria
34. The birefringent property of a urine crystal can be observed using what type of microscopic technique?
A. Fluorescent Microscopy
B. Polarized Microscopy
C. Brightfield Microscopy
D. Compensated Light Microscopy
35. Which of the following corresponds to the component of Strernheimer-Malbin Stain?
A. Cresyl blue + Eosin Y
B. Crystal violet + Eosin Y
C. Cresyl blue + Safranin O
D. Crystal Violet + Safranin O
36. A urine with an elevated specific gravity will affect all of the following EXCEPT.
A. Glucose
B. Leukocytes
C. Nitrate
D. Protein
37. Which of the following substances is responsible for the foul, fishy odor obtained when the “Whiff Test”
is performed on vaginal secretions?
A. Lactic acid
B. Trimethylamine
C. Tyrosine
D. Phenylalanine
38. How many mL of urine is usually required from a patient for routine urinalysis?
A. 10-15mL
B. 12 mL
C. 30 mL
D. 50 mL
39. This type of microscopic technique is also called the Modulation Contrast Microscope.
A. Nomarski-Differential
B. Hoffman
C. Phase-contrast
D. Polarizing
40. Which of the following is a supravital stain?
A. Lipid stain
B. Gram satin
C. Toluidine blue
D. Sternheimer-Malbin Stain
41. In cases of glomerular membrane damage, what specific type of red blood cells can be seen in the
patient’s urine?
A. Crenated cells
B. Swollen cells
C. Dysmorphic cells
D. None of the above
42. What type of leukocyte is predominantly seen in the urine of patients suffering from drug-induced
interstitial nephritis?
A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Lymphocytes
D. Monocytes
43. What specific type of epithelial cell is “clue cell”?
A. Cuboidal epithelial cell
B. Transitional epithelial cell
C. Squamous epithelial cell
D. Any of the above
44. What is the most commonly seen parasite seen in a urine sample?
A. Trichomonas vaginalis
B. Schistosoma haematobiun
C. Enterobius vermicularis
4

D. All of the above

Page
A medical technologist on duty fell asleep 30 minutes after the receipt of the first capped urine sample at
9:45am. The medical technologist woke up at 11:00 am and was rushing since a lot of urine samples came
without his knowledge. Due to negligence, the first sample was only tested at 11:30am.
45. Which of the following parameters are expected to be increased in an unpreserved urine?
I. Acidity
II. Alkalinity
III. Bacteria
IV. pH
V. Ammonia
VI. Nitrate
A. I, II, III, IV
B. II, III, IV, V
C. II, III, IV, V, VI
D. I, II, III, IV, V, IV
46. Because of fear to be apprehended by the head of the lab, the medical technologist still tested the urine
and forwarded a laboratory result to the reception area. If you are the on-duty medical technologist, will
you do the same?
A. Yes, sample was still viable for testing.
B. No, sample should have been subjected for disposal.
47. Which of the following parameter/s is/are the least affected in unpreserved urine?
A. Casts
B. Urobilinogen
C. Clarity
D. Protein
48. The patient’s physician ordered a urinary glucose test. If the sample is not anymore viable, what is
expected to glucose?
A. Increased
B. Decreased
C. Normal
D. Unaffected
49. Based from your answer in Item Number 48, what happened to the glucose?
A. Ketones was converted to glucose
B. Glucose was consumed by the bacteria
C. Glucose is the least affected metabolite in unpreserved urine
D. Both A and B
50. Let’s assume that upon the receipt of the sample, it was already subjected to testing. Noted in the
reagent strip pad a purple color on the “Ketone” pad. This is indicative of a _______ result.
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. False positive
D. Cross contamination
51. What is the principle of Ketone Testing in the reagent strip?
A. Double sequential Enzymatic Reaction
B. Legal’s test
C. Sorensen’s Test
D. Ehrlich’s Test
52. What is the chemical test utilized in the detection of reducing sugars present in urine?
A. Greiss Reaction
B. Copper Sulfate Test
C. Legal’s Test
D. Sorensen’s Test
53. How many seconds is the reaction time for ketones to give a positive or a negative reaction?
A. 30 seconds
B. 40 seconds
C. 45 seconds
D. 60 seconds
54. In the proper use of a reagent strip, dipping of the strip onto the urine takes approximately how many
second/s?
A. 1
B. 2
5

C. 3
Page

D. 4
55. How is blotting of reagent strip done?
A. Blot the edge of the strip onto a gauze
B. Blot the edge of the strip onto the edge of the tube
C. Blot the back side of the strip onto a gauze
D. Blot the front side of the strip onto a gauze
56. Which of the following is true regarding proper care of reagent strips?
A. Dessicant is not needed if the reagent strip bottle is tightly sealed
B. Do not store below 25 degrees
C. Can be used past the expiration date only when agrees with the control
D. Can be stored in an amber bottle
57. What is the principle applied in automated reagent strip readers?
A. Reflectance Photometry
B. Absorbance Photometry
C. Reflectance Colorimetry
D. Absorbance Colorimetry
58. Which of the following is the most common cause of urinary tract infection?
A. Klebsiella and Staphylococcus
B. Escherichia coli and Enterococcus
C. Staphylococcus and Enterococcus
D. All of the above
59. These are small, refractile sediments which sometimes have buds.
A. Bacteria
B. Yeast
C. Both
D. Neither
60. When urine sediments are viewed, various microscopic techniques are utilized to
I. Enhance details
II. For the confirmation of the identify of sediments
III. Differentiation of formed elements
IV. Facilitates visualization of low-refractile sediments
A. I, II, III
B. II, III, IV
C. I, III, IV
D. All of the above
61. A patient is regularly taking Ascorbic Acid as a supplement. What testing parameter in the urine would
be affected?
I. Blood
II. Bilirubin
III. Protein
IV. Ketones
V. Leukocyte
VI. Nitrite
VII. Glucose
A. I, II, III, IV, V
B. II, III, IV, V, VI
C. I, II, V, VI, VII
D. III, IV, V, VI, VII
62. This is the most well-known aminoacidurias.
A. Phenylketonuria
B. Tyrosiluria
C. MSUD
D. Any of the above
63. All but one is a test for glucose.
A. Seliwanoff’s
B. Trommer’s
C. Nylander’s
D. Moore Heller’s
64. Which of the following conditions most likely would account for a negative nitrite result on the reagent
strip despite the presence of large quantities of bacteria?
I. The bacteria did not have enough time to convert nitrate to nitrite
II. The bacteria present are not capable of converting nitrate to nitrite
6
Page

III. The urine is dilute and the level of nitrite present is below the sensitivity of the test
A. I, II
 B. II, III
C. I, III
D. All of the above
65. A urine that produces a large amount of white foam when mixed should be suspected of having
A. Bilirubin
B. Albumin
C. Urobilin
D. Urobilinogen
66. These are renal stones that are yellow brown in color and feel somewhat greasy
A. Cholesterol
B. Phosphate stone
C. Cysteine
D. Calcium oxalate
E. Uric acid
67. Usually pale and friable
A. Cholesterol
B. Phosphate stone
C. Cysteine
D. Calcium oxalate
E. Uric acid
68. They are typically yellow to brownish red and are moderately hard
A. Cholesterol
B. Phosphate stone
C. Cysteine
D. Calcium oxalate
E. Uric acid
69. These stones are very hard, often dark in color, and having a rough surface.
A. Cholesterol
B. Phosphate stone
C. Cysteine
D. Calcium oxalate
E. Uric acid
70. The urine microscopic constituent that best differentiate between cystitis and pyelonephritis is
A. WBCs
B. Bacteria
C. RBCs
D. WBC cast
71. Which of the following contaminants has a dimpled center and will polarize light?
A. Diaper fibers
B. Air bubbles
C. Starch
D. Pollen
72. This is also known as “Lipid Nephrosis”
A. Nephrotic syndrome
B. Membranous glomerulonephritis
C. Acute interstitial nephritis
D. Minimal change disease
73. The creatinine clearance in reported in
A. mg/dL
B. mg/24 hours
C. mL/min
D. mL/24 hours
74. What is the major inorganic solute found in urine?
A. Urea
B. Chloride
C. Potassium
D. Ammonium
75. The presence of leukocytes in the urine is known as
A. Chyluria
B. Hematuria
C. Pyuria
D. Luokocytosis
76. This is a metabolic disorder of amino acid which is detected by the silver nitroprusside test.
A. Cystinuria
7

B. Cystinosis
Page

C. Homocystinuria
 D. All of the above
77. What is the bacterium used in the Guthrie Bacterial Inhibition Test?
A. Bacillus cereus
B. Bacillus subtilis
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
78. What is the reagent used in the protein determination using the reagent strip?
A. Peroxidase
B. Sodium nitroprusside
C. Tetramethyl benzidine
D. Tetrabromphenol blue
79. Which of the following is not a serotonin-rich food?
A. Bananas
B. Potato
C. Tomatoes
D. Pineapples
80. The alpha sub-unit of human chorionic gonadotropin in similar with which of the following?
A. LH
B. FSH and LH
C. TSH, LH and FSH
D. None of the above
81. What is the most ideal specimen for HCG determination?
A. First morning urine specimen; acidic
B. First morning urine specimen; alkaline
C. Midstream clean catch; acidic
D. Midstream clean catch; alkaline
82. What is the positive result for HCG using the Ascheim-Zondek bioassay?
A. Formation of hemorrhagic follicles and corpora lutea of immature female mice
B. Formation of hemorrhagic follicles and corpora lutea of female virgin rat
C. Hyperemic uterus and corpora hemorrhagica of mature virgin female rabbits
D. Hyperemic uterus and corpora hemorrhagica of immature female mice
83. Heat stable alkaline phosphatase or the Regan Isoenzyme is markedly elevated during
A. Third trimester
B. Eclampsia
C. Both
D. Neither
84. Which of the following is/are test/s for ovulation?
A. Fern test
B. Spinnbarkeit Test
C. Sims-Huhner Test
D. All of the above
85. During the ovulatory phase of a woman, the amount of mucus and its viscosity is
A. Directly proportional
B. Inversely proportional
C. No relationship between the two
D. Both A and B
86. Which of the following tests will “arborization” will be interpreted as a positive result?
A. Spinnbarkeit Test
B. Sims-Huhner Test
C. Fern Test
D. All of the above
87. What is considered as a safe practice after skin contact with chemicals?
A. Neutralize chemicals that come in contact with the skin
B. Flush the area with large amounts of water for 15 minutes
C. Both
D. Neither
88. What agency developed a diamond shaped, color coded symbol that contains information relating to
health, flammability, reactivity and personal protection/special precaution.
A. OSHA
B. CLSI
C. NFPA
D. CDC
89. What extinguishing components are used to extinguish fires caused by Class D materials?
A. Water
8

B. Dry chemicals, CO2, Foam

Page

C. Sand or dry powder

D. All of the above
90. What is the proper way of urine centrifugation of urine specimens?
A. 400 RCF for 5 minutes
B. 500 RCF for 5 minutes
C. 400 RCF for 10 minutes
D. 500 RCF for 10 minutes
91. This is also known as the Stamey-Mears test.
A. Three Glass Collection
B. Post Prostatic Massage Test
C. Initial Voided Test
D. Random Urine
92. Which of the following components will be decreased in an unpreserved urine?
A. Bacteria
B. Trichomonads
C. pH
D. A and B
E. A, B, and C
93. Which of the following is/are reason/s for urine specimen rejection?
A. Unlabeled urine specimen container
B. Insufficient volume of urine
C. Specimens with tissue paper
D. A and B
E. A, B, and C
94. What sputum structure appears as yellowish or gray caseous mass that emits a foul odor when
crushed?
A. Bronchial cast
B. Dittrich plug
C. Lung stones
D. Curshmann’s Spiral
95. Which of the following is responsible for the production of mucus which serves to lubricate the food for
protection of the stomach?
A. Parietal cells
B. Peptic cells
C. Goblet cells
D. Chief cells
96. What is the proper way of strorage for sperm fructose analysis?
A. Refrigerator temperature
B. Freezing
C. Room temperature
D. Incubator
97. India ink preparations and microbial antigen tests on CSF can aid in the diagnosis of
A. Bacterial meningitis
B. Fungal meningitis
C. Tubercular meningitis
D. Viral meningitis
98. Which of the following cell types predominate in the CSF during a classic case of viral meningitis?
A. Lymphocytes
B. Macrophages
C. Monocytes
D. Neutrophils
99. Which of the following urinary calculi is associated with high purine diet content and uromodulin-
associated kidney disease?
A. Struvite calculi
B. Uric acid calculi
C. Cysteine calculi
D. Hempseed calculi
100. A type of proteinuria seen in individuals who has been in an erect position and disappears upon
resting in bed.
A. Orthostatic Proteinuria
B. Postural Proteinuria
C. Cyclic Proteinuria
D. All of the above
9
Page
Page 10