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CSAT 2024

TEST SERIES – PIE

Test - 1(QUANT)
• Number System
• HCF & LCM
• P & C and Probability

(QUESTION PAPER)
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO
T.B.C.: SU-2024-pPLT Test Booklet Series
TEST BOOKLET

CSAT A
Test – 1 (QUANT)
Time Allowed: 1 Hours Maximum Marks :100

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK
THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES
OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate's responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number and Test
Booklet Series Code A, B, C or D carefully and without any omission or discrepancy at the
appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer
Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the
Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside.
DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 40 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response you want to mark on the Answer sheet.
In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the
best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the
Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you
have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission
Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your response on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPER.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer
has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as
penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii)If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO
CSAT 2024 TEST SERIES – PIE | TEST-1
1. Find the smallest number that leaves a 5. How many factors of 22 × 33 × 55 are odd
remainder of 4 on division by 5, 5 on numbers?
division by 6, 6 on division by 7. (a) 8
(a) 29 (b) 15
(b) 119 (c) 20
(c) 129 (d) 24
(d) 209
6. There are two clocks, one beat 72 times in
2. Apples, Oranges and Bananas of count 84, 12 minutes and the other beat 56 times in 7
216, 120 were ordered for a particular minutes. If they beat together exactly at 12
event. They need to be packed in such a noon, after how much time do they next
way that each box has the same variety of beat together?
fruit and the number of fruit in each box is (a) 30 sec
also the same. What is the minimum (b) 60 sec
number of boxes required to pack? (c) 2 minutes
(a) 30 (d) 3 minutes
(b) 32
(c) 35 7. In a class, students are assigned roll
(d) 38 numbers from 1 to 60. All students with
even roll numbers opted for cricket and all
1 1
3. Three ropes of length 4 𝑚, 3 𝑚 those whose roll numbers are divisible by 5
5 2
1 opted for football. The number of students
𝑎𝑛𝑑 5 𝑚 are cut into small pieces, all of
4 who did not opt for any of the three sports
which have equal length. Each piece of rope is
is as lengthy as possible. How many total (a) 18
number of pieces are there in all?
(b) 24
(a) 31
(c) 36
(b) 37
(d) 42
(c) 41
(d) 43
8. The LCM of three different numbers is
100, which of the following cannot be their
4. How many factors of 180 are perfect HCF?
squares? (a) 4
(a) 2 (b) 5
(b) 3 (c) 8
(c) 4 (d) 10
(d) 5
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CSAT 2024 TEST SERIES – PIE | TEST-1
9. The least number which should be added to 13. How many different positive integers exist
1237 so that the sum is exactly divisible by 3, between 104 and 105 , the sum of whose
4, 5 and 6 is: digits is equal to 2?
(a) 7
(a) 5
(b) 13
(b) 6
(c) 19
(c) 7
(d) 23
(d) 8
10. A, B and C start at the same time in the same
direction to run around a circular stadium. A 14. What is the remainder when 97 × 103 ×
completes a round in 15 seconds, B in 18 107 × 110 × 115 is divided by 50?
seconds and C in 21 seconds, all starting at the (a) 0
same point. After what time will they meet
(b) 1
again at the starting point?
(c) 2
(a) 320 seconds
(b) 360 seconds (d) 4
(c) 630 seconds
(d) 660 seconds 15. What is the remainder when 4100 + 6100 is
divided by 5?
11. A number N is randomly selected between 1 (a) 0
and 111 (both inclusive). What is the (b) 1
probability that the HCF of N and 111 is 1? (c) 2
(a) 72/111
(d) 3
(b) 73/111
Directions for the following 3 (three)
(c) 74/111
questions: Consider a large number N = 1 2
(d) 75/111
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 0 1 1 1 2 1 3 1 4 ………9 7 9 8 9
9 1 0 0. It is such that first 100 natural
12. Question: Is x 3 > x 2 ?
numbers are consecutively written.
Statement-1: x > 0
Statement-2: x < 1
Which one of the following is correct in
16. What will be the 100th digit of N?
respect of the above Question and the (a) 4
Statements? (b) 5
(a) The Question can be answered by using (c) 6
one of the Statements alone, but cannot be (d) 7
answered using the other Statement alone.
(b) The Question can be answered by using
either Statement alone. 17. What will be sum of first 100 digits of N?
(c) The Question can be answered by using (a) 295
both the Statements together, but cannot (b) 316
be answered using either Statement alone. (c) 337
(d) The Question cannot be answered even by (d) 365
using both the Statements together.
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CSAT 2024 TEST SERIES – PIE | TEST-1
18. What will be the remainder when first 100 22. If p, q, r and s are distinct single digit whole
digits of N are divided by 9? numbers, then what is the greatest value of
(p – q) (r – s)?
(a) 4
(a) 48
(b) 5 (b) 49
(c) 7 (c) 63
(d) 64
(d) 8

23. A book editor is typing the number of pages


19. What is the unit digit in the expansion of on a book. How many characters does he
(76543)7×5×3×1 ? needs to type, while typing page numbers
from 1 to 99?
(a) 1 (a) 181
(b) 3 (b) 189
(c) 7 (c) 193
(d) 197
(d) 9

24. How many natural numbers are there which


20. A 3-digit number PQR, on multiplication give a remainder of 36 when 786 is divided
with S gives 46SS where P, Q, R and S are by these natural numbers?
(a) 4
different non-zero digits. What is the value
(b) 5
of (P + Q) x (R + S)? (c) 6
(a) 36 (d) 7
(b) 48
25. What is the sum of all 3-digit numbers
(c) 64
formed by the digits 3, 5 and 7, where none
(d) 72 of the digits is repeated?
(a) 3230
(b) 3330
21. How many distinct 6-digit numbers can be
(c) 3430
formed by rearranging the digits of number
(d) 3530
123456 such that odd digits occupy even
positions and even digits occupy odd 26. Two numbers p and q are inversely
positions? proportional to each other. If p increases by
100%, then q decreases by
(a) 30
(a) 25%
(b) 36 (b) 50%
(c) 45 (c) 100%
(d) 49 (d) 200%

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CSAT 2024 TEST SERIES – PIE | TEST-1
27. A problem is given to two students whose 30. What is the probability that a leap year has
chances of solving it are 1/2 and 1/3 53 Saturdays and 52 Sundays?
respectively. What is the probability that (a) 1⁄7
the problem will be solved? (b) 2⁄7
(a) 1⁄6 (c) 52⁄366
(b) 2⁄3 (d) 53⁄366

(c) 1⁄4
31. Sam has 3 different trousers, 4 different t-
(d) 5⁄6 shirts and 5 different shirts. If he wears
either shirt or t-shirt along with a trouser,
how many different combinations can he
28. Tickets numbered 1 to 100 are mixed up wear?
and then a ticket is drawn at random. What (a) 12
is the probability that the ticket drawn has a (b) 15
number which is a multiple of 2 and 5? (c) 20
(d) 27
(a) 1⁄2

(b) 1⁄5 32. A batsman needs to score 25 runs in last 5


balls. But he is badly injured and cannot
(c) 1⁄10 run, so he decides to score via hitting sixes
(d) 1⁄20 and fours only. In how many ways can
batsman score the winning runs,
considering the sequence of scoring shots?
Directions for the following 2 (two) (a) 12
questions: (b) 16
A Normal year contains 365 days. Every 4 year, (c) 18
(d) 20
we witness a leap year with 366 days. For a
leap year, consider the following questions.
33. Naaz, Nalini and Gracy are a part of sales
team. They work 5 hours each day and
29. What is the probability of getting 53 contact 12 customers per hour. Naaz sales a
Thursdays in a leap year? product to every 1 in 3 customers she
connects, Nalini to every 1 in 4 customers
(a) 1⁄7 and Gracy to every 1 in 6 customers. How
(b) 2⁄7 many total products can they sell in 1 day?
(a) 30
(c) 52⁄366 (b) 35
(d) 53⁄366 (c) 40
(d) 45

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CSAT 2024 TEST SERIES – PIE | TEST-1
34. A city has 10 parallel roads running East- 38. A five-digit number comprises of only 2's
West and 8 parallel roads running North- and 3's. How many of these are multiples
South. How many rectangles are formed of 12?
with their sides along these roads? (a) 1
(a) 640 (b) 3
(b) 800 (c) 5
(d) 7
(c) 1140
(d) 1260
39. If we listed all numbers from 100 to 10,000,
how many times would the digit 4 be
35. In the first round of Chess world cup, there printed?
are n players. Each player is supposed to (a) 3420
play every other player. In total 45 matches (b) 3560
are played in the first round. How many (c) 3780
players (n) are there in the first round? (d) 3840
(a) 8
(b) 9 40. All the rearrangements of the word "NICE"
(c) 10 are written. If these are arranged
alphabetically, what would be the rank of
(d) 12
"NICE"?
(a) 15
36. There are four persons A, B, C and D each (b) 17
of whom has to be assigned at least one (c) 19
task. There are three Tasks P, Q and R. A (d) 23
cannot be assigned P task, B cannot be
assigned Q task and C cannot be assigned
R task. How many ways can the ******
assignment be done?
(a) 12
(b) 16
(c) 18
(d) 24

37. In how many ways 16 identical toys be


placed in 4 distinct boxes such that no box
is empty?
(a) 455
(b) 560
(c) 1365
(d) 1820

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