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MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2023

MOCK CLAT - 33
ANSWER KEY & EXPLANATIONS
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1. (c) Option (c) is the correct answer, as the fifth
paragraph of the passage comes out with the idea
that for a given set of financial ratios, the risk faced
by a small firm is larger than that faced by a bigger
firm. Refer to the line, ‘For a given set of financial
ratios, a small firm may be riskier than a larger one.’
Option (a) is not the core concept mentioned. Option
(b) is a sub-set, one of the factors. On the other hand,
option (c) caters to all the factors mentioned in the
passage. Option (d) is nowhere mentioned by the
author; thus, it is not an answer.
2. (d) Option (d) is the correct answer as it finds no place
in the passage. The fourth paragraph refutes the fact
that the quality of the financial data is not a problem
for small businesses attempting to seek a banking
relationship. Option (a) is mentioned in the second
paragraph. Option (b) is mentioned in the first half
of the fourth paragraph, which confers that the
bank’s perception of the business is important to the
owner-manager. Option (c) is mentioned in the
fourth paragraph which states that ratio analysis is
frequently used by a bank officer to process loans
and make an appraisal of the credit needs of the
borrower unit.
3. (d) Option (d) is the correct answer as the passage uses
the method of analysis to drive home certain
concepts. Option (a) is incorrect as all the reasons
and facts are stated by the author; thus, it is not based
on assumptions. Option (b) is absurd and has no
reasoning behind it. Option (c) is incorrect as it is
just not imaginary, whereas it is based on actual
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circumstances mentioned as examples in the
passage.
4. (b) Option (b) is the correct answer as the passage is
essentially about small businesses. Financial data,
ratio analysis and risks involved are specific to the
small business units. Option (a) is partially correct,
but the main theme is not reflected. The passage
does not revolve around ratio analysis. Ratio
analysis has been suggested as a tool to evaluate
small businesses before crediting loans to them.
Option (c) is half true but it is a subsidiary, not the
main contention. Option (d) is incorrect as it is
irrelevant to the topic of the passage.
5. (c) Option (c) is the correct answer. The passage is too
high a stuff meant for students of High School
classes. Option (a) is quite likely the source of the
passage. Option (b) is not the answer as it is the main
contention of the passage; thus, it can be a source.
Option (d) is not the answer, as it is viable; thus, it
can be the source of the passage.
6. (d) Option d is the correct answer. Options (a), (b), and
(c) find no place in the passage, directly or
implicitly, and therefore, are incorrect. The last line
of the passage states the desperate economic
realities in Mexico and Central America as being the
cause of illegal immigration, therefore, Option (d)
best depicts this.
7. (b) Option (b) is the correct answer. The passage is all
about the settlement of foreigners in the U.S., driven
by certain causes and in fulfilment of certain
objectives. It gives out the reasons for such an
influx. Hence option (b) fits in evenly.
Option (a) is incorrect because had the passage been
solely about population, factors like fertility rates
Page 1 of 16
 and mortality rates would be discussed. The
question of immigration is a subset of the question
of population studies, and the following passage
only concerns the question of immigration patterns
in America; therefore, option (a) is incorrect.
Option (c) is also incorrect as even though the
immigration and the exodus of Mexicans and Latin
Americans have been discussed, the passage also
discusses the immigration influx of Asian
communities.
Option (d) is incorrect as the current passage does
not talk about the life of the early settlers in the U.S.
and in fact, the following option is redundant.
8. (a) Option (a) is the correct answer. Option (a) is out of
place in relation to the passage as the Immigration
Reform Act of 1965 had sufficient provisions to
address the concerns of immigrants as well as the
Anglo population of America. The same act also
provided amnesty to undocumented immigrants
who entered America before 1982, therefore, the
sought option is (a).
Options (b), (c), and (d) find a mention in the
passage in the fifth, third, and fourth paragraphs
respectively, therefore, do not constitute the correct
answer.
9. (b) Option (b) is the correct answer. Paragraph four of
the passage talks about how the decline of global oil
prices led to an economic slump in the Mexican
economy. Options (a), (c), and (d) are redundant to
the question that concerns the reasons for the
economic slump in Mexico. Options (a) and (c) deal
with the issues faced in America due to the influx of
immigrants, whereas option (d) is not supported by
the passage.
10. (a) Option (a) is the correct answer. The word
‘predicted’ is a projection based on previous data.
This requires vision and calculations; therefore,
envisaged is the correct answer. Options (b) is
incorrect in the context, as it means to draw a
conjecture or a hypothesis based on a rough data,
which is not the case here. Refer to the lines,
Demographers predicted that by the middle of the
next century Hispanics would replace African
Americans as the largest minority group in the
nation.’ In the given context, the demographer’s
foretelling is not mere speculation. Option (c) is
incorrect, for ‘prophesied’ even though is close as a
synonym, strictly speaking, means a prediction
based on intuition. Option (d) is ruled out as a
replacement.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions that follow:
11. (a) Rationale: Refer to the lines, ‘In this environment, it
is natural to ask what happens to the financial wealth
of the agents with incorrect beliefs. The market
selection hypothesis suggests that these agents will
lose most of their financial wealth in the long run,
leaving them only their non‐financial wealth.’
Hence the correct option is A. The remaining
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options are distorted versions of the original
contention of the author.
12. (a) Rationale: Statement 1 is true as the passage states,
‘The events leading to the financial crisis of 2007–8
have highlighted the importance of belief
heterogeneity and how financial markets create
opportunities for agents with different beliefs to
leverage up and speculate. Several investment and
commercial banks invested heavily in mortgage‐
backed securities, which subsequently suffered
large declines in value. At the same time, some
hedge funds profited from the securities by short‐
selling them.
Statement 2 is false as the passage states, ‘One
reason why economic theory has paid relatively
little attention to the heterogeneity of beliefs and
how it interacts with financial markets is the market
selection hypothesis. The hypothesis, originally
formulated by Friedman (1953), claims that in the
long run, there should be limited differences in
beliefs because agents with incorrect beliefs will be
taken advantage of and eventually driven out of the
markets by those with the correct beliefs.’
Hence the correct answer is A.
13. (b) Rationale: According to the passage, 'In this article,
I revisit the hypothesis in a dynamic general
equilibrium framework with aggregate shocks and
heterogeneous, infinitely‐lived agents, in which
agents differ in their beliefs on the Markov transition
matrix of aggregate shocks, beside other dimensions
such as endowment or risk‐aversion. But departing
from complete markets, I assume that markets are
incomplete because of collateral constraints
(equivalently portfolio constraints or margin
constraints). Collateral constraints limit the extent to
which agents can pledge their future non‐financial
wealth (relatedly, non‐tradable or non‐pledgeable
wealth) and ensure that agents with incorrect
beliefs never lose so much as to be driven out of
the market. Consequently, all agents, regardless of
their beliefs, survive in the long run and continue to
trade on the basis of their heterogeneous beliefs.'
The above is in line with the author’s contentions,
making option (b) the correct answer. The lines,
‘But departing from complete markets, I assume that
markets are incomplete because of collateral
constraints (equivalently portfolio constraints or
margin constraints)’, go against the author’s
assumption; therefore, option (a) is incorrect. The
lines, ‘In this environment, it is natural to ask what
happens to the financial wealth of the agents with
incorrect beliefs. The market selection hypothesis
suggests that these agents will lose most of their
financial wealth in the long run, leaving them only
their non‐financial wealth’, make option (c)
incorrect. Option (d) is defied by the lines, ‘When
markets are more incomplete, the market selection
hypothesis fails more.’
Hence the correct answer is option B.
Page 2 of 16
14. (d) Rationale: option (a) is far-fetched in its inference.
The agents are not the catalyst of the collateral
constraints’ stringency. Option (b) is contrary to
what is claimed in the sentence. Option (c) is
extreme (never); moreover, it is a narrow
interpretation of the claim. The author contends that
the agents ride on prosperity purely due to
speculation when the collateral constraint of one real
asset is tight.
Option d is the right answer.
15. (a) Rationale: According to the passage, 'In this article,
I revisit the hypothesis in a dynamic general
equilibrium framework with aggregate shocks and
heterogeneous, infinitely‐lived agents, in which
agents differ in their beliefs on the Markov transition
matrix of aggregate shocks, besides other
dimensions such as endowment or risk‐aversion.'
Hence the correct answer is option A.
According to the passage, 'But departing from
complete markets, I assume that markets are
incomplete because of collateral constraints
(equivalently portfolio constraints or margin
constraints). 'hence option b is not true.
According to the passage, 'In this environment, it is
natural to ask what happens to the financial wealth
of the agents with incorrect beliefs.' Hence option c
is not the right answer.
According to the passage, 'The market selection
hypothesis suggests that these agents will lose most
of their financial wealth in the long run, leaving
them only their non‐financial wealth. But it turns out
that the answer to the question is not simple and
depends on financial markets structures….I revisit
the hypothesis in a dynamic general equilibrium
framework..' Hence, it is not the right answer.
16. (b) Option (a) is NOT correct as it does not capture the
essence of the passage. In the passage, the author
explains the nonutility of liberal arts in the context
of today’s times.
Option (b) is correct as the author it carries the
essence of the passage in brief. In the passage, the
author highlights the unsustainability of liberal arts
in a world which is rooted in fixed notions and ideas.
Refer to the lines, ‘The liberal arts’ foundational
assumptions of equality, multiple identities and
justice that undergirds its motto of plurality and
pluralism, is unsustainable in a world given to easy
binarisms. In an age when the emotional appeal, via
jingoistic rhetoric, is given over to such binaries,
then the liberal arts’ insistence on plurality of
meaning, identity, and origins becomes untenable.
In the age where emotional appeal gathers strength
around notions of fixed, unchanging and original
identities, the liberal arts’ argument in favour of
features and states of being like multiculturalism
and syncretism, or fluid identities and
borrowings/influences, shared borders and roots,
would be nothing short of anathema.’
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Option (c) is far-fetched because the passage is not
about harm or disfavouring liberalism. Option (d) is
vague. It does not provide clarity on the contents of
the passage, as it is too generalised a concept.
Option (c) is NOT correct as the author doesn’t
compare anywhere in the passage about the
relevance of liberal arts with that of the sciences.
17. (a) An anachronism is a chronological inconsistency in
some arrangement, especially a juxtaposition of
people, events, objects, language terms and customs
from different time periods. Thus, antiquated is a
perfect synonym in this case. The rest of the options
are unsuited in the context.
18. (d) Option (d) is correct. Two options are close. They
are options (c) and (d). After carefully studying the
question stem, one understands that one has to select
an option that reflects the author’s main concern.
The first few lines of the passage reflect the author’s
primary concern that the applicability of liberal arts,
despite concerted efforts to broaden its scope, is ill-
suited in today’s digital world, where quick-fix
methods are applied rather than working on deeper
reflections. Option (d) best brings out the main
concern. Option (c) is a reason for the main concern;
therefore, it is not the right answer. The author
mentions that nowadays, people are leaning towards
binarism, which is constricting their ability to multi-
interpret any study or find, making option (b)
incorrect, for it contradicts the author’s contention.
Option (b) is NOT correct. The author does mention
digitalisation. However, he mentions that this has
led to people being overzealously emotional and
missing out on the finer details of any event.
19. (a) Refer to the lines, ‘appears to be at odds with the
way liberal arts and its cohort of disciplines –
history, literature, music, philology, philosophy –
have traditionally thought, spoken, written and been
taught.’ On either side of the preposition ‘of’ lies
nouns; therefore, ‘cohort’, which means groups or
supporters, is a noun. The rest of the options are
unsuited in the context.
20. (b) Refer to the lines, ‘In the age where emotional
appeal gathers strength around notions of fixed,
unchanging and original identities, the liberal arts’
argument in favour of features and states of being
like multiculturalism and syncretism, or fluid
identities and borrowings/influences, shared borders
and roots, would be nothing short of anathema.’ The
author in the passage says that in today’s age where
emotional manipulative persuasion rests on fixed
notions, the liberal arts’ multiculturalism appeal
would be considered as something of a curse or to
be loathed. Therefore, option (b) is the correct
answer.
21. (d) Rationale: A formal tone is typical in a professional
or academic context when the piece needs to be
direct and thorough while maintaining a respectful
feel. Formal pieces often include full words with no
contractions or other shortened words and do not
Page 3 of 16
 include slang terms. It is grammatically correct and
emphasizes facts rather than opinions.
A tense tone helps to keep the reader feeling unsure
of what will happen next. An author might use a
tense tone when writing a mystery or thriller, and
they want to convey feelings of worry and concern.
In most stories, a tense tone will lead to a resolution,
and the tone will change. Another term for a tense
tone is worried, which can make the reader feel
anxious or apprehensive about what is to come.
Some people assume that an assertive tone is the
same as an aggressive tone, but they do differ. An
assertive tone conveys authority and confidence,
while an aggressive tone comes across as more
angry or harsh. When writing assertively, an author
will often present things in a straightforward way
with little to no room for argument.
An entertaining tone seeks to help the reader enjoy
the material. It might be humorous and make the
reader laugh or simply be light-hearted and
enjoyable.
Hence the correct answer is option D.
22. (a) Rationale: Option (a) is right as the passage states,
‘From Madrid to heaven, and in heaven a spy-hole
to look at Madrid”. One can infer that Madrid is the
closest to heaven with its clear sky is like getting a
glimpse of heaven itself. Options (b), (c) and (d) are
contrary to what is stated in the passage.
23. (c) Rationale: According to the sentence, the climate is
capricious, changing from being the hottest day to
sending a chill at some street corner. The weather
has been described as unpredictable; therefore,
fickle is the correct answer. Options (a) and (d) are
contrary to the meaning. Option (b) does not make
sense in the context.
Hence the correct answer is option C.
24. (c) Rationale: Statement I can be negated from the lines
that Rio and Cabarras, two Spanish historians, speak
of the bad odours and the dirt of Madrid in the
seventeenth century.
Statement I can be negated from the lines, ‘So fickle
is the climate of this lofty region that, even in the
height of August, it is never quite safe to discard the
capa after sundown, for, during the hottest day, a
sinister and gelid breath may assail one at the street
corner with a menace of chill to the lungs. Yet
Madrid is not unhealthy.
Hence the correct answer is option C.
25. (b) Rationale: Option B is the only right answer as the
passage states that Rio and Cabarras, two Spanish
historians, speak of the bad odours and the dirt of
Madrid in the seventeenth century. This reproach
was, however, removed in the time of Henry
Swinburne, an intelligent traveller, who visited the
city in 1776. “The appearance of Madrid,” writes
Swinburne, “is grand and lively; noble streets, good
houses, and excellent pavement, as clean as it was
once dirty.” In earlier days it was not thought
necessary to wash the thoroughfares because the
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purity of the air was an effective antidote to the
evil of the filth and the smells. Rio, for example,
advances the opinion that the invigorating mountain
breezes are a sufficient purification. The rest of the
options do not convey the correct meaning.
26. (b) The passage shows how Socrates cordially agreed
with the Sophists on multiple points, but there is a
certain contrast in his views with the Sophists. The
purpose of the author in the passage is to highlight
this contrast.
Refer to the lines – ‘His teaching was given to the
world close on the heels of the sophistic doctrines.
They share the free spirit of inquiry, which formed
the essential feature of ‘Sophisticism’ and yet the
views embodied in them are in complete opposition
to the agnosticism and scepticism of the Sophists. ‘
Socrates also protested that sophists’ inquiry had
been partial, inadequate and superficial; he
demanded further that the inquiry should be through
going and complete.
The author has not elaborated on the eclectic
thoughts of Socrates. Option (c) and (d) are
incorrect. There is no evidence in the passage that
Socrates’ views were inspired by Sophism.
Hence, only option (a) is incorrect.
27. (d) Abjure means to promise publicly or formally that
you will give up or not accept a belief or a way of
behaving.
It is similar in meaning to deny (to refute.), repudiate
(to refuse to accept especially) and reject (to
discard).
But rampage means to move through a place in a
violent group, usually breaking things and attacking
people. It is not related to ‘abjure’.
Hence, option (d) is the answer.
28. (a) Refer to the lines, ‘Socrates agreed with the Sophists
about the free spirit of enquiry. But he found their
spirit of enquiry not free of bias and non-
comprehensive. Hence, option (a) shows the correct
paradox reflected in the passage.
Socrates has not criticised the Sophistic beliefs.
Hence, option (b) is incorrect.
The passage does not support option ©. It is out of
context.
Mark (a) as the answer.
29. (d) It has been mentioned in the passage that the inquiry
should be thoroughgoing and complete, more so
since it had been under the direction of the Sophists.
Socrates demanded that inquiry shall not be partial,
inadequate and superficial.
Refer to the line in the second last paragraph – ‘He
protested that their inquiry had been partial,
inadequate and superficial; he proposed to carry out
a more radical and comprehensive inquiry.’
Hence, all the options except option (d) are relevant
and found mentioned in the passage.
Refer to the line –‘He protested that their inquiry
had been partial, inadequate and superficial; he
Page 4 of 16
 proposed to carry out a more radical and
comprehensive inquiry.’
Hence, (d) is the most appropriate answer.
30. (d) The author has not criticised or tormented the views
of Socrates in the passage. Acquiescing means
approving or complying. He also does not support
views. He is just trying to explain the agreement of
Socrates with sophism. His attitude is discerning (a
sound judgement and understanding. )
Option (d) is the correct answer.
SECTION -B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
31. (b) The six-day process had five components: stopping
of “forward deployments”; return of troops of both
sides to their respective areas; dismantling of “all
temporary structures and other allied
infrastructure”; restoring “landforms in the area” to
pre-standoff positions by both sides; stopping of
forward deployment in a “phased, coordinated and
verified manner”, and ensuring structures are
“dismantled and mutually verified”.
32. (a) India and China have “satisfactorily” completed the
physical verification of each other's positions in the
Gogra-Hot Springs area (Patrolling Point-15) in
Eastern Ladakh along the Line of Actual Control
(LAC).
33. (d) Among the issues pending is the resolution of
disputes at Depsang, a 972-sq km plateau where the
two sides have issues over troop positions,
especially the “bottleneck” on the eastern edge of
Depsang. India has been objecting to the PLA
deliberately blocking Indian patrols on this specific
patrolling route in Depsang.
34. (c) This is the first in-person SCO Summit after
COVID-19 pandemic hit the world. The last in-
person SCO Heads of State Summit was held in
Bishkek in June 2019. It was held at Samarkand in
Uzbekistan. Modi and Xi did not meet in person on
a bilateral basis even though the two leaders shared
the stage while standing by each other. On the other
hand, Modi met separately with Russia's Vladimir
Putin, Iran's Ebrahim Raisi, Uzbekistan's Shavkat
Mirziyoyev and Turkey's Recep Tayyip Erdogan on
the sidelines of the summit. China congratulated
India as it was handed over the presidency of the
Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) at the
summit in Uzbekistan’s Samarkand on Friday.
Premier Xi Jinping said China will support India for
its presidency next year. India will be hosting the
SCO Summit next year. “We will support India for
its presidency next year,” Xi said. India once again
refrained from affirming support for China's One
Belt, One Road (OBOR) initiative in the Joint
Declaration issued after the Samarkand summit of
the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation held on
Friday. While six members -- Kazakhstan, Kyrgyz
Republic, Pakistan, Russia, Tajikistan and
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Uzbekistan -- acknowledged the ongoing work,
India stayed out of endorsing Beijing’s flagship
project.
35. (c) India-Japan relations have grown from strength to
strength in the last decade, with significant personal
drive and commitment from the top leadership in
both Tokyo and New Delhi. The two countries held
their 2+2 Ministerial Dialogue in Tokyo on
September 8, for which both India’s External Affairs
Minister Dr. S Jaishankar and Defense Minister
Rajnath Singh traveled to Japan.
36. (b) Bharat Biotech announced that its iNCOVACC
(BBV154), the world's first intranasal Covid-19
vaccine, has received approval from the Drugs
Controller General of India for restricted use in
emergencies for those 18 and older. The vaccine is
yet to be marketed.
37. (b) Israel will start vaccinating its population with new
variant-tailored second-generation coronavirus
vaccines from Pfizer, which is better suited to fight
against new COVID-19 strains, by the end of this
month.
38. (b) Remdesivir, which was originally developed for
hepatitis C, retains efficacy against omicron sub-
variants BA.2.12.1, BA.4 and BA.5 in the lab.
39. (c) New guidance from the World Health Organisation
(WHO) strongly advises against using the antibody
therapies sotrovimab and casirivimab-imdevimab
to treat patients with COVID-19.
40. (a) Dr. Bharati Pravin Pawar is an Indian politician
currently serving as the Minister of State for
Health and Family Welfare of India from 7 July
2021.
41. (a) China has been accused of committing crimes
against humanity and possibly genocide against the
Uyghur population and other mostly-Muslim ethnic
groups in the north- western region of Xinjiang.
42. (b) Xinjiang is a mostly desert region and produces
about a fifth of the world's cotton. Human rights
groups have voiced concerns that much of that
cotton export is picked by forced labour, and in 2021
some Western brands removed Xinjiang cotton from
their supply chains, leading to a backlash against the
brands from Chinese celebrities and netizens.
43. (b) In the early 20th Century, the Uyghurs briefly
declared independence for the region but it was
brought under the complete control of China's new
Communist government in 1949.
44. (b) The region is also rich in oil and natural gas and
because of its proximity to Central Asia and Europe
is seen by Beijing as an important trade link. It
doesn’t have direct access to Afghanistan. The
Uyghurs are a predominantly Muslim minority
Turkic ethnic group, whose origins can be traced to
Central and East Asia. The Uyghurs speak their own
language, similar to Turkish, and see themselves as
culturally and ethnically close to Central Asian
nations.
45. (d) It was 12 minutes to midnight in Geneva on the last
Page 5 of 16
 day of UN human rights chief Michelle Bachelet’s
tenure, when her office released a landmark report
concluding that the Chinese government had
committed “serious human rights violations” in
Xinjiang. The eighth and current High
Commissioner is Volker Türk of Austria, who
succeeded Michelle Bachelet of Chile on 8
September 2022.
46. (c) September 16 is celebrated as the International Day
for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer.
47. (a) 'Global Cooperation to Protect Life on Earth' has
been chosen as this year's theme for international
ozone layer protection in order to encourage
sustainable development.
48. (c) The Protocol includes provisions related to Control
Measures (Article 2), Calculation of control levels
(Article 3), Control of trade with non-Parties
(Article 4), Special situation of developing
countries (Article 5), Reporting of data (Article 7),
Non-compliance (Article 8), Technical assistance
(Article 10), as well as other topics. The substances
controlled by the treaty are listed in Annexes A
(CFCs, halons), B (other fully halogenated CFCs,
carbon tetrachloride, methyl chloroform), C
(HCFCs), E (methyl bromide) and F (HFCs).
49. (d) Concentrations of these chemicals over Antarctica,
where a hole appears every year, are also dropping
but at a slower rate. This hole was larger than usual
- bigger than the size of the continent itself - in 2021.
The NOAA predicts that the Antarctic ozone layer
could eventually recover “sometime around 2070”.
50. (b) In order to conserve the ozone layer, governments
from 46 nations around the world signed the
"Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the
Ozone Layer" (also known as the "Montreal
Protocol") in 1987. About 20 to 50 kilometres above
the surface of the earth, in the stratosphere, is where
the ozone layer is found.
51. (c) The first confirmed death from monkeypox disease
in the United States has been reported, the Los
Angeles County Department of Public Health said.
52. (b) According to a report published in the e-Clinical
Medicine Journal, researchers dug out old data and
analyzed it in comparison with new data, and found
that 2 to 3 percent of people suffering from
monkeypox developed serious problems related to
neurology. Encephalitis was also seen in some of
these people.
53. (b) A zoonosis is any disease or infection that is
naturally transmissible from vertebrate animals to
humans. There are over 200 known types of
zoonoses. Zoonoses comprise a large percentage of
new and existing diseases in humans. Some
zoonoses, such as rabies, are 100% preventable
through vaccination and other methods.
54. (a) Ebola virus disease (EVD), one of the deadliest viral
diseases, was discovered in 1976 when two
consecutive outbreaks of fatal hemorrhagic fever
occurred in different parts of Central Africa.
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55. (d) Diabetes is not a Zoonotic Disease.
56. (c) In a speech at an election campaign rally in the
northern Indian state of Uttarakhand on December
30, India’s Prime Minister Narendra Modi said that
India had built and is expanding a road via disputed
Lipulekh to Manas Khand, a gateway to
Mansarovar, a Hindu pilgrimage site in Tibet.
While his speech was aimed at wooing Hindu voters
in Uttarakhand, it created a furor in Nepal as the road
he spoke about passes through Lipulekh, territory
claimed by Nepal.
57. (a) The main reason for the dispute is due to varying
interpretation of the origin of the river and its
different territories carved out through the
mountains.
58. (a) India has directly strengthened its military presence
in the Kalapani region recently, building a large
number of military facilities and increasing the
deployment of troops. On the one hand, India aims
at forcing Nepal to accept the reality of this area
being occupied by India through actual military
control. On the other hand, its strengthening of the
military deployment is also a deterrent against China
on the other side of the border.
59. (d) The Kalapani region derives its name from river
Kali. India claims the source of the Kali river is a
smaller tributary that flows down from Lipulekh and
the approximately 372sq km of land belongs to it.
60. (c) In November 2019, India included the disputed area
in its official map, the region east of Lipu Khola as
a part of its territory. Later, Indian Defence Minister
Rajnath Singh inaugurated the Indian road via the
disputed tri-junction of Nepal, India and China.
61. (c) About one million Rohingya are currently living in
refugee camps in Cox’s Bazar in Bangladesh.
Meanwhile, more than 90,000 have fled to
Thailand, more than 20,000 to India, and over
90,000 smaller groups have made their way to other
countries in the area, including Indonesia and
Nepal, creating a historic migration crisis. The
Rohingya rely entirely on humanitarian assistance
for protection, food, water, shelter and health, and
they are living in temporary shelters in highly
congested camp settings.
62. (b) The Rohingya people are a Muslim minority group
residing in the western state of Rakhine, Myanmar,
formerly known as Arrakkan. The religion of this
ethnic group is a variation of the Sufism Islam &
Hinduism. The Rohingya people are considered
"stateless entities", as the Myanmar government
does not recognise them as an ethnic group and
people of Myanmar. The Myanmar government
only acknowledges Boyingyas i.e. Christians, Sikhs,
Jains & Buddhist as the proper Myanmar
population.
63. (c) Today, nearly 1 million Rohingya refugees continue
to live in difficult conditions, entirely depending on
humanitarian aid. They live in the world’s largest
refugee settlement in Bangladesh’s southeastern
Page 6 of 16
 district of Cox’s Bazar. The EU continues to support
the Rohingya refugees with humanitarian projects
focused on food, nutrition, protection, and health
care, among others. Already present in the area for
over a decade, the EU, together with its
humanitarian partners, has provided vital support to
both Rohingya refugees and host communities since
the beginning of the crisis.
64. (d) India's Foreigners Act of 1946, meanwhile, allows
the government to deport any foreign citizen.
Furthermore, the recently enacted Citizenship
Amendment Act, 2019 excludes Muslims and seeks
to provide fast-track citizenship only to Hindu,
Christian, Jain, Parsi, Sikh and Buddhist immigrants
persecuted in Bangladesh, Pakistan, and
Afghanistan. The government has admitted in
parliament that there is no national law on refugees
and only standard operating procedures are issued
by the Home Ministry to deal with foreign nationals
in India who say they are refugees.
65. (b) The influx of Rohingyas to Bangladesh started on
August 25, 2017. More than 750,000 Rohingyas
took refuge in Bangladesh in just a few days.
Bangladesh has sheltered 30,000 displaced people
from Myanmar here. Before this, the abode of
100,000 people was built on the island of Meghna
estuary. Under the supervision of the Navy, this
modern shelter was constructed in the fastest
possible time. Appropriate dams are provided to
make the island sustainable.
SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING
66. (d) The correct answer is D since the passage states that
whoever takes any minor, under eighteen years of
age if a female, out of the keeping of the lawful
guardian of such minor, without the consent of such
guardian, is said to kidnap such minor from lawful
guardianship. The above given question does not
mention the age of K and hence the requisites of
kidnapping are not satisfied. A is not the correct
answer because even though V's parents took K
without her parent's consent, they are not liable
because the age of K is not specified. C is not the
correct answer for the same reason. B is not the
correct answer because the facts do not mention that
the whereabouts of K are known or not known to her
parents since V’s parents took her with them.
Moreover, the reasoning states he had no control,
which is contrary to the reasoning it is trying to
establish. Thus we can’t take this as an incorrect
option.
67. (c) The correct answer is C because it is clearly given
in the passage that the consent of the child is entirely
irrelevant, and only the consent of the guardian is
taken into account because it is believed that
children are unable to provide legally binding
consent. A is not the correct answer because the
passage states that even though a child is not
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constantly in the guardian's direct physical custody,
he is still regarded as being under the guardian's care
as long as his whereabouts are known and his
freedom of movement is constrained. D is not the
correct answer because according to the passage
when a child is taken to a location where their
guardian no longer has control over their
whereabouts or movement, it is stated that they have
been abducted.
68. (b) The correct answer is B because the requirements of
Section 361 are met as the child was a minor
(female) under the age of eighteen. D was kidnapped
by her aunt after she was removed from her mother’s
legal custody without her mother’s consent. For the
same reason, D is not the correct answer. A is not
the correct answer because the lawful guardianship
includes relatives only when the custody of the child
has been lawfully entrusted by the parents. In the
given situation, the custody of D was never
entrusted to her aunt M. C is not the correct answer
because a child may not always be in the direct
physical custody of the guardian but as long as the
whereabouts of the child are known and there is
control upon the movement of the child, he is said to
be within the keeping of the guardian.
69. (c) The correct answer is C because as per the passage,
a male under the age of sixteen, who is taken out of
the care of his legal guardian without that guardian’s
approval is said to have been kidnapped. Here, G
was a child beyond the age of sixteen; as a result, he
can no longer be regarded as a minor under the terms
of the passage and cannot, thus, be kidnapped. There
has been no kidnapping. For the same reason, option
B is incorrect. Option A is incorrect as according to
the passage, G is not a minor, thus even though the
fruit vendor took him away from his legal guardian,
he cannot be said to have been kidnapped. D is not
the correct answer since the passage states that a
child may not always be in the direct physical
custody of the guardian but as long as the
whereabouts of the child are known and there is
control upon the movement of the child, he is said to
be within the keeping of the guardian.
70. (a) The correct answer is A since, according to the
passage, F (female) should be regarded as a minor.
Since her grandmother removed her from her
parents’ legal custody without their permission, she
can be considered to have been kidnapped. N (male)
should not be regarded as a minor because he is
older than sixteen, hence option B is incorrect. C is
not the correct answer because, according to the
passage, a parent is to be considered a lawful
guardian and cannot be accused of kidnapping his
own daughter. D is incorrect because it is not
possible to classify taking a pupil from their
classroom to the principal’s office as kidnapping.
71. (c) The correct answer is C since, the passage states that
a child may not always be in the guardian’s direct
physical custody, but as long as his whereabouts are
Page 7 of 16
 known and his movement is under control, he is
considered to be in the guardian’s care. Therefore,
option C is the correct answer. A is not the correct
answer because the passage states that kidnapping is
an offence of strict liability i.e., the intention of the
accused is immaterial. B is not the correct answer
for the same reason. D is not the correct answer
because it does not corelate with the passage. Also,
the consent of the child is invalid irrespective of it
being voluntary or under duress and coercion.
72. (c) The correct answer is C, because the passage states
that the magistrate has the authority to order the
custody of any child to the victim. In the given facts,
mother is neither the victim nor has been mentioned
once deduce such 8nference, which contradicts the
passage. Hence, an incorrect statement. As a result,
she lacks this right. A is not the correct answer
because the passage states that the victim may sue
the accused for any damage or injury, including
mental torment and emotional distress. According to
the passage, the Magistrate may also prevent the
respondent from contacting the aggrieved person;
hence B is not the correct answer. D is the incorrect
option because the magistrate may also issue a
protection order on behalf of the individual who has
been wronged to prevent the respondent from
committing or abetting domestic abuse.
73. (c) The right answer is C, since the provision is only
applicable to women and victim M in this case was
a man, therefore, none of the available options work
in this case. For the same reason, option A is
incorrect. Since both physical and mental injuries
are valid, option B is incorrect. Despite the fact that
D has the appropriate reasoning, the argument is
incorrect because M was not a woman.
74. (d) The correct answer is D, because the passage
indicates that domestic violence includes any act,
deed, omission, or conduct by an individual that
damages, injures, or endangers the health or safety
of any woman, whether emotionally or physically.
M’s decision to cordially discontinue the connection
with F would not jeopardize F’s health or safety, so
he will not be held accountable. A is not the correct
answer since depriving R of food or drink will harm
her health. B is not the correct answer since leaving
H in the middle of the jungle puts her life in
jeopardy. For the same reason, C is not the correct
answer. Z's health will be jeopardized by the poison.
75. (b) The correct answer is B, because Section 22 of the
Act states that the accused must compensate the
victim for any damage or harm caused. Because the
compensation was sought from M’s (the
respondent’s) parents, they will not be held liable to
pay it. A is also not an appropriate option for the
same reason. C is not the correct answer because
nowhere in the passage is it stated that the victim
will not receive compensation if the complaint is
filed by a third party. D is not the correct answer
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because the respondent’s obligation to pay the
damages has not been met.
76. (c) The right answer is C since the passage rightly
suggests that domestic violence includes any hurt,
harassment, or injury done to a woman or anybody
who is related to her in order to satisfy an unlawful
demand. For the same reason, option A is incorrect.
B is not the right answer since it incorporates IPC
into the question without any support from the
passage and implements extraneous knowledge.
Since the requirements of Section 3 are being met,
the option D is incorrect.
77. (c) The correct answer is option C. Group A and Group
B both fall under the definition of workmen as
Group A is doing manual, unskilled work and Group
B is doing clerical or managerial work which is
included in Section 2(k). Thus, option (b) is
incorrect. Option (a) is incorrect because the work
being performed by Group B can be categorised as
clerical or managerial work and they have been
employed for reward. Thus, this is a dispute between
workmen. Option (d) is incorrect because neither
Group A not Group B is the employer.
78. (b) The correct answer is option (b). Option (a) is not
untrue but option (b) is a better answer because it
satisfies the definition of ‘industrial dispute’, which
is what the question has asked in more complete
terms while option (a) only mentions one limb of
this definition. Option (c) is incorrect because Group
B falls under the definition of workmen as they are
employed in unskilled work. Option (d) is incorrect
because such a difference of opinion is inherently
related to the conditions of labour as long working
hours are a condition of the labour being performed.
79. (a) The correct answer is option (a). Bob comes within
the definition of a ‘workman’. As per the
passage, “Workman” means any person employed
(including an apprentice) in any industry to do any
skilled or unskilled manual or clerical or managerial
work for temporary or permanent basis. since, both
bob and the other person are both ‘workmen’ so
their differences constitute an industrial
dispute. Option (b) is incorrect because the word
employee has not been conceptualised under the
purview of industrial dispute as per the given
definition. Option C and D are both incorrect as
both of them state that the factual situation would
not fall under the definition of industrial dispute.
This is untrue. Moreover, option C states that the
dispute is between employer and workman which is
false and option D states bob is not a workman,
which is also false.
80. (d) The correct answer is option (d). In this case, X is
not a ‘workman’ or an employer. He is not a
workman because he has not been hired for doing
skilled, unskilled, technical, clerical etc. kind of
work on the tea estate. He has been given a lease and
he is using that to sell snacks. That is not the ambit
of the trade union. Thus, the termination of the lease
Page 8 of 16
 is not related to the employment/non-employment,
terms of employment and conditions of labour of X
because he has not been employed by the tea estate.
Thus, options (a) and (b) are incorrect. Option (c) is
incorrect because the termination of the lease is not
related to the employment/non-employment, terms
of employment and conditions of labour of X. This
fact is only answered in option (d).
81. (b) The correct answer is B, since the passage states that
adultery requires voluntary or consensual sex
between a married person and another person of the
opposite sex, whether they are married or not, who
is not the other's spouse, while the marriage is still
in existence. There could not have been adultery in
this case since the marriage had not yet taken place.
For the same reason, option A is incorrect. Since the
question asks about M's accountability rather than
P's, option C is incorrect. D will not be the right
answer because the justification is not consistent
with the passage.
82. (d) The right answer is D because Muslim law and not
Christian law, governs the requirements listed in this
option. According to the text, under Christian Law,
before the 2001 revision to the Divorce Act, 1869, a
woman could not obtain a divorce on the basis of
adultery without additionally citing cruelty as a
reason for the separation. B is incorrect since the
other spouse can only claim the ground for divorce
if they submit their application within two years of
learning the information. C is not the right answer
since adultery requires voluntary or consensual sex
between a married person and another person of the
opposite sex, whether they are married or not, who
is not the other's spouse, while the marriage is still
in existence. Option A is incorrect as the question
asks us to pick the inaccurate statement, whereas
option A is in line of the passage.
83. (c) The correct answer is C since the passage indicates
that in 2001 the law was changed to allow both men
and women to file for divorce solely on the grounds
of adultery. If a divorce is requested after 2001, it
doesn't matter when the couple got married; they are
still eligible to be exempt from the obligation to
prove cruelty in addition to adultery. For the same
reason option B is incorrect. Since it offers flawed
logic, option A is incorrect. Adultery is a valid cause
of separation for both men and women. Since the
marriage was not abusive in any way, option D is
incorrect as t is entirely fact based.
84. (d) The right answer is D since, although the conduct
was carried out in January 2019, she only became
aware of it in August 2019, allowing her to use the
complaint window up until August 2021. According
to the paragraph, this basis for divorce is only
possible if the other spouse files their application
within two years after learning of the circumstance.
Both options A and B are erroneous for the same
reason. Since the passage doesn't offer any respite
for medical emergencies, the option C is incorrect.
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85. (b) The correct answer is B, since adultery requires
either voluntary or consensual sexual intercourse,
according to the passage. It is clear from the
question that L had sexual relations with K while she
was asleep, and hence there was no consent on K's
behalf. As a result, she cannot be held accountable
for adultery but K can be held liable for rape. For the
same reason, A is not the correct answer. Because
nothing of the type is mentioned in the passage, C is
not the right answer. The remedy is available to
everyone, regardless of gender. D is not the correct
answer because, despite the fact that K's husband
filed the complaint within the time limit, there was
no adultery by K.
86. (b) The correct answer is B since passage states that
there are a number of exceptions to the right to
equality. Therefore, equals ought to be treated
equally. There were no arbitrary distinctions made
by the restaurant amongst the guests. Refusing to let
the minors in without a guardian was an appropriate
action. For the same reason, option C is incorrect. A
is not the right answer because it does not consist of
any reasoning. Since nothing of the sort is addressed
in the passage and D draws on outside information,
it is incorrect.
87. (d) The correct answer is D since the passage indicates
that both citizens and non-citizens are entitled to the
rights under Article 21. Because the passage
declares that the constitution is the source of all
power and that both the legislative and executive
branches should derive their authority from it,
option A is incorrect. B is not the right answer
because, as stated in the passage, equality before the
law forbids giving any community or group of
individuals a special benefit.It contends that for the
state to avoid interfering with society by granting
extra privileges, an extremely ideal situation must
exist. Because the passage implies that a wrongdoer
cannot be treated equally before the law, C is not the
right answer.
88. (c) The passage makes clear that there are a number of
exceptions to the right to equality, making option C
the right answer. As a result, equals ought to be
treated equally. Since K might have belonged to a
distinct category than M, as he was differently abled,
it is probable that he was charged less in the
aforementioned situation. Depending on the
person's category, this can be an incentive. Option A
is incorrect as it states contrary to the facts that M
was charged less, whereas it was K who was charged
less. Since K's father, a computer engineer, has no
influence over the application fee's amount, option
B is incorrect. D is not the right answer because the
passage makes no mention of anything of the type.
89. (c) The correct answer is C because it deals with the
doctrine of separation of powers and how legislature
cannot influence judiciary, which in not in line with
the contention given in the passage because the
passage talks about the right to equality; In the
Page 9 of 16
 specific instance, the legislature wrongfully
interfered with the judiciary's authority, violating
the law and there's also no scope that a question may
arise with respect to right of equality because the
parliament is merely seeking a strict application of
law . The rest of the options in way or the other
revolves around the question whether right to
equality can be invoked or not, hence they all are in
line with the passage. A concerns with the question
of right of equality wherein a wrongdoer cannot be
treated equally before the law in front of a court or
other legal authority, hence it can be eliminated.
Because the right to equality is not unrestricted and
can be applied appropriately depending on the needs
of society, and the facts revolves around this
contention, B can be eliminated. With respect to D,
S was just advised to reevaluate her preference and
since there's a question to determine whether she has
been treated equally or not as per the law, hence it
can be eliminated.
90. (b) The correct answer is B since, as stated in the
passage, Article 14 guarantees equality for all
people and prohibits discrimination on the grounds
of sex, religion, race, or place of birth. Both citizens
and non-citizens fall under this category. For the
same reason, option A is incorrect. Because it is
explicitly stated in the passage that the law of Bharat
is identical to the one practiced in India, option C is
incorrect. Since the provision is found in the Indian
Constitution and not the Indian Penal Code, option
D is incorrect.
91. (b) The correct answer is B since the passage states that
there is no right of appeal against an arbitral award;
however, the passage also states that an arbitral
award can only be invalidated if it was made in
violation of a valid arbitration agreement, a party's
inability to enter into an agreement, an arbitrary
procedure, etc. The relationship needs to be legal in
order for it to be considered valid, hence option A is
incorrect. As the given clause is a legislative and not
a judicial provision, C is not the correct answer. The
consent of the parties is one of the most crucial
components of the arbitration agreement and is not
irrelevant, hence option D is incorrect.
92. (d) The correct answer is D since, in accordance with
Section 7 of the Act; arbitration cannot take place
without both parties' assent. Since Y appointed the
arbitrator in the aforementioned case without X's
consent, there is no valid arbitration agreement. For
the same reason, option B is incorrect. Since the
arbitrator was not chosen with the approval of both
parties, even though X and Y's agreement was
legitimate, option A is incorrect. C is not the correct
answer because the passage clarifies that an
arbitration agreement is a decision made by the
parties to submit all or specific disputes that have
arisen or may arise between them regarding a
specific legal relationship, whether or not they are
contractual in nature, to arbitration.
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93. (c) The correct answer is C since the passage states that
an arbitral result can only be overturned due to an
invalid arbitration agreement, a party's inability to
enter into an agreement or an abusive
process. There is no basis for an appeal against the
order because the facts do not mention any form of
bias or discrimination. For the same reason,
option A is incorrect. B is an incorrect answer that
should not be chosen because nothing of the sort is
addressed in the passage. Option D is incorrect
because, despite the fact that the arbitrator was
chosen with mutual approval, this does not imply
that an appeal cannot be allowed.
94. (b) The correct answer is B because it is clear from the
question that K only met N once, 12 years ago, at a
conference. It is irrational to believe that this would
have influenced his bias in any way. For the same
reason A is not the correct answer. C is not the
correct answer since the procedure was handled in
an appropriate order with the consent and approval
of both the parties. D is not the correct answer
because, the reasoning given is not relevant with the
factual question asked. M filed an appeal basis on
bias. Thus, option B provides a correct answer as the
facts do not provide any information or incident
where bias can be seen moreover the procedure was
handled in an appropriate order with the consent and
approval of both the parties.
95. (c) The correct answer is C since it can be established
from the fact situation that L's daughter was hired as
an employee at XYZ Engineering Works much later
when the judgment was passed, and so there was no
bias at the time of the judgement. For the same
reason, A is not the correct answer. B is not the
correct answer because L's daughter did not work
there to begin with, thus there is no need to tell. D is
not the correct answer because nothing as such is
supported by the passage.
96. (a) Option A is correct. The relevant time period is 12
years. Jack has only been in occupation for 11 years.
The farmer can legitimately take action to remove
Jack from his land. B and C are incorrect. As the
passage gives no reference to The Land Registration
Act 2002. Moreover as per the rule the farmer can
evict Jack legitimately. The relevant period for a
claim to adverse possession is 12 years, thus option
D is also incorrect.
97. (c) Option C is correct. The period of adverse
possession must be continuous. Sophie’s possession
was broken in 2000; she must start again from the
beginning in 2003 to achieve the 12 years limitation
period. This will occur in 2015 Option A, B, D are
incorrect because the period of adverse possession
must be continuous and Sophie’s possession was
broken in 2000. Hence, 2004 cannot be referred to
as the year when Sophie owner of the field and was
entitled to sell it. Option B is incorrect for the similar
reason. Option D again presents a wrong argument.
It states that in 2005, Sophie is not the owner of the
Page 10 of 16
 field but will become so in 2018 if her present
occupation of it continues
98. (c) As per the passage, the Act merely prescribes the
period of limitation which is 12 years in case of
private lands and 30 years in case of Government
lands. The law thus restricts the right of the owner
to recover possession within the fixed period (12/30
as the case may be) beyond which his right expires.
D is incorrect. The limitation period will run as soon
as Joey has taken possession with sufficient acts of
adverse possession. Option C is correct. Option A is
incorrect as Joey can acquire title by adverse
possession if he satisfies necessary conditions
attached to it. Option B is not correct as the
reasoning given is not in context with the
information presented in the passage.
99. (d) The law thus restricts the right of the owner to
recover possession within the fixed period (12/30 as
the case may be) beyond which his right expires. If
the owner fails to assert his right within the fixed
period, upon the extinction of his right, another
person who had been in possession all these years
acquires prescriptive right. In the present case the
government after 50 years claims their right of
ownership. Which is not permissible and thus,
option D is correct. Option A is not correct as the
residents claim is based on the contention that they
have been living there for past 50 years. Thus,
option D is a more suitable answer. Option B is not
correct as the reasoning given is according to facts
and not on the information given in the passage.
Option C is not correct as the reasoning is contrary
to the facts of the case. Hence, not considered
100. (d) Since the land is of Govt. and for obtaining the land
of a Govt., the adverse possession has to be 30 years.
Hence the person cannot obtain the title to the said
land. The possession is definitely obvious but the
time period required to claim adverse possession the
land of the government is not satisfied yet. Hence,
No title can be claimed. Option A is not correct.
Option B is incorrect as even if it is proved that the
owner knew about the possession other essential to
claim adverse title is not proved. Option C is not
correct as the reasoning given is factual based. Thus,
not correct.
101. (a) Option A is correct as the passage in its context
while delivering the Puttaswamy judgement states
that Liberty is a fundamental human right that
cannot be taken away. Thus, correct.
Reason is also correct as the passage in its last para
states that The Bill is a brazen attempt to overreach
the Supreme Court and to deny the fundamental
rights to liberty and privacy, two of the most
precious rights in a democracy.
Both A and R are correct but R cannot be concluded
as the correct reason for A as assertion speaks for
liberty as fundamental right and cannot be taken
away. Whereas Reason restricts itself to criminal
identification (amendment) bill and human right.
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102. (c) Both option A and B are eliminated as the phrase
also discusses involuntary admission of the three
test mentioned in para 1 of the passage. Since both
the statement are devoid of the said term. Hence,
cannot be considered. However Option C is correct
as the court provides article 20(3) of Indian
constitution that states that self incriminating
statements are not acceptable. Thus, correct as it
inculcated both protections provided under article
20(3) and involuntary admission.
Option D is incorrect as no person is allowed to be
subjected to any of the techniques in question,
whether in the context of investigation in criminal
cases or otherwise.
103. (d) The given statement quoted in the question is wrong
as according to the judgement passed by the SC in
Selvi vs State of Karnataka, subjecting a person to
the impugned techniques in an involuntary manner
violates the prescribed bounds of privacy and
attracts the protective shield of Article 20(3). Thus,
option D is correct.
Option B is incorrect since the general rule is that a
person is presumed innocent until proven guilty, not
the other way around moreover not in line with
context of the passage. . Option A, as presented in
the statement, asserts that if the test is made
mandatory. Furthermore, the passage's context is
opposed to administering the impugned tests. As a
result, Option C is likewise incorrect.
104. (a) Option D is eliminated as according to the ruling of
the court, no individual should be subjected to any
of the techniques in question, whether in the context
of investigation in criminal cases or otherwise.
Thus, the even voluntary admission is not allowed.
Option C is not correct as the context of the passage
do not support the idea of test conducted against the
will of a person. Moreover the context of the passage
do not discusses materials collected through Narco
Analysis Test can be used as corroborative piece of
evidence. Thus, not correct.
Option B is not correct as it provides for assertive
situation. Thus, not correct. Option A is correct as it
determines that revelation brought through during
Narco Analysis under the influence of a particular
drug “cannot be taken” as a conscious act or
statement given by a person.
105. (d) According to the passage, there are 3 criteria’s
required to fulfil the proportionality test, namely“:
(i) legality, which presupposes the existence of law;
(ii) necessity, which must be defined in terms of a
legitimate State goal; and (iii) proportionality,
which ensures a rational relationship between the
objects and the means used to achieve them."
However, the question stem asks us to answer
whether or not that the measure meets the
proportionality criteria described in the passage and
not the proportionality test in particular.
The facts only refer in its context point (i) and point
(ii) of the proportionality test. Thus, we cannot
Page 11 of 16
 ascertain that the measure taken by the US army Option b does not follow this logic. So, option b is
meets the proportionality criteria described in the the odd one out.
passage in totality. Thus, option D is correct. Option 110. (b) D(4) + E(5) +S(19) +K(11)= 39
B is not correct as the facts mention no such C(3) + R(18) +A(1) +B(2) = 24
information that the bill base its legality on a F(6) + A(1) +R(18) +M(13)= 38
psychological fact which was irrelevant for the 111. (b) The passage is about the fact that the SC has taken a
question of whether the policy violated the right to decision to review some of the key aspects of the
private life. Hence, not correct. PMLA verdict that it pronounced. In this regard, it
Option A and C are eliminated. They would been is more than fair for option B to be a suitable title for
stated correct if the question asks for whether or not the passage. Other options do not qualify to become
the policy is legitimate or the state asserts a a suitable title for the passage. Nowhere does the
legitimate goal in implementing the aforementioned passage talk of revamping the PMLA verdict,
policy. making option (a) incorrect. Option (c) is incorrect,
for ‘archaic aspects’ has not been mentioned. Option
SECTION - D : LOGICAL REASONING (d) is incorrect there is no uninformed PMLA
verdict being discussed. The passage talks about
Hint [106-108]: It is given that, there are five reviewing two key aspects regarding the burden of
students Amar, Akbar, Anthony, Avinash and proof.
Akash, studying in a different school among Xavier, 112. (c) The correct answer is option C. This clearly follows
St. Louis, Besant, St. Joseph, Mahathma Gandhi from the passage as the author says that there are
From (1), Akbar is studying in St. Louis. From (2), concerns about the abuse of power by the
Akash's examination centre is Xavier. prosecution. Option A is incorrect - this has not been
From (3), Students of Mahatma Gandhi school got indicated anywhere in the passage. Option B is
St. Joseph as the examination centre. From (4), incorrect - whether the shifting of the burden of
Avinash is studying in St.Joseph. Anthony got proof to the accused is foolproof or not is not clear
Besant as his examination centre. from the passage. Option D is contrary to what is
We can tabulate the given information as follows. stated in the passage. Refer to the lines, ‘A special
School Centre provision was created in the PMLA, 2002, to place
Amar the burden of proof on the accused.’
Akbar St. Louis 113. (c) The correct answer is c. The author simply considers
Antony Besnt it to be a special provision that is an exemption to
Avinash St. Joseph the presumption of innocence until proven guilty.
Akash Xavier Moreover, there is no hint on whether the author
From (3), the student from Mahathma Gandhi finds this provision justifiable or not, making option
School, who got St. Joseph as the centre must be (d) in correct. The author does not mention the
Amar. provision as outdated; hence option (a) is incorrect.
Since the examination centre for each student is Neither does the author contend that the provision is
different from his school of study, indiscriminate or subjective. Refer to the lines, ‘A
Antony and Akash study in Xavier and Besant special provision was created in the PMLA, 2002, to
respectively. Now, St. Louis cannot be the place the burden of proof on the accused.’
examination centre of Akbar. 114. (a) The correct answer is A. Refer to the expression,
Akber's examination is Mahathma Gandhi School ‘the law says’, which can be verified; therefore, the
and that of Avinash is St. Louis. Combining these, sentence is a fact. The argument is an elaboration of
we get the preceding arguments (A special provision was
School Center created in the PMLA, 2002, to place the burden of
proof on the accused.). Hence, it is not an
Amar Gandhi Joseph
assumption. The framing of the argument is to
Akbar St-Louis Gandhi provide a premise to the preceding sentence;
Anthony Xavier Besant therefore, it is neither an opinion nor an inference.
Avinash Joseph St. Louis 115. (a) The correct answer is a. Statement [1] mentions how
Akash Besant Xavier about 77% of the total assets of an average Indian
106. (a) Amar got St. Joseph as the examination centre. household are held in real estate and this directly
Choice (1) supports the claim that the largest single investment
107. (a) Anthony is studying in Xavier school. Choice (1) most families make is in real estate.
108. (d) Avinash got St. Louis as the examination centre. 116. (d) The correct answer is D. These are sentences: “It
109. (b) Option a: - B + 3 = E; E + 2 = G. G + 1 = H. also suffers from the general weakness in state
Option c: - A + 6 = G; G + 5 = L; L + 4 = P. capacity as each state needs to establish a
Option d: - H + 6 = N; N + 5 = S; S + 4 = W. regulatory body. Notwithstanding the challenges,
Rera represents the best available solution today.

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 Buyers will benefit from a fairer system, not a
spectacle.” It has been indicated in the second
sentence that RERA is not the panacea for all
problems related to real estate. The sentence itself
also suggests ii. The last sentence suggests that
homebuyers will not benefit from a spectacle -
which is a display of visually striking performance.
117. (a) The correct answer is A. The author has suggested
in the first few sentences itself that there is only a
limited role that the Supreme Court can play to
improve the real estate sector. Reforms by the
authorities is the way to go. B is incorrect from the
second last sentence of the passage. C is incorrect as
well as this is an extreme version of the author’s
opinion. D is incorrect because it is a generalised
statement that has not been explicitly or implicitly
mentioned by the author.
118. (c) The correct answer is C. This option aptly captures
the main idea of the passage. The author wants the
authorities to reduce the risk of homebuyers through
bringing in some reforms to RERA. Therefore, the
correct answer is C.
119. (b) The correct answer is B. The ways in which Rera
can be improved have not been mentioned in the
given passage. The limitations of Rera, who takes
the maximum risk in investing in real estate, and the
reasons for the demolition of the twin towers have
been mentioned in the passage. Therefore, the
correct answer is B.
120. (c) The correct answer is C. The author has explicitly
criticised the prevalence of drugs, the agricultural
crisis and the fact that corrupt officials slyly obtain
permanent residencies abroad to evade any trials or
proceedings. On the other hand, the author has just
suggested that it is because of the lost glory of
Punjab that the youngsters are leaving for better
opportunities abroad. Therefore, the correct answer
is C.
121. (a) The correct answer is A. This option captures the
main idea of the passage. The passage is mainly
about the investment of Tata in Punjab and how it
holds promise for arresting the slide in the economy.
Other options can’t be convincingly inferred from
the passage - let alone be the main idea. Therefore,
the correct answer is A.
122. (d) The correct answer is D. All of the statements can’t
be concluded based on the information given in the
passage. Statement (i) is incorrect because Punjab’s
economy wasn’t completely dependent on the
investment by the Tatas. Also, the statement is an
extreme conclusion. Statement (ii) is incorrect
because whether Tata Steel’s secondary plant
investment is its biggest investment in recent years
or not is not clear from the passage. The passage
states that it is Tata’s biggest unit, but does not say
anything about investment. Statement (iii) is not
correct because it is an extreme interpretation of the
author’s opinion.
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123. (a) The correct answer is A. The author has called for
some better policies for established firms and start-
ups. Therefore, the author would certainly
appreciate this step. On the other hand, there is no
concrete reason in the passage as to why he would
appreciate the introduction of more schemes like the
Progressive Punjab. Refer to the lines, ‘The Punjab
Government’s efforts in the past few years to rope
in companies through programmes like ‘Progressive
Punjab’ have not yielded much to tom-tom about.’
Why would the author agree with bringing in more
schemes when this is not giving results? Option C is
incorrect because whether the Vigilance Bureau
should use excessive resources is not clear. Option
D is incorrect for the author would disagree with the
given step. Tata’s investment amid prevailing issues
is an indicator that positive steps are taken in the
presence of and not the absence of challenges.
124. (d) The correct answer is D. It is the underlying
assumption behind the argument. The chance that
the creation of the aspirational condition will (in
future) prevent the depletion and restore Punjab’s
glory is the basis of the main argument. Option A is
a distorted assumption. It should be the other way
around. The restoration of the lost glory of Punjab
relies on the creation of aspirational conditions.
Option B is incorrect, for it is arresting the depletion
of precious human resources, not the depletion..
Option (c) is incorrect as it goes against the
argument made in the passage.
125. (a) The correct answer is A. The central idea of the
passage is located in the last part, where it is
mentioned that the infrastructure projects and
developments may have upset the ecological
balance of the mountain areas. Also, if looked
carefully, the passage revolves around the hill states-
mainly Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand bearing
disproportionate climate fury due to the terrain. In
this regard, the best option is option A. Option B is
incorrect because it does not cover the central idea
of the passage but talks about a particular idea. C
can’t be convincingly inferred from the passage. D
is quite similar to B and is incorrect for the same
reason. Also, both options B and D do not form the
central idea as they are both more of a solution to the
ongoing crises.
126. (c) The correct answer is C. The author in the passage
highlights the fact that the vagaries and the risk of
catastrophe are often overlooked by the authorities
in the name of balancing the demands of the people
for better infrastructure and services. Therefore, one
can infer that the interest of the public cannot
dominate the risk involved in trying to attain them.
Option A is incorrect because the passage indicates
that property damage is on the surface of the effects
of heavy rains. Option B is wrong because the IMD
is an entity of the government itself. Option D has
not been suggested anywhere in the passage.
Page 13 of 16
127. (b) The correct answer is B. Both statements i and ii
strengthen the author’s argument that damage to life
and property are effects of unusual rainfall. These
pieces of evidence suggest other secondary effects
of increased rain as well. On the other hand,
statement iii does not substantially impact any of the
author's arguments in the passage.
128. (c) The correct answer is C. The positives of the early
warning system are that it helps in the timely
evacuation and rehabilitation of vulnerable people.
Even then, this is not foolproof since it has not tasted
enough success against floods. Therefore, the
correct answer is C. A is incorrect because it is too
strong to claim that the system has “worked
wonders” for India. Clear evidence against option B
is present in the passage. D is incorrect because such
early warning systems are not said to be limited only
to the evacuation and rehabilitation of vulnerable
people.
129. (a) The correct answer is A. Option A would clearly be
appreciated by the author since he has stated
explicitly that the accuracy of early weather
forecasts is not that accurate. Employing new
technologies to improve its accuracy would most
likely be appreciated by the author. On the other
hand, option B is incorrect because the author has
not explicitly called for compensation for the
families of the casualties. Also, changing the terrain
of hill states along with an exodus of people from
the mountainous terrains to the plains during the
monsoon is impractical.
130. (c) It is a fact that socialism emerged as a reaction to
capitalism, as stated in the first line of the passage.
Option (a) is relevant in the discussion.
The author has mentioned that one of the
characteristics of capitalism is the survival of the
fittest. Refer to the lines- ‘They regarded the
survival of the fittest as the unquestionable law of
nature.’ Option (b) is also based on the passage.
The last paragraph of the passage has option (d). It
says that capitalism has given wealth and prosperity
to the world but has caused unemployment, over-
production and economic disparity. Option (d) is
also based on the passage.
Option (c) is not mentioned in the passage. So, (c) is
the correct answer.
131. (d) The economic disparity and overproduction were
the results of industrialisation. Industrialisation
leads to the concentration of economic power in a
few hands, along with overproduction due to
uncontrolled utilisation of resources. These are the
facts stated in the second paragraph of the passage.
Option (a), (b) and (c) are connected with
industrialisation.
In the same paragraph, it has been mentioned that
the doctrine of the harmony of interests was a
fallacy. Hence, option (d) is the correct exception
that is not based on the facts given in the passage.
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132. (c) With regards to the competition, the author has
mentioned in the second paragraph that competition
proved to be beneficial for increasing the efficiency
of production, but soon it proved detrimental for
small companies. Big companies established their
monopolies with their enormous resources, and the
smaller companies were driven out of the
competition. Option (c) is the correct answer.
Other options are not mentioned in the passage.
Hence, they are incorrect.
133. (b) Option (a) cannot be certified from the passage.
Option (b) is correct inference. Trade cycles of
boom and depression are characteristic of a
capitalist economy. They are based on the supply
and demand principles. The last paragraph has the
relevant facts. It says that when the production
reached a saturation point, People began to
apprehend that there might be a situation where
there were all sellers and no buyers. Cycles of boom
and depression, known as trade cycles, became
frequent.
Greed given in option (c) is not discussed in the
passage.
Option (d) cannot be deduced that there are
prolonged boom and depression in economic
activity.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
134. (b) Option (a) does not strengthen Karl Marx's
statement. It does not give the seeds of destruction.
Option (b) is the correct statement to strengthen the
statement given in the question. The seeds of
destruction are imbibed in the repercussions of
capitalism. These can be income disparity,
unemployment and monopoly. These will ultimately
lead to the destruction of capitalism.
Option (c) is out of the scope of the passage.
Option (d) fails to give the reason for the destruction
of capitalism in society.
135. (d) Correct option: All the statements can be inferred
from the passage. Refer to the lines, ‘Socialism
emerged as a reaction to capitalism.’ If Socialism
was a reaction to Capitalism, it can be deduced that
Socialism in its ideologies is very different, making
statement I correct. Statement II can be inferred
from the lines, ‘Capitalism indeed increased the
wealth of the nation. It led to unprecedented
prosperity in Europe. Real wages went up
everywhere. But very soon markets were flooded
with goods. As the competition increased the system
began to face crises.’ Statement III can be inferred
from the lines, ‘England had become the first
industrial nation in the world. The prosperity of
Victorian England was there for everyone to see.
People were convinced that competition increased
efficiency and wealth in society.’
Page 14 of 16
SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES ⇒ Total amount with Radha and Suman = Rs. 2x.
Amount with Deepa = Rs. x- 200 and that with
Hint (131-135): Number of people visited X mart Mangala Rs. 2x.
on Monday = 275 * 80/100 = 220 Also the amount with Srikanth = Rs. x + 200.
Number of people visited Y mart on Thursday = Given, x+ 2x + x — 200 + 2x + x + 200 = 2100 ⇒
220 x = 300.
Number of people visited X mart on Thursday = 2* Hence the amounts with Doorva, Deepa, Mangata
220 = 440 and Srikanth are Rs. 300, Rs. 100, Rs. 600 and Rs.
Number of people visited Y mart on Wednesday = 500 respectively, Also the average amount with six
440 - 8 = 432 2100
persons = = 𝑅𝑠. 350.
Number of people visited X mart on Tuesday = 432 6
The amount with Snkanth is Rs. 500.
* 100/120 = 360
143. (d) Let the amount with Doorva be Rs. x.
Number of people visited Y mart on Tuesday = 360
Given, (amount with Radha — amount with
* 5/3 = 600
Doorva) = (amount with Doorva — amount with
Number of people visited X mart on Wednesday =
Suman)
360 - 10 = 350
⇒ Total amount with Radha and Suman = Rs. 2x.
Day X mart Y mart Total Amount with Deepa = Rs. x- 200 and that with
Monday 220 275 495 Mangala Rs. 2x.
Tuesday 360 600 960 Also the amount with Srikanth = Rs. x + 200.
Given, x+ 2x + x — 200 + 2x + x + 200 = 2100 ⇒
Wednesday 350 432 782
x = 300.
Thursday 440 220 660 Hence the amounts with Doorva, Deepa, Mangata
Total 1370 1527 2897 and Srikanth are Rs. 300, Rs. 100, Rs. 600 and Rs.
136. (d) Required ratio 960: 660 = 16: 11 500 respectively, Also the average amount with six
2100
137. (b) Required difference = 1527 – 1370 = 157 persons =
6
= 𝑅𝑠. 350.
138. (b) Ratio = 5:3 The required ratio is 100 : 600 = 1: 6
ATQ, 144. (d) Let the amount with Doorva be Rs. x.
8 units = 432 people Given, (amount with Radha — amount with
1 unit = 54 people Doorva) = (amount with Doorva — amount with
2 units = 108 people Suman)
Required difference = 108 ⇒ Total amount with Radha and Suman = Rs. 2x.
139. (a) Required percentage = 432 * 100/600 = 72% Amount with Deepa = Rs. x- 200 and that with
140. (c) Total number of people visited both marts on Mangala Rs. 2x.
Friday = 660 * 160/100 = 1056 Also the amount with Srikanth = Rs. x + 200.
Number of people visited X mart on Friday = 1056 Given, x+ 2x + x — 200 + 2x + x + 200 = 2100 ⇒
* 9/16 = 594 x = 300.
Number of people visited Y mart on Friday = 1056 Hence the amounts with Doorva, Deepa, Mangata
– 594 = 462 and Srikanth are Rs. 300, Rs. 100, Rs. 600 and Rs.
141. (d) Let the amount with Doorva be Rs. x. 500 respectively, Also the average amount with six
Given, (amount with Radha — amount with 2100
persons = = 𝑅𝑠. 350.
Doorva) = (amount with Doorva — amount with 6
Suman) From the given information, amount with Radha
⇒ Total amount with Radha and Suman = Rs. 2x. cannot be found.
Amount with Deepa = Rs. x- 200 and that with 145. (c) Let the amount with Doorva be Rs. x.
Mangala Rs. 2x. Given, (amount with Radha — amount with
Also the amount with Srikanth = Rs. x + 200. Doorva) = (amount with Doorva — amount with
Given, x+ 2x + x — 200 + 2x + x + 200 = 2100 ⇒ Suman)
x = 300. ⇒ Total amount with Radha and Suman = Rs. 2x.
Hence the amounts with Doorva, Deepa, Mangata Amount with Deepa = Rs. x- 200 and that with
and Srikanth are Rs. 300, Rs. 100, Rs. 600 and Rs. Mangala Rs. 2x.
500 respectively, Also the average amount with six Also the amount with Srikanth = Rs. x + 200.
2100 Given, x+ 2x + x — 200 + 2x + x + 200 = 2100 ⇒
persons = = 𝑅𝑠. 350.
6 x = 300.
As there is no exact information about Radha and Hence the amounts with Doorva, Deepa, Mangata
Suman, the question cannot be answered. and Srikanth are Rs. 300, Rs. 100, Rs. 600 and Rs.
142. (b) Let the amount with Doorva be Rs. x. 500 respectively, Also the average amount with six
Given, (amount with Radha — amount with 2100
persons = = 𝑅𝑠. 350.
Doorva) = (amount with Doorva — amount with 6
Suman)
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 To have least number of notes, Radh and Suman Then the total number of currency notes with them
should have Rs. 350 and Rs. 250 respectively. will be 24.

Hint (146-1450):
Number of
School participants
Cricket Badminton Total Male Female
A 88 76 88 + 76 = 164 164 * 3/4 = 123 164 - 123 = 41
B 40 104 40 + 104 = 144 76 144 - 76 = 68
C 64 52 64 + 52 = 116 116 * 13/29 = 52 1 116 - 52 = 64
D 92 48 92 + 48 = 140 55% of 140 = 77 140 - 77 = 63
E 112 68 112 + 68 = 180 45% of 180 = 81 180 - 81 = 99
146. (c) Number of male participants from all given schools taken together
= 123 + 76 + 52 + 77 + 81
= 409
147. (a) Number of students participated in badminton from school B and D taken together
= 104 + 48 = 152
Number of students participated in cricket from school A and E taken together
= 88 + 112 = 200
Therefore, ratio = 152: 200 = 19: 25
148. (d) Number of participants from school C = 116
Number of female participants from school E = 99
Therefore, difference = 116 - 99 = 17
149. (b) Number of students participated in cricket from school B and C taken together
= 40 + 64 = 104
Number of female students participated from school D and A together
= 41 + 63 = 104
Therefore, percentage = (104/104) × 100 = 100%
150. (d) In school E:
Number of male participants = 81
Number of male participants in cricket = 112 - 45 = 67
Therefore, percentage = (67/81) × 100 = 83% (approx.)

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