FST-39 (14-03-2024) (E+h) Paper

FST : 39
Test ID : 239
ALL INDIA FULL SYLLABUS TEST SERIES-UG-2023-24
DURATION : 180 Minutes DATE : 14-03-2024 MARKS : 720
Topic Covered
Physics : 12th Full syllabus
Chemistry : 12th Full syllabus
Biology : 12th Full syllabus
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Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15 questions, out
of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.
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Entrance NEET
Corona Pandemic
SELECTION
NCERT - XI (346) pages NCERT - XII (285)

Pages Total 631 pages 28 pages compress
SET-H4 74 Questions
NEET-2024 80+ Questions
Morning 09
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All India Full Syllabus Test–39 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 / 14-Mar-2024
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NLI / 3
TOPIC : XII - FULL SYLLABUS (MODEL)
PART-1 (SECTION-A) PART-1 (SECTION-A)
-A SECTION-A
35 Attempt All 35 Questions
1. . 1. As shown in figure, charges are placed in a

q regular hexagon of side . Find net force on q
placed at the centre of hexagon.
10kQq 14kQq 10kQq 14kQq

(1) (2) (1) (2)
2 2 2 2
6kQq 2kQq 6kQq 2kQq

(3) (4) (3) (4)
2 2 2 2
2. q1,q2, q3 a 2. Three point charges q 1,q2,q3 are placed at the

  vertex of a triangle if forces on q1 and q2 are
q1 q2 are (2 i  j ) N    
  (2 i  j ) N and N, respectively, then what
N q3 ? will be force on q3?
(1) (1) zero
   
(2) (3 i  2 j)N (2) ( 3 i  2 j)N
   
(3) (3)
(4) (4) Cannot be calculated

3. q 3. Inside a hollow conducting sphere, which is
P uncharged a charge q is placed at its centre. Let
E V P E V electric field at a distance x from centre at point
P be E and potential at this point be V. Now, some
positive charge Q is given to this sphere, then
(1) E (2) E
(1) E will remain same (2) E will increase
(3) V (4) V
(3) V will decrease (4) V will remain the same
NLI / 4
4. (k) (Si) 4. What is the relation between figure of merit (k)
and current sensitivity (Si) ?
(1) (1)
(2) Si (2) Si
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
5. 5. Two large parallel planes charge uniformly with

– A B surface charge density  and –  are located as

shown in the figure. Which one of the following
graphs shows the variation of electric field along
a line perpendicular to the planes as one moves
from A to B?
(1)
(1)
(2) s
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(4)
NLI / 5
6. t 6. Between the plates of parallel plate condenser a
k t plate of thickness t1 and dielectric constant k1 is
k placed. In the rest of the space, there is another
plate of thickness t2 and dielectric constant k2.
Then potential difference across the condenser
will be:
Q  t1 t 2 
(1) A    (2) Q  t1 t 2 
0  k1 k 2  (1) A    (2)
0  k1 k 2 
Q  k1 k 2  0 Q Q  k1 k 2 
(3) A    (4) k1t1  k 2 t 2  0Q
 t1 t 2  A (3) A  t  t  (4) k1t1  k 2 t 2
0
0  1 2  A
7. 2 F 3 F 7. Two capacitors of 2 F and 3 F are conected in

A 1000 series. The potential at point A is 1000 volt and
B : the outer plate of 3 F capacitor is earthed. The
potential at point B is:
(1) 300
(1) 300 volt
(2) 500
(2) 500 volt
(3) 600 (3) 600 volt
(4) 400 (4) 400 volt
     
8. E  (3 i  4yj) A (0, –1,2) B (2, 2, 1) 8. If E  (3 i  4yj) N/C, the find the potential
difference between point A (0, –1,2) and B (2, 2,
1).
(1)
(1) zero
(2) –12V
(2) –12V
(3) 12V (3) 12V
(4) 6V (4) 6V
9. P 9. Three large parallel plates have uniform surface
: charge densities as shown in the figure, then
electric field at P is:
2 
(1)   k 2 
0 (1)   k
0
 
(2)   k (2)   k
0
0
   
(3)  2 k (3)  2 k
0
0
(4) (4) None of these

NLI / 6
10. A, B C 10. The bulbs A,B and C are connected as shown in
B C C figure. The bulbs B and C are identical. If the bulb
C is fused.
In compairision to prior situation:

(1) A B (1) both A and B will glow more brightly
(2) A B (2) both A and B will glow less brightly

(3) A will glow less brightly and B will glow more
(3) A B
brightly.
(4) A B (4) A will glow less brightly and B will glow less brightly.
11. 9 11. If power dissipated in the 9 registor in the circuit
2 shown in 36 W, the potential difference across
the 2 resistor is:
(1) 8
(1) 8 V
(2) 10 (2) 10 V
(3) 2 (3) 2 V
(4) 4 V
(4) 4
12. What will be potential of point A?
12. A ?
(1) 3 V (2) 9 V (1) 3 V (2) 9 V
(3) 12 V (4) (3) 12 V (4) zero

NLI / 7
13. 'P' 13. Magnetic field at point 'P' due to given current
:- distribution:-
(1)  (2)  (1)  (2) 
(3) (4) zero (3) (4) zero
14. AC 14. A current carrying wire AC is placed in uniform

transverse magnetic field then the force on wire
:-
AC :-
(1) 3 (2) 4.2 (1) 3N (2) 4.2N

(3) 6 N (4) 4 (3) 6N (4) 4N
15. 1 2 i i 15. Wires 1 and 2 carrying currents i 1 and i 2
1 r respectively are inclined at an angle  to each
dl 1 other. What is the force on a small element dl of
? wire 2 at distance r from wire 1 (as shown in
figure) due to the magnetic field of wire 1?
0 0 0 0
(1) i1i2 dl tan  (2) i1i2 dlsin  i1i2 dl tan  i1i2 dl sin 
2r 2r (1) (2)
2r 2r
0 0 0 0
(3) i1i2 dlcos  (4) i1i2dl sin  s (3) i1i2 dlcos  (4) i1i2 dlsin 
2r 4 r 2r 4 r
NLI / 8
16. ) PQRS 16. A closed loop PQRS carrying a current is placed

PS, SR RQ in a uniform magnetic field. If the magnetic forces
on segments PS, SR and RQ are F1, F2 and F3
F ,F F
QP
:
respectively and are in the plane of the paper

and along the directions shown, the force on the
segment QP is:
(1) (F3  F1 )2  F22 (1) (F3  F1 )2  F22
(2) F3+ F1 + F2 (2) F3+ F1 + F2
(3) F3– F2 – F1 (3) F3– F2 – F1
(4) (F3  F1 )2  F22 (4) (F3  F1 )2  F22

17. In an ammeter 0.2% of main current passes
17. 0.2%
through the galvanometer. If resistance of
G galvanometer is G, the resistance of ammeter will
: be:
1 499 1 499
(1) G (2) G (1) G (2) G
499 500 499 500
1 500 1 500
(3) G (4) G (3) G (4) G
500 499 500 499
18. i 18. A current i is flowing in a conductor in a
r conductor shaped as shown in the figure. The
radius of curved part is r and length of straight
portions is very large. The value of magnetic field
at the center will be:
 0 i  3 
(1)  1
4r  2   0 i  3 
 1
(1)
4r  2 
 0 i  3 
(2)  1  0 i  3 
4r  2  (2)  1
4r  2 
0 i   
(3) 1 0 i   
4r  2  (3) 1
4r  2 
0 i    0 i   
(4) 1
4r  2  (4) 1
4r  2 
NLI / 9
19. A B m 19. Two particles A and B of masses mA and mB
m respectively and having the same charge are
moving in a plane. A uniform magnetic field exists
perpendicular to this plane. The speeds of the
vA vB particles are v A and v B respectively and the
: trajectories are as shown in the fig. Then :
(1) mAvA < mBvB (1) mAvA < mBvB

(2) mAvA > mBvB (2) mAvA > mBvB
(3) mA < mB vA< vB (3) mA < mB vA< vB
(4) mA = mB vA = vB (4) mA = mB vA = vB
20. 20. A dynamo is sometimes said to generate
: electricity. It actually acts as a source of:
(1) (1) Charge
(2) (2) Magnetism
(3) (3) E.M.F.
(4) (4) Energy
21. 21. When a magnet is being moved towards a coil,

the induced emf does not depend upon
(1) (1) the number of turns of the coil
(2) (2) the motion of the magnet
(3) (3) the magnetic moment of the magnet
(4) (4) the resistance of the coil
22. 22. A copper ring having a cut such as not to form a

complete loop is held horizontally and a bar
magnet is dropped through the ring with its length
along the axis of the ring. Then acceleration of
the falling magnet is -(neglect air friction)
):
(1) g (2) g (1) g (2) less than g
(3) g (4) 0 (3) more than g (4) 0

NLI / 10
23. 60  X 40  X 120 23. In the figure, the 60  XL and 40  X C are in
parallel across the 120 volt source. The impedance
: of the circuit is:
40 40
(1) 120  (1) 120  inductive
(2) 120  (2) 120  capacitive
(3) 24  (3) 24  inductive
(4) 24  (4) 24  capacitive
24. R L. 24. An alternating voltage is connected in series with

a resistance R and an inductance L. If the
200 150 potential drop across the resistance is 200 volt
and across the inductance is 150 volt, the applied
voltage:
(1) 350 (1) 350 volt
(2) 250 (2) 250 volt
(3) 500 (3) 500 volt
(4) 300 (4) 300 volt
25. : 25. Incorrect statement are :
(a) A.C. D.C. (a) A.C. meters can measure D.C. also
(b) A.C D.C A.C (b) If A.C. meter measures D.C. there scale must be
linear and uniform
(c) A.C. and D.C. meters are based on heating effect

(c) A.C. D.C of current.
(d) A.C. meter reads rms value of current.

(d) A.C rms A.C
(1) a, b
(1) a, b
(2) b, c
(2) b, c
(3) c, d
(3) c, d
(4) d, a (4) d, a
26. 26. Avalanche breakdown in a semiconductor diode

happend when -
(1)
(1) forward bias exceeds a certain value
(2) (2) forward current exceeds a certain value
(3) (3) reverse bias exceeds a certain value
(4) (4) the potential barrier is reduced to zero
NLI / 11
27. 27. In an electromagnetic wave.
(1) (1) power is transmitted along the magnetic field.
(2) (2) power is transmitted along the electric field.
(3) power is equally transferred along the electric and

(3)
magnetic fields.
(4) power is transmitted in a direction perpendicular

(4) to both the fields.
E0 E0
28. The ratio H 28. The ratio H for a plane EM wave has the
0
0
: dimensions of:
(1) (1) Impedance
(2) (2) Resistance
(3) (a) (b) (3) Both of these
(4) (4) None of these
29. E 29. The relation between electric field E and

B magnetic field B in an electromagnetic wave is:
(1) E = B
(1) E
(2)
(2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
30. The co-ordinates of the image with respect to the

30. c :
origin c will be:
(1) (2) (5, 5 3)

(1) (2) (5, 5 3)
(3) (4)
(3) (4) none of these
NLI / 12
31. : n- 31. Assertion : Doping of silicon with indium leads to
n-type semiconductor.
: Reason : Indium is a pentavalent atom.
(1) (1) It both assertion and reason arc true and reason is
correct explanation of assertion.
correct explanation of assertion is not
(3) assertion is true but reason is false.

(3)
(4) (4) Both assertion and reason false.
32. : 32. Assertion : If the frequency of the light incident on

a metal surface is doubled, the maximum kinetic
energy of emitted photoelectrons also gets
doubled.
: Reason : Kinetic energy of particle is proportional
to frequency.
correct explanation of assertion.
correct explanation of assertion is not
(3) (3) assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) (4) Both assertion and reason false.
33. f 33. A split lens has its two parts separated by distance
a and its focal length is f. An object O is placed at
a f/2
a distance f/2 on the axis of the undivided lens.
O The distance between the images of both parts
of the lens will be
1 1
(1) a (2) af af
2 (1) a (2)
2
2a 2a
(3) 2a (4) (3) 2a (4)
f f
34. A region surronding a stationary electric dipoles
34.
has:
(1) (1) Magnetic field only
(2) (2) Electric field only
(3) (3) Both electric and magnetic fields
(4) (4) No electic and magnetic fields

NLI / 13
35. [  1.5] 35. A glass prism [  1.5] is immersed in water as
 =4/3 shown in the figure. If for water,  =4/3, then the
AC  : normal incident ray will be totally reflected from
AC, if  is given by:
(1) sin  > 8/9

(1) sin  > 8/9
(2) 2/3 < sin  < 8/9
(2) 2/3 < sin  < 8/9
(3) sin   2/3
(3) sin   2/3
(4) sin  < 8/9 (4) sin  < 8/9
-B SECTION-B
15 15 This section will have 15 questions. Candidate

can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
10 10
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
10 more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
questions will be considered for marking.
36. n 36. In a Fraunhofer's diffraction obtained by a single
slit aperture, the value of path difference for nth
order of minima is :
(1) n
(1) n
(2) 2n (2) 2n
(3) (2n  1) / 2 (3) (2n  1) / 2
(4) ( 2n  1)  (4) ( 2n  1) 
37. a b x-y 37. A rectangular loop of sides a and b is placed in

x-y plane. A uniform but time verying magnetic

 field of strength is present
in the region. The magnitude of induced e.m.f.
t in the loop at time t is :
(1) 20 + 20t (2) 20 (1) 20 + 20t (2) 20
(3) 20 t (4) (3) 20 t (4) zero
38. n 38. The interference pattern is obtained with two
coherent light sources of intensity ratio n. In the
Imax  Im in Imax  Imin
: interference pattern, the ratio I  I will be:
Im ax  Im in max min
n 2 n n 2 n
(1) (2) (1) (2)
n 2 n n 2 n
(3) (4) (3) (4)
(n  1) n 1 (n  1) n 1
NLI / 14
39. 39. The cathode of a photoelectric cell is changed
w1 w (w > w1). such that the work function changes form w1 to
I1 I2, w2 (w2 > w 1). If the saturated current before and
after the change are I1 and I2, all other conditions
unchanged and assuming
(1) I1 = I2
(1) I1 = I2
(2) I1 < I2 (2) I1 < I2
(3) I1 > I2 (3) I1 > I2
(4) I1 < I2 < 2I1 (4) I1 < I2 < 2I1
40. A, B C 40. Energy levels A, B and C of a certain atom

correspond to increasing values of energy i.e.,
EA < EB < EC. C A
EA < EB < EC. If 1,  2 and 3 are wavelengths of
radiations corresponding to, transitions C to B, B
1,  2 3 ? to A and C to A, respectively, which of the
following relations is correct?
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3) (3)
1 2 1 2
(4)  3     (4)  3    
1 2 1 2
41. E m 41. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths of photon and

electron of mass m having the same energy E is
(c )
(c is the velocity of photon)
2m E 2m E
(1) c (2) c (1) c (2) c
E 2m E 2m
c c
(3) c 2m (4) 2mE (3) c 2m (4) 2mE
42. 42. A point source cause photoelectric effect from a

small metal plate. Which of the following curves
may represent the saturation photocurrent as a
function of the distance between the source and
the metal:
(1) A (2) B (1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D (3) C (4) D

NLI / 15
43.  43. When a metallic surface is illuminated with
V radiation of wavelength , the stopping potential
2 is V. If the same surface is illuminated with
radiation of wavelength 2  , the stopping
V
V
4 potential is . The threshold wavelength for the
4
metallic surface is:
(1) 4 (2) 5 (1) 4 (2) 5
5 5
(3)  (4) 3 (3)  (4) 3
2 2
44.  60o 120o 44. In Rutherford's -particle scattering experiment,

the ratio of number of -particles scattered

through the angles of 60o and 120ois :
(1) 1 : 2 (1) 1 : 2
(2) 3 :1 (2) 3 :1
(3) 3 : 1 (3) 3 : 1
(4) 1 : 9 (4) 1 : 9
45. 45. The ratio of the radil of Bohr orbits in hydrogen

atom in increasing order is:
(1) 2 : 4 : 8 : 16
(1) 2 : 4 : 8 : 16
(2) 2 : 3 : 4 : 5
(2) 2 : 3 : 4 : 5
(3) 1 : 3 : 6 : 9
(3) 1 : 3 : 6 : 9
(4) 1 : 4 : 9 : 16
(4) 1 : 4 : 9 : 16
46. 1 g of hydrogen is converted into 0.993 g of helium
46. in a nuclear fusion reaction. The energy released
is:
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
47. (12 H) ( 42 He) 47. The binding energy per nucleon of deuteron ( 12 H)
1.1 MeV 7 MeV and helium nucleus ( 24 He) is 1.1 MeV and 7 MeV
respectively. If two deuteron nuclei react to form
: a single helium nucleus then the energy released
is :
(1) 13.9 MeV
(1) 13.9 MeV
(2) 26.9 MeV
(2) 26.9 MeV
(3) 23.6 MeV
(3) 23.6 MeV
(4) 19.2 MeV
(4) 19.2 MeV
NLI / 16
48. : 48. The following configuration of gates is equivalent
to :
(1) NAND
(1) NAND
(2) OR (2) OR
(3) XOR (3) XOR
(4) NOR (4) NOR
49. 49. The circuit has two oppositely connected ideal

diodes in parallel. What is the current flowing in
the circuit?
(1) 2.31 A (1) 2.31 A

(2) 1.33 A (2) 1.33 A
(3) 1.71 A (3) 1.71 A
(4) 2.00 A (4) 2.00 A
50. 50. The contribution in the total current flowing

through a semiconductor due to electrons and
3 1
4 4 3 1
holes are and respectively. If the drift velocity
4 4
5
2 5
of electrons is times that of holes at this
2
temperature, then the ratio of the concentrations
of electrons and holes is :
(1) 6 : 5
(1) 6 : 5
(2) 5 : 6
(2) 5 : 6
(3) 3 : 2
(3) 3 : 2
(4) 2 : 3
(4) 2 : 3
NLI / 17
TOPIC : XII - FULL SYLLABUS (MODEL)
Atomic Masses : H=1, He=4, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, Mg=24, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5,
K=39, Ca=40, Fe=56, Cu=63.5, Br=80, Ag=108, I=127, Ba=137, Au=197
SECTION-A
-A
Attempt All 35 Questions
35
51. Assertion : In Lucas test, 3º alcohols react
51. : 3º
immediately.
Reason : An equimolar mixture of anhyd. ZnCl2

: ZnCl2 conc. and conc. HCl is called Lucas reagent.
HCl
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the
(1) (1) (R) (R) Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(1) (2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
(2) (1) (R) (R) Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(1) Assertion.
(3) (1) (R) (3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) (1) (R) (4) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
52. 52. Which of the following statements is correct
A B regarding a solution of two components A and B
exhibiting positive deviation from ideal
behaviour:
(1) A-A B-B A-B
(1) Intermolecular attractive forces between A-A and
B-B are stronger than those between A-B.
(2) T P mix V = 0 (2) mix V = 0 at constant T and P.
(3) T P mix H = 0 . (3) mix H = 0 at constant T and P.
(4) A-A B-B A- (4) Intermolecular attractive forces between A-A and
B B-B are equal to those between A-B..
53. (i) 53. Which of the following salts has the same value
of van’t Hoff factor(i) as that of K3[Fe(CN)6]
K3[Fe(CN)6]
(1) Na2SO4
(1) Na2SO4
(2) Al(NO3)3
(2) Al(NO3)3
(3) Al2(SO4)3
(3) Al2(SO4)3
(4) NaCl
(4) NaCl
54. Standard electrode potentials for Sn4+/Sn2+ couple
4+ 2+
54. Sn /Sn +0.15 V is +0.15 V and that for the Cr3+ /Cr couple is –0.74
Cr3+ /Cr –0.74 V V. These two couples in their standard state are
connected to make a cell. The cell potential will
be :
(1) + 1.19 V (2) + 0.89 V (1) + 1.19 V (2) + 0.89 V
(3) + 0.18 V (4) + 1.83 V

(3) + 0.18 V (4) + 1.83 V
NLI / 18
55. : 55. Following limiting molar conductivities are given
as :
λ om (H2 SO4 ) = x S cm2 mol-1
λ om (H2 SO 4 ) = x S cm2 mol-1
λom (K 2 SO4 ) = y S cm2 mol-1
λom (K 2 SO4 ) = y S cm2 mol-1
λom(CH3COOK) = z S cm2 mol-1
λom(CH3COOK) = z S cm2 mol-1
CH3COOH λ om (S cm2 mol-1 )
λom (in S cm2 mol-1) for CH3COOH will be
(1) x – y + 2z (1) x – y + 2z
(2) x + Y – z (2) x + Y – z
(3) x – y + z (3) x – y + z
(x  y) (x  y)
(4) z (4) z
2 2
56. N2+ 3H2  2NH3 56. For the reaction, N2+ 3H2  2NH3, if :
d[NH3 ] -d[N2 ] d[NH3 ] -d[N2 ]

= 3 × 10-4 = 3 × 10-4 mol L-1, the value of
dt dt dt dt
would be :
(1) 4×10–4 mol L–1 s–1
(1) 4×10–4 mol L–1 s–1
(2) 6×10–4 mol L–1 s–1
(2) 6×10–4 mol L–1 s–1
(3) 1.5×10–4 mol L–1 s–1 (3) 1.5×10–4 mol L–1 s–1
(4) 3×10–4 mol L–1 s–1 (4) 3×10–4 mol L–1 s–1
57. A+B C : 57. The data for the reaction A + B  C, is :
Exp. [A]0 [B]0 Initial rate Exp. [A]0 [B]0 Initial rate
1 0.012 0.035 0.10 1 0.012 0.035 0.10
2 0.012 0.070 0.80 2 0.012 0.070 0.80
3 0.024 0.035 0.40 3 0.024 0.035 0.40
The rate law corresponds to the above data is :
(1) = k[A][B]3 (1) rate = k[A][B]3
(2) = k[A]2[B]2 (2) rate = k[A]2[B]2
(3) = k[B]3 (3) rate = k[B]3
(4) = k[A]2[B]3 (4) rate = k[A]2[B]3
58. HNO3 58. When copper is heated with conc. HNO 3 it

produces :
(1) Cu(NO3)2, NO NO2 (1) Cu(NO3)2, NO and NO2
(2) Cu(NO3)2 N2O (2) Cu(NO3)2 and N2O
(3) Cu(NO3)2 NO2 (3) Cu(NO3)2 and NO2
(4) Cu(NO3)2 NO (4) Cu(NO3)2 and NO
NLI / 19
59. 59. Which one of the following arrangements does

not give the correct picture of the trends indicated
against it :
(1) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 :
(1) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 : Bond dissociation energy
(2) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 : (2) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 : Electronegativity
(3) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 : (3) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 : Oxidizing power
(4) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2 : (4) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2 : Electron gain enthalpy
60. : 60. Assertion : If a liquid solute more volatile than

the solvent is added to the solvent, the vapour
pressure of the solution may increase i.e., ps >
ps > po. p o.
: Reason : In the presence of a more volatile liquid

solute, only the solute will form the vapours and
solvent will not.
(1) (1) (R) (R) (1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(1)
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
(1) Assertion.
61. 61. Noble gases are named because of their inertness

towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement
about them :
(1) (1) Noble gases have large positive values of electron

gain enthalpy.
(2) Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water.
(2)
(3) Noble gases have very high melting and boiling
(3) points
(4) Noble gases have weak dispersion forces.
(4)
62. XeO4 : 62. Identify the incorrect statement, regarding the

molecule XeO4 :
(1) XeO4
(1) XeO4 molecule is square planar
(2)
(2) There are four p  d bonds
(3) sp3-p, 
(3) There are four sp3-p,  bonds.
(4) XeO4
(4) XeO4 molecule is tetrahedral.
63. 63. The catalytic activity of transition metals and their
: compounds is ascribed mainly to :
(1) (1) their magnetic behaviour
(2)
(2) their unfilled d-orbitals
(3)
(3) their ability to adopt variable oxidation states
(4) (4) their chemical reactivity
NLI / 20
64. 64. Which one of the following does not correctly

represent the correct order of the property
indicated against it :
(1) Ti < V < Cr < Mn : increasing number of oxidation
(1) Ti < V < Cr < Mn :
states
(2) Ti3+ < V3+ < Cr3+ < Mn3+ : (2) Ti3+ < V3+ < Cr3+ < Mn3+ : increasing magnetic
moment
(3) Ti < V < Cr < Mn : (3) Ti < V < Cr < Mn : increasing melting points
(4) Ti < V < Mn < Cr : increasing 2nd ionization
(4) Ti < V < Mn < Cr : enthalpy.
65. : 65. Assertion : Sucrose is called an invert sugar.
: Reason : On hydrolysis, sucrose bring the change

(+) (–) in the sign of rotation from dextro (+) to laevo(–).
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the
(1) (1) (R) (R) Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(1)
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
(1) Assertion.
66. 66. Identify the incorrect statement among the
following :
(1)
(1) Lanthanoid contraction is the accumulation of
(2) 4d successive shrinkages.
5d (2) As a result of Lanthanoid contraction, the
properties of 4d series of the transition elements
have no similarities with the 5d series of elements.
(3) 4f
(3) Shielding power of 4f electrons is quite weak.
(4) (4) There is a decrease in the radii of the atoms or
La Lu ions as one proceeds from La to Lu.
67. AgCl AgNO3 67. The correct order of the stoichiometries of AgCl
formed when AgNO3 in excess is treated with the
CoCl . 6NH , CoCl3 .5NH3 complexes : CoCl 3 .6NH 3 , CoCl 3 .5NH 3 and
CoCl3.4NH3 CoCl3.4NH3 respectively is :
(1) 3AgCl, 1AgCl, 2AgCl (1) 3AgCl, 1 AgCl, 2AgCl
(4) 1AgCl, 3AgCl, 2AgCl (4) 1AgCl, 3AgCl, 2AgCl
68. 68. Which of the following does not show optical
(en = NH2CH2CH2NH2) : isomerism : (en = NH2CH2CH2NH2)
(1) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] (1) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
(2) [Co(en)Cl2NH3)2]+ (2) [Co(en)Cl2NH3)2]+
(3) [Co(en)3]3+ (3) [Co(en)3]3+

(4) [Co(en)2Cl2]+
(4) [Co(en)2Cl2]+
NLI / 21
69. : 69. For the following reactions :
(a) CH3CH2CH2Br + KOH  (a) CH3CH2CH2Br + KOH 
CH3CH = CH2 + KBr + H2O CH3CH = CH2 + KBr + H2O
(b) (b)
(c) (c)
Which of the following statements is correct :

(1) (a) (b) (c) (1) (a) is elimination, (b) and (c) are substitution
reactions.
(2) (a) , (b) (c) (2) (a) is substitution, (b) and (c) are addition reactions.
(3) (a) (b) (c) (3) (a) and (b) are elimination reactions and (c) is
addition reaction.
(4) (a) (b) (c) (4) (a) is elimination, (b) is substitution and (c) is
addition reaction.
70. -I : 70. Statement-I : Copper liberates hydrogen from a dilute

solution of hydrochloric acid
-II : Statement-II : Hydrogen is below copper in the

electrochemical series.
(1) I II (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) I II (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) I II (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) I II (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

71. In a SN2 substitution reaction of the type
71. SN2
DMF
DMF
R - Br + Cl- R - Cl + Br -
R - Br + Cl- R - Cl + Br -
Which one of the following has the highest
relative rate :
CH3 CH3
(1) (2) CH3CH2Br (1) (2) CH3CH2Br

| |
CH3 CH3
(3) CH3CH2CH2Br (4) (3) CH3CH2CH2Br (4)

CH3 CH3
72. 'A' (C4H9 72. An organic compound A (C4H9Cl) on reaction with

Na/diethyl ether gives a hydrocarbon which on
monochlorination gives only one chloro
, A
derivative then, A is :
(1) t-butyl chloride (2) s-butyl chloride
(3) (3) iso-butyl chloride (4) n-butyl chloride
NLI / 22
73. 'A', C8H10O, NaOI 73. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with NaOI
(Y NaOH (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and yields a
yellow precipitate with characteristic smell. A and
) A
Y are respectively :
Y :
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
74. 74. Which of the following is correct :

(1) On reduction, any aldehyde gives secondary
(1)
alcohol.
(2) H2SO4
(2) Reaction of vegetable oil with H2 SO 4 gives
glycerine.
(3) NaOH (3) Alcoholic iodine with NaOH gives iodoform.
(4) NaCl (4) Sucrose on reaction with NaCl gives invert sugar.
75. -I : –1 75. Statement-I : Fluorine exists in –1 oxidation state,

because it is strongest electronegative element.
-II : 2s22p5 Statement-II : Fluorine has 2s22p5 configuration.
76. n-Propyl alcohol and isopropyl alcohol can be

chemically distinguished by which regent :
(1) PCl5 (1) PCl5
(2) (2) Reduction

(3) Oxidation with potassium dichromate
(3)
(4) Ozonolysis
(4)
NLI / 23
77. : 77. In the reaction :
CH3 CH3
| |
Heated Heated
CH3 - CH- CH2 - O - CH2 - CH3 + HI CH3 - CH- CH2 - O - CH2 - CH3 + HI
which of the following compounds will be formed
(1) CH3 – CH – CH3 + CH3CH2OH (1) CH3 – CH – CH3 + CH3CH2OH

| |
CH3 CH3
(2) CH3 – CH – CH2OH + CH3CH3 (2) CH3 – CH – CH2OH + CH3CH3
| |
CH3 CH3
(3) CH3 – CH – CH2OH + CH3CH2I (3) CH3 – CH – CH2OH + CH3CH2I
| |
CH3 CH3
(4) CH3 – CH – CH2 –I + CH3CH2OH (4) CH3 – CH – CH2 –I + CH3CH2OH
| |
CH3 CH3
78. 78. The major organic product formed from the
following reaction is :
(i) CH3NH2
(i) CH3NH2
 
(ii) LiAIH4 (iii) H2O

(ii) LiAIH4 (iii) H2O
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(4)
79. 79. The major product of the following reaction is :
COOH
+ NH
COOH
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
NLI / 24
80. -I : 80. Statement-I : Amines are basic in nature.
-II : Statement-II :Amines have lone pair of electrons

on nitrogen atom.

81. 81. Method by which aniline cannot be prepared is :
(1) (1) degradation of benzamide with bromine in alkaline

solution
(2) H2/Pd
(2) reduction of nitrobenzene with H2/Pd in ethanol
(3)
(3) potassium salt of phthalimide treated with
NaOH chlorobenzene followed by hydrolysis with aqueous
NaOH solution
(4)
(4) hydrolysis of phenylisocyanide with acidic solution
82. D 82. In a set of reactions m-bromobenzoic acid gave

D a product D. Identify the product D. :
SOCl2 NH3 NaOH

SOCl2
 NH3
B  NaOH
 C  D  B   C 
Br2
D
Br2
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
83. The pair in which both species have same

83.
magnetic moment (spin only value) is :
(1) [Cr(H2O)6]2+, [CoCl4]2–
(1) [Cr(H2O)6]2+, [CoCl4]2–
2+ 2+
(2) [Cr(H2O)6] , [Fe(H2O)6] (2) [Cr(H2O)6]2+, [Fe(H2O)6]2+
(3) [Mn(H2O)6]2+, [Cr(H2O)6)2+ (3) [Mn(H2O)6]2+, [Cr(H2O)6)2+
(4) [CoCl4]2-, [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (4) [CoCl4]2-, [Fe(H2O)6]2+
84. 84. Which pair of ions is colourless :
(1) Mn2+, Zn2+ (1) Mn2+, Zn2+
(2) Fe3+, Cr+ (2) Fe3+, Cr+
(3) Zn2+, Sc3+ (3) Zn2+, Sc3+
(4) Ti2+, Cu2+ (4) Ti2+, Cu2+

NLI / 25
85. 85. For reaction
5Br– (aq)+ BrO3–(aq) + 6H+  3Br2(aq) + 3 H2O(l)
5Br– (aq)+ BrO3–(aq) + 6H+  3Br2(aq) + 3 H2O(l)
The correct relation is :
(1)
(1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(4)
-B
SECTION-B
15 15 This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
10 10 can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
10 these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
questions will be considered for marking.
86. X, Y Z
86. The standard reduction potential values of the
0.52, –3.03 –1.18 three metallic cations X, Y and Z are 0.52, –3.03
and –1.18V respectively. The order of reducing
power of the corresponding metal is :
(1) Y > Z > X
(1) Y > Z > X
(2) X > Y > Z
(2) X > Y > Z
(3) Z > Y > X (3) Z > Y > X
(4) Z > X > Y (4) Z > X > Y
87. 250C 87. The rate constant, the activation energy and the
(Activation energy) Arrhenius parameter of a chemical reaction at
(Arhenius parameter) 3.0×10–4 s–1, 104.4 kJ 250C are 3.0×10–4 s–1, 104.4 kJ mol–1, and 6.0×1014 s–1
mol–1, 6.0×1014 s–1 T  respectively.The value of the rate constant as
T is :
(1) 2.0×1018 s-1 (1) 2.0×1018 s-1
(2) 6.0×1014 s-1 (2) 6.0×1014 s-1
(3) (3) Infinity
30 -1
(4) 3.6×10 s (4) 3.6×1030 s-1
88. AlCl 965 88. 965 coulomb of electricityis passed through a
Al (Al solution of AlCl3. The mass of Al deposited on
= 27): cathode is (At. Mass of Al = 27) :
(1) 27 g (1) 27 g
(2) 2.7 g (2) 2.7 g
(3) 0.27 g (3) 0.27 g
(4) 0.09 g
(4) 0.09 g
NLI / 26
89. 89. Chlorobenzene gives DDT when it reacts with :
(1) Phenol
(1)
(2) Naphthalene
(2)
(3) Chloral
(3)
(4) Acetaldehyde
(4)
90. 90. In elimination reaction, when both groups are lost

from the same atom, the following species is formed
(1) Carbonium ion

(1)
(2) Carbanion
(2)
(3) (3) Carbene
(4) (4) Free radical
91. 91. Which reagent(s) can be used to make distinction

between an aldose and a ketose?
(I) Br2 water
(I) Br2
(II) Tollen’s reagent
(II)
(III) Fehling solution
(III)
(1) I, II, III
(1) I, II, III
(2) II & III
(2) II III
(3) I, II
(3) I, II
(4) I (4) I only
92. A+BC 92. For the reaction A + B  C, the following

observations are taken :
mole L–1 sec–1

Rate is expressed in mole L–1 sec–1. In the above
experiments, the order is
(1) (1) Ist (2) (1) Ist order w.r.t. (1) and zero order w.r.t. (2)
(2) (2) Ist (1) (2) Zero order w.r.t. (1) and Ist order w.r.t. (2)
(3) (1) (2) Ist (3) Ist order w.r.t. (1) & (2)
(4) (1) (2) (4) Zero order w.r.t. (1) & (2)
NLI / 27
93. I II 93. In the following reaction :
Br
Br
(CH3)2CHC  CH Step I (CH3 )2CH–C = CH 2
Step II
(CH3)2CHC  CH Step I (CH3 )2CH–C = CH2

Step II
Br
Br (CH3)2CH–CH–CH2Br
(CH3)2CH–CH–CH2Br
Which of the following sets of reagents can be used
I II for step I and step II ?
Step I Step II
1. HBr HBr
1. HBr HBr and peroxide
2. HBr HBr
2. HBr and peroxide HBr
3. Br2 HBr
3. Br2 HBr
4. Br2 HBr 4. Br2 HBr and peroxide
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below
(1) 1, 2 4
(1) 1, 2 and 4
(2) 2 4
(2) 2 and 4
(3) 3 4 (3) 3 and 4
(4) 1 (4) 1 alone
94. H2SO4 94. When phenol is react with pthalic anhydride in

presence of con. H2SO 4 then which product is
formed :
(1)
(1) Phenolphthalein
(2)
(2) Bakelite
(3) (3) Salicyladehyde
(4) (4) Benzoquinone
95.
95.
Compound 'C' is :
'C'
(1) CH3–CH=CH–CH2–CHO
(1) CH3–CH=CH–CH2–CHO
(2)
(2)
(3) CH3–CH=CH–COOH (3) CH3–CH=CH–COOH
(4) CH3–CH=CH–CHO (4) CH3–CH=CH–CHO
96. 96. IUPAC name of compound
is:
(1) 3-cyclobutyl pentene
(2) 3-pentenylcyclobutane
(3) 3-ethyl-3-cyclobutane
(4) (4) None
NLI / 28
97. 97.
correct order of stability of above carbocation is :

(1) b > a > c > d (1) b > a > c > d
(2) c > a > d > b (2) c > a > d > b
(3) d > a > c > b (3) d > a > c > b
(4) c > d > a > b (4) c > d > a > b
98. , 'B' 98. , Compound 'B' is :
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
99. 99.
A, B C Compound A, B, C are respectively :

(1) CH2=CH2, CO2 CH3–CHO (1) CH2=CH2, CO2 and CH3–CHO
(2) CH CH, O2 CH3CHO (2) CH CH, O2 and CH3CHO
(3) CH CH, CO2 CHO–CHO (3) CH CH, CO2 and CHO–CHO
(4) CH2 = CH2, CO2 CH3–CH2–OH (4) CH2 = CH2, CO2 and CH3–CH2–OH
100. 100. Amine that cannot be prepared by Gabriel

phthalimide synthesis is :
(1) (1) Aniline
(2) (2) Benzyl amine
(3) (3) Methyl amine
(4) (4) Iso-butylamine
NLI / 29
TOPIC : 12 th NCERT - FULL SYLLABUS
PART-1 (SECTION-A)
101. 101. Which chemicals are produced by multicellular

fungi
(1)
(1) Acetic acid
(2)
(2) Citric acid
(3) (3) Butyric acid
(4) (4) Lactic acid
102. : 102. In Antibiotics the word 'Anti' is
(1) (1) Latin name
(2) (2) Greek word
(3) (3) English name

(4) (4) Hindi name
103. : 103. The disease 'gal ghotu' are name of which disease
(1) (1) Leprosy
(2) (2) Plague

(3) (3) Diphtheria
(4) (4) Whooping cough
104. : 104. Which of the following are the symptom of allergic
reactions
(1)
(1) Sneezing
(2)
(2) Watery eyes
(3) (3) Running nose
(4) (4) All
105. 105. Given below are two statements
-I: Statement I:
The foetus also receive some antibodies from their
mother, through the placenta during pregnancy.
Statement II :
- II :
Injecting the microbes deliberately during immunisation
or infectious organisms gaining access into body during
natural infection induce passive immunity.
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(4) I II (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
NLI / 30
106. H2L2 106. Which antibodies are represented as H2L2
(1) IgA (2) IgM (1) IgA (2) IgM
(3) IgG (4) All (3) IgG (4) All
-I: Statement I:
Each antibody molecule has six peptide chains, two
small called light chains and four longer called heavy
chains.
Statement II :
- II :
Physical barriers and cytokine barriers are example of
innate immunity.
below:
(1) I II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
108. : 108. Select the correct match
(1) – (1) Metagenesis – Benign tumors
(2) Metastasis – Malignant tumors
(2) –
(3) Contact inhibition – Property of cancerous
(3) –
cells
(4)  – (4) -interferon – Inactivate immune
system
-I: Statement I:
Heroin is a depressant and slows down body functions.
Statement II :
- II :
Cannabinoids are a group of chemicals which interact
with cannabinoid receptors present principally in the
brain.
below:
(1) I II
(2) I II
110. 110. Select the three options that can be thought for
increasing food production
(1) (1) Agro-chemical based agriculture
(2) (2) Organic agriculture

(3) (3) Genetically engineered crop-based agriculture
(4) (4) All
NLI / 31
111. ELISA 111. ELISA is based on the principle of antigen -
antibody interaction. Infection by pathogen can be
detected by the presence of antigens _______or
by detecting the antibodies synthesised against
the pathogen.
Fill in the blank in the sentence
(1) ) (1) (Proteins, glycoproteins, etc)
) (2) (Proteins only)
) (3) (Glycoproteins only)
) (4) (Carbohydrates only)
112. 112. The activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut
epithelial cells and creat pores that cause
_______and eventually cause death of the insect
(1) (1) Mitochondria swelling
(2) (2) Cell swelling and lysis
(3) (3) Only cell swelling
(4) (4) None
113. ______ 113. Very similar experiments involving use of
DNA radioactive thymidine to detect distribution of
newly synthesised DNA in the chromosomes was
performed on Vicia faba by_________ :
(1) 1968 (1) Taylor and colleagues in 1968

(4) 1958 (4) Meselson and stahl in 1958
114. 114. What is Arabidopsis
(1) (1) Non-pathogenic nematode
(2) (2) Plant

(3) (3) A type of fungi
(4) (4) Bacteria
115. HGP 'ELSI' 115. Regarding goals of HGP select the correct option
for 'ELSI'
(1) ,
(1) Ethical, long and simple issues
(2)
(2) Easy, long and simple issues
(3) ,
(3) Ethical, legal and social issues
(4) (4) Easy, long and simple innovation
116. 116. Select the incorrect match for mendel Dihybrid
cross
(1) rryy – 6.25%
(1) rryy – 6.25%
(2) RrYy – 12.5%
(2) RrYy – 12.5%
(3) RRYy – 12.5% (3) RRYy – 12.5%
(4) RRYY – 6.25% (4) RRYY – 6.25%
NLI / 32
117. 1865 117. Mendel published his work on inheritance of
characters in 1865 but for several reasons, it
_____
remained unrecognised till _____
(1) 2000
(1) 2000
(2) 1925 (2) 1925
(3) 1900 (3) 1900
(4) 1920 (4) 1920
118. : 118. Select the incorrect match
(1) IAIA – A (1) IAIA – A blood group
(2) IAIB – AB (2) IAIB – AB blood group
(3) IBIO – B (3) IBIO – B blood group
(4) IAIO – O (4) IAIO – O blood group
119. : 119. Select the correct statements for law of dominance
(1) (1) Characters are controlled by discrete units called

factors
(2)
(2) Factor occur in pairs
(3)
(3) In a dissimilar pair of factors one member of the
pair dominates (dominant) the other (recessive)
(4) (4) All

120. 120. Select the odd option for contrasting traits studied
: by mendel in pea
(1) (1) Dwarf
(2) (2) White
(3) (3) Wrinkled
(4) (4) Axial
121. 121. Phenylalanine tyrosine
'X' In the given reaction what is 'X'
(1) (1) Hexokinase
(2) (2) Isomerase
(3) (3) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
(4) ADA (4) ADA

122. : 122. Select the incorrect match for polygenic
inheritance
(1) AABBCC –
(1) AABBCC – Darkest skin colour
(2) aabbcc – (2) aabbcc – Lightest skin colour
(3) AaBbCc – Intermediate skin
(3) AaBbCc –
colour
(4) AaBBCC – (4) AaBBCC – Lightest skin colour
NLI / 33
123. : 123. Select the correct option for sickle cell anaemia
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
124. 124. In which type of disorder the affected individual is

short statured with small round head, furrowed
: tongue and partially open mouth
(1) (1) Klinefelter syndrome
(2) (2) Down syndrome
(3) (3) Haemophilia

(4) (4) Colour blindness
125. 125. In which type of natural selection more individuals
: acquire peripheral character value at both ends
of the distribution curve
(1) (2) (1) Disruptive (2) Stabilising
(3) (4) (3) Directional (4) None
126. : 126. What is gene pool
(1) (1) Total genes in one individual
(2) (2) Total genes and their alleles in a population

(3) (3) Only few gene and their alleles in a population
(4) (4) Only few gene in all community
127. 127. The sea weeds and few plants existed probably
around ________
Fill in the blanks in the sentence
(1) 350 mya
(1) 350 mya
(2) 320 mya (2) 320 mya
(3) 500 mya (3) 500 mya
(4) 100 mya (4) 100 mya
128. 1938 128. In 1938, a ________caught in South Africa
happened to be a Coelacanth which was thought
to be extinct
(1) (1) Amphibians
(2) (2) Fish
(3) (3) Reptile

(4) (4) Mollusc
NLI / 34
129. : 129. Select the incorrect match
(1) – (1) Chalaza – Basal part of the ovule
(2) – (2) Megasporangia – Ovule
(3) – (3) Style – Landing platform for

pollen grain
(4) – (4) Placenta – Located inside the
ovarian cavity
130. 130. Which scientist encouraged general education and
NCERT made a significant contribution to school education
by his leadership in bringing out the very first
1964
textbooks of biology for higher secondary schools
published by NCERT in 1964
(1) (1) Ramdeo mishra
(2) G.N. (2) G.N. Ramachandaran
(3) M.S. (3) M.S. Swaminathan
(4) (4) Panchanan Maheshwari
131. ________are initiated which lead to the
differentiation and furthur development of the
floral primordium
(1) (1) Only several morphological change
(2) (2) Only Anatomical change
(3) (3) Several hormonal and structural changes
(4) (4) Only change in leaves
-I: Statement I:
In very few of the water pollinated species, pollen grains
are protected from wetting by a mucilaginous covering.
Statement II :
- II :
Not all aquatic plants use water for pollination.
below:
133. 133. Select the correct match
(1) – (1) Cavity of the – Cervical canal

cervix
(2) –
(2) Clitoris – Womb
(3) –
(3) Lactiferous duct – Testis
(4) –
(4) Hymen – Made up of very hard
tissue
NLI / 35
134. X 134. Oogonia X primary oocyte secondary
oocyte
X Y
in the given process what is X and Y respectively
, Y–Ist
(1) X–differentiation, Y–Ist meiotic division
(2) X–1st , Y–2nd
(2) X–1st meiotic division, Y–2nd meiotic division
(3) X–mitosis, Y–Differentiation
(4) X–Differentiation, Y–Mitosis
135. 135. Select the incorrect match
(1) – (1) Hum DO Hamare DO – Birth control
(2) MMR IMR – (2) Decline in MMR – Decreased population

and IMR growth rate
(3) Amniocentesis – Haemophilia, down
(3) –
syndorme
(4) – CDRI
(4) Saheli – CDRI
-B PART-1 (SECTION-B)
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
15 15
choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15
10 10 question. In case if candiate attempts more than
10 question, first 10 attempted question will be
10 considered for marking.
136. 136. What is the possible ill effects of use of
contraceptive
(1)
(1) Abdominal pain
(2)
(2) Break through bleeding
(3)
(3) Irregular menstrual bleeding
(4) (4) All
-I: Statement I:
STIs STIs are not significant threat to a healthy society

therefore prevention or early detection and cure of these
disease are given not prime consideration under the
reproductive health care programmes.
- II : Statement II :
STIs Early symptoms of most of STIs are minor and include
itching, fluid discharge, slight pain, swelling etc. in the
genital organ.
below:
(1) I II
(2) I II
NLI / 36
138. 138. The female wasp uses the fruit not only as an
_____site but uses the________within the fruit for
nourishing its larvae.
(1) , (1) Oviposition, developing seeds
(2) , (2) Oviposition, developing leaf

(3) , (3) Oviposition, developing petal
(4) , (4) Oviposition, developing calyx
139. 139. Select the correct option for the given diagram
A B A B
a. a. Both show divergent evolution
b. b. Both show convergent evolution

c. Both are marsupials
c.
d. Both are true placental mammals
d.
e. A are true placental mammals while B are
e. A B marsupials
(1) a, c (1) a, c
(2) b, d (2) b, d
(3) b, e (3) b, e
(4) a, d, e (4) a, d
140. 140. Select the correct match
(1) – (1) Thomas malthus – Work on populations
(2) – (2) Darwin – Large difference arising

suddenly
in a population
(3) –
(3) Hugo deVries – Variation are small
and directional
(4) –
(4) Darwin – Evolution of life form
by use and disuse of
organ
141. 141. The ecosystem are may be
(1) (2) (1) Man made (2) Terrestrial
(3) (4) (3) Aquatic (4) All
NLI / 37
142. 142. Vertical distribution of different species occupying
different levels is called stratification for example
tree occupy
(1)
(1) Top vertical strata
(2) (2) Layer of a forest
(3) (3) Bottom layers
(4) 1 2 (4) Both 1 and 2
143. 143. Select the incorrect match
(1) – (1) Fourth trophic level – Man
(2) – (2) Second trophic level – Grasshopper
(3) – (3) Second trophic level – Lion
(4) – (4) Third trophic level – Sparrow
-I: Statement I:
Organisms at each trophic level depend on those at the
lower trophic level for their energy demands.
Detritus food chain may be connected with the grazing
food chain at some levels.
below:
145. 145. At the ecosystem level, India for instance with its
deserts, rain forest, mangroves, coral reefs,
wetlands, estuaries. and Alpine meadows has a
greater ecosystem diversity than a scandinavian
________ : country like ________ :
(1) (2) (1) Bangladesh (2) China
(3) (4) (3) Norway (4) Ukrain
146. (A) 146. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
(R) as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R)
(A) :
Assertion (A) :
STP
In STP the secondary treatment are biological
(R) : treatments.
Reason (R) :
In secondary treatments sewage are treated by aerobic
and anaerobic microorganism.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) (R) (R), (A)
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) (R) (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) (R) (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) (A) (R) (R), (A) (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
NLI / 38
147. ________ 147. ________ of the All the species recorded are
animals, while plants (Including algae, fungi,
Bryophytes, gymnosperms and Angiosperm)
%
comprise no more than 22 percent of the total :
Fill in the blanks in the sentence :
(1) 60 (1) Less than 60 percent
(2) 70 (2) More than 70 percent
(3) 50 (3) 50 percent

(4) 65 (4) 65 percent
-I: Statement I:
If we accept mays global estimates only 40% of the
total species have been recorded so far.
%
Statement II :
- II :
A forest in a tropical region like equador has up to 10
times as many species of vascular plants as a forest of
USA equal area in a temperate region like the midwest of the
USA.
below:
(1) I II
149. ____________ 149. ____________ Found that plots with more species
showed less year-to-year variation in total biomass
Fill in the blanks in the sentence :
(1) (1) Tilman
(2) (2) Paul Ehrlich
(3) (3) Edward Wilson
(4) (4) Connell
150. 150. How many are example of ex-situ conservation :
a. a. Seed bank
b. b. Pollen bank
c. HDFC c. HDFC bank
d. d. Gamete bank
e. e. Wildlife safari park
(1) (1) Five
(2) (2) Four
(3) (3) Three

(4) (4) Two
NLI / 39
PART-2 (SECTION-A)
151. 151. Which of the following have maximum species :
(1) (1) Ants
(2) (2) Fishes
(3) (3) Orchids
(4) (4) Beetles

152. 152. In Amazonian rain forest how much species are
present of Reptiles :
(1) 427 (2) 1300
(1) 427 (2) 1300
(3) 378 (4) 3000 (3) 378 (4) 3000
153. 153. According by rivet popper hypothesis loss of which
rivets is obviously a more serious threat to flight
safety :
(1)
(1) Rivets on the wings
(2)
(2) Rivets on the seats
(3) (3) Rivets on the window
(4) (4) None
154. ________________ 154. In________________ the feeding efficiency of one
species might be reduced due to the interfering
and inhibitory presence of the other species, even
If resources (food and space) are abundant.:
Fill in the blanks in the sentence.
(1) (1) Interference parasitism
(2) (2) Interference commensalism
(3) (3) Interference competition

(4) (4) Advanced competition
155. ECoRI DNA 155. Select the correct option for cutting of DNA in
palindromic sequence by ECoRI :
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4) All
156. DNA 156. Which of the following are not included in key tools
of recombinant DNA technology :
(1) (1) Vectors
(2) (2) Host organism
(3) (3) Ligases
(4) (4) None
NLI / 40
157. 157. Isolated _______from two different varieties of
plants -each having a desirable character can be
fused to get hybrid protoplasts which can be further
grown to form a new plants :
(1) Fill in the blank in the sentence :
(1) Protoplasts
(2)
(2) Explants
(3)
(3) Mitochondria
(4) (4) Meristematic tissue
158. 158. The number of chromosome are present in normal
man and haemophilic man respectively :
(1) 46,45 (2) 46,47 (1) 46,45 (2) 46,47

(3) 46,44 (4) 46,46 (3) 46,44 (4) 46,46
159. TT × Tt : 159. TT × Tt :
Select the correct statement for the given cross :
(1) (1) All progeny are tall
(2) 50% (2) 50% heterozygous progeny
(3) 50% (3) 50% homozygous progeny
(4) (4) All
160. 160. Select the correct statements for the given diagram:
a. a. It is used as contraceptive
b. It prevents physically meeting of ovum and
b.
sperm
c. It is made up of thin rubber/latex sheath that
c.
are used to cover the penis.
d. It protect to the user from contracting STIs and
d. STIs AIDS
AIDS
(1) a, b,c (1) Only a, b,c
(2) a,b,d (2) Only a,b,d
(3) b,c,d (3) Only b,c,d
(4) (4) All
161. 161. Select the Incorrect match :
(1) VD – (1) VD – Gonorrhoea
(2) STI – (2) STI – Trichomoniasis
(3) RTI – (3) RTI – Syphilis
(4) STI – (4) Curable STI – Genital herpes
NLI / 41
162. 162. According to which act, a pregnancy may be
terminated on certain considered grounds within
the first 12 weeks of pregnancy on the opinion of
: one registered medical practitionar :
(1) The medical termination of pregnancy (Amendment)
(1) 2022 Act, 2022
(2) The medical termination of pregnancy (Amendment)
(2) 2017 Act, 2017
(3) 1980 (3) The medical termination of pregnancy (Amendment)
Act, 1980
(4) 1985 (4) The medical termination of pregnancy (Amendment)
Act, 1985
-I: Statement I:
Penis is made up of special tissue that help in erection
of the penis to facilitate insemination.
Statement II :
- II :
There are remarkable differences between the
reproductive events in the male and in the female, for
example, sperm formation continues even in old men,
but formation of ovum ceases in women aroung the age
of fifty years.
below:
(1) I II
(2) I II

Statement I:
-I:
During fertilisation, a sperm comes in contact with the
zona pellucida layer of the ovum and induces changes
in the membrane that block the entry of additional
sperms.
The secretion of the acrosome help the sperm enter
into the cytoplasm of the ovum through the zona
pellucida and the plasma membrane.
below:
(1) I II
NLI / 42
-I: Statement I:
The labia minora are paired folds of tissue under the
labia majora.
Statement II :
- II :
The clitoris is a tiny finger like structure which lies at
the upper junction of the two labia minora above the
Urethral opening.
below:
-I: Statement I:
Majority of flowering plant produce hermaphrodite flowers
and pollen grain are likely to come in contact with the
stigma of the same flower.
Statement II :
- II :
Flowering plants have developed many devices to
discourage self-pollination and to encourage cross -
pollination.
below:
-I: Statement I:
The double fertilisation is the unique character of
angiosperm.
The pollen tube and pollen grain are the unique character
of angiosperm.
(1) I II below:
(3) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
168. : 168. Which one of the following is the correct match :
(1) – (1) Liquid Nitrogen – Storage of pollen grain
(2) – (2) Syncarpous – Free Pistil
(3) – (3) Apocarpous – Fused pistil
(4) (4) All
NLI / 43
169. -I: 169. Statement I :
‘AUG’ The codon ‘AUG’ codes f or methionine and

phenylalanine.
Statement II :
- II :
‘AAA’ and ‘AAG’ both codons code for the amino acid
‘AAA’ ‘AAG’
lysine.
correct answer from the options given below.
170. DNA 170. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA
helix during transcription.
(1) DNA (2) RNA (1) DNA polymerase (2) RNA polymerase
(3) DNA (4) DNA (3) DNA ligase (4) DNA helicase
171. RNA 171. Which one of the following is not applicable to

RNA:
(1)
(1) Heterocyclic nitrogenous bases
(2)
(2) Chargaff’s rule
(3) (3) Complementary base pairing
(4) 5’ 3’ (4) 5’ phosphoryl and 3’ hydroxyl ends
172. Y 172. Which enzymes will be produced in a cell if there
: is a nonsense mutation in the lac Y gene:
(1) (1) Lactose permease

(2) (2) Transacetylase
(3) (3) Lactose permease and transacetylase
(4)  (4)  -galactosidase
173. Ti T 173. What is meaning of T in Ti plasmid :
(1) (1) Thyroid
(2) (2) Temperature
(3) (3) Thymus
(4) (4) Tumor

174. 174. How many matching are correct
a. – a. Polymerase enzymes – Key tools

b. Ethidium bromide – gel electrophoresis
b. –
c. Hind II, EcoRI – Restriction
c. Hind II, EcoRI – exonuclease
d. Cla I, Hind III – pBR322 d. Cla I, Hind III – pBR322
(1) (2) (1) Three (2) Four
(3) (4) (3) Two (4) One
NLI / 44
175. 175. Green revolution succeded due to
(1) (1) Improved crop varieties
(2) (2) Better management practices
(3) (3) Use of agrochemicals
(4) (4) All of the above
-I: Statement I:
Antibiotics produced by microbes are regarded as one
of the most significant discoveries of the twentieth
century and have greatly contributed towards the welfare
of the human society.
Statins acts by competitively inhibiting the enzyme
responsible for synthesis of cholesterol.
below:
(1) I II
(2) I II
(a) (a) Rosie cow - Extinct animal

(b) Vaccine safety - Transgenic mice
(b)
(c) Gene Therapy - ADA deficiency
(c) ADA
(d) Gene therapy - Correction of gene
(d) defect
(1) 3 (2) 2 (1) 3 (2) 2
(3) 1 (4) 4 (3) 1 (4) 4
178. 178. Which one of the following is the incorrect match
(1) (1) Clinical trials - Downstream processing
(2) (2) Purification - Downstream processing
(3) (3) Translation - Downstream processing
(4) (4) Bioreactor - Agitator system

179. 179. Which one of the following is the correct match
(1) HGP – (1) HGP – Mega project

(2) HGP – Launched in the year
(2) HGP – 1990
1990
(3) DNA – (3) DNA fingerprinting – Alec Jeffreys
(4) (4) All
NLI / 45
180. 180. Which one of the following is the correct match :
(1) – (1) Autosomal dominant – Myotonic dystrophy
(2) – (2) Sex - linked recessive – Myotonic dystrophy
(3) – (3) Autosomal dominant – Thalassemia
(4) – (4) Sex - linked dominant – Cystic fibrosis

181. 181. Red green colour blindness in human beings is
governed by a sex-linked recessive gene. A nor-
mal woman whose father was colour blind mar-
ries a colour blind man. What proportion of their
: childs is expected to be colour blind:
(1) 0 % (2) 50 % (1) 0 % (2) 50 %
(3) 25 % (4) 100 % (3) 25 % (4) 100 %
182. 182. The principle of competitive exclusion was stated
by :
(1)
(1) Verhulst and Pearl
(2)
(2) C. Darwin
(3) (3) G. F. Gause
(4) (4) MacArthur
183. 183. In which of the following interactions both partners
are adversely affected :
(1)
(1) Parasitism
(2)
(2) Mutualism
(3) (3) Competition
(4) (4) Predation
184. 184. Amplification of gene of interest is done using
(1) (1) Gel electrophoresis
(2) (2) Chromatography

(3) (3) Polymerase chain reaction
(4) (4) Gene sequencing
-I: Statement I:
The genetic material should be stable enough not to
change with different stages of life cycle, age or with
changes in physiology of the organism.
Statement II :
- II :
Viruses having RNA genome and having shorter life span
RNA mutate and evolve faster.
below:
NLI / 46
-B PART-2 (SECTION-B)
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
15 15 choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15
10 10 question. In case if candiate attempts more than
10 question, first 10 attempted question will be
10 considered for marking.
a. – a. Mutualism – Mycorrhizae
b. – b. Mutualism – Lichen
c. Mutualism – Fig tree and wasp
c. –
d. Commensalism – Cuscuta and hedge
d. –
plant
(1) (2) (1) Four (2) Three
(3) (4) (3) One (4) Two
-I: Statement I:
A population growing in a habitat with limited resources
show initially a lag phase, followed by phases of
acceleration and deceleration and finally an asymptote,
when the population density reaches the carrying
capacity.
Any species growing exponentially under unlimited
resource conditions can reach enormous population
densities in short time.
below:
-I: Statement I:
The green revolution succeded in tripling the food supply
but yet it was not enough to feed the growing human
population.
Statement II :
- II :
Bt toxin gene has been cloned from the bacteria and
been expressed in plants to provide resistance to
insects without the need for insecticides, in effect
created a biopesticide.
below:
NLI / 47
-I: Statement I:
Traditional hybridisation procedures used in plant and
animal breeding, very often lead to inclusion and
multiplication of undesirable genes along with the
desired genes.
In a chromosomes there is specific DNA sequence
called the origin of replication, which is responsible for
initiating replication.
below:
(1) I II
(2) I II
190. 190. In the given below hormones how many are
secreted by placenta in human
HCG, HPL, Cortisol, Estrogens, Progestogens,
HCG, HPL,
Thyroxine, Relaxin, Prolactin
(1) 7
(1) 7
(2) 6
(2) 6
(3) 5 (3) 5
(4) 3 (4) 3
191. 191. Perisperm is
(1) (1) Remnant of nucellus in mature seed
(2) (2) Sporophytes
(3) (3) Diploid tissue
(4) (4) All of these
192. 192. Commonly used vectors for human genome

sequencing are:
(1) T - DNA (1) T - DNA

(2) BAC YAC (2) BAC and YAC
(3) (3) Expression Vectors
(4) T / A (4) T / A Cloning Vectors
193. DNA 193. Which of the following is not required for any of
the techniques of DNA fingerprinting available at
present :
(1)
(1) Polymerase chain reaction
(2)
(2) Zinc finger analysis
(3) (3) Restriction enzymes
(4) DNA - DNA (4) DNA - DNA hybridization
NLI / 48
Statement I:
-I:
It was george Gamow, physicist, who argued that since
there are only 4 bases and if they have to code for 20
amino acids the code should constitute a combination
of bases.
The presence of introns is reminiscent of antiquity, and
the process of splicing represents the dominance of
RNA RNA-world.
below:
(1) I II
(2) I II
195. 195. After a mutation at a genetic locus the character
of an organism changes due to the change in:
(1) (1) Protein structure
(2) DNA (2) DNA replication
(3) (3) protein synthesis pattern
(4) RNA (4) RNA transcription pattern

196. 20 196. In the genetic code dictionary, how many codons
are used to code for all the 20 amino acids
(1) 60 (1) 60
(2) 20 (2) 20
(3) 64 (3) 64
(4) 61 (4) 61
-I: Statement I:
Digestion with DNase did inhibit transformation,
DNase
suggesting that the DNA caused the transformation.
DNA
Statement II :
- II :
Prior to the work of Oswald avery, Colin macleod and
Maclyn McCarty (1933–44), the genetic material was
thought to be a protein.
below:
NLI / 49
198. RNA 198. Which one of the following is not component of
RNA :
(1)
(1) Lecithin
(2)
(2) Aniline
(3) (3) Thymine
(4) (4) All

Statement I:
-I:
By 1969, Herbert Boyer studies on a couple of restriction
enzymes of the E. coli bacterium with especially useful
properties.
Stanley cohen had been studying small ringlets of DNA
called plasmids and which float about freely in the
cytoplasm of certain bacterial cells and replicate
DNA independently from the coding strand of DNA.
below:
(1) I II
(2) I II
(3) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
200. (A) 200. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
(R) as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R)
(A) :
Assertion (A) :
DNA DNA In biotechnology same restriction enzyme are used for

cutting of both foreign DNA and vector DNA at specific
point.
(R) :
Reason (R) :
DNA
If same restriction enzyme are not used for cutting of
DNA
both foreign DNA and vector DNA at specific point then
the recombinant vector molecule can not be created.
correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (A) (R) (R), (A) (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) (R) (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) (R) (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) (A) (R) (R), (A) (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
NLI / 50

FST-39 (14-03-2024) (E+h) Paper

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FST : 39

DURATION : 180 Minutes DATE : 14-03-2024 MARKS : 720

• The important points to note:

Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _____________________________________________________________

NCERT - XI (346) pages NCERT - XII (285)

NEET-2024 80+ Questions

Physics & Chemistry Important Formule

Key Points of New Light Test Series :

For Today's Paper Discussion - Scan the QR code -

• Youtube Channel Link :

• Youtube Channel Name : New Light Prayaas

TOPIC : XII - FULL SYLLABUS (MODEL)

PART-1 (SECTION-A) PART-1 (SECTION-A)

35 Attempt All 35 Questions

1. . 1. As shown in figure, charges are placed in a

10kQq 14kQq 10kQq 14kQq

6kQq 2kQq 6kQq 2kQq

2. q1,q2, q3 a 2. Three point charges q 1,q2,q3 are placed at the

(4) (4) Cannot be calculated

5. 5. Two large parallel planes charge uniformly with

7. 2 F 3 F 7. Two capacitors of 2 F and 3 F are conected in

(4) (4) None of these

In compairision to prior situation:

(2) A B (2) both A and B will glow less brightly

(1) 3 V (2) 9 V (1) 3 V (2) 9 V

(3) 12 V (4) (3) 12 V (4) zero

(1)  (2)  (1)  (2) 

(3) (4) zero (3) (4) zero

14. AC 14. A current carrying wire AC is placed in uniform

(1) 3 (2) 4.2 (1) 3N (2) 4.2N

16. ) PQRS 16. A closed loop PQRS carrying a current is placed

respectively and are in the plane of the paper

(4) (F3  F1 )2  F22 (4) (F3  F1 )2  F22

(1) mAvA < mBvB (1) mAvA < mBvB

(1) (1) Charge

(2) (2) Magnetism

(3) (3) E.M.F.

(4) (4) Energy

21. 21. When a magnet is being moved towards a coil,

(1) (1) the number of turns of the coil

(2) (2) the motion of the magnet

(3) (3) the magnetic moment of the magnet

(4) (4) the resistance of the coil

22. 22. A copper ring having a cut such as not to form a

(1) g (2) g (1) g (2) less than g

(3) g (4) 0 (3) more than g (4) 0

(1) 120  (1) 120  inductive

(2) 120  (2) 120  capacitive

(3) 24  (3) 24  inductive

(4) 24  (4) 24  capacitive

24. R L. 24. An alternating voltage is connected in series with

(4) 300 (4) 300 volt

25. : 25. Incorrect statement are :

(c) A.C. and D.C. meters are based on heating effect

(d) A.C. meter reads rms value of current.

26. 26. Avalanche breakdown in a semiconductor diode

(1) (1) power is transmitted along the magnetic field.

(2) (2) power is transmitted along the electric field.

(3) power is equally transferred along the electric and

(4) power is transmitted in a direction perpendicular

(2) (2) Resistance

(3) (a) (b) (3) Both of these

(4) (4) None of these