ANUPAMA’S BIOLOGY CLASSES NEET MCQ TEST – 1 2024 MM = 480 Ph.

9711189465/66
Q1) Conversion of glucose to glucose -6-phosphate the first irreversible reaction of glycolysis, is catalyzed by (a)
phosphofructokinase (b) aldolase (c) hexokinase (d) enolase
Q2) Which enzyme helps in transfer of phosphate group from ATP to a carbohydrate? (a) phosphatase (b) ATPase (c)
phosphatase (c) catalase
Q3) The key product of glycolysis is (a) acetyl CoA (b) pyruvic acid (c) citric acid (d) PGA.
Q4) Glycolysis term has originated from Greek words (a) glycose and lysis (b) glycos and lysis (c) glyco and lysis (d)
glucose and lysis
Q5) Pyruvate enters (i) through special transport proteins. It undergoes (ii) to produce (iii) and NADH. The product combines with
(iv) containing coenzyme A to form (v). select the option that fills any 3 blanks in the above paragraph.
(a) (i) mitochondria (iii) CO2 (v) Acetyl CoA (b) (ii) reductive amination, (iv) iron (v) oxaloacetic acid (c) (i) Nucleus (ii)
oxidative decarboxylation (iii) citric acid (d) (ii) reductive amination (iii) O2 (iv) magnesium
Q6) Number of ATP produced in glycolysis during anaerobic and aerobic respiration respectively are (a) 2 and 3 (b) 6 and 8
(c) 2 and 8 (d) 8 and 10
Q7) In lactic acid fermentation the number of ATP formed by the oxidation of NADH is (a) eight (b) six (c) three (d) nil
Q8) During alcoholic fermentation by yeast two molecules of glucose produce (a) 2 molecule of ethanol + 2 molecules of CO 2
(b) 4 molecule of ethanol + 4 molecules of CO2 (c) 6 molecule of ethanol + 6 molecules of CO2 (d) 3 molecule of ethanol + 3
molecules of CO2
Q9) The energy-releasing metabolic process in which substrate is oxidized without an external electron acceptor is called (a)
glycolysis (b) fermentation (c) aerobic respiration (d) photorespiration
Q10) Which statement is wrong for Krebs’ cycle? (a) there is one point in the cycle where FAD + is reduced to FADH2 (b) during
conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic acid a molecule of GTP is synthesized (c) The cycle starts with condensation of acetyl
group (acetyl CoA) with pyruvic acid to yield citric acid (d) There are three points in the cycle where NAD + is reduced to NADH+.
Q11) During aerobic respiration acetyl CoA is synthesized in (a) cytosol (b) mitochondrial matrix (c) glyoxysomal matrix
(d) perichondrial space.
Q12) In TCA cycle substrate level phosphorylation takes place during the conversion of (a) oxaloacetic acid to citric acid (b)
succinyl CoA to succinic acid (c) succinic acid to fumaric acid (d) fumaric acid to malic acid
Q13) Pyruvic acid the key product of glycolysis can have many metabolic fates. Under aerobic condition it forms (a) lactic acid
(b) CO2 + H2O (c) acetyl CoA + CO2 (d) ethanol + CO2
Q14) In citric acid cycle decarboxylation occurs when (a) citric acid converts to α-ketoglutaric acid (b) succinic acid converts to
malic acid (c) malic acid converts to oxaloacetic acid (d) oxaloacetic acid converts to citric acid
Q15) Which of these statements is incorrect? (a) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial matrix. (b) glycolysis
occurs in cytosol (c) glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms. (d) oxidative
phosphorylation takes place in outer mitochondrial membrane.
Q16) What is the role of NAD+ in cellular respiration? (a) it functions as an enzyme. (b) it functions as an electron carrier. (c)
it is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis (d) it is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration.
Q17) The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis of oxidative phosphorylation proposes that adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is formed
because (a) a proton gradient forms across the inner mitochondrial membrane (b) there is a change in the permeability of the
inner mitochondrial membrane towards adenosine diphosphate (ADP) (c) high energy bonds are formed in mitochondrial
proteins (d) ADP is pumped out of the matrix into the intermembrane space.
Q18) The three boxes in this diagram represent the three major biosynthetic pathways
in aerobic respiration arrows represent net reactants or products. Arrows numbered
4,8 and 12 can all be (a) H2O (b) FAD+ or FADH2 (c) NADH (d) ATP
Q19) In mitochondrial electron transport system, for every two pairs of electrons that
pass from NADH molecules through a sequential series of cytochrome enzymes to
molecular oxygen generate (a) 3 ATP (b) 4 ATP (b) 6 ATP (d) 2ATP
Q20) Out of 38 molecules of ATP produced by aerobic respiration of glucose, the break up of ATP production in glycolysis (P),
pyruvate to acetyl-CoA formation (Q) and krebs’ cycle (R) is as follows: (a) P = 2 , Q = 6, R = 30 (b) P = 8, Q = 6, R = 24 (c) P =
8, Q = 10, R = 20 (d) P = 2, Q = 12, R = 24 Q
Q21) Here is a diagram of human skull A, B, C, D represent? (a) A-Zygomatic bone, B-
Temporal bone, C-Occiptial bone D-Maxilla (b) M-Ethmoid bone, J-Sphenoid bone, C-
Occiptial bone, D-Premaxilla (c) F-Zygomatic bone, H-pariteal bone, G-Occiptial bone D-
Maxilla. (d) K-Zygomatic bone, C-Temporal bone , F-Hyode, D-premaxilla
Q22) in given diagram A, B, and C represents: (a) A-Ilium, B-Ischium, C-Fibula (b) A-Coxal,
bone, B-pubis, C-Ischium (c) A-Coxal bone, B-pubis, C-Tibia (d) A-Pubis, B-Coxal bone, C-Tibia
Q23) Identify the given diagram and part
represents by A (a) Actin filament-Tropanine
(b) myosin filament-head (c) Actin filament-F
actin (d) Actin filament -Tropomyocin

Q24) Diagrammatic representation of a sarcomere, identify the

part represent by A, B and C (a) A-Z-Line, B-H-zone, C-
sarcomere (b) A-H-zone, B-M-Line, C-Z-line (c) A-H-zone, B-
sarcamere, C-Z-line (d) A-Z-line, B-Sarcomere, C-I-Band
Q25) Given diagram represent ________ and A, B, C and are (a)
Thorasic cavity, A-ribs, B-vertebral column, C-Sternum (b) Rib
cage, A-Ribs, B-sternum, C-vertebral column (c) Rib cage, A-
Vertebral column, B-Ribs, C-sternum (d) all are correct
Q26) In given diagram of hand A, B, and C represents: (a) A-scapula,
B-Clavicle C-radius (b) A-Clavicle, B-scapula, C-Ulna (c) A-pectoral
girdle, B-scapula, C-Radius (d) A-Clavicle, B-scapula, C-radius
Q27) Given diagram shows bone of the right pelvic girdle and lower limb bones
in frontal view. Identify 1 and 2 respectively (a) Tibia and tarsals (b) fibula and
tibia (c) tibia and fibula (d) tarsals and femur

Q28) The given figure represents

myosin monomer (meromyosin) identify 1, 2, 3 and choose
correct options: (a) 1-ATP binding sites, 2-actin binding site, 3-
cross arm (b) 1-Actin binding site, 2-cross arm, 3-actin binding
sites (c) 1-Actin binding sites, 2-ATP binding sites, 3-cross arm
(d) 1-cross arm, 2-actin binding site, 3-ATP binding sites
Q29) Go through the given diagram which describing cross bridge formation
rotation of head and breaking of cross bridge stage during muscle contraction-
now identify 1 to 4 (a) 1-cross bridge formation, 2-cross bridge, 3-breaking of
cross bridge, 4-sliding (rotation) (b) 1-cross bridge, 2-cross bridge formation,
3-sliding/ rotation, 4-breaking of cross bridge (c) 1-cross bridge, 2-cross bridge
formation, 3-breaking of cross bridge, 4-sliding/rotation (d) 1-cross bridge
formation, 2-cross bridge, 3-sliding/ rotation, 4-breaking of cross bridge
Q30) The given diagram representing 3
different condition of sliding-filament
theory of muscle contraction (movement of the thin filaments and the relative size of
the I-band and H-zones). Identify these conditions: (a) 1-Contracting, 2-relaxed, 3-
maximally contracted (b) 1-relaxed, 2-contracting, 3-maximally contracted (c) 1-
maximally contracted, 2-contracting, 3-relaxed (d) 1-relaxed, 2-maximally contracted,
3-contracting
Q31) Diarammatic cross sectional view of a muscle
showing muscle bundles and muscle fibres, identify 1 to
3 (a) 1-Muscle bundles, 2-muscle fibre, 3-sarcolema
(b) 1-Facicle, 2-muscle fibre, 3-sarcolema (c) 1-Fascicle,
2 -Muscle cell, 3-sarcolema (d) all of the above
Q32) Fill in the blanks: Actin filaments are thinner as
compared to (i) ______ filaments, in the centre of each I-band in an elastic fibre called (ii) ______
line bisects it and the thick filaments of A-band held together in the middle of this ban by a thin
fibrous membrane called (iii) _____ and the A and I-band are arranged alternately throughout the length of (iv) _______
(a) (i) myosin (ii) Mline (iii) Z-line (iv) Myofibril (b) (i) Z-line (ii) Mysoin (iii) M-line (iv) myofibril (c) (i) myosin (ii) Z-line (iii)
M-line (iv) myofibril (d) (i) myosin (ii) myofibril (iii) Z-line (iv) M-line
Q33) Myoglobin is present in (a) red muscle fibres (b) white muscle fibres (c) cardiac muscle fibres (d) smooth muscles
Q34) The total number of bones in a hindlimb of man is (a) 14 (b) 20 (c) 24 (d) 30
Q35) The joint between atlas and axis is ball and socket joint (b) pivot joint (c) saddle joint (d) hinge joint
Q36) The largest bone in our body is (a) humerus (b) femur (c) radius (d) ulna
Q37) Acetabulum is present in (a) inner ear (b) pectoral girdle (c) middle ear (d) pelvic girdle
Q38) The number of vertebrae in an adult human is (a) 24 (b) 26 (c) 33 (d) 36
Q39) The skull bones in human skeleton are joined by (a) fibrous joints (b) cartilaginous joint (c) synovial joints (d) none
of these
Q40) Bones of the pelvic girdle form a cavity into which the head of femur articulates the
bones are (a) ilium, ischium, pubis (b) ilium and ischium (c) ischium and pubis (d0
ilium and pubis
Q41) Identify the amino acids given below and select the correct option
(i) (ii) (iii)
(a) Glycine Serine Alanine
(b) Alanine glycine Serine
© Alanine serine glycine
(d) serine Alanine glycine
Q42) Which of the following is the correct match? Acidic amino acid Basic amino acid Neutral amino acid
Q43) Which of the following are alkaloipds? (a) Glutamic acid Lysine Valine
(a) cellulose (b) codeine (c) morphine (d) both (b) (b) Lysine Valine Glutamic acid
and (c) (c) Glutamic acid Valine Lysine
Q44) Select the incorrect match from the following (d) Lysine Glutamic acid Valine
(a) Terpenoids – monoterpenes (b) lectins – concanavalin A (c) Toxins – anthocyanins (d) drugs – vinblastine
Q45) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching
(a) A-Primary structure, B-secondary structure (b) A- secondary structure, B-Primary structure (c)
A- secondary structure, B-Tertiary structure (d) A-Tertiary structure, B-Quaternary structure
Q46) What does A represent in the given diagram of a
nucleotide?
(a) Glycosidic bond (b) phosphate bond (c) ester bond
(d) lonic bond
Q47) Primary structure of proteins is due to the presence of
(a) peptide bonds (b) disulphide (S-S) linkages (c)
hydrogen bond (d) ionic bonds
Q48) Which of the two groups of the given formula is involved in peptide bond formation
between different amino acids? (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
Q49) Select the option that correctly identifies the chemical bonds present in the given
biomolecules. Polysaccharides – A, proteins – B, fats – C, water – D
A B C D
(a) Ester peptide glycosidic Hydrogen
(b) glycosidic peptide ester hydrogen
(c) Glycosidic peptide hydrogen ester
(d) Hydrogen ester peptide glycosidic
Q50) Adult human haemologobin consists of
(a) 2 subunits (α,α) (b) 2 subunits (β,β) (c) 4 subunits (2α, 2β) (d) 3 subunits (2α, 1β).
Q51) Keratin present in hair shows secondary structure knows as
(a) parallel β-sheet (b) antiparallel β- sheet (c) α-helix (d) none of these
Q52) Which of the following is a heteropolymer?
(a) cellulose (b) peptidoglycan (c) starch (d) glycogen
Q53) Which of the following statement is not correct regarding chitin?
(a) it is a storage polysaccharide (b) it is a homopolysaccharide (c) it is a constituent of arthropod exoskeleton and fungal cell
wall (d) it is the second most abundant carbohydrate on earth
Q54) _________ is the most abundant protein in animal world and ___________ is the most abundant protein in the whole
biosphere (a) collagen, RuBisCO (b) collagen, kertain (c) keratin RuBisCO (d) keratin, collagen
Q55) Which of the following secondary metabolites are used as drugs?
(a) Abrin and ricin (b) viblastin and curcumin (c) anthocyanins (d) gums and cellulose
Q56) When we homogenise any tissue in an acid the acid the acid (a) cytoplasm (b) cell membrane (c) nucleus (d)
mitochondria
Q57) The Km value of an enzyme is the substrate concentration at (a) Vmax (b) 1/2 Vmax (c) 1/4 Vmax (d) 3/4 Vmax
Q58) A compound formed of a sugar and a nitrogen base is called a (a) nucleotide (b) nucleic (c) nucleoside (d) disaccharide
Q59) Which among the following is a homopolysaccharide? (a) maltose (b) chitin (c) sucrose (d) cellulose
Q60) An example of competitive inhibition of enzymes is the inhibition of (a) succinic dehydrogenase by malonate (b)
cytochrome oxidase by cyanide (c) hexokinase by glucose b-phosphate (d) carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide
Q61) Match the columns
column – I Column – II
(a) chlorophyll a (i) yellow
(b) chlorophyll b (ii) yellow to yellow-orange
(c) xanthophylls (iii) bright or blue green
(d) carotenoids (iv) yellow green
(a) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i) (b) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i) (c) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii) (d) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
 Q62) Given diagram represents: (a) priestley experiment on respiration (b)
priestley experiment on photosynthesis (c) calvin- benson experiment (d) von Nill
experiment
Q63) Given graph represent ______ and given
number 1, 2, 3 are. (a) Absorption of light by
chloroplast pigment – chlorophyll ‘a’ carotenoid,
chlorophyll ‘b’ (b) absorbed light – red, blue,
green (c) rate of photosynthesis – O2, CO2, N2
(d) Absorption of light by chloroplast pigment-
chlorophyll ‘b’ carotenoid, chlorophyll ‘a’
Q64) Match the columns
Column – I Column – II
(a) C3 (i) mitochondria
(b) C4 (ii) OAA
(c) photorespiration (iii) PGA
(d) respiration (iv) peroxisome
(a) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv) (b) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii) (c) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i) (d) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii)
Q65) This graph represents _________ and ‘a’a represents: (a) Effect of O2 on rate of photosynthesis
– rate of photosynthesis (b) effect of light intensity on photosynthesis – rate of photosynthesis
(c) effect of light intensity on respiration – rate of photosynthesis (d) all are correct
Q66) Study the pathway ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis
given below in which of the following options correct words for
all the four blanks A, B, C and D are indicated? (a) A-F1, B-
Thylakoid membrane, C-Photosystem (I), D-photosystem (II)
(b) A-F0, B-Thylakoid membrane, C- Photosystem (I), D-photosystem (II) (c) A-F1, B-
Thylakoid membrane, C-Photosystem (II), D-photosystem (I) (d) A-F0, B-Thylakoid
membrane, C- Photosystem (II), D-photosystem (I)
Q67) Which of the following graphs correctly
gives the relationship between the rate of photosynthesis and light intensity?
Q68) Match the columns:
Column – I Column – II
(a) RUBP (i) seven carbon containing
(b) PGA (ii) first CO2 acceptor in C3
(c) OOA (iii) first forming compound in C3
(d) sedoheptulose (iv) first forming compound in C4
(a) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i) (b) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv) (c) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(d) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
Q69) See the diagram and identify the
indicated points: (a) 1-rate of respiration. 2-absorption, 3-chlorophyll a, 4-
carotenoids, 5-chlorophyll b (b) 1-rate of photosynthesis, 2-absorption, 3-chlorophyll
a, 4- carotenoids 5-chlorophyll b (c) 1-Rte of photosynthesis, 2-Absorption, 3-
chlorophyll b, 3-chlorophyll b, 4-carotenoids 5-Chlorophyll a (d) 1-rate of
photosynthesis, 2-Absorption -3chlorophyll a, 4-chlorophyll
Q70) See the diagram and identify the indicated
points:
(a) 1- mesophyll cell, 2-bundle sheath, 3-C3 acid, 4-C4
acid (b) 1-mesophyll cell, 2-bundle sheath, 3-C4
acid, 4-C3 acid (c) 1-bundle sheath, 2-mesophyll cell, 3-C3 acid, 4-C4 acid (d) 1-C4 acid, 2-
bundle sheath, 3-C3 acid, 4-mesophyll cell
Q71) Which one is involved in Z-scheme of photosynthesis? (a) PS I (b) PS II (c) e-
carriers (d) All of these
Q72) For NADPH + H+ formation (a) only PS I is required (b) only PS II required (c) both
PS I and PS II are required (d) only stroma is required.
Q73) Which of the following is/are formed during Z-scheme of photophosphorylation? (a) ATP (b) NADPH (c) O2 (d) all of
these
Q74) During Z scheme, electrons excited by absorption of light in PS I are transferred to the primary acceptors and therefore
must be replaced. The replacements come directly from (a) NADP (b) ATP (c) PS II (d) water
Q75) Refer to the given reaction 2H2 → 4H+ + O2 + 4e- where does this reaction take place in the chloroplasts of plants? (a) outer
surface of thylakoid membrane (b) inner surface of thylakoid membrane (c) in the matrix (stroma) (d) intermembrane
space
Q76) What does the given diagram represent with respect to the various photosynthetic
processes? (a) C2 cycle (b) cyclic photophosphorylation (c) non-cyclic
photophosphorylation (d) Z-Scheme of phosphorylation
Q77) PS II is located on (a) inner side of thylakoid membrane (b) outer side of thylakoid
membrane (c) lumen of thylakoid membrane (d) stroma lamellae.
Q78) Study the given flow chart of cyclic
photophosphorylation and select the correct
answer for A, B and C
A B C
(a) PS I e- acceptor P680
(b) PS I e- acceptor P700
(c) PS II Cytochrome P700
(d) PS II Cytochrome P680
Q79) In cyclic photophosphorylation, the electron released by reaction centre (P700) is
ultimately accepted by (a) ferredoxin (b) NADP+ (c) reaction centre (P700) (d) plastocyanin
Q80) Cytochrome b6 and cytochrome f occur in (a) mitochondria (b) chloroplast (c) lysosome (d) vacuole
Q81) Match the items given in column I with those in column II and select the correct option given below
A B C
(a) (iii) (ii) (i)
(b) (i) (ii) (iii)
(c) (i) (iii) (ii)
(d) (ii) (iii) (i)
Q82) What is diapedesis? (a) A kind of amoeboid movement
(b) the process of filtration of urea in kidney (c) A type of
locomotion found in Hydra (d) migration of WBCs into the
tissue spaces from blood capillaries
Q83) Adult human RBCs are enucleate. Which of the following statement(s) is/are most appropriate explanation for this feature?
(1) they do not need to reproduce. (2) they are somatic cells. (3) they do not metabolise. (4) All their internal space is
available for oxygen transport. (a) only (1) (b) (1), (3) and (4) (c) (2) and (3) (d) only (4)
Q84) Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number can cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss of blood from the
body. (a) Erythrocytes (b) leucocytes (c) neutrophils (d) thrombocytes
Q85) Serum differs from blood in (a) lacking globulins (b) lacking albumins (c) lacking clotting factors (d) lacking
antibodies.
Q86) Select the incorrect statement out of the following. (a) neutrophils constitute the majority of leucocytes. (b) Eosinophils
resist infection. (c) Basophils secrete histamine and serotonin. (d) RBCs in mammals are enucleated and biconvex in shape.
Q87) The figure. Show a human blood cell. Identify it and give its characteristics.
Blood cell Characteristics
(a) Basophil Secretes serotonin, inflammatory response
(b) B-lymphocyte Forms about 20% of blood cells involved in immune response
(c) Neutrophil Most abundant blood cells, phagocytic
(d) Monocyte Life span of 3 days, produces antibodies
Q88) Which of these are necessary for initiation of blood clotting process? (a) prothrombinase
and thrombin (b) tissue factor, Hageman factor and Ca 2+ (c) prothrombinase and K+ (d) prothrombinase, tissue factor
and Ca 2+

Q89) Select correct combination of statements for lymph. (i) it helps to maintain fluid balance of the body. (ii) it is contained in
lymphatic vessels and lymphatic organs in mammals. (iii) it is derived from tissue fluid. (iv) it contains less antibodies than
plasma. (v) it flows in both directions. (vi) it helps to conserve proteins and remove bacteria
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v) (b) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (vi) (c) (i), (iv), (v) and (vi) (d) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)
Q90) Match the items given in column I with those in column II and select
the correct option given below
A B C
(a) (iii) (i) (ii)
(b) (i) (iii) (ii)
(c) (i) (ii) (iii)
(d) (ii) (i) (iii)
Q91) Match the column I and column II and select the appropriate option
with the given code.
(a) P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(i), S-(ii)
(b) P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(iii), S-(i)
(c) P-(ii), Q-(i), R-(iv), S-(iii)
(d) P-(i), Q-(ii), R-(iii), S-(iv)
Q92) Bundle of his in heart is/are (a) nervous tissue supplied to ventricles (b) muscular tissue supplied to ventricles (c)
nerves regulating opening and closing of valves (d) muscular tissue supplied to atria.
Q93) If a person is undergoing artificial pacemaker transplant then at which of the following structures the transplantation
occurs? (a) SA node (b) AV node (c) SA bundles (d) right ventricle
Q94) What would the heart rate of a person if the cardiac output is 5 L, blood volume in the ventricles at the end of diastole is
100 mL and at the end of ventricular systole is 50 mL? (a) 125 beats per minute (b) 50 beats per minute (c) 75 beats per
minute (d) 100 beats per minute
Q95) Doctors use stethoscope to hear the sound produced during each cardiac cycle. The second sound is heard when (a) AV
node receives signal from SA node (b) AV valves open up (c) ventricular walls vibrate due to gushing in of blood from atria
(d) semilunar valves close down after the blood flows into vessels from ventricles.
Q96) Choose the correct statement. (a) stroke volume multiplied by cardiac output gives the heart rate (b) heart rate
multiplied by cardiac output gives the stroke volume. (c) cardiac output divided by heart rate gives the stroke volume. (d)
stroke volume divided by heart rate gives the cardiac output.
Q97) What is the stroke volume of an adult human heart? (a) 50 mL (b) 70 mL (c) 90 mL (d) 100 mL
Q98) What is cardiac output? (a) The total volume of blood pumped by right auricle per minute (b) the total volume of blood
pumped by left ventricle per minute. (c) the total volume of blood pumped by left auricle per minute. (d) none of the above
Q99) The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from (a) stomach (b) kidneys (c) intestine (d) heart
Q100) In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry largest amount of urea? (a) Hepatic vein (b) hepatic portal vein
(c) renal vein (d) dorsal aorta
Q101) In a somatic cell cycle (a) DNA replication takes place in S-Phase (b) G2 phase follows mitotic phase (c) A short
interphase is followed by a long mitotic phase (d) In G1 phase the DNA content is double the amount of DNA in the mother cell
Q102) During cell division the spindle fibres attach to _________ of the chromosomes (a) chromatids (b) kinetochores (c)
centromere (d) satellites
Q103) How many mitotic division are involved in the formation of 128 cells from a single cell? (a) 7 (b) 14 (c) 28 (d) 64
Q104) In meiosis the chromosome replicate during (a) prophase I (b) interphase (c) prophase II (d) interkinesis
Q105) The pairing of homologous chromosomes that occurs during zygotene is called (a) synapse (b) crossing over (c)
synapsis (d) terminalisation
Q106) The time gap between meiosis and meiosis II, is (a) G1 phase (b) interphase (c) G0 phase (d) interkinesis
Q107) A bivalent consists of (a) four chromatids and four centromeres (b) four chromatids and two centromeres (c) two
chromatids and two centromeres (d) two chromatids and one centromeres
Q108) In meiosis the centromeres divide during (a) anaphase I (b) anaphase II (c) telophase I (d) telophase II
Q109) The post mitotic phase in which active synthesis of RNA and proteins takes place is (a) G0 phase (b) G1 phase (c) G2
phase (d) S-phase
Q110) During anaphase-I meiosis (a) homologous chromosomes separate (b) non-homologous chromosomes (c) sister
chromatids separate (d) non-sister chromatids separate
Q111) Meiosis involves (a) two nuclear and two cell divisions. (b) two nuclear and two cell divisions. (c) one nuclear and two
cell divisions (d) one nuclear and four cell division
Q112) Which of the following does not take place in G1 Phase? (a) DNA synthesis (b) RNA synthesis (c) protein synthesis (d)
both (b) and (c)
Q112) Identify the structures indicated by labels (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) and select the
correct option
(a) (i)-chromatid, (ii)-centriole, (iii)- centromere, (iv)- chromosomes (b) (i)
chromosome, (ii)-centriole, (iii)-centromere, (iv)-chromatid (c) (i)-chromatid, (ii)-
centromere, (iii)-centriole, (iv)-chromosome (d) (i)-chromosome, (ii) centromere,
(iii)-centriole, (iv)-chromatid
Q114) The given graph shows the change in
DNA content during various phases (A to D) in a typical mitotic cell cycle. identify the
phases and select the correct option
A B C D
(a) G2 G1 S M
(b) G2 S G1 M
(c) G1 S G2 M
(d) M G1 S G2
Q115) If a tissue at a given time has 1024 cells how many cycles of mitosis had the original parental single cell undergone? (a)
512 (b) 10 (c) 1024 (d) 256
Q116) The process of crossing over is assisted by which of the following enzymes? (a) endonuclease (b) polymerase (c) ligase
(d) both (a) and (c)
Q117) At which stage the homologous chromosomes separate due to repulsion, but are yet held by chiasmata? (a) zygotene
(b) pachytene (c) diplotene (d) diakinesis
Q118) Diplotene stage of prophase –I is characterized by
(a) dissolution of synaptonemal complex (b) separation of synapsed homologous chromosomes except at the site of crossovers
(c) formation of X-shaped structures called chiasmata (d) all of these
Direction: refer to the given figures and answer Question no 19 to 20
Q119) Identify the given stage of mitosis and select the correct option
A B C D
(a) Prophase metaphase telophase Anaphase
(b) metaphase anaphase prophase telophase
(c) Anaphase metaphase prophase telophase
(d) prophase metaphase anaphase telophase
Q120) Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the given
mitotic stages? (a) D → C → B → A (b) C → B → D → A (c) B → A → C
→ D (d) C → B → A → D

Q119) Identify the given stage of mitosis and select the correct option
A B C D
(a) Prophase metaphase telophase Anaphase
(b) metaphase anaphase prophase telophase
(c) Anaphase metaphase prophase telophase
(d) prophase metaphase anaphase telophase
Q120) Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the given
mitotic stages? (a) D → C → B → A (b) C → B → D → A (c) B → A → C
→ D (d) C → B → A → D

Q119) Identify the given stage of mitosis and select the correct option
A B C D
(a) Prophase metaphase telophase Anaphase
(b) metaphase anaphase prophase telophase
(c) Anaphase metaphase prophase telophase
(d) prophase metaphase anaphase telophase
Q120) Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the given
mitotic stages? (a) D → C → B → A (b) C → B → D → A (c) B → A → C
→ D (d) C → B → A → D

Q119) Identify the given stage of mitosis and select the correct option
A B C D
(a) Prophase metaphase telophase Anaphase
(b) metaphase anaphase prophase telophase
(c) Anaphase metaphase prophase telophase
(d) prophase metaphase anaphase telophase
Q120) Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the given
mitotic stages? (a) D → C → B → A (b) C → B → D → A (c) B → A → C
→ D (d) C → B → A → D

Q119) Identify the given stage of mitosis and select the correct option
A B C D
(a) Prophase metaphase telophase Anaphase
(b) metaphase anaphase prophase telophase
(c) Anaphase metaphase prophase telophase
(d) prophase metaphase anaphase telophase
Q120) Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the given
mitotic stages? (a) D → C → B → A (b) C → B → D → A (c) B → A → C
→ D (d) C → B → A → D

Q119) Identify the given stage of mitosis and select the correct option
A B C D
(a) Prophase metaphase telophase Anaphase
(b) metaphase anaphase prophase telophase
(c) Anaphase metaphase prophase telophase
(d) prophase metaphase anaphase telophase
Q120) Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the given
mitotic stages? (a) D → C → B → A (b) C → B → D → A (c) B → A → C
→ D (d) C → B → A → D